MC-130J P Qual MQF 7 Feb 24
1. During the EXTERIOR INSPECTION checklist, enter/exit the nose wheel area from the ____________side only. Do not enter/exit from the _________ side of the nose wheel due to the pterm-100ossible hazard of venting liquid oxygen. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2A‐9 Chap: 2A Para: Warning A. front, back B. left, right C. right, left D. back, front
B
102. Windshear hazard is processed and displayed for up to ______ of range coverage. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 18B‐42 Chap: 18B A. 3 NM B. 5 NM C. 10 NM D. 20 NM
B
103. Weather (WX) Mode of the LPCR: Excessive precipitation (>50 mm/hr) is depicted as _______ on the LPCR display when WX mode is selected. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 18B‐40 Chap: 18B A. red B. magenta C. black D. blue
B
104. Turbulence is depicted as __________ in the weather radar mode. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 18B‐41 Chap: 18B A. red B. white C. yellow D. cyan
B
107. A DRY runway condition (ICAO Good) corresponds to a RCR of _________. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1‐1 Pg: 3‐8 Chap: 3 A. 25 B. 23 C. 12 D. 05
B
113. One of the conditions that determines the air minimum control speed is the number ___ engine failed with the propeller auto‐feathered. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1‐1 Chap 3 Pg 3‐21 A. 2 B. 1 C. 4 D. 3
B
116. For normal operations, planning a takeoff and climb‐out over an obstacle should be done on the basis of _________ performance. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1‐1 Pg: 3‐31 Chap: 3 Para: Note A. 2‐engine B. 3‐engine C. 4‐engine D. ATC required climb gradients
B
119. According to TO 1C‐130J‐1‐1, basic assumptions for the landing distance charts include: a ______ allowance for distance traveled during transition from touchdown to taxi attitude, and _________ braking (brakes at ambient temperature) and power selection achieved upon reaching taxi attitude. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1‐1 Pg: 9‐4 Chap: 9 A. 3‐second; slight pressure B. 1‐second; maximum anti‐skid C. 1‐second; slight pressure D. 3‐second; maximum anti‐skid
B
120. Critical fuel decisions ___________ on the information provided by the CNI‐SP calculations alone. Performance manual charts should be cross‐checked before proceeding on a fuel critical course of action. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1‐4 Pg: 7‐33 Chap: 7 Para: Caution A. should be predicted B. should not be predicted C. should be made D. must be made
B
127. Except for takeoff and landing, on overwater flights LPUs will be sized and available at the crewmember's station and worn whenever below _________ over water. Ref: AFMAN 11‐2MC‐130JV3 6 Para: 5.21.3 A. 1,500 feet B. 2,000 feet C. 500 feet D. 1,000 feet
B
129. The aircraft engine fire extinguisher system fulfills the minimum requirements for fire protection during engine start. However, only ____ takeoffs and landings may be made within ___ consecutive days at a given airfield if the Aircraft Rescue Fire Fighting requirements outlined in AFPAM 32-2004 are not met. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3 Chap 6 Para 6.14.1 A. 7; 14 B. 4; 7 C. 4; 14 D. 7; 7
B
133. Initiate simulated engine‐out go‐around at not lower than _________. Initiate simulated engine‐out missed approach no lower than the minimum altitude for the approach. Ref: AFMAN 11‐2MC‐130JV3 Para: 9.5.5. A. 100 feet AGL B. 200 feet AGL C. 300 feet AGL D. circling minimums
B
135. The minimum runway length for 50% touch and go landings is ______ Feet. Ref: AFMAN 11‐2MC‐130JV3 Table:6.8. A. 6,000 B. 5,000 C. 7,000 D. 4,200
B
137. File an alternate airfield when weather forecasts indicate, from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the destination airfield, including TEMPO conditions, are less than ______. Ref: AFMAN 11‐202, Vol 3 Para: 4.16 A. 3000 / 3 SM B. 2000 / 3 SM C. 3000 / 3 NM D. 1500 / 3 NM
B
143. IFR Climb Performance: Ensure the aircraft can meet or exceed the standard IFR departure climb gradient of ____ feet per nautical mile or the published climb gradient, whichever is higher, with all engines operating to the enroute structure or an altitude at or above the minimum IFR altitude (MIA) within the enroute structure. Ref: AFMAN 11‐202, Vol 3Para: 5.8 A. 152'/NM B. 200'/NM C. 250'/NM D. 48'/NM
B
144. The standard ICAO/NATO IFR DER crossing restriction is ______ Ref: AFMAN 11‐202, Vol 3 Table: 5.1 A. 0 feet B. 16 feet C. 35 feet D. 48 feet
B
146. Do not descend below localizer minimums if the aircraft is more than _____ or ______ the glideslope. Ref: AFMAN 11‐202, Vol 3 Para: 16.8.9 A. full scale below or half scale above B. half scale below or full scale above C. one half dot below or 2 dots above D. one half dot below or 1 dot above
B
153. An alternate is required when the worst weather at destination, to include TEMPO conditions, at the ETA +/‐ 1 hour is less than a ceiling and visibility of ______. Ref: AFMAN 11‐202, Vol 3 Para: 4.16.2.1 A. 3000 / 3 SM B. 2000 / 3 SM C. 3000 / 3 NM D. 1500 / 3 NM
B
155. The minimum turn altitude after takeoff is ______ feet above the Departure End of the Runway (DER) elevation, unless required by a published procedure or ATC. Ref: AFMAN 11‐202V3, Para 5.8.1 A. 300 B. 400 C. 500 D. 600
B
106. Normal bleed includes pressurization, air conditioning packs, and cargo compartment underfloor heating. All bleed includes the above plus ___________________. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1‐1 Pg: 2‐1 Chap: 2 A. engine, wing, and empennage ice protection B. propeller ice protection C. additional bleed air for super pressurizing D. flight deck under compartment heating
