Microbiology Final Exam Review

Which of the following organisms causes a disease contracted from consumption of contaminated food or water?

A) STAPHYLOCOCCUS AUREUS B) Enterococcus faecalis C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Streptococcus salivarius E) Micrococcus luteus

Which of the following is not a dermatophyte?

A) Epidermophyton B) DERMATOSPORUM C) Microsporum D) Trichophyton E) All of the above are dermatophytes

Flavoadenine Dinucleotide in its oxidized form is symbolized as:

A) FADH B) FADH2 C) FAD+ D) FAD (right answer) E) None of the above

Some bacteria synthesize sex pili on the outside of the cell. While these can have a variety of functions, the main function of this structure:

A) FOR A ONE WAY EXCHANGE OF GENETIC INFORMATION IN THE FORM OF A PLASMID B) For attachment to other cells or surfaces C) To protect the cell from harsh environmental conditions such as high oxygen concentrations D) To prevent phagocytosis by predators to which the cell is especially vulnerable during conjugation E) All of the above

Which of the following is not a correct form of protozoan motility?

A) Flagella B) Cilia C) AXIAL FILAMENT D) Pseudopodia E) All of the above are correct forms of protozoan motility

Which of the following bacteria are known to invade host/human cells?

A) Salmonella B) Shigella C) Vibrio D) Yersinia E) A AND B ONLY

Streptococcus pyogenes:

A) Is the main cause of bacterial meningitis B) IS THE CAUSATIVE AGENT OF RHEUMATIC FEVER C) Is the causative agent of most boils and pimples D) Is known to cause carditis E) All of the above

Outside of living cells viruses are:

A) Scavenging glucose B) Slowly stockpiling ATP from the mitochondria C) Using cilia to move to the next host D) METABOLICALLY INERT E) Capable of reproducing

Which of the following are not known to cause respiratory infections?

A) Serratia marcescens B) Klebsiella pneumoniae C) Enterobacter aerogenes D) Yersinia pestis E) ALL OF THE ABOVE CAUSE RESPIRATORY INFECTIONS

Which of the following are true of the Protista?

A) Some members are photosynthetic B) A higher level host is never required to complete the life cycle C) ALL MEMBERS SPEND A PORTION OF THEIR LIFETIME WITH A MEANS OF MOTILITY D) Most are transmitted as cysts that are ingested by the vector E) All of the above are true

Which of the following bacteria causes bloody diarrhea?

A) Vibrio cholerae B) SHIGELLA FLEXNERI C) Yersinia enterocolitica D) Proteus mirabilis E) Salmonella enteritidis

Which of the following general statements are true of viruses?

A) Viruses always have a double stranded nucleic acid B) Viruses are only able to replicate outside of the host cell C) ARE HARDER TO DESTROY IN THE BODY WHEN ENVELOPED BUT IRONICALLY THESE VIRUSES ARE THE EASIEST TO INACTIVATE OUTSIDE THE HUMAN HOST D) The nucleic acid is enclosed by lipid subunits which prevent diffusion of the nucleic acid, thereby requiring a transport system E) All of the above

Which of the following are known to cause meningitis?

A) Early onset Listeria monocytogenes B) EHEC Escherichia coli C) Branhamella catarrhalis D) NEISSERIA MENINGITIDIS E) A and D both cause meningitis

Which of the following is a water requiring reaction of the Tricarboxylic Acid cycle?

A) 3-phosphoglycerate --> phosphoenolpyruvate B) Pyruvate + CoA --> Acetyl CoA + CO2 C) FUMARATE --> MALATE D) Succinyl CoA --> Succinate + CoA E) None of the above because water is not required in the TCA cycle

The average number of proteins in a bacterial cell membrane is:

A) 50 different types B) Over 1,000 different types C) AT LEAST 200 DIFFERENT TYPES D) Usually limited by the age and size of the cell, but only one copy of each protein is found E) Impossible to determine as each bacterium is unique in their metabolism

Which of the following terms is correctly associated with its definition?

A) A FRANK (TRUE) PATHOGEN IS ONE THAT CAUSES DISEASE WHEN PRESENT B) An opportunistic pathogen is one that creates conditions such that it can cause disease C) A non-pathogen causes fewer than 1% of a classic series of symptoms (Ex: fewer than 1% of all cases of pneumonia are caused by Micrococcus luteus) D) An opportunistic pathogen is one that is rarely pathogenic, requiring extreme conditions of immunosuppression in the host E) A and B only

Which of the following best describes a reservoir?

