Med-Surg Hesi Practice
The nurse initiates neurologic checks for a client who is at risk for neurologic compromise. Which manifestation typically provides the first indication of altered neurologic function? A. Change in level of consciousness B. Increasing muscular weakness C. Changes in pupil size bilaterally D. Progressive nuchal rigidity
A decrease or change in the level of consciousness is usually the first indication of neurologic deterioration. Options B and C may also occur but are much less likely to be the first sign of neurologic compromise. Option D is often a sign of meningitis.
The home health nurse is assessing a male client being treated for Parkinson disease with carbidopa-levodopa. The nurse observes that he does not demonstrate any apparent emotion when speaking and rarely blinks. Which intervention should the nurse implement? A. Perform a complete cranial nerve assessment. B. Instruct the client that he may be experiencing medication toxicity. C. Document the presence of these assessment findings. D. Advise the client to seek immediate medical evaluation
A masklike expression and infrequent blinking are common clinical features of parkinsonism. The nurse should document these expected findings. Options A and D are not necessary. Signs of toxicity of levodopa-carbidopa, include dyskinesia, hallucinations, and psychosis.
The nurse is assessing a male client with acute pancreatitis. Which finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse? A. The client's amylase level is three times higher than the normal level. B. While the nurse is taking the client's blood pressure, he has a carpal spasm. C. On a 1 to 10 scale, the client tells the nurse that his epigastric pain is at 7. D. The client states that he will continue to drink alcohol after going home.
A positive Trousseau sign indicates hypocalcemia and always requires further assessment and intervention, regardless of the cause (40% to 75% of those with acute pancreatitis experience hypocalcemia, which can have serious, systemic effects). A key diagnostic finding of pancreatitis is serum amylase and lipase levels that are two to five times higher than the normal value. Severe boring pain is an expected symptom for this diagnosis, but dealing with the hypocalcemia is a priority over administering an analgesic. Long-term planning and teaching do not have the same immediate importance as a positive Trousseau sign.
Which consideration is most important when the nurse is assigning a room for a client being admitted with progressive systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)? A. Provide a room that can be kept warm. B. Make sure that the room can be kept dark. C. Keep the client close to the nursing unit. D. Select a room that is visible from the nurses' desk.
Abnormal blood flow in response to cold (Raynaud phenomenon) is precipitated in clients with scleroderma. Option B is not a significant factor. Stress can also precipitate the severe pain of Raynaud phenomenon, so a quiet environment is preferred to option C, which is often very noisy. Option D is not necessary.
In assessing a client with an arteriovenous (AV) shunt who is scheduled for dialysis today, the nurse notes the absence of a thrill or bruit at the shunt site. What action should the nurse take? A. Advise the client that the shunt is intact and ready for dialysis as scheduled. B. Encourage the client to keep the shunt site elevated above the level of the heart. C. Notify the health care provider of the findings immediately. D. Flush the site at least once with a heparinized saline solution.
Absence of a thrill or bruit indicates that the shunt may be obstructed. The nurse should notify the health care provider so that intervention can be initiated to restore function of the shunt. Option A is incorrect. Option B will not resolve the obstruction. An AV shunt is internal and cannot be flushed without access using special needles.
ARDS
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
A 74-year-old male client is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with a diagnosis of respiratory failure secondary to pneumonia. Currently, he is ventilator-dependent, with settings of tidal volume (VT) of 750 mL and an intermittent mandatory ventilation (IMV) rate of 10 breaths/min. Arterial blood gas (ABG) results are as follows: pH, 7.48; PaCO2, 30 mm Hg; PaO2, 64 mm Hg; HCO3, 25 mEq/L; and FiO2, 0.80. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? A. Increase the ventilator VT to 850 mL. B. Decrease the ventilator IMV to a rate of 8 breaths/min. C. Reduce the FiO2 to 0.70 and redraw ABGs. D. Add 5 cm positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP).