A
11. Turning with the brakes locked on one side is prohibited. While turning the airplane, avoid braking to a stop since damage may result. If use of the above is required during a turn: Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 1‐9 Chap: 1 A. record it in the airplane forms B. turn and brake the aircraft in the opposite direction C. taxi the airplane 6 ft forward to align the gear D. all of the above should be performed
A
111. If critical field length is longer than the runway available, for normal operation, the takeoff gross weight should be _________ until ___________ is equal to or less than ______________. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1‐1 Pg: 3‐3 Chap: 3 Para: Note A. reduced; critical field length; runway available B. increased; corrected runway available; runway available C. increased; runway available; critical field length D. maintained; runway available; runway available
A
115. Two‐Engine Inoperative Air Minimum Control Speed: Directional control is most critical with the No. __ and No. __ engines inoperative. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1‐1 Pg: 3‐23 Chap: 3 A. 1; 2 B. 1; 4 C. 2; 3 D. 3; 4
A
118. Service ceiling is the altitude at which the maximum rate of climb at maximum continuous power and best climb speed is _________ fpm. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1‐1 Pg: 4‐2 Chap: 4 A. 100 B. 200 C. 300 D. 500
A
12. Maximum airspeed with inoperative windscreen anti‐ice protection below 10,000 ft MSL is: Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg:2D‐21 Chap: 3 A. 187 KIAS B. 168 KIAS C. 220 KIAS D. 250 KIAS
A
121. Performance data (time and fuel estimates) may disappear from the PERF INIT and LEGS pages if a delay of more than approximately _________ occurs between flight plan activation and takeoff. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1‐4 Pg: 7‐33 Chap: 7 Para: Note A. 45 minutes B. 3 hours C. 2 hours D. 15 minutes
A
122. Crew members occupying the Pilot (P) and CP positions will have seat belts fastened from engine start through shutdown. However, there are exceptions to this rule, for example, when a pilot must meet physiological needs. Ref: AFMAN 11‐2MC‐130JV3 Para: 6.7 A. True B. False
A
124. For takeoff and landing operations, the minimum taxiway width allowed is ______ feet. Ref: AFMAN 11‐2MC‐130JV3 Chap 6 Para 6.19 A. 30 B. 40 C. 45 D. 60
A
132. Touch-and-Go landings are authorized when the crosswind component is within the ________ zone and weather ceiling and visibility are equal to or better than ___________. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3 Chap 9 Para 9.6.2 A. recommended; 300 feet and 3/4 -mile B. caution; 200 feet and 1/2 mile C. recommended; 200 feet and 1/2 mile D. caution; 300 feet and 3/4-mile
A
136. Aircrew members will not fly if any alcohol is consumed within ___ hours prior to takeoff (or assuming aircraft control for UAS) or if impaired by alcohol or any other intoxicating substance, to include the effects or after‐effects. Ref: AFMAN 11‐202, Vol 3 Para: 2.4.2.2 A. 12 B. 10 C. 8 D. 16
A
138. The FDP begins when an aircrew member first reports for official duty and ends at final engine shutdown after the final flight of the completed mission. Ref: AFMAN 11‐202, Vol 3 Para: 3.2.1 A. True B. False
A
139. Crew rest is compulsory for aircrew members prior to performing any duties involving aircraft operations and is a minimum of 12 non‐duty hours before the flight duty period (FDP) begins. Ref: AFMAN 11‐202, Vol 3 Para: 3.1 A. True B. False
A
141. In order to reduce the likelihood of an engine surge, aircrew should place the ______________. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Chap 2B Pg 2B-12 A. ENG anti-ice switch to OFF at or above FL210 B. ENG anti-ice switch to ON at or above FL210 C. WING/EMP anti-ice switch to OFF at or above FL210 D. WING/EMP anti-ice switch to ON at or above FL210
A
145. The departure climb gradient begins 0 feet above the DER elevation under current US TERPS criteria; however, some procedures under the older U.S. TERPS criteria still have an unpublished DER crossing restriction of 35 feet. Ref: AFMAN 11‐202, Vol 3 Para 5.10.2 A. True B. False
A
150. Recovery fuel should be set in the CNI‐MU on the PERF INIT WEIGHT page under FIXED. Ref: AFMAN 11‐2MC‐130J V3, Table 12.1 A. True B. False
A
151. The PIC will prohibit the use of any PED suspected of creating interference with systems on the aircraft. MAJCOMs will authorize PEDs used to facilitate mission execution. Ref: AFMAN 11‐202, Vol 3 Para 3.16 A. True B. False
A
152. Do not fly within 72 hours of donating blood, plasma, or bone marrow. Ref: AFMAN 11‐202, Vol 3 Para: 2.4.2.5 A. True B. False
A
157. Full flight instrumentation for a CAT II ILS includes an operational HUD in the PF position, a HUD or PFD at the Pilot Monitoring (PM) position, and meeting the flight manual CAT II ILS criteria. Ref: AFMAN 11‐2MC‐130JV3, Para: 5.27.1.2 A. True B. False
A
159. The HUD alone is not sufficient for NDB approaches. A head‐down display, which depicts a bearing pointer tuned to the NDB, must be used in conjunction with the HUD throughout the approach. Ref: AFMAN 11‐2MC‐130JV3, Para: 5.27.5 A. True B. False
A
160. Which of the following occurs when the MSTR AV ON function on the POWER UP page is initially selected? Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1‐4 Pg. 6‐2 A. COMM and NAV radios are powered up (except HF radios). B. SATCOM is turned on. C. INS alignment is initiated. D. All the above.