A) A LOWER-ORDER ORGANISM (COMPARED TO HUMANS) WHICH INDIRECTLY TRANSMITS THE DISEASE BUT DOESNT USUALLY EXHIBIT SIGNS OR SYMPTOMS B) A higher-order organism which carries the disease and exhibits signs and symptoms C) A lower-order organism (compared to humans) that directly transmits the disease from one individual or organism to another D) The causative agent E) None of the above

Endospores are:

A) A SURVIVAL STRUCTURE SYNTHESIZED IN ADVERSE CONDITIONS B) A reproductive structure C) Actively metabolizing life forms behind a very thick protein coat D) Sensitive to damaging environmental conditions E) A and C only

Which of the following best describes a vector?

A) A lower-order organism (compared to humans) which indirectly transmits the disease but doesnt usually exhibit signs or symptoms B) A higher-order organism which carries the disease and exhibits signs and symptoms C) A LOWER-ORDER ORGANISM (COMPARED TO HUMANS) THAT TRANSMITS THE DISEASE FROM ONE INDIVIDUAL OR ORGANISM TO ANOTHER D) The causative agent E) None of the above

Integration refers to:

A) A virus entering a host during the lytic cycle B) A virus entering a host during the lysogenic cycle C) A virus modifying its capsid to escape detection by the host immune system D) A VIRUS INCORPORATING ITS NUCLEIC ACID INTO THE HOST GENOME E) A virus developing an envelope in order to escape detection by the host immune system

Which of the following type of spore is correctly matched to its decription?

A) ARTHROSPORES- AN INDIVIDUAL SEGMENT OF THE HYPHAE THAT BREAKS OFF AND THEN BECOMES A THICKENED CELL B) Conidiospore- A segment of hyphae that becomes thickened and then breaks away from the remainder of the fungal growth C) Chlamydospores- spores that are not enclosed in a structure but rather are produced in chains at the end of a chlamydospore D) Sporangiospores- are produced by budding in clusters off the aerial hyphae of the fungal growth E) None of the above are correct

This class of fungi is often referred to as the "sac fungi". They produce 2,4, 6, or 8 spores at a time.

A) ASCOMYCETES B) Basidiomycetes C) Deuteromycetes D) Zygomycetes E) Both A and D are correct

Which of the following organisms would not be found in the genitourinary tract?

A) Enterococcus faecalis B) Staphylococcus aureus C) STREPTOCOCCUS PYOGENES D) Streptococcus agalactiae E) All of the above would be found in the genitourinary tract

Which of the following correctly describes substrate-level phosphorylation?

A) ATP IS GENERATED BY REMOVING A PHOSPHATE GROUP FROM AN ORGANIC MOLECULE AND ADDING IT TO AN ADP MOLECULE B) ATP is generated by the addition of inorganic phosphate to ADP through the existence of an electrochemical gradient on the cell membrane C) ATP temporarily accepts 2 electrons and is recycled back to ADP through the existence of an electrochemical gradient on the cell membrane D) ATP is generated by pumping protons into the cell through ATPase, supplying enough energy to break a phosphate group off of an organic molecule and add it to ADP E) None of the above

Which of the following correctly describes oxidative phosphorylation?

A) ATP is generated by removing a phosphate group from an organic molecule and adding it to an ADP molecule B) ATP IS GENERATED BY THE ADDITION OF INORGANIC PHOSPHATE TO ADP THROUGH THE EXISTENCE OF AN ELECTROCHEMICAL GRADIENT ON THE CELL MEMBRANE C) ATP temporarily accepts two electrons and it recycled back to ADP through the existence of an electrochemical gradient on the cell membrane D) ATP is generated by pumping protons into the cell through ATPase, supplying enough energy to break a phosphate group off of an organic molecule and add it to ADP E) B and D only

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events during the Lytic cycle?

