Microbiology Chapter 13-17

11. Which of the following statements is the best definition of a pandemic disease? A. It normally occurs in a given geographic area B. It is a disease that occurs more frequently than usual for a geographical area or group of people C. It occurs infrequently at no predictable time scattered over a large area or population D. It is an epidemic that occurs on more than one continent at the same time.

D

12. An antiserum is A. An anti-antibody B. An inactivated vaccine C. Formed of monoclonal antibodies D. The liquid portion of blood used for immunization

D

13. Monoclonal antibodies A. Are produced by hybridomas B. Are secreted by clone cells C. Can be used for passive immunization D. All of the above

D

14. A patient contracted athlete's foot after long term use of a medication. His physician explained that the malady was directly related to the medication. Such infections are termed _____________________. A. Healthcare associated infections B. Exogenous infections C. Iatrogenic infections D. Endogenous infections

D

14. The study of antibody antigen interaction in the blood is A. Attenuation B. Agglutination C. Precipitation D. Serology

D

2. Mucus-secreting membranes are found in A. The urinary system B. The digestive cavity C. The respiratory passages D. All of the above

D

5. Among the key molecules that control cell mediated cytotoxicity are A. Perforin B. Immunoglobulins C. Complement D. Cytokines E. Interferons

D

5. Complement must be inactivated because if it were not, A. Viruses could continue to multiply inside host cells using the host's own metabolic machinery B. Necessary interferons would be produced C. Protein synthesis would be inhibited, thus halting important cell processes. D. It could make holes in the body's own cells

D

5. The process by which microorganisms attach themselves to cells is ________________. A. Infection B. Contamination C. Disease D. Adhesion

D

7. Interferons A. Do not protect the cell that secretes them B. Stimulate the activity of macrophages C. Cause muscle aches, chills, and fever D. All of the above

D

7. Which of the following are most likely to cause disease? A. Opportunistic pathogens in a weakened host B. Pathogens lacking the enzyme kinase C. Pathogens lacking the enzyme collagenase D. Highly virulent organisms

D

8. Which cells express MHC class I molecules in a patient? A. Red blood cells B. Antigens presenting cells only C. Neutrophils only D. All nucleated cells E. Dendritic cells only

D

8. Which of the following viruses can be latent? A. HIV B. Chicken Pox virus C. Herpesviruses D. All of the above

D

9. Which of the following is not a criterion for specific family classification of viruses? A. The type of nucleic acid present B. Envelope structure C. Capsid type D. Lipid composition

D

1. Antibodies function to A. Directly destroy foreign organ grafts B. Mark invading organisms for destruction C. Kill intracellular viruses D. Directly promote cytokine sythesis E. Stimulate T cell growth

B

10. A clear zone of phage infection in a bacterial lawn is ________________ A. A prophage B. A plaque C. Naked D. A zone of inhibition

B

12. Which of the following types of epidemiologists is most like a detective? A. A descriptive epidemiologist B. An analytical epidemiologist C. An experimental epidemiologist D. A reservoir epidemiologist

B

15. Which of the following phrases describes a contagious disease? A. A disease arising from fomites B. A disease that is easily passed from host in aerosols C. A disease that arises from opportunistic, normal microbiota D. Both a and b

B

2. An axenic environment is one that ______________ A. Exists in the human mouth B. Contains only one species C. Exists in the human colon D. Both a and c

B

3. The complement system involves A. The production of antigens and antibodies B. Serum proteins involved in nonspecific defense C. A set of genes that distinguish foreign cells from body cells D. The elimination of undigested remnants of microorganisms

B

3. Which of the following is false concerning microbial contaminants? A. Contaminants may become opportunistic pathogens B. Most microbial contaminants will eventually cause harm C. Contaminants may be a part of the transient microbiota D. Contaminants may be introduced by a mosquito bite

B

3. Which of the following viruses was widely used in living vaccines? A. Coronavirus B. Poliovirus C. Influenzavirus D. Retrovirus E. myxovirus

B

4. An autoantigen is A. An antigen from normal microbiota B. A normal body component C. An artificial antigen D. Any carbohydrate antigen E. A nucleic acid

B

5. Which of the following statements is false? A. Viruses may have circular DNA B. dsRNA is found in bacteria more often than in viruses C. Viral DNA may be linear D. Typically, viruses have DNA or RNA but not both

B

8. Which of the following is not targeted by a Toll like receptor? A. Lipid A B. Eukaryotic flagellar protein C. Single stranded RNA D. Lipoteichoic acid

B

9. A direct fluorescent antibody test can be used to detect the presence of A. Hemagglutination B. Specific antigens C. Antibodies D. Complement E. Precipitate antigen antibody complexes

B

10. Which of the following is a good test to detect rabies virus in the brain of a dog? A. Agglutination B. Hemagglutination inhibition C. Virus neutralization D. Precipitation E. Direct fluorescent antibody

E

2. MHC class II molecules bind to ________________ and trigger __________________. A. Endogenous antigens; cytotoxic T cells B. Exogenous antigens; cytotoxic T cells C. Antibodies; B cells D. Endogenous antigens; helper T cells E. Exogenous antigens; helper T cells

E

3. Rejection of a foreign skin graft is an example of A. Destruction of virus infected cells B. Tolerance C. Antibody mediated immunity D. A secondary immune response E. A cell mediated immune response