Adding PEEP helps improve oxygenation while reducing FiO2 to a less toxic level. Options A, B, and C will not result in improved oxygenation and could cause further complications for this client, who is experiencing respiratory failure.
The nurse is preparing a 45-year-old client for discharge from a cancer center following ileostomy surgery for colon cancer. Which discharge goal should the nurse include in this client's discharge plan? A. Reduce the daily intake of animal fat to 10% of the diet within 6 weeks. B. Exhibit regular, soft-formed stool within 1 month. C. Demonstrate the irrigation procedure correctly within 1 week. D. Attend an ostomy support group within 2 weeks.
Attending a support group will be beneficial to the client and should be encouraged because adaptation to the ostomy can be difficult. This goal is attainable and is measurable. Option A is not specifically related to ileostomy care. The client with an ileostomy will not be able to accomplish option B. Option C is not necessary.
A female client who received a nephrotoxic drug is admitted with acute renal failure and asks the nurse if she will need dialysis for the rest of her life. Which pathophysiologic consequence should the nurse explain that supports the need for temporary dialysis until acute tubular necrosis subsides? A. Azotemia B. Oliguria C. Hyperkalemia D. Nephron obstruction
CKD is characterized by progressive and irreversible destruction of nephrons, frequently caused by hypertension and diabetes mellitus. Nephrotoxins cause acute tubular necrosis, a reversible acute renal failure, which creates renal tubular obstruction from endothelial cells that are sloughed or become edematous. The obstruction of urine flow will resolve with the return of an adequate glomerular filtration rate, and when it does, dialysis will no longer be needed. Options A, B, and C are manifestations seen in the acute and chronic forms of kidney disease.
In assessing a client diagnosed with primary aldosteronism, the nurse expects the laboratory test results to indicate a decreased serum level of which substance? A. Sodium B. Phosphate C. Potassium D. Glucose
Clients with primary aldosteronism exhibit a profound decline in serum levels of potassium; hypokalemia; hypertension is the most prominent and universal sign. The serum sodium level is normal or elevated, depending on the amount of water resorbed with the sodium. Option B is influenced by parathyroid hormone (PTH). Option D is not affected by primary aldosteronism
During report, the nurse learns that a client with tumor lysis syndrome is receiving an IV infusion containing insulin. Which assessment should the nurse complete first? A. Review the client's history for diabetes mellitus. B. Observe the extremity distal to the IV site. C. Monitor the client's serum potassium and blood glucose levels. D. Evaluate the client's oxygen saturation and breath sounds.
Clients with tumor lysis syndrome may experience hyperkalemia, requiring the addition of insulin to the IV solution to reduce the serum potassium level. It is most important for the nurse to monitor the client's serum potassium and blood glucose levels to ensure that they are not at dangerous levels. Options A, B, and D provide valuable assessment data but are of less priority than option C.
During the shift report, the charge nurse informs a nurse that she has been assigned to another unit for the day. The nurse begins to sigh deeply and tosses about her belongings as she prepares to leave, making it known that she is very unhappy about being floated to the other unit. What is the best immediate action for the charge nurse to take? A. Continue with the shift report and talk to the nurse about the incident at a later time. B. Ask the nurse to call the house supervisor to see if she must be reassigned. C. Stop the shift report and remind the nurse that all staff are floated equally. D. Inform the nurse that her behavior is disruptive to the rest of the staff.
Continuing with the shift report is the best immediate action because it allows the nurse who was floated some cooling off time. At a later time (after the nurse has cooled off) the charge nurse should discuss the conduct of the nurse in private. Option B encourages the nurse to shirk the float assignment. Option C is disruptive. Reprimanding the nurse in front of the staff would increase the nurse's hostility, so the nurse should be counseled in private.