A) ATTACHMENT, PENETRATION, INTEGRATION WHICH IS IMMEDIATELY FOLLOWED BY SYNTHESIS, ASSEMBLY, AND RELEASE B) Penetration, integration, synthesis, assembly and lysis (Attachment is not an issue since all animal viruses can attach to any animal cell) C) Attachment, penetration, synthesis, assembly, and release (It is not essential that viruses become integrated since they can all control host cells outside of the nucleus) D) Attachment, penetration, integration, latency, synthesis, assembly, and release E) The only important step in the lytic cycle is the dormant period, followed by an event that "wakes up" the virus

Which of the following terms is correctly associated with its definition?

A) An immunocompetent (immunonormal) individual is one that is vulnerable to a variety of infections B) AN IMMUNOCOMPROMISED INDIVDUAL IS ONE WHOSE IMMUNE SYSTEM IS WEAKENED FROM A PREVIOUS INFECTION OR DISEASE C) An immunosuppressed individual is one whose immune system is incapable of functioning D) An immunodeficient individual is one whose immune system is not functioning at full capacity due to previous illness E) None of the above

A complete enzyme that consists of a protein component and any nonprotein components bound to the allosteric site(s) is called a(n):

A) Apoenzyme B) Heteroenzyme C) Prosthetic enzyme D) HOLOENZYME E) Cofactor

Prions

A) Are infectious protein particles B) Cause normally folded proteins to refold and behave abnormally C) Result in spongiform encephalopathies in most animal species D) Are untreatable and cause fatal degeneration E) ALL OF THE ABOVE

Nosocomial infections:

A) Are staphylococcal infections acquired after another illness B) ARE ACQUIRED WHILE IN THE HOSPITAL C) Occur because of a susceptible population and colonization of bacteria in a sterile body cavity D) Are bacterial or viral infections of the nasopharynx E) All of the above

What are the budding cells that result when a daughter cell pinches off from the parent yeast cell?

A) Arthroconidia B) Chlamydospores C) Blastoconidia D) BLASTOSPORES E) Basidiospores

The class of fungi in which a sexual stage of reproduction has not been observed is:

A) Ascomycetes B) Basidomycetes C) DEUTEROMYCETES D) Zygomycetes E) Both B and C are correct

Which of the following organisms does not cause a disease contracted from consumption of contaminated food or water?

A) Bacillus cereus B) Bacillus anthracis C) Clostridium botulinum D) Listeria monocytogenes E) ALL OF THE ABOVE CAN BE CONTRACTED FROM CONTAMINATED FOOD OR WATER

Which of the following statements are true about the smallpox virus?

A) Before the vaccine was available, the disease had a 30% fatality rate among children B) It is a relatively large virus, around 350 nm in diameter C) Its genome codes for more than 100 genes D) The disease can be spread through respiratory droplets and by coming into contact with pustule exudate E) ALL OF THE ABOVE

This organism causes the most common pulmonary mycoses in humans:

A) Blastomyces dermatitidis B) Coccidioides immitis C) Cryptococcus neoformans D) HISTOPLASMA CAPSULATUM E) Pneumocystis carinii

Campylobacter jejuni and Helicobacter pylori:

A) Both cause a mild form of food poisoning B) WERE ONLY RECENTLY (1980S) ISOLATED AND ASSOCIATED WITH DISEASE C) Are waterborne organisms which cause untreatable and often fatal infection of the lower intestine D) Are found as members of human normal flora E) All of the above

Bacteriophages and animal viruses:

A) Both may enter a host cell by endocytosis B) Both may enter a host cell by fusion C) Both involve entry of the entire nucleic acid D) DIFFER BECAUSE BACTERIOPHAGES LEAVE THE CAPSID OUTSIDE THE CELL, WHILE ANIMAL VIRUS ENTRY USUALLY INVOLVES THE ENTRY OF THE WHOLE VIRUS PARTICLE E) All of the above

In cases of necrotizing fasciitis (from flesh-eating bacteria) superantigens are produced by the causative agent that:

A) CAUSE A MASSIVE RESPONSE OF T CELLS IN LATGE NUMBERS OF EFFECTOR CELLS WHICH RESULT IN MASSIVE INFLAMMATION AND TISSUE DESTRUCTION INITIATED BY THE IMMUNE SYSTEM B) Cause a massive response of T cells which begin to destroy the body's own cells due to chemical signals from the organism C) Cause damands to small blood vessels, causing a pink-red rash to develop D) Cause an antibody response that cross-reacts with host tissues, especially heart, joints, and kidneys, resulting in tissue destruction in these systems E) None of the above