A
162. Anytime the aircraft is transitioned from internal power to external power, a complete de-power and reboot is required prior to further engine runs or flight operations. The hard transition from internal to external power may cause a loss of synchronization of the digital system. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Chap 2A Pg 2A-34 A. True B. False
A
165. Turning with the brakes locked on the inside of the turn is prohibited. While turning the aircraft, avoid hard or abrupt brake applications or ________________, since damage to the landing gear and/or supporting structure may result. If any of the above occurs, ___________ . Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Chap 2A Pg 2A-44 A. braking to a stop; record it in the appropriate maintenance forms B. using reverse thrust; note it in the 781 C. up/down speeding engines; annotate it in the Form F D. moving the flight controls; inform the crew chief after the flight
A
168. During the BEFORE TAKEOFF checklist, when is it required to cycle the propeller controls IAW step 7? Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Chap 2A Pg 2A-46 A. When starting oil temperature is less than 0 deg C B. When the outside temperature is less than 10 deg C C. When starting oil temperature is less than 45 deg C D. When the outside temperature is greater than 95 deg F
A
169. To prevent heat damage to the surrounding wing area, extend the landing lights before turning them on. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Chap 2A Pg 2A-49 A. True B. False
A
176. Any crewmember seeing a deviation of 200 feet altitude or 10 knots in airspeed, or a potential terrain or obstruction problem, will immediately notify the pilot flying. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3 Chap 6 Para 6.9.1.2 A. True B. False
A
19. The engine starter duty cycle is: Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 1‐45 Chap: 1 Figure 1‐4 A. 70 seconds on, 60 seconds off, for 5 cycles, then a 20 minute cooling time is required B. 60 seconds on, 60 seconds off, 60 seconds on, 5 minutes off, 60 seconds on, then a 30 minute cooling time is required C. 1 minute on, then a 10 minute cooling time is required D. The AE2100D3 engine has no starter duty cycle
A
2. A WARNING is a: Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: iv Chap: Forward A. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that may result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed B. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed C. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that is considered essential to emphasize D. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that can be ignored except in an emergency
A
23. Minimum bleed air pressure for sustaining a start is ___ PSI. A momentary drop below___ PSI when the starter valve opens is acceptable. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2D‐2 Chap: 2D A. 22, 22 B. 20, 20 C. 24, 24 D. 28, 28
A
32. During taxi operations, selecting HOTEL mode on engines ________ is prohibited as you will lose __________________. Ref: Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Chap 2D Pg 2D-6 Para CAUTION A. 1 & 2; hydraulic pressure for normal brakes and nose wheel steering B. 3 & 4; hydraulic pressure for normal brakes and nose wheel steering C. 2 & 3; electric power for anti-skid operation D. 1 & 2; electric power for anti-skid operation
A
33. For approaches when icing conditions have been encountered within approximately 6 minutes of landing, increase approach and threshold speeds for 100% flap landings by __ knots and add any gust factor up to a cumulative total of __ knots. For 50% flap landings increase approach and threshold speeds by __ knots and do not add a gust factor. For zero flap landings add __ knots to approach and threshold speeds and do not add a gust factor. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 3‐47 WARNING A. 6, 10, 10, 20 B. 6, 10, 15, 20 C. 6, 12, 15, 20 D. 10, 15, 20, 20
A
35. The fuel quantity totalizer _____ any error caused by a degraded or failed fuel quantity indicator. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2D‐6 Chap: 2D Para: Note A. reflects B. will not reflect C. no answer is correct D. accounts for
A
37. An indication of engine inlet air duct icing in clear air (no visible moisture) would most likely be: Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2B‐8 Chap: 2B A. Rising MGT indication for no apparent reason B. Engine HP indication falls for no apparent reason C. An A/I AIR TEMP LO ACAWS advisory D. The ACAWS message indicating continuous ignition
A
44. Do not select AUTONAV during the POWER-UP Checklist ___________ show correct present position. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2A‐17 Chap: 2A Para: Note A. until both of the CNI‐MUs B. until either of the CNI‐MUs C. until you confirm your clearance with ground control D. until cleared by the CSO
A
49. Do not commence an engine start if MGT is above _________ degrees C. Motor the engine if necessary. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2A‐33 Chap: 2D Para: Caution A. 175 B. 100 C. 200 D. 250
A
5. Maximum normal landing weight and associated sink rate are: Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 1‐2 Chap: 1 A. 164,000 lbs/300 fpm B. 155,000 lbs/300 fpm C. 165,000 lbs/300 fpm D. 155,000 lbs/ 540 fpm
A
51. If no NG is observed within 10 seconds of placing the ENGINE START switch to START, __________. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Chap 3 Pg 3‐5 A. Place the ENGINE START switch to STOP B. Allow the FADEC to discontinue the start without crew action C. Pull the respective engine fire handle D. Reset the respective engine FADEC switch during the start sequence
A
53. If there are no obstacles to clear after flaps retraction, and a lower nose attitude is desired, the following climb speed schedule is recommended: _________________________________________, then four engine climb speed above 25,000 feet. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2A‐48 Chap: 2A A. 180 KIAS to 10,000 feet, 170 KIAS to 15,000 feet, 160 KIAS to 25,000 feet B. 180 KIAS to 15,000 feet, 170 KIAS to 20,000 feet, 160 KIAS to 30,000 feet C. 180 KIAS to 10,000 feet, 168 KIAS to 20,000 feet, 155 KIAS to 25,000 feet D. Vobs to 10,000 feet, L/D Max to 20,000 feet
A
58. At the first indication of directional control difficulties during four engine reverse thrust, immediately return all power levers to the ________ position until the affected engine can be identified. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2A‐65 Chap: 2A Para: Warning A. ground idle B. flight idle C. Beta range D. LSGI
A
6. What is the maximum airspeed for 50% flaps? Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 1‐7 Chap: 1 A. 183 KIAS B. 140 KIAS C. 165 KIAS D. 168 KIAS
A
68. ___________ autofeather any time the FADEC detects autofeather criteria. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 3‐7 Chap: 3 A. Propeller 1 and 4 B. Propeller 2 and 3 C. Propeller 1 and 4, only below 15,000 ft with a 2 second delay D. Propeller 1, 2, 3 and 4
A
70. Failure of the booster hydraulic system causes _________________. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 3‐24 Chap: 3 A. the loss of half the force for operating the flight controls B. the loss of hydraulics for gear extension and retraction C. the loss of hydraulics for normal brake pressure D. all the answers are correct
A
76. Life raft emergency release handles must be pulled ____ for complete ejection and inflation of liferafts. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 3‐90 Chap: 3 Para: Warning A. though their full travel B. at least 3 inches C. one at a time D. in numerical sequence
A