A client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) 2 years ago is regularly treated at a community hemodialysis facility. Before his scheduled dialysis treatment, which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse anticipate? A. Hypophosphatemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypokalemia
Hypocalcemia develops in CKD because of chronic hyperphosphatemia, not option A. Increased phosphate levels cause the peripheral deposition of calcium and resistance to vitamin D absorption needed for calcium absorption. Prior to dialysis, the nurse would expect to find the client hypernatremic and hyperkalemic, not with option C or D.
Peritonitis
Inflammation of the abdominal wall/ covering the abdominal organs
Diverticulitis
Inflammation or infection of the pouch of the digestive tract
Which abnormal laboratory finding indicates that a client with diabetes needs further evaluation for diabetic nephropathy? A. Hypokalemia B. Microalbuminuria C. Elevated serum lipid levels D. Ketonuria
Microalbuminuria is the earliest sign of diabetic nephropathy and indicates the need for follow-up evaluation. Hyperkalemia, not option A, is associated with end-stage renal disease caused by diabetic nephropathy. Option C may be elevated in end-stage renal disease. Option D may signal the onset of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).
When educating a client after a total laryngectomy, which instruction would be most important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching? A. Recommend that the client carry suction equipment at all times. B. Instruct the client to have writing materials with him at all times. C. Tell the client to carry a medical alert card that explains his condition. D. Caution the client not to travel outside the United States alone
Neck breathers carry a medical alert card that notifies health care personnel of the need to use mouth to stoma breathing in the event of a cardiac arrest in this client. Mouth to mouth resuscitation will not establish a patent airway. Options A and D are not necessary. There are many alternative means of communication for clients who have had a laryngectomy; dependence on writing messages is probably the least effective.
The nurse is administering a nystatin suspension for stomatitis. Which instruction will the nurse provide to the client when administering this medication? A. "Hold the medication in your mouth for a few minutes before swallowing it." B. "Do not drink or eat milk products for 1 hour prior to taking this medication." C. "Dilute the medication with juice to reduce the unpleasant taste and odor." D. "Take the medication before meals to promote increased absorption."
Nystatin suspension is prescribed for fungal infections of the mouth. The client should swish the medication in the mouth for 2 minutes and then swallow. Option B does not affect administration of this medication. The medication should not be diluted because this will reduce its effectiveness. Option D is not necessary.
The nurse receives the client's next scheduled bag of TPN labeled with the additive NPH insulin. Which action should the nurse implement? A. Hang the solution at the current rate. B. Refrigerate the solution until needed. C. Prepare the solution with new tubing. D. Return the solution to the pharmacy.
Only regular insulin is administered by the IV route, so the TPN solution containing NPH insulin should be returned to the pharmacy. Options A, B, and C are not indicated because the solution should not be administered.
A family member was taught to suction a client's tracheostomy prior to the client's discharge from the hospital. Which observation by the nurse indicates that the family member is capable of correctly performing the suctioning technique? A. Turns on the continuous wall suction to 190 mm Hg. B. Inserts the catheter until resistance or coughing occurs. C. Withdraws the catheter while maintaining suctioning. D. Reclears the tracheostomy after suctioning the mouth.
Option B indicates correct technique for performing suctioning. Suction pressure should be between 80 and 120 mm Hg, not 190 mm Hg. The catheter should be withdrawn 1 to 2 cm at a time with intermittent, not continuous, suction. Option D introduces pathogens unnecessarily into the tracheobronchial tree.
The nurse is conducting an osteoporosis screening clinic at a health fair. What information should the nurse provide to individuals who are at risk for osteoporosis? (Select all that apply.) A. Encourage alcohol and smoking cessation. B. Suggest supplementing diet with vitamin E. C. Promote regular weight-bearing exercises. D. Implement a home safety plan to prevent falls. E. Propose a regular sleep pattern of 8 hours nightly.
Options A, C, and D are factors that decrease the risk for developing osteoporosis. Vitamin D and calcium are important supplements to aid in the decrease of bone loss. Regular sleep patterns are important to overall health but are not identified with a decreasing risk for osteoporosis.
