Micro I Final
36. Which type of cell is severely depressed in AIDS patients? Cytotoxic T cells Helper T cells B cells Plasma cells Suppressor T cells
Helper T cells
40. Which antibody confers the most important specific local immunity to enteric, respiratory, and genitourinary pathogens? IgD IgE IgG IgM IgA
IgA
23. The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body secretions is IgA. IgD. IgE. IgG. IgM.
IgA.
25. The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells is IgA. IgD. IgE. IgG. IgM.
IgE.
24. The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is IgA. IgD. IgE. IgG. IgM.
IgG
28. When antiserum is subjected to electrophoresis, the gamma globulin band contains mostly IgM. IgA. IgD. IgE. IgG.
IgG
38. In the secondary response to an antigen, the predominant antibody is IgD. IgE. IgG. IgM. IgA.
IgG.
37. In the primary response to an antigen, the first class of antibody to be secreted is IgD. IgE. IgG. IgM. IgA.
IgM
27. Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement? IgM only IgG only IgD only IgM and IgG IgE and IgA
IgM and IgG
18. Which is incorrect about the Fc region of an immunoglobulin? It determines the antibody's distribution in the body. It forms the antigen binding sites. It contains an effector molecule that can bind to cells such as macrophages and mast cells. It contains an effector molecule that can fix complement. It determines the class to which the immunoglobulin belongs.
It forms the antigen binding sites.
19. Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby disrupting their activity? Neutralization Opsonization Complement fixation Agglutination Anamnestic response
Neutralization
57. Which of the following conditions have been conclusively proven to be linked to childhood vaccinations? Autism Diabetes Asthma All of the choices are correct. None of the choices are correct.
None of the choices are correct.
21. Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis? Neutralization Opsonization Complement fixation Agglutination Anamnestic response
Opsonization
51. Vaccinia virus is often used in the technique to make adjuvant. booster. antibodies to toxin. gamma globulin. "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine
"Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine
52. Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immugenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site? Adjuvant Booster Antibodies to toxin Gamma globulin "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine
Adjuvant
20. Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates? Neutralization Opsonization Complement fixation Agglutination Anamnestic response
Agglutination
12. Lymphocyte maturation involves hormonal signals that initiate development. B cells maturing in bone marrow sites. T cells maturing in the thymus. release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct
16. Antigen presenting cells include dendritic cells. include macrophages. engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic. hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct
17. T cell response to T-cell-dependent antigens requires typically a protein antigen. binding of T cell to a Class II MHC receptor on an antigen-presenting cell. binding of T cell to a site on the antigen. interleukin-1 activating the T helper cell. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct
. Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions are the result of genetic expression. function in recognition of self molecules. receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system. aid in cellular development. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
31. Monoclonal antibodies originate from a single B cell clone. have a single specificity for antigen. are secreted by hybridomas. are used in immunology lab tests and cancer therapy. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
45. Immunotherapy is the use of antitoxins. use of immune serum globulin. conferring of passive immunity. administering of preformed antibodies. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
47. Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by removal of virulence genes from the microbe. treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation. passage of the pathogen through unnatural hosts or tissue culture. long-term subculturing of the microbe. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
55. The DTaP immunization contains diphtheria toxoid. is administered in childhood. contains tetanus toxoid. contains a pertussis vaccine with acellular capsule material. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
9. Lymphocytes possess MHC antigens for recognizing self. have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens. gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self. develop into clones of B and T cells with extreme variations of specificity. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
22. Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen? Neutralization Opsonization Complement fixation Agglutination Anamnestic response
Anamnestic response
43. Cody is 4 months old and is given an MMR injection by his pediatrician as part of the routine immunization schedule. What type of immunity is this? Natural active immunity Artificial passive immunity Natural passive immunity Artificial active immunity None of the choices will protect him
Artificial active immunity
56. Which of the immunizations would carry the greatest risk for immunocompromised patients? Killed, inactivated vaccines Attenuated vaccines Toxoids Immune serums Subunit vaccines
Attenuated vaccines
61. Antibody molecules circulate in lymph, blood, and tissue fluids. True False
True
34. An example of natural passive immunity would be chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. None of the choices are correct.
a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
6. The major histocompatability complex is a group of blood vessels that protects the nervous system. a set of genes that code for MHC cell receptors. also known as the complement system. located in the thymus gland. All of the choices are correct.
a set of genes that code for MHC cell receptors.