82. What position of an Engine Start Switch controls the internal boost pump for its respective engine? Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Chap 8 Pg 8‐15 A. RUN B. START C. MOTOR D. FROM
A
85. The pneumatic systems served by the bleed air system are as follows: Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 9‐14 Chap: 9 A. All answers are correct B. Engine Starting and Air Conditioning Systems C. Cabin Pressurization System D. Wing and empennage ice protection and deicing boot
A
89. Touch and go landings with less than 500 pounds of fuel in an auxiliary tank may induce a momentary AUX XFER PMP FAIL (C) ACAWS message due to sloshing fuel uncovering the transfer pump intake during acceleration. It is acceptable in this situation to continue the touch and go landing when this ACAWs message appears. Ref T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Chap 2A Pg 2A-76 A. True B. False
A
9. The airplane should not be operated in conditions of severe turbulence. However if flight in severe turbulence cannot be avoided, flight should be in the range of _________ KIAS above power _______stall flaps up speed for the operating gross weight not to exceed _________ KIAS. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 1‐7 Chap: 1 A. 65, off, 181 B. 65, on, 181 C. 80, off, 181 D. 80, off, 180
A
91. The MC‐130J has ____ portable oxygen bottles. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 16‐3 Chap: 16 A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 5
A
92. The aircraft is equipped with 2 hand axes located: Ref: TO 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Chap 3 Pg 3-266 A. on the aft side of FS 245 and aft of the left paratroop door B. on the forward side of FS 245 and aft of the left paratroop door C. above the crew entrance door and forward of the right paratroop door D. aft of the crew entrance door and aft of the right paratroop door
A
94. Inflight, the reference IAS cannot be set ___________. With weight on wheels, the reference airspeed is fixed to __________. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 17‐5 : Note A. below 1.2 Vs; VOBS B. above 1.2 Vs; Vref C. below 1.0 Vs; V2 D. above 1.0 Vs; Vref
A
96. The BIUs act as backup bus controllers in the event both mission computers become disabled. BIU back‐up mode provides the functions necessary to __________ and to make a ______________, even on __________ power. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 18‐18 Chap: 18 A. fly the airplane; safe landing; battery only B. ditch the airplane; safe parachute landing; no electrical C. use both mission computers; reboot inflight; APU D. abandon the aircraft; safe exit from the aircraft; battery only
A
156. Selecting an Alternate. The worst alternate forecast weather conditions for ETA +/‐ 1 hour, to include TEMPO conditions (except those caused by thunderstorms, rain, or snow showers), will meet or exceed: A ceiling of _____ ft., or 500 ft. above the lowest compatible minimum, whichever is higher; and a visibility of __ SM or 1 SM above the lowest compatible minimum, whichever is higher. Ref: AFMAN 11‐202, Vol 3 para 4.16.4.1. A. 3000 / 3 SM B. 1000 / 2 SM C. 3000 / 3 NM D. 1500 / 3 NM
B
167. Normal brakes should be checked _____________ . Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Chap 2A Pg 2A-46 A. in a designated brake check area B. in an uncongested area C. no less than two times to ensure hydraulic pressure is sufficient D. with one suction boost pump turned OFF
B
177. Aircraft maximum waiverable gross weight is ________ pounds. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3 Chap 6 Para 6.1 A. 192,000 B. 175,000 C. 164,000 D. 155,000
B
18. Do not exceed ______ in HG of cabin differential pressure to avoid the possibility of structural damage to the aircraft. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 1‐27 Chap: 1 Para: CAUTION A. 15.2 B. 16.0 C. ‐1.3 D. 13.7
B
180. Avoid thunderstorms and cumulonimbus clouds by ___ NM below FL230 Ref: AFMAN11-2MC-130JV3 Chap 5 Para 5.14.3.2 A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20
B
20. During an engine shutdown on the ground, for all ACAWS _________ (red master warning light and tone), pull the FIRE handle and then place the ENGINE START switch to STOP. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2A‐35 Chap: 2A Para: Note A. messages B. warnings C. cautions D. advisories
B
25. During engine start on the ground, if fuel has been sprayed into the engine without ignition, motor the engine for at least _________ . On subsequent start, it is acceptable __________ for a few seconds due to residual fuel. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2A‐35 Caution A. 1 minute, to observe a momentary spike in MGT up to 810 deg B. 30 secs, to have flames out the tailpipe C. 20 secs, for the LM to hear loud pops out of the tailpipe D. 10 secs, for fuel flow to read zero
B
27. The engine ice protection system must be on for taxi and take‐off when operating in visible moisture with an ambient temperature of _________ degrees C or less. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2B‐5 Chap: 2B Para: Caution A. 5 B. 10 C. 8 D. 0
B
29. According to the minimum power setting schedule for power required on two engines during anti- icing/deicing operations, how much SHP is required on at least two engines when operating the anti icing/deicing systems at or below 5,000 feet? Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Chap 2B Pg 2B‐36 Figure 2B-9 A. 500 SHP B. 750 SHP C. 1000 SHP D. 1500 SHP
B
38. Cold weather is generally considered to be ___________. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2B‐15 Chap: 2B A. 0 degrees F/‐10 degrees C and below B. 0 degrees C/32 degrees F and below C. wind chill below 10 degrees F/‐12 degrees C D. 40 degrees F/4 degrees C and below
B
39. Use Moderately Cold Engine Start Procedures when ________ is below 0 ⁰C prior to engine start. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Chap 2B Pg 2B‐20 A. MGT B. engine oil temperature C. outside air temperature D. visible moisture is present and OAT
B
4. A NOTE is a: Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: iv Chap: Forward A. Operating procedure, technique, etc., that may result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed B. Operating procedure, technique, etc., that is considered essential to emphasize C. Operating procedure, technique, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed D. Operating procedure, technique, etc., that can be ignored except in an emergency
B
41. The recommended fuel management for approach and full stop landings is: Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2D‐9 Chap: 2D A. crossfeed operation with the cross‐ship manifold closed B. tank‐to‐engine operation C. crossfeed operation with transfer switches open D. crossfeed operation with the cross‐ship manifold open
B
43. After any full anti‐skid braking operation at gross weights above __________ lbs, (aborted takeoffs, engine out/flaps up landing, etc.) ensure adequate brake/tire cooling time prior to further airplane operation. Approximate ground cooling time is ___________ minutes. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2D‐14 Chap: 2D Para: Warning A. 120,000, 30 B. 130,000, 65 C. 130,000, 15 D. 120,000, 65
B
48. Do not illuminate the landing lights for more than _______ seconds unless sufficient air flow exists from engine operation or taxi. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2A‐71 Chap: 2A Para: Caution A. 20 B. 10 C. 30 D. 60
B
52. If the wing and empennage anti‐icing/deicing system test must be repeated, wait at least ____ before repeating test. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 3‐239/2A‐37 A. 15 B. 10 C. 5 D. Not permitted above 70 degrees F (21 degrees C)
B