A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of severe acute diverticulitis. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority? A. Place the client on NPO status. B. Assess the client's temperature. C. Obtain a stool specimen. D. Administer IV fluids.
Rationale: A client with acute severe diverticulitis is at risk for peritonitis and intestinal obstruction and should be made NPO to reduce risk of intestinal rupture. Options B, C, and D are important but are less of a priority than option A, which is implemented to prevent a severe complication.
In caring for a client with acute diverticulitis, which assessment data warrants immediate nursing intervention? A. The client has a rigid hard abdomen and elevated WBC. B. The client has left lower quadrant pain and an elevated temperature. C. The client is refusing to eat any of the meal and is complaining of nausea. D. The client has not had a bowel movement in 2 days and has a soft abdomen.
Rationale: A hard rigid abdomen and elevated WBC is indicative of peritonitis, which is a medical emergency and should be reported to the health care provider immediately. Options B and C are expected clinical manifestations of diverticulitis. Option D does not warrant immediate intervention.
A 43-year-old homeless, malnourished female client with a history of alcoholism is transferred to the ICU. She is placed on telemetry, and the rhythm strip shown is obtained. The nurse palpates a heart rate of 160 beats/min, and the client's blood pressure is 90/54 mm Hg. Based on these findings, which IV medication should the nurse administer? A. Amiodarone (Cordarone) B. Magnesium sulfate C. Lidocaine (Xylocaine) D. Procainamide (Pronestyl)
Rationale: Because the client has chronic alcoholism, she is likely to have hypomagnesemia. Option B is the recommended drug for torsades de pointes, which is a form of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (VT) usually associated with a prolonged QT interval that occurs with hypomagnesemia. Options A and D increase the QT interval, which can cause the torsades to worsen. Option C is the antiarrhythmic of choice in most cases of drug-induced monomorphic VT, not torsades
A 58-year-old client who has no health problems asks the nurse about receiving the pneumococcal vaccine. Which statement given by the nurse would offer the client accurate information about this vaccine? A. The vaccine is given annually before the flu season to those older than 50 years. B. The immunization is administered once to older adults or those at risk for illness. C. The vaccine is for all ages and is given primarily to those persons traveling overseas to areas of infection. D. The vaccine will prevent the occurrence of pneumococcal pneumonia for up to 5 years
Rationale: It is usually recommended that persons older than 65 years and those with a history of chronic illness should receive the vaccine once in their lifetime. Some recommend receiving the vaccine at 50 years of age. The influenza vaccine is given once a year. Although the vaccine might be given to a person traveling overseas, that is not the main rationale for administering the vaccine. The vaccine is usually given once in a lifetime, but with immunosuppressed clients or clients with a history of pneumonia, revaccination is sometimes required.
A nurse is assisting an 82-year-old client with ambulation and is concerned that the client may fall. Which area contains the older person's center of gravity? A. Head and neck B. Upper torso C. Bilateral arms D. Feet and legs
Rationale: Stooped posture results in the upper torso becoming the center of gravity for older persons. The center of gravity for adults is the hips. However, as a person grows older, a stooped posture is common because of changes caused by osteoporosis and normal bone degeneration. Furthermore, the knees, hips, and elbows flex. The head and neck and feet and legs are not the center of gravity in the older adult. Although the arms comprise a part of the upper torso, they do not reflect the best and most complete answer
A client with chronic asthma is admitted to the PACU complaining of pain at a level of 8 on a 1 to 10 A. Give the medication as prescribed to decrease the client's pain. B. Call the anesthesia provider for a different medication for pain. C. Use nonpharmacologic techniques before giving the medication. D. Reassess the pain level in 30 minutes and medicate if it remains elevated. scale, with a blood pressure of 124/78 mm Hg, pulse of 88 beats/min, and respirations of 20 breaths/min. The PACU recovery prescription is "Morphine, 2 to 4 mg IV push, while in recovery for pain level over 5." Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Rationale: The nurse should call the provider for a different medication because morphine is a histamine-releasing opioid and should be avoided when the client has asthma. Option A is unsafe because it puts the client at risk for an asthma exacerbation. Even if the drug were safe for the client, options C and D both disregard the prescription and the client's need for pain relief in the immediate postoperative period.