Giardia intestinalis, a protozoan, possesses the following virulence factor.
a) Adhesive disc
Which of the factors below is not considered to be an example of a virulence factor?
a) Prodrome
Streptococcus pyogenes is a causative agent of
a) scarlet fever
Symbiosis is an association between:
a) two or more species
. Helper T cells secrete antibodies. function in allergic reactions. directly destroy target cells. suppress immune reactions. activate B cells and other T cells
activate B cells and other T cells
72. Certain body sites contain sequestered molecules, called _____ that escaped assessment during development of immune tolerance and are mistaken as foreign.
autoantigens
Which of the following statements about host-microbes is true?
b) Infestation refers to the presence of larger parasites.
What is a disease referred to when symptoms develop rapidly and it runs its course quickly?
b) acute infection
The spreading of exotoxins from the site of infection via the blood is called:
b) toxemia
1. The bone marrow is where immune responses to antigen occur. blood stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes. antigen is filtered from the blood. antigen is filtered from tissue fluid. T lymphocytes complete maturation.
blood stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes.
42. Herceptin is an example of a monoclonal antibody-based drug for asthma. Chron's disease. breast cancer. respiratory syncytial virus. All of the choices are correct.
breast cancer
A symbiotic relationship in which one species benefits from the association while the other species is not harmed but does not benefit from the relationship.
c) Commensalism
The microorganism Staphylococcus aureus causes which condition?
c) Scalded skin syndrome
Which of the following statements about the relationship between hosts and microbes is true?
c) Some organisms can be pathogens and commensals.
The rapid transfer of a microbial pathogen through animals of a susceptible species _____.
c) can increase the intensity of the disease produced by that pathogen
Resident microflora:
c) may be responsible for opportunistic infections in immunocompromised individuals
Diseases in which permanent damage occurs produce:
c) sequelae
All of the following are true of the relationship between microorganisms and diseases except:
c) viral infections invariably lead to nutritional deficiency
35. An example of artificial active immunity would be chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. None of the choices are correct.
chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
71. Each genetically distinct group of lymphocytes that possesses the same specificity is called a _____.
clone
54. Antitoxins contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin. use Vaccinia virus with genetic material of bacterial toxins. contain purified, chemically denatured bacterial exotoxin. include capsule material against the pneumococcus and meningococcus
contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin.
50. Toxoids contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules. are always genetically engineered. contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses. confer passive immunity. All of the choices are correct.
contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.
49. Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules. are always genetically engineered. contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses. confer passive immunity. All of the choices are correct.
contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.
29. The most significant cells in graft rejection are helper T cells. suppressor T cells. cytotoxic T cells. B cells. natural killer (NK) cells.
cytotoxic T cells.
Which of the following does not pertain to the mutualistic organism E. coli?
d) Synthesizes blood clotting factors
What causes the cytopathic effect (CPE)?
d) Viruses
Which of the following microbes easily satisfies Koch's postulates?
d) Yersinia, the causative agent of plague as it can be isolated from sick patients
Which of the following must be true in order to satisfy some of Koch's postulates?
d) causative agent must be isolated from diseased host and grown in pure culture
A healthcare worker fails to follow aseptic procedures while cleaning a wound, washes his hands properly afterwards and suffers no ill effects—this is an example of:
d) contamination
All of the following are true of most diseases caused by a fungus except:
d) fungi can use its flagellum to expel tissue fluids
Infection that does not produce a full set of signs and symptoms is called a/an:
d) inapparent infection
All of the following pertain to microbial virulence except _____.
d) increases by attenuation
A viral infection that involves continued and prolonged production of viruses in a host is referred to as a/an:
d) persistent infection
All of the following refer to the normal microflora except _____.
d) resident microorganisms are found in nervous system and blood
Factors that improve the chances of a pathogen's ability to invade a host and cause infection are known as:
d) virulence factors
41. The process of clonal deletion is designed to destroy clones of lymphocytes able to react to self molecules. slow down the primary immune response to an antigen. slow down the secondary immune response to an antigen. limit the number of lymphocyte clones an individual has in order to make the system more efficient. slow down the immune system in the elderly.
destroy clones of lymphocytes able to react to self molecules.
53. Variolation involved using dried, ground smallpox scabs. a recombinant carrier with genetic material of the smallpox virus. preparations of human cowpox lesions. antibodies to the smallpox virus. None of the choices are correct.
dried, ground smallpox scabs.