55. Turning the ____________ switches on with three or more power levers at FLT IDLE or greater can result in the stick pusher automatically turning off. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2A‐43 Chap: 2A Para: Note A. NESA B. pitot heat C. landing light D. engine anti‐ice
B
57. Wing/empennage anti‐icing in anti‐ice mode should be turned on in sufficient time prior to landing to ensure vertical stab is completely anti‐iced. This may take as long as ________ minutes. Failure to do so will cause the X‐WIND LIMITED ACAWS message to be displayed when the landing gear are lowered, and the side slip warning system will limit crosswind landing capability if icing is detected. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2A‐62 Chap: 2A Para: Note A. 3 B. 2 C. 1 D. 2.5
B
59. If during landing, one BETA indication does not illuminate after the power levers are brought to ground idle and no other associated ACAWS occurs, there is a remote possibility that directional control difficulties will occur as airspeed slows. If necessary for directional control, Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2A‐60 Chap: 2A Para: Warning A. the engine without BETA should be ignored B. the engine fire handle should be pulled for the engine without BETA C. all throttles should be placed in flight idle then back to ground idle D. do not place any of the power levers into reverse
B
7. Maximum landing gear and landing light extended speeds are: Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 1‐7 Chap: 1 A. 168 KIAS, 180 KIAS B. 168 KIAS, 250 KIAS C. 250 KIAS, 250 KIAS D. 165 KIAS, 165 KIAS
B
71. Failure of the utility hydraulic system will result in loss of the following except: Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 3‐24 Chap: 3 A. normal landing gear extension B. operation of the ramp and door C. normal flap retraction D. normal brake supply
B
73. Do not dump fuel below ___________ feet above ground level and/or while flying in a __________ pattern. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 3‐40 Chap: 3 A. 5,000; instrument B. 5,000; circular C. 4,500; instrument D. 4,500; circular
B
78. If inflight evacuation of the aircraft is required and conditions permit, the order of preference for bailout exits is: Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 3‐97 Chap: 3 A. Crew entrance door, paratroop doors, and cargo door/ramp B. Cargo door/ramp, paratroop doors, and crew entrance door C. Paratroop doors, cargo door/ramp, and crew entrance door D. Paratroop doors, crew entrance door, cargo door/ramp
B
79. An asterisk (*) at the end of an ACAWS message indicates that _________________. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 3‐139 Chap: 3 A. you should declare an emergency quickly B. other associated components may have been affected by the failure C. the system was not able to conclude exactly what the problem is D. this problem is not worth investigating any further
B
8. Maximum airspeed for 100% flaps is: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Chap 1 Pg 1-7 A. 140 KIAS B. 145 KIAS C. 145 KTAS D. none of the above
B
80. During the airstart procedure, allow up to ________ after core comes on speed for onset of propeller rotation. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 5‐14 Chap: 5 Para: Note A. 1 min B. 2 min C. 15 secs D. 30 secs
B
83. ACAWS alerts the crew if the oil cooler augmentation system fails on. If the system fails on, bleed air damage to the oil cooler flap occurs unless the crew ___________________. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 9‐7 Chap: 9 Para: Caution A. closes the oil cooler flap to full closed B. opens the oil cooler flap to full open C. decides to turn on the bleed air augmentation D. decides to turn off the bleed air augmentation
B
87. Identify the system powered by the AUX hydraulic system: Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 11‐1 Chap: 11 A. Booster hydraulic system services B. Emergency lowering of the nose gear C. Nosewheel steering D. In‐flight retraction of the landing gear
B
88. During touch and go landings, the DUCT OVRPRESS warning and DUCT OVRPRESS ISOL ACAWS Caution may appear due to rapid power lever transients. When this occurs during a touch and go landing: Ref T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Chap 2A Pg 2A-76 A. The touch and go landing must be aborted B. The system may be considered to be operating normally provided there are no associated BA/ECS fault indications C. The PM should reset the associated FADEC on the runway and allow the touch and go to continue D. rapidly reduce the power levers to flight idle and then to takeoff power and continue the Maneuver
B
95. When the autopilot is engaged (pitch and roll axis), the flight path marker (FPM) shape changes from a _________ to a __________. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 18D‐12 Chap: 18D Para: Note A. diamond; circle B. circle; diamond C. circle; circle D. diamond; diamond
B
98. FARs require pilots to __________ RA instructions when _______, and pilots are mandated to immediately _______ ATC of the maneuver and when they return to the originally assigned altitude. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 18B‐35 Chap: 18B Para: Warning A. disregard; able; notify B. follow; received; notify C. disregard; unable; request D. disregard; received; notify
B
10. The maximum tire speed (knots ground speed) for the nose wheel is: Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 1‐10 Chap: 1 A. 145 B. 174 C. 139 D. 155
C
100. The target symbol for an RA (resolution advisory) is a _________ with a data tag. The target symbol for a TA (traffic advisory) is a _________ with a data tag. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 18B‐36 Chap: 18B A. yellow ‐filled circle; red‐filled square B. colored circle; colored square C. red‐filled square; yellow‐filled circle D. polka‐dotted hexagon; striped pentagon
C
101. It is _____ for the TCAS system to issue resolution advisory commands _____. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 18B‐35 Chap: 18B Para: Warning A. not possible / outside of the aircraft performance envelope B. possible / because the system takes into account aircraft limitations (such as engine out, ramp open, etc.) C. possible / outside of the aircraft performance envelope D. no answer is correct
C
105. Areas on the weather radar displayed in blue depict ___________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Chap 18B Pg 18B-41 A. heavy precipitation B. turbulence C. masked regions D. moderate precipitation
C
108. A WET runway condition (ICAO Medium) corresponds to a RCR of __________. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1‐1 Pg: 3‐8 Chap: 3 A. 15 B. 10 C. 12 D. 23
C
112. __________ is based on runway available and is defined as the maximum speed to which the airplane can accelerate with engines at maximum power and then stop within the remainder of the runway available, with two‐engines (symmetrical power) in reverse, one engine in ground idle, one propeller feathered, and maximum anti‐skid braking. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1‐1 Pg: 3‐12 Chap: 3 A. Ground minimum control speed B. Brake energy limit speed C. Refusal Speed D. Critical engine failure speed
C
114. Bank angle has a powerful influence on the air minimum control speeds. It is imperative to maintain bank _________ the failed engine in order to meet the conditions of one-engine-inoperative air minimum control speed (Vmca). Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1‐1 Pg: 3‐21 Chap: 3 A. towards B. in level flight without regard for C. away from D. for a few seconds towards
C
117. Cruise ceiling is the altitude at which the maximum rate of climb capability at maximum continuous power and best climb speed is _________ fpm. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1‐1 Pg: 4‐1 Chap: 4 A. 200 B. 100 C. 300 D. 500