A client with alcohol-related liver disease is admitted to the unit. Which prescription should the nurse call the health care provider about for reverification for this client? A. Vitamin K1, 5 mg IM daily B. High-calorie, low-sodium diet C. Fluid restriction to 1500 mL/day D. Nembutal sodium at bedtime for rest
Sedatives such as pentobarbital are contraindicated for clients with liver damage and can have dangerous consequences. Option A is often prescribed because the normal clotting mechanism is damaged. Option B is needed to help restore energy to the debilitated client. Sodium is often restricted because of edema. Fluids are restricted to decrease ascites, which often accompanies cirrhosis, particularly in the later stages of the disease.
The nurse is assessing a 75-year-old client for symptoms of hyperglycemia. Which symptom of hyperglycemia is an older adult most likely to exhibit? A. Polyuria B. Polydipsia C. Weight loss D. Infection
Signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia in older adults may include fatigue, infection, and evidence of neuropathy (e.g., sensory changes). The nurse needs to remember that classic signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia, such as options A, B, and C and polyphagia, may be absent in older adults.
The nurse assesses a postoperative client whose skin is cool, pale, and moist. The client is very restless and has scant urine output. Oxygen is being administered at 2 L/min, and a saline lock is in place. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? A. Measure the urine specific gravity. B. Obtain IV fluids for infusion per protocol. C. Prepare for insertion of a central venous catheter. D. Auscultate the client's breath sounds.
The client is at risk for hypovolemic shock because of the postoperative status and is exhibiting early signs of shock. A priority intervention is the initiation of IV fluids to restore tissue perfusion. Options A, C, and D are all important interventions but are of lower priority than option B.
During assessment of a client in the intensive care unit, the nurse notes that the client's breath sounds are clear on auscultation, but jugular vein distention and muffled heart sounds are present. Which intervention should the nurse implement? A. Prepare the client for a pericardial tap. B. Administer intravenous furosemide (Lasix). C. Assist the client to cough and breathe deeply. D. Instruct the client to restrict oral fluid intake.
The client is exhibiting symptoms of cardiac tamponade, a collection of fluid in the pericardial sac that results in a reduction in cardiac output, which is a potentially fatal complication of pericarditis. Treatment for tamponade is a pericardial tap. Lasix IV is not indicated for treatment of pericarditis. Because the client's breath sounds are clear, option C is not a priority. Fluids are frequently increased in the initial treatment of tamponade to compensate for the decrease in cardiac output, but this is not the same priority as option A.
A client with hypertension has been receiving ramipril (Altace), 5 mg PO, daily for 2 weeks and is scheduled to receive a dose at 0900. At 0830, the client's blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take? A. Administer the prescribed dose at the scheduled time. B. Hold the dose and contact the health care provider. C. Hold the dose and recheck the blood pressure in 1 hour. D. Check the health care provider's prescription to clarify the dose.
The client's blood pressure is within normal limits, indicating that the ramipril, an antihypertensive, is having the desired effect and should be administered. Options B and C would be appropriate if the client's blood pressure was excessively low (<100 mm Hg systolic) or if the client were exhibiting signs of hypotension such as dizziness. This prescribed dose is within the normal dosage range, as defined by the manufacturer; therefore, option D is not necessary.
A male client has just undergone a laryngectomy and has a cuffed tracheostomy tube in place. When initiating bolus tube feedings postoperatively, when should the nurse inflate the cuff? A. Immediately after feeding B. Just prior to tube feeding C. Continuous inflation is required D. Inflation is not required
The cuff should be inflated before the feeding to block the trachea and prevent food from entering if oral feedings are started while a cuffed tracheostomy tube is in place. It should remain inflated throughout the feeding to prevent aspiration of food into the respiratory system. Options A and D place the client at risk for aspiration. Option C places the client at risk for tracheal wall necrosis.