A phospholipid is:

A) COMPOSED OF A PHOSPHATE GROUP AND TWO FATTY ACIDS WHICH ARE ATTACHED TO A GLYCEROL BACKBONE B) Characterized by tight hydrogen bonding between each phospholipid subunit C) Comprised of a hydrophilic region and a hydrophobic group which allows spontaneous diffusion of nearly all necessary substances D) Always able to move from one face of the membrane to the other E) All of the above

The protein projections on the surface of a virus that are involved in attachment to the host cell are:

A) Called attachment fibers or attachment spikes B) Specific to certain host cells C) Only capable of attaching to receptor sites on host cells D) The portion of the virus that gets covered with antibody so that attachment is prevented is prevented E) ALL OF THE ABOVE

Neisseria meningitidis:

A) Can always be found in the oro- and nasopharynx since it is part of the normal flora B) IS TREATED WITH PENICILLIN FOR INFECTED INDIVIDUALS BUT CLOSE CONTACTS ARE TREATED WITH RIFAMPIN AS PROPHYLAXIS (PREVENTATIVE THERAPY) C) Primarily causes meningitis and the mode of transmission is the fecal-oral route, especially in asymptomatic carriers D) Typically causes disease in the elderly and is characterized by abrupt onset of high fever, delirium, headache, and stiff neck E) Meningococcemia or sepsis always occur and is the cause of the symptoms listed above

RNA viruses:

A) Can not become integrated into the host genome B) OFTEN CARRY THE PROTEIN REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE C) Transform to a DNA virus during the latency period for + sense RNA viruses D) Are always lytic viruses and are always enveloped E) Are always animal viruses, and never cause disease in plants, protozoans, fungi, or bacteria

Which of the following statements is true of metabolism?

A) Catabolism is the sum of all biochemical reactions in a cell B) ANABOLISM DESCRIBES THE SYNTHESIS OF NEW MATERIALS IN A CELL, REQUIRING ATP C) Catabolism describes the synthesis of new materials in a cell, requiring ATP D) Metabolism always involves aerobic respiration in eukaryotes E) All cells must use proteases for catabolic reactions

Mumps:

A) Causes a mild childhood disease which usually includes flu-like symptoms and parotitis B) Is transmitted indirectly through respiratory droplets C) Is caused by the Rubulavirus of the Paramyxoviridae family D) Can cause meningitis in infected hosts E) ALL OF THE ABOVE ARE TRUE OF THE MUMPS VIRUS

Streptococcus salivarius:

A) Causes cavities B) PRODUCES LACTIC ACID VIA FERMENTATION OF SUGARS PRESENT IN THE MOUTH C) Attacks and invades the root/pulp of the tooth D) Is the leading cause of gingivitis E) All of the above

Pneumocystis carinii:

A) Causes pneumonia in the immunocompromised, such as AIDS patients with symptoms including a non-productive cough and discoloration of skin and mucous membranes due to hypoxia B) Is treatable with antiprotozoan agents, but is resistant to antifungal agents C) Is caused by an organism whose genetic information places it most similar to fungi D) Is caused by an organism with a cyst form, which when ruptured releases multiple trophoziotes E) ALL OF THE ABOVE

Which of the following are NOT true of the Fungi?

A) Chitin in the cell wall provides structural integrity to the cell B) SOME PRODUCE COENOCYTIC HYPHAE, WHICH ARE VISIBLE CROSS-WALLS BETWEEN CELLS C) None are capable of photosynthesis D) No fungi produce flagellated cells E) All are saprophytic

Which of the following bacteria causes an infection characterized by severe abdominal pain, similar to that of appendicitis?

A) Citrobacter freundii B) Enterobacter aerogenes C) Edwardsiella tarda D) YERSINIA ENTEROCOLITICS E) Salmonella typhimurium

Which of the following causes lockjaw, characterized by an ascending paralysis of muscles?

A) Clostridium difficile B) CLOSTRIDIUM TETANI C) Clostridium botulinum D) Clostridium perfringens E) Bacillus cereus

Which of the following organisms is a common cause of acute otitis media and sinusitis in children?

A) Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum B) BRANHAMELLA CATARRHALIS C) Late onset Listerosis monocytogenes D) Escherichia coli E) Neisseria lactamica

Which of the following is not a function of the electron transport system?