E

5. An anti-antibody is used when A. An antigen is not precipitating B. An antibody is not agglutinating C. An antibody does not activate complement D. An antigen is insoluble E. The antigen is an antibody

E

6. The many different proteins in serum can be analyzed by A. An anti-antibody test B. A complement fixation test C. A precipitation test D. An agglutination test E. An immunodiffusion test

E

7. A direct fluorescent antibody test requires which of the following? A. Heat inactivated serum B. Fluorescent serum C. Immune complexes D. Heated plasma E. Antibodies against the antigen

E

9. In which of the following sites in the body can B cells be found? A. Lymph nodes B. Spleen C. Red bone marrow D. Intestinal wall E. All of the above

E

1. Which of the following is not an acellular agent? A. Viroid B. Virus C. Rickettsia D. Prion

C

13. Consider the following case. An animal was infected with a virus. A mosquito bit the animal, was contaminated with the virus, and proceeded to bite and infect a person. Which was the vector? A. Animal B. Virus C. Mosquito D. Person

C

15. Anti-human antibody antibodies are A. Found in immunocompromised individuals B. Used in direct fluorescent antibody tests C. Formed by animals reacting to human immunoglobulins D. An alternative method in ELISA

C

2. Which of the following statements is true? A. Viruses move toward their host cells B. Viruses are capable of metabolism C. Viruses lack a cytoplasmic membrane D. Viruses grow in response to their environmental conditions

C

2. Which of the following vaccine types is commonly given with an adjuvant? A. An attenuated vaccine B. A modified live vaccine C. A chemically killed vaccine D. An immunoglobulin E. An agglutinating antigen

C

4. When antigen and antibodies combine, maximal precipitation occurs when A. Antigen is in excess B. Antibody is in excess C. Antigen and antibody are at equivalent concentration D. An antigen is insoluble E. The antigens is an antigen

C

6. The type of interferon present late in an infection is A. Alpha interferon B. Beta interferon C. Gamma interferon D. Delta interferon

C

6. When a eukaryotic cell is infected with an enveloped virus and sheds viruses slowly over time, this infection is _____________ A. Called a lytic infection B. A prophage cycle C. Called a persistent infection D. Caused by a quiescent virus

C

7. The major class of immunoglobulin found on the surfaces of the walls of the intestines and airways is secretory A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE E. IgD

C

8. The nature of bacterial capsules ____________ A. Causes widespread blood clotting B. Allows phagocytes to readily engulf these bacteria C. Affects the virulence of these bacteria D. Has no effect on the virulence of bacteria

C

1. Phagocytes of the epidermis are called A. Microglia B. Goblet cells C. Alveolar macrophages D. Dendritic cells

D

1. To obtain immediate immunity against tetanus, a patient should receive A. An attenuated vaccine of Clostridium tetani B. A modified live vaccine of C. Tetani C. Tetanus toxoid D. Immunoglobulin against tetanus toxin E. A subunit vaccine against C. tetani

D

10. A disease in which a pathogen remains inactive for a long period of time before becoming active is termed a(n) _________________ A. Subacute disease B. Acute disease C. Chronic disease D. Latent disease

D

10. Which of the following binds iron? A. Lactoferrin B. Siderophores C. Transferrin D. All of the above

D

1. In which type of symbiosis do both members benefit from their interaction? A. Mutualism B. Parasitism C. Commensalism D. Pathogenesis

A

10. Tc cells recognize epitopes only when the latter are held by A. MHC Proteins B. B cells C. Interleukin 2 D. Granzyme

A

11. Attenuation is A. The process of reducing virulence B. A necessary step in vaccine manufacture C. A form of variolation D. Similar to an adjuvant

A

3. A virus that is specific for a bacterial host is called a A. Phage B. Prion C. Virion D. Viroid

A

4. A naked virus ________________ A. Has no membranous envelope B. Has injected its DNA or RNA into a host cell C. Is devoid of capsomeres D. Is one that is unattached to a host cell

A

4. The alterative complement activation pathway involves A. Factors B, D, and P B. The cleavage of C5 to form C9 C. Binding to mannose sugar D. Recognition of antigens bound to specific antibodies

A

4. The most frequent portal of entry for pathogens is ____________________ A. The respiratory tract B. The skin C. The conjunctiva D. A cut or wound

A

6. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in infectious diseases? A. Incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence B. Incubation, decline, prodromal period, illness, convalescence C. Prodromal period, incubation, illness, decline, convalescence D. Convalescence, prodromal period, incubation, illness, decline

A

6. Which of the following lymphocytes predominates in blood? A. T cells B. B cells C. Plasma cells D. Memory cells E. All are about equally prevalent

A

7. Another name for a complete virus is __________ A. Virion B. Viroid C. Prion D. Capsid

A

8. An ELISA uses which of the following reagents? A. An enzymes labeled anti-antibody B. A radioactive anti-antibody C. A source of complement D. An enzyme labeled antigen E. An enzyme labeled antibody

A

9. Toll like receptors (TLRs) act to A. Bind microbial proteins and polysaccharides B. Induce phagocytosis C. Cause phagocytic chemotaxis D. Destroy microbial cells

A

9. When pathogenic bacterial cells lose the ability to make adhesins, they typically ___________________ A. Become avirulent B. Produce endotoxin C. Absorb endotoxin D. Increase in virulence

A