The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a group of healthy adults. Which individual is most likely to maintain optimum health? A. A teacher whose blood glucose levels average 126 mg/dL daily with oral antidiabetic drugs B. An accountant whose blood pressure averages 140/96 mm Hg and who says he does not have time to exercise C. A stock broker whose total serum cholesterol level dropped to 290 mg/dL with diet modifications D. A recovering IV heroin user who contracted hepatitis more than 10 years ago
The diabetic teacher has assumed responsibility for self-care, so among those listed, he or she is the most likely to maintain optimum health. Option B has expressed a lack of interest in health promotion. Option C continues to demonstrate a high-risk cholesterol level despite a reported attempt at dietary modifications. Previous IV drug use and a history of hepatitis make this individual a health risk despite the fact that the individual is in recovery.
The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a group of healthy adults. Which individual is most likely to maintain optimum health? A. A teacher whose blood glucose levels average 126 mg/dL daily with oral antidiabetic drugs B. An accountant whose blood pressure averages 140/96 mm Hg and who says he does not have time to exercise C. A stock broker whose total serum cholesterol level dropped to 290 mg/dL with diet modifications D. A recovering IV heroin user who contracted hepatitis more than 10 years ago
The diabetic teacher has assumed responsibility for self-care, so among those listed, he or she is the most likely to maintain optimum health. Option B has expressed a lack of interest in health promotion. Option C continues to demonstrate a high-risk cholesterol level despite a reported attempt at dietary modifications. Previous IV drug use and a history of hepatitis make this individual a health risk despite the fact that the individual is in recovery.
A female client with a nasogastric tube attached to low suction states that she is nauseated. The nurse assesses that there has been no drainage through the nasogastric tube in the last 2 hours. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Irrigate the nasogastric tube with sterile normal saline. B. Reposition the client on her side. C. Advance the nasogastric tube 5 cm. D. Administer an intravenous antiemetic as prescribed.
The immediate priority is to determine if the tube is functioning correctly, which would then relieve the client's nausea. The least invasive intervention, repositioning the client, should be attempted first, followed by options A and C, unless either of these interventions is contraindicated. If these measures are unsuccessful, the client may require option D.
The nurse notes that the client's drainage has decreased from 50 to 5 mL/hr 12 hours after chest tube insertion for hemothorax. What is the best initial action for the nurse to take? A. Document this expected decrease in drainage. B. Clamp the chest tube while assessing for air leaks. C. Milk the tube to remove any excessive blood clot buildup. D. Assess for kinks or dependent loops in the tubing.
The least invasive nursing action should be performed first to determine why the drainage has diminished. Option A is completed after assessing for any problems causing the decrease in drainage. Option B is no longer considered standard protocol because the increase in pressure may be harmful to the client. Option C is an appropriate nursing action after the tube has been assessed for kinks or dependent loops.
The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube to water seal drainage that was inserted 10 days ago because of a ruptured bullae and pneumothorax. Which finding should the nurse report to the health care provider before the chest tube is removed? A. Tidaling of water in water seal chamber B. Bilateral muffled breath sounds at bases C. Temperature of 101° F D. Absence of chest tube drainage for 2 days
Tidaling (rising and falling of water with respirations) in the water seal chamber should be reported to the health care provider before the chest tube is removed to rule out an unresolved pneumothorax or persistent air leak, which is characteristic of a ruptured bullae caused by abnormally wide changes in negative intrathoracic pressure. Option B may indicate hypoventilation from chest tube discomfort and usually improves when the chest tube is removed. Option C usually indicates an infection, which may not be related to the chest tube. Option D is an expected finding.
Neurogenic Bladder S/S
UTI, Kidney stones, Small urine volume during voiding, urinary frequency/urgency, dribbling urine, loss of feeling that bladder is full