A) Create an electrochemical gradient for energy synthesis B) SYNTHESIZE ATP THROUGH ATPASE C) Recycle the soluble electron carriers D) Turn high energy electrons into low energy electrons E) All of the above are functions of the ETC

This yeast is considered to be a member of the human normal flora:

A) Cryptococcus neoformans B) CANDIDA ALBICANS C) Saccharomyces cerevisiae D) Both A and B are correct E) All of the above are correct

This Ascomycete is an opportunistic pathogen, causing symptoms only when its numbers increase as a result in changes to the other human flora populations:

A) Cryptococcus neoformans B) CANDIDA ALBICANS C) Saccharomyces cerevisiae D) Both B and C are correct E) All of the above are correct

Which of the following pathogenic fungi is dimorphic?

A) Cryptococcus neoformans B) Coccidioides immitis C) Blastomyces dermatitidis D) HISTOPLASMA CAPSULATUM E) All of the above are dimorphic, growing as mold in the environment and a yeast in the host

Which of the following is not an illness associated with Yersinia pestis?

A) Cutaneous infection B) GASTROINTESTINAL C) Pneumonic D) Bubonic E) All of the above are forms of Yersinia pestis

Group translocation is necessary when:

A) Diffusion will not allow adequate amounts of a substance to enter and remain within the cell B) Movement into the cell is against a concentration gradient C) The level of a required substance in nature is abundant D) The cell's requirements for a particular molecule are great E) ALL OF THE ABOVE

Which of the following are not known to be pathogenic?

A) ENTEROCOCCUS FAECALIS B) Streptococcus penumoniae C) Staphylococcus saprophyticus D) Streptococcus agalactiae E) All of the above are known to be pathogenic under optimal conditions

Which of the following is a correct description of Gastroenteritis?

A) Frequent liquid bowel movements which assume the shape of its container B) Inflammation of the digestive tract C) Acute illness with fever, headache, abdominal pain, and bacteremia D) INFLAMMATION OF THE INTESTINE E) Ingestion of food containing a preformed toxin

Which of the following is a correct description of Enteric Fever?

A) Frequent, liquid bowel movements which assume the shape of the container B) Inflammation of the digestive tract C) ACUTE ILLNES WITH FEVER, HEADACHE, ABDOMINAL PAIN, AND BACTEREMIA D) Frequent liquid bowel movements followed by scant stool production with mucus and blood E) Ingestion of food containing a preformed toxin

Which of the following is the best description of the term "schizogony"?

A) Fungi which feed off of dead/decaying organic material B) Fungi able to switch between the yeast and mold forms C) PROTOZOANS CARRYING OUT MULTIPLE NUCLEAR DIVISIONS BEFORE ANY CYTOPLASMIC DIVISIONS OCCUR D) Protozoans which are incapable of cyst production, making only sporozoites and trophozoites E) None of the above

The less severe form of African Sleeping Sickness is:

A) GAMBIAN FORM WHICH HAS A SLOWER PROGRESSION WITH DEATH FROM SECONDARY INFECTION B) Rhodensian form which usually leads to heart failure within 5 years C) Guyanan form which is asymptomatic until enough organisms are present in the blood when death occurs within 24 hours of a titer equivalent to 300 organisms/ml of blood D) Brazilian form which is more severe because the tsetse fly has no natural predators in South America and is therefore more prevalent E) A and B are equally severe

Which of the following correctly describes a bubos?

A) GROTESQUELY ENLARGED LYMPH NODES WHICH ARE FILLED WITH FLIUD, PUS, AND BACTERIA B) Bacterial colonization of the lungs, spread of bacteria through aerosis C) Infection of the blood D) 100% fatality E) All of the above

Which of the following statements are not true of the Salmonella species?

A) Gastroenteritis can be caused by Salmonella enteritidis or Salmonella typhimurium B) Salmonella species are normal flora of reptiles (such as turtles) and most birds C) HUMANS ARE THE ONLY KNOWN RESERVOIR OF SALMONELLA PARATYPHI D) Salmonella typhi is the causative agent of typhoid fever E) All of the above are true

Which of the following is an accurate description of a bacterial genome?

A) Genetic material clustered in the nucleus of the cell due to histone proteins B) A CIRCULAR SUPERCOILED DOUBLE STRANDED CHROMOSOME C) Single stranded DNA organized in the nucleoid region with histone-like proteins D) Genetic material bound to the cell membrane to prevent movement within the cytoplasm E) All of the above

Which of the following has caused the most human deaths through time?

A) Giardia spp B) Toxoplasma spp C) Trypanosoma spp D) PLASMODIUM SPP E) C and D are equally serious

Characteristics of the family Enterobacteriaceae include all but which of the following?

A) Gram-negative, nonspore-forming rods B) Oxidase negative in the host C) FACULTATIVELY AEROBIC D) Fermentation of glucose and other possible carbohydrates E) All of the above are true of the family Enterobacteriaceae

Which of the following is not a correct grouping of the Streptococcaceae?

A) Group A- Beta hemolytic strains in humans B) Group B- Associated with animals other than humans C) Group D- Enterococcus spp D) Group N- industrially important Lactococcus spp E) ALL OF THE ABOVE ARE CORRECT GROUPINGS

Which of the following descriptions is correctly matched with the type of serological antigens produced by the Enterobacteriaceae?

A) H antigen- Heat-stable cell wall antigen B) M antigen- Heat-stable membrane antigen C) O antigen- Heat-labile flagellar antigen D) K ANTIGEN- HEAT-LABILE CAPSULAR ANTIGEN E) H antigen- Heat-stable capsular antigen

Enveloped viruses:

A) HAVE AN OUTER LIPID BILAYER MEMBRANE WHICH MAY CONTAIN VARIOUS PROTEINS B) Are surrounded by an additional layer of carbohydrate C) Envelope a cell D) Are always icosahedral in their symmetry E) All of the above

The diarrheal disease which includes symptoms of fever, nausea, crampy abdominal pain, and watery diarrhea, is caused by less than 30 oocytes, and which is usually found in contaminated municipal drinking water is:

A) Histoplasma capsulatum B) CRYPTOSPORIDIUM PARVUM C) Giardia lamblia D) Balantidium coli E) Entamoeba histolytica

The term "mycelium" refers to:

A) INTERTWINED HYPHAE GROWING ABOVE THE SURFACE OF THE SUBSTRATE IN WHICH THE FUNGUS IS GROWING B) Cross-walls found in the hyphae of some species, separating individual fungal cells C) Specialized anchoring threads that allow attachment of the fungi to its substrate D) The entire group of intertwined hyphae, including aerial and anchoring hyphae E) All of the above

Titer number:

A) IS A MEASURE OF VIRUS CONCENTRATION OR ACTIVITY IN A BLOOD SAMPLE B) Decreases when a patient is currently challenged by a virus C) Increases can correlate to recovery periods after viral infection D) Is exclusively a measure of interferon in a blood sample E) All of the above

Gonohhrea

A) IS CAUSED BY NEISSERIA GONORRHOEAE B) Usually manifests as asymptomatic infections in men C) Develops in females with symptoms including frequency of urination and discharge of yellow pus from the urethra D) Can be passed from mother to fetus through umbilical cord E) A and D only

Streptococcus salivarius:

A) IS NORMAL ORAL FLORA B) Causes cavities C) Attacks and invades the root/pulp if the tooth D) Is the leading cause of gingivitis E) All of the above

Streptococcus pneumoniae:

A) IS THE MAIN CAUSE OF PNEUMOCOCCAL PNEUMONIA B) Is the causative agent of Rheumatic fever C) Is the causative agent if most boils and pimples D) Is known to cause sepsis in neonates E) All of the above

Balantidium coli:

A) IS THE ONLY KNOWN CILIATE TO CAUSE HUMAN DISEASE B) Causes stomach ulcers in large mammals C) Is commonly found in the vector, pigs D) Belongs to the phylum Sarcomastigophora E) All of the above

Dysentery:

A) Is defined as frequent watery stools and vomiting B) Is an inflammation of the intestine C) Is obtained from eating contaminated food containing a preformed toxin D) IS DEFINED AS FREQUENT WATERY STOOLS, FOLLOWED BY SCANT STOOL PRODUCTION AND EXCRETION OF MUCOUS AND BLOOD, ACCOMPANIED BY PAIN AND FEVER E) None of the above

Which of the following is not true of the measles virus?

A) IT IS A FILOVIRUS THAT IS 100-200 NM IN DIAMETER WITH A SSDNA GENOME B) A common symptom is the appearance of Koplik's spots inside the mouth accompanied with fever C) Includes symptoms of fever, cough, runny nose, sore throat, and pink eye (conjunctivitis) D) The incubation period is approximately 8-12 days with a duration of 10 days E) All of the above are true of the Measles virus

Which of the following is true of Toxoplasmosis?

A) IT IS MOST SEVERE TO THE FETUS DURING THE FIRST TRIMESTER B) The definitive reservoir is humans and the secondary host is bats C) The causative agent is the fungi, Toxoplasma gondii D) It only affects pregnant women and the fetus E) All of the above are true

At what point in aerobic respiration does oxygen play a role?

A) IT IS THE LAST ELECTRON ACCEPTOR OF THE ELECTRON TRANSPORT SYSTEM B) It is essential in Embden-Meyerhoff-Parnas pathway C) It is essential in the Kreb's cycle D) It is essential in the Pyruvate Oxidation pathway E) It is essential in the Glycolytic pathway

Which of the following is not a property of the family Neisseriaceae?

A) IgA protease B) Adhesins to target specific host cells C) O-specific antigen D) Capsule to prevent phagocytosis E) ALL OF THE ABOVE ARE TRUE OF NEISSERIACEAE

Which statement is true about enzyme inhibition?

A) In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor binds to the allosteric site if the enzyme B) In non-competitive inhibition, the inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme C) IN NON-COMPETITIVE INHIBITION, THE ACTIVATOR/INHIBITOR BINDS TO THE ALLOSTERIC SITE OF THE ENZYME D) Feedback inhibition is an example of non-competitive inhibition whereby an end product of the pathway serves as an activator to open the allosteric site of the enzyme E) Both C and D are true

The visceral form of Leishmaniasis:

A) Includes symptoms of a papule, approximately 2 cm in diameter, and enlarged lymph nodes closest to the vector bite B) Is contracted from the bite of a female sand flea C) Is recognized by the distinctive lesions of the oral and nasal mucosa D) IS MOST OFTEN ASYMPTOMATIC, ALTHOUGH SYMPTOMS OF FEVER, ANOREXIA, MALAISE, WEIGHT LOSS, AND DIARRHEA ARE POSSIBLE E) All of the above

Which of the following is not a form of non-specific immunity in humans?

A) Instinct (blinking/holding breath) B) Temperature C) Intact skin D) ANTIBODIES E) Interferon

When an enveloped virus adsorbs to the host cell with its protein spikes, the capsid is taken into the cell by the process of:

A) Integration B) Production C) Fission D) ENDOCYTOSIS E) Budding

The term "thallus" refers to:

A) Intertwined hyphae above the surface of the substrate in which the fungus is growing B) Cross-walls found in the hyphae of some species, separating individual fungal cells C) Specialized anchoring threads that allow attachment if the fungi to its substrate D) THE ENTIRE GROUP OF INTERTWINED HYPHAE, INCLUDING AERIAL AND ANCHORING HYPHAE E) All of the above

The term "rhizoid" refers to:

A) Intertwined hyphae growing above the surface of the substrate in which the fungus is growing B) Cross-walls found in the hyphae of some species, separating individual fungal cells C) SPECIALIZED ANCHORING THREADS THAT ALLOW ATTACHMENT OF THE FUNGI TO ITS SUBSTRATE D) The entire group of intertwined hyphae, including aerial and anchoring hyphae E) All of the above

Which of the following is true to Streptococcus pyogenes?

A) Is a member of the group B Beta-hemolytic streptococci of the Lancefield groupings B) Causes puerperal fever in neonates C) Is associated with community-acquired urinary tract infections D) CAUSES INNER EAR INFECTIONS, MASTITIS, AND SCARLET FEVER E) All of the above are true of Streptococcus pyogenes

Streptococcus agalactiae:

A) Is a member of the group B Beta-hemolytic streptococci of the Lancefield groupings B) Causes puerperal fever in post-partum women C) Often manifests as sepsis or meningitis, depending on early or late onset in neonates D) Is a frank pathogen in neonates E) ALL OF THE ABOVE

Giardia lamblia:

A) Is a member of the phylum Sarcomastigophora; subphylum Sarcodina B) Is the causative agent of a waterborne illness due to the production of cysts which are too small to be removed by standard water treatment processes in the U.S. C) Usually requires medical intervention and treatment D) IN THE TROPHOZOITE FORM CAN COLONIZE THE SMALL INTESTINE, CAUSING INDIGESTION, GAS, NAUSEA, VOMITING, FATIGUE, AND/OR WEIGHT LOSS E) None of the above

Which of the following is not true of Staphylococcus epidermidis?