C
123. For takeoff and landing operations, the minimum runway width allowed is ____ feet. Ref: AFMAN 11‐2MC‐130JV3 6.19 A. 30 B. 45 C. 60 D. 90
C
126. Review AFTO Form 781 before _________ or ___________. If a maintenance officer, maintenance superintendent, or authorized civilian is not availible to sign the exceptional release prior to flight, the ___________ may sign the ER. Ref: AFMAN 11‐2MC‐130JV3 Para: 5.16 A. approaching the aircraft; entering the aircraft; crew chief B. unloading cargo; loading cargo; Sq/DO C. applying power to the aircraft; operating aircraft systems; Pilot in Command D. takeoff; landing, whichever comes first; COMAFSOF
C
13. With any flap extension, the maximum maneuver load factor is _______G in symmetrical and _________G in unsymmetrical maneuvers. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 1‐12 Chap: 1 Para: CAUTION A. 2.5 / 2.0 B. 2.5 / 1.5 C. 2.0 / 1.5 D. 2.0 / 2.0
C
131. Simulated EPs are ____________ with passengers on board. Ref: AFMAN 11‐2MC‐130JV3 Para: 9.4.4. A. allowed (with OG/CC approval) B. prohibited C. prohibited, unless such personnel are required for mission accomplishment, such as FCFs and test missions D. sometimes allowed
C
14. Exceeding the above limits of ___ static feathering cycles and/or feathering commands may cause engine damage. Upon reaching the limit, no further static propeller feathering cycles or feathering commands should be attempted until the engine has been started and run for at least ___ minutes above LSGI. If further aux feather pump usage is necessary before an engine run can be accomplished, the propeller gearbox must be drained. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 1‐13 Chap: 1 Para: CAUTION A. 3; 4 B. 4; 6 C. 2; 10 D. 4; 2
C
147. Per the AFMAN 11‐2MC‐130JV3, declare "Emergency Fuel" to ATC when it is determined that the aircraft will land with less than _______ lbs. Ref: AFMAN 11‐2MC‐130JV3 Chap 12 Para 12.4.9 A. 6,000 B. 4,000 C. 3,000 D. 2,000
C
15. What is the APU starter duty cycle? Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 1‐14 Chap: 1 A. one minute on and one minute off B. 4 minutes on and 4 minutes off C. 1 minute on and 4 minutes off D. 2 minutes on and 2 minutes off
C
158. CAT II ILS Procedures. Decision Height (DH) is based on radar altitude. Minimum HAT is ___ feet. Minimum Runway Visual Range (RVR) is _____. Maximum crosswind limitation is 10 knots. Crosswind of __ knots may be used for training approaches (requires weather of 200 - 1/2 or greater). Ref: AFMAN 11‐2MC‐130JV3, Para: 5.27.3 A. 200, 1,000, 10 B. 100, 1,000, 15 C. 100, 1,200, 15 D. None of the above
C
164. If engine anti-ice is required and pressure altitude is greater than ______ feet, consider operating with the engine anti-ice ON for a minimum of ____ to stabilize engine temperatures before applying takeoff power, in order to reduce the possibility of an ENG 1 (2, 3, or 4) MGT HI (W) ACAWS event when takeoff power is applied. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Chap 2A Pg 2A-42 A. 2,000; 3 minutes B. 3,000; 2 minutes C. 3,000; 3 minutes D. 4,000; 2 minutes
C
170. VH must not be exceeded in greater than _____________, or structural damage may occur. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Chap 2A Pg 2A-58 A. light icing B. moderate icing C. light turbulence D. moderating turbulence
C
171. High Speed Landing Procedures: The indicated airspeed equivalent to ______ at touchdown should be determined from the Maximum Speed for Transition from Flight Idle to High Speed Ground Idle chart in the TO 1C-130(M)J-1-1. Moving the power levers below FLT IDLE above this speed can lead to all engine-driven generators tripping off-line. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Chap 2A Pg 2A-68 A. 145 KIAS B. 145 KCAS C. 145 KTAS D. none of the above
C
174. The ALL BLEED charts must be used for performance computations if _____________ . Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Chap 3 Pg 3-6 A. propeller ice protection is on B. engine ice protection is on C. engine and wing/empennage ice protection is on D. if underfloor heat is on
C
178. Aircraft maximum gross weight without a waiver is ________ pounds. Ref: AFMAN11-2MC-130JV3 Chap 6 Para 6.1 A. 192,000 B. 175,000 C. 164,000 D. 155,000
C
179. During the ENGINE FIRE SHUTDOWN procedure, if the condition persists after discharging the agent, wait a minimum of _____ seconds after the first bottle is discharged, and then discharge the remaining fire bottle. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Chap 3 Pg 3-6 A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20
C
21. Before attempting ground restarts, wait ______seconds after_______ reaches zero (0) to enable a successful test of the NG independent overspeed protection circuit. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2A‐35 Para: Note A. 30, NP B. 45, NG C. 30, NG D. 45, NP
C
24. If a circling approach is required, maintain ___________ until established on final approach. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2B‐3 Chap: 2B A. 140 knots B. 150 knots C. approach speed D. threshhold speed
C
28. During descents in icing conditions, a minimum power setting is required to ensure sufficient bleed air supply for the operation of wing and empennage ice protection systems. At least __ engines must be set at or above the minimum power setting. (The remaining engines may be set to __.) Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2B‐6 Chap: 2B Para: Note A. three; 1000 hp B. three; flight idle C. two; flight idle D. two; 1000 hp
C
3. A CAUTION is a: Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: iv Chap: Forward A. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that may result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed B. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that can be ignored except in an emergency C. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed D. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that is considered essential to emphasize
C
31. Before shutdown, the engines are normally shifted to LSGI and operated for ______ before shutdown to more gradually cool engine components and prolong engine life. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2D‐5 Para: Note A. 1 min B. 30 secs C. 2 min D. 15 secs
C
36. Operation in severe icing conditions, including operation in freezing rain/drizzle is _________ and should be avoided. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2B‐4 Chap: 2B A. allowable B. allowable provided the ice protect system is functional C. not recommended D. no answer is correct
C
46. Under a continuous breathing condition, the pressure gauge of oxygen regulator should indicate: Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 16‐1 Chap: 16 A. 320‐600 psi B. pressure does not matter as long as the quantity indicates above 5 liters C. 270‐340 psi D. 300‐455 psi
C
54. A ____ minute cool down period is required between stick pusher activations to prevent damage to the stick pusher actuator. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2A‐36 Chap: 2A Para: Caution A. 1 B. 2 C. 5 D. 3
C
63. The engine hydraulic pump switches are to be left in the ___ position after engine shutdown. This prevents pressure buildup due to the thermal expansion of the hydraulic fluid from compromising the hydraulic fire wall shutoff valve Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2A‐82 Chap: 2A Para: Caution A. AUTO B. OFF C. ON D. no answer is correct
C
64. Prior to engine shutdown, LSGI switches should be selected for __________ to allow engine temperature to stabilize. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Chap 2A Pg 2A‐82 Para NOTE A. 30 seconds B. 1 minute C. 2 minutes D. 3 minute