14. The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/an epitope. hapten. antigen binding site. variable region. None of the choices are correct.
epitope
75. Each _____ fragment of an antibody molecule contains the variable regions of a heavy and light chain that folds into a groove for one antigenic determinant.
fab
63. Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa. True False
false
65. After secreting antibodies during an immune response, plasma cells then differentiate into memory cells. True False
false
68. The albumin fraction of serum separated by electrophoresis will contain most of the antibodies. True False
false
69. Antibody molecules can act as enzyme to directly destroy an antigen. True False
false
10. The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all the following except two identical heavy polypeptide chains. two identical light polypeptide chains. disulfide bonds between polypeptide chains. four antigen binding sites. a variable and constant region on each polypeptide chain.
four antigen binding sites.
33. An example of artificial passive immunity would be chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. None of the choices are correct.
giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease
15. Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed antigenic determinant. hapten. antigen binding site. variable region. None of the choices are correct.
hapten
73. _____ is the most abundant class of antibodies in serum.
igG
44. Edward Jenner's work involved inoculation of dried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity. development of passive immunotherapy. development of an immunization to protect people against cowpox. immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one. All of the choices are correct.
immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one.
48. Live, attenuated vaccines include the Sabin polio vaccine. include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR). contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person. require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines. All of the choices are correct.
include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR).
26. All of the following are characteristics of IgM except it has 10 antigen binding sites. it contains a central J chain. it is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell. it can fix complement. it is a dimer.
it is a dimer.
39. All of the following characterize the secondary response to an antigen except a higher titer of antibody is produced than the primary response. a longer persistence of antibody than with the primary response. a quicker rate of antibody synthesis than the primary response. it is mostly IgM antibodies that are produced. it is also known as the anamnestic response.
it is mostly IgM antibodies that are produced.
60. All of the following are characteristics of an effective vaccine except it should have a relatively long shelf life. it should stimulate only the antibody (B-cell) response. it should protect against wild forms of the pathogen. it should not require numerous boosters. it should be easy to administer.
it should stimulate only the antibody (B-cell) response.
13. Properties of effective antigens include all the following except foreign to the immune system. molecular complexity. large molecules with a minimum molecular weight of 1,000. large polymers made up of repeating subunits. cells or large, complex molecules.
large polymers made up of repeating subunits.
8. Class I MHC genes code for certain secreted complement components. markers that display unique characteristics of self. all HLA antigens. receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells. All of the choices are correct.
markers that display unique characteristics of self.
30. Which are the first to attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells? helper T cells suppressor T cells cytotoxic T cells delayed hypersensitivity T cells natural killer (NK) cells
natural killer (NK) cells
74. A hybridoma results from the fusion of a myeloma cell with a normal _____ cell.
plasma
2. The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called antibodies. sensitized T cells. activated macrophages. plasma cells. Bursa cells.
plasma cells
7. Class II MHC genes code for certain secreted complement components. self receptors recognized by natural killer cells. all HLA antigens. receptors located primarily on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells. All of the choices are correct.
receptors located primarily on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells.
4. Plasma cells secrete antibodies. function in allergic reactions. directly destroy target cells. suppress immune reactions. activate B cells and other T cells.
secrete antibodies
32. Cytotoxic T cells stimulate B cell proliferation. lack specificity for a target cell. secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells. secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T cells. All of the choices are correct.
secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells.
46. High titers of specific antibodies are components of specific immune globulin (SIG). gamma globulin. immune serum globulin (ISG). attenuated vaccines. toxoids.
specific immune globulin (SIG).
58. All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except they require smaller doses. they require fewer boosters. they confer longer lasting protection. they can be transmitted to other people. they produce infection but not disease.
they can be transmitted to other people.
59. All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except they confer longer lasting protection. they produce infection but not disease. they can mutate back to a virulent strain. they require fewer boosters. they require smaller doses.
they can mutate back to a virulent strain.
62. Scientists are currently developing bananas that synthesize proteins from pathogens, as a delivery system to vaccinate populations that otherwise would not have access to them. True False
true
64. Activation of B cells occurs when antigen bonds to B cell surface immunoglobulin receptors. True False
true
66. A disadvantage of using a live microbe in a vaccine is it can conceivably mutate back to a virulent strain. True False
true
67. Autoantigens are types of antigens that cause damage to host tissue as a consequence of the immune response. True False
true
70. Gamma globulin can be given as immunotherapy to confer artificial passive immunity. True False
true
11. The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is very different from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the variable region. joining region. constant region. light region. hinge region.
variable region