A) Is a non-pathogen B) Is normal flora of the skin for most members of the human population C) Can be found in small numbers in the oral and nasal cavities D) CAUSES IMPETIGO E) All of the above

The protein coat of a virus:

A) Is called a capsomere B) IS CALLED A CAPSID C) Is called an envelope D) Protects the proteins carried by the virus E) Always has DNA wrapped symmetrically in the proteins

Diphtheria:

A) Is caused by Corynebacterium xerosis B) Is caused by a bacterial toxin which is known to infect many higher organisms (specifically mammals) C) Is characterized by early symptoms including otitis media and a mild rash D) HAS A 2-5 DAY INCUBATION PERIOD WHICH RESULTS IN LOCALIZED TOXIN PRODUCTION WHICH CAUSES CELL NECROSIS AND IMMUNE SYSTEM EXUDATES TO FORMA GREY-WHITE PSEUDOMEMBRANE E) All of the above are true

Listeriosis:

A) Is caused by Listeria monocytogenes which can be found in soil, water, vegetation, and animal products B) Manifests itself as early onset sepsis in newborns with 50% fatality rate in affected babies C) Manifests itself as meningitis in late onset listeriosis which usually occurs several days to several weeks after birth D) May manifest itself in a pregnant woman as flu-like symptoms with fever, and headache, often causing spontaneous abortion within 3-7 days of symptom onset E) ALL OF THE ABOVE

Toxic shock syndrome:

A) Is caused by Staphylococcus aureus, carried on the skin, which colonizes the vaginal tract B) Has been diagnosed in women and men following surgery C) Is characterized by high fever, rash, vomiting, and diarrhea D) Some cases have been associated with tampon use E) ALL OF THE ABOVE

Eighty percent of specific cell mediated immunity:

A) Is due to interferon B) Is due to antibody production C) Is the result of macrophage activity D) IS DUE TO T CELLS E) All of the above

Helicobacter pylori:

A) Is the only known cause of stomach cancer B) Is a small gram-positive coccus, which causes disease by attaching to the microvilli of the lung C) SURVIVE EXTREMELY ACIDIC CONDITIONS OF THE STOMACH BY PRODUCING UREASE D) Have no ability to penetrate host cells E) Is rarely found in humans, but causes severe short-lived disease when contracted

Trichomoniasis:

A) Is the third most common disease that causes vaginal symptoms, after candidiasis and bacterial vaginosis B) Occasionally produces painful urination in men combined with a tender prostate gland C) In women produces a frothy, yellow-green discharge which often has a foul odor due to the hydrogen sulfide gas generated by the causative agent D) In children is very uncommon and diagnosis should always involve investigation of sexual abuse E) ALL OF THE ABOVE

Which of the following are not true of Rhabdovirus?

A) Is transmitted via saliva into the bloodstream B) Causes rabies C) May cause a disease in which common symptoms are excess saliva production, confusion, delirium, and hallucinations D) IS AN ARTHROPOD-BORNE VIRUS OF THE FAMILY FLAVIVIRIDAE E) All of the above are true of Rhabdovirus

Which of the following is not an oxidation/reduction reaction?

A) Isocitrate --> alpha-ketogluterate B) 1,3-BISPHOGLYCERATE --> 3- PHOSPHOGLYCERATE C) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate --> 1,3-biphosphoglycerate D) Succinate --> Fumarate E) Alpha-ketogluterate --> Succinyl CoA

The cytoplasmic membrane is said to be a "fluid mosaic" since:

A) It has the consistency of a sheen of motor oil B) Individual subunits are not joined together by any chemical bonds C) It is studded with peripheral proteins, as tiles in a mosaic D) It usually contains integral proteins which are channel proteins E) ALL OF THE ABOVE