C
65. Due to engine exhaust heat, entry and exit through the paratroop doors with engines running is prohibited in which condition: Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2D‐4 Chap: 2D Para: Warning A. engines in normal ground idle and flaps up B. engines in low speed ground idle and flaps extended C. engines in Hotel mode and flaps extended D. engines in LSGI and flaps up
C
67. With inoperative engines on the _______________ side, maximum braking and nose wheel steering will be required to control the aircraft weathervaning into the wind when the throttles are moved are moved into the ground range. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 3‐15 Chap: 3 Para: Warning A. upwind B. crosswing C. downwind D. headwind
C
74. A dump system is provided to dump all fuel overboard except approximately: Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Chap 3 Pg 3‐40 A. 2,900 lbs in each main tank, 0 lbs in the auxiliary tanks, and 420 lbs in the external tanks B. 5,000 lbs in each main tank, 0 lbs in the auxiliary and external tanks C. 1,520 lbs in each main tank, 0 lbs in the auxiliary and external tanks D. 2,300 lbs in each main tank, 420 lbs in the auxiliary tanks, and 0 lbs in the external tanks
C
75. Bailout from the crew entrance door is not recommended at air speeds above _____ KIAS or with the landing gear extended. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 3‐96 Chap: 3 Para: Warning A. 170 B. 250 C. 150 D. 125
C
77. In the event of either the CREW DOOR OPEN or RAMP OPEN PRESSURIZED ACAWS message is displayed, notify crew and passengers to: Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 3‐86 Chap: 3 A. Crew 100% Oxygen B. breathe deeply and slowly C. fasten seat belts D. place their heads between their knees
C
81. What is the appropriate action if the APU shuts down without an associated ACAWS? Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Chap 2A Pg 2A-15 Para CAUTION A. Restart the APU after resetting the FADECs B. Attempt one APU restart prior to returning the aircraft to maintenance C. Return the aircraft to maintenance prior to APU restart D. Close and then open the #2 fuel shutoff valve prior to attempting an APU restart
C
84. Simultaneous activation of two or more FIRE handles may result in misdirecting the fire extinguishing agent and a FIRE EXT FAILURE ACAWS. _________________ redirects the extinguishing agent to that engine. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 9‐14 Chap: 9 Para: Note A. Doing nothing and waiting for ACAWS B. Pulling the DITU ECBs 441 and 890 C. Recycling the desired FIRE handle D. Placing the propeller control switch to FEATHER
C
86. Identify the system powered by the Utility hydraulic system: Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 11‐1 Chap: 11 A. Nose landing gear emergency extension B. Emergency brakes C. Flaps D. Ramp and door
C
90. Which of the following Ice Protection systems are not triggered by the ice detectors? Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 15‐5 Chap: 15 A. WING/EMP B. Engine C. Pitot heat D. Propellers
C
93. The life raft release handles are located on the forward side of FS 245, over-wing above each life raft location, and _____________: Ref: TO 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Chap 3 Pg 3-276 A. on the left side of the center overhead escape hatch B. aft of the left paratroop door above the auxiliary pump C. aft of the right paratroop door above the toilet D. next to the crew entrance door
C
97. The Get Home Control (GHC) panel, located on the copilot side console, allows the crew to control either ______ or _______ for emergency or backup operations. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 18A‐9 Chap: 18A A. VHF‐2; UHF‐2 B. VHF‐1; UHF‐2 C. VHF‐1; UHF‐1 D. VHF‐2; UHF‐1
C
99. The radar altimeters may break track or give erroneous readings at radar altitudes above ________, possibly resulting in a TCAS FAULT or a GCAS alert. If this occurs, both pilots should ________________using the AMU. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 18B‐38 Chap: 18B Para: Note A. 10,000 feet AGL; select in Hg for the altimeter B. 20,000 feet AGL; select millibars for the altimeter C. 10,000 feet AGL; select the same radar altimeter source D. 20,000 feet AGL; select the same radar altimeter source
C
175. Which of the following is a mandatory advisory call? Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3 Chap 6 Tables 6.1 through Table 6.4 A. Transition altitude B. "Minimums" at MDA C. 100 feet above decision height (DH) D. All answers are correct
D
172. Closing the nacelle shutoff valves will not provide bleed off torque schedule. If bleed off takeoff performance is desired, how should the aircraft be configured? Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Chap 2B Pg 2B-25 A. Set the FLT STA and CARGO COMPT POWER switches to the OFF position B. Set the UNDERFLOOR switch to the FAN position C. Set the WING/EMP switch to OFF D. All of the above E. Only A & C
D
173. For a precision approach (not CAT II), set the RADALT to ________ . Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3 Chap 6 Para 6.18.1.1.1 A. 200 feet B. 150 feet C. 300 feet D. HAT minus 50 feet
D
109. An ICY runway condition (ICAO Poor) corresponds to a RCR of _________. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1‐1 Pg: 3‐8 Chap: 3 A. 02 B. 12 C. 23 D. 05
D
110. Crosswind Chart: When the value for the rotation speed falls within the caution area, the rotation speed ______________ until the recommended area of the chart is reached, or until the airpseed has been increased by ______________. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1‐1 Pg: 3‐9 Chap: 3 A. shall not be increased; no amount B. shall be decreased; a minimum of 5 knots C. will not be changed; calculated D. shall be increased; a maximum of 10 knots
D
125. Aircrew will carry a ________ on all flights. Ref: AFMAN 11‐2MC‐130JV3 Para: 5.2.7. A. headset B. helmet and an oxygen mask C. operable flashlight D. all of the above
D
128. Oxygen on board for takeoff will be a minimum of _____ liters. On missions with passengers, carry passenger oxygen kits (POKs) if flight above _____ is anticipated. Ref: AFMAN 11‐2MC‐130JV3 Para: 5.21.1 A. 5 / 18,000 feet B. 10 / 18,000 feet C. 10 / FL 250 D. 5 / FL 250
D
130. A flight may proceed on 3 engines to its destination if _________________. Ref: AFMAN 11‐2MC‐130JV3 Para: 5.25.2. A. 2‐engine capability exists B. favorable operating conditions prevail both en route and at the point of intended landing C. a suitable alternate airfield is available at all times D. all of the above
D
134. No flap landings comply with following: Ref: AFMAN 11‐2MC‐130JV3 Para: 9.5.3. A. maximum gross weight of 120,000 pounds B. crosswind component within the recommended zone C. day/night VMC only D. both A and B
D
140. The CNI‐MS supports worldwide operations in oceanic, enroute, and terminal areas which require RNAV capabilities, except ________. Ref: TO 1C‐130(M)J‐1 page 18B‐2 A. MNPS B. RNAV Departure Procedures (DP and SID) and Arrival Procedures (STAR) C. BRNAV D. All RNAV approaches and SIDs/STARs/DPs which require RNP
D
148. Per the AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, declare "Minimum Fuel" to ATC when it is determined that the aircraft will land with less than ______ . Ref: AFMAN 11‐2MC‐130JV3 Chap 12 Para 12.4.10 A. 4,000 plus the required reserve B. 3,000 plus the required reserve C. 6,000 lbs D. calculated Recovery Fuel
D
149. Low fuel state operations are defined as those operations that result in the airplane landing at the final destination with less than _________ lbs of fuel. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 5‐18 Chap: 5 A. 4,000 B. 7,000 C. 10,000 D. 6,000
D
16. Inflight use of the APU is limited to ___________ operation. Do not attempt to use APU _________ during flight. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 1‐14 Chap: 1 A. bleed air; generator B. no; for generator or bleed air C. any; below 10,000' D. AC generator; bleed air
D
161. A VNAV profile on the LEGS page using an altitude suffix of "C" defines: Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1‐4 Pg. 7‐22 A. Fixed Start of Climb (SOC) B. Fixed Bottom of Descent (BOD) C. Fixed Top of Descent (TOD) D. A or B
D
163. Conditions required for ground engine start include: Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Chap 2A Pg 2A-37 A. MGT less than 175 deg C B. Bleed air pressure >22 PSI C. NG between 15% and 29% D. Only A & B
D
166. During reverse taxi operations, do not taxi with ___ feet of an obstacle nor stop less than ___ feet from an obstruction, even when using wing walkers. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3 Chap 6 Para 6.21 A. 25; 10 B. 10; 25 C. 10; 10 D. 25; 25
D
17. Takeoff Crosswind/Tailwind Restrictions: If the crosswind component is above ___ knots and the wind is not within ±___ degrees, hold the brakes and advance the power levers to _____ HP. When engines are stable at approximately 2500 HP, release the brakes. When indicated airspeed increases above ___ knots, move the power levers to TAKEOFF and monitor for within 200 HP of takeoff prediction within 5 seconds. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2A‐47 A. 10, +/‐ 30, 4500HP, 25 B. 20, +/‐ 45, 2500HP, 45 C. 15, +/‐ 30, 2500HP, 35 D. 15, +/‐ 45, 2500HP, 35
D
22. Normal hydraulic operating pressure should be indicated ___________. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2D‐3 Chap: 2D A. 30 seconds after START switch is placed to START B. within 60 seconds after NP is on speed C. by NP on speed D. within 30 seconds after NP is on speed
D
26. Normal starting sequence is _________ , but other sequences may be used. External power equipment may be removed after the first engine is started. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2A‐35 Chap: 2A Para: Note A. 2, 1, 3, 4 B. 1, 2, 3, 4 C. None of the above D. 3, 4, 2, 1
D
30. The wing/empennage ice protection system should not be operated in ________ mode except during approach and landing. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2B‐6 Chap: 2B Para: Caution A. de‐Ice B. auto C. off D. anti‐Ice
D
34. In icing conditions, Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2B‐7 Chap: 2B A. the landing gear doors may not completely close if the gear are raised after extended down operation. B. cycle the gear to remove accumulated ice from the landing gear doors, after extended gear down operation in icing conditions. C. avoid high angles of attack D. All answers are correct
D
40. Hot weather operation is operation in temperatures above ___________. Ref T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg 2B-24 Chap 2B A. 32 degrees C / 90 degrees F B. 29 degrees C / 85 degrees F C. 38 degrees C / 100 degrees F D. 35 degrees C / 95 degrees F
D
42. Prior to application of de‐icing fluid, __________________ . Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2B‐4 & 5 Chap: 2B Para: Warning A. operate the flight deck air conditioning pack for 5 minutes B. shut down the APU and close all doors and hatches C. ensure flight station and cargo compartment air conditioning switches are set to OFF D. only B & C
D
45. The aircraft oxygen system uses diluter-demand automatic pressure breathing regulators and operates at an indicated pressure of ______________ in a static system under a no-flow condition. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Chap 16 Pg 16‐1 A. 320‐600 psi B. pressure does not matter as long as the quantity indicates above 5 liters C. 270‐340 psi D. 270‐455 psi
D
47. Turn off the NESA system if: Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2D‐21 Chap: 2D Para: Caution A. Electrical arcing is observed in any of the panels B. Any of the panels containing thermistors are not heating C. Panels are excessively hot to the touch D. All of the answers are correct
D
50. If any of the following ACAWS are displayed, the FADEC will automatically abort the engine start. Discontinue the start by placing the ENGINE START switch to STOP. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 3‐4 Chap: 3 A. ENG 1 (2, 3, or 4) STAGNATED START (A) B. ENG 1 (2, 3, or 4) FLAMEOUT (C) C. ENG 1 (2, 3, or 4) NO LIGHTOFF (A) D. All answers are correct
D
56. If predicted climb‐out flight path is not required, raise the flaps passing Flaps Up Safety Speed (FUSS, Vobs + ____) but not less than__________ KIAS. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2A‐53 Chap: 2A Para: Note A. 30; 130 B. 40; 120 C. 50; 150 D. 25; 135
D
60. During High Speed Landing Procedures, directional control difficulties could result when moving the power levers below FLT IDLE above ________. The PM should verbalize "______" when "Bs" are indicated below all four HP gauges. Use reverse thrust only on engines that indicate a "B" under the HP readout. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2A‐69 Chap: 2A Para: Note A. 145 KIAS; "four Bs" B. 145 KTAS; "all four" C. 139 KIAS: "all four" D. 145 KTAS; "four Bs"
D
61. If a BANK ANGLE or a SIDE SLIP alert occurs during the crosswind approach _____ . Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2A‐67 Chap: 2A Para: Warning A. reduce rudder force slightly B. if the alert continues or the LEFT or RIGHT RUDDER alert occurs, consider discontinuing the approach and executing a go‐around C. reduce bank angle D. all answers are correct
D
62. When a WINDSHEAR alert occurs during takeoff or approach for landing, immediately ________________________________. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 2A‐74 Chap: 2A Para: Warning A. Set TAKEOFF power and level the wings B. Pitch to 15 degrees nose up and maintain approximately 10 knots above the stall warning caret C. Raise the landing gear and flaps D. Only A & B
D
66. What is the alarm bell signal for ground evacuation? Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 3‐4 Chap: 3 A. 2 long rings B. 6 short rings C. 3 short rings D. 1 long sustained ring
D
69. At or above 15,500 feet, or if another engine is shut down, the inboard engine windmills at 100%. If all four engines flameout, this logic ensures at least one inboard propeller will be at 100% RPM to __________. Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 3‐7 Chap: 3 A. ensure sufficient thrust B. cool the MGT below 175 degrees F C. no answers are correct D. supply electric and hydraulic power
D
72. If you have a main landing gear tire failure: Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Pg: 3‐35 Chap: 3 A. keep the nose gear off the runway as long as possible B. do not use maximun reverse thrust C. land on the side of the runway with the bad tire D. land on the side of the runway with the good tires
D
142. An engine surge event is more likely to occur under the following conditions: Ref: T.O. 1C‐130(M)J‐1 Chap 3 Pg 3-20 A. Icing conditions B. Power at or near Maximum Continuous Power (MCP) setting C. Altitudes above FL210 D. Engine and/or wing/empennage anti-ice systems active E. All of the above
E
154. Do not exceed 250 KIAS below 10,000 ft MSL within the National Airspace System (NAS) unless ____. Ref: AFMAN 11‐202V3, Para 12.4.2 A. within restricted areas or Military Operating Areas (MOAs) B. within DoD/FAA instrument/visual routes or unpublished joint MAJCOM‐ and FAA‐designated areas or routes C. on MAJCOM‐approved large exercises or short‐term special missions with appropriate coordination D. the aircraft T.O. requires or recommends a higher speed in order to maintain safe maneuverability E. All of the above
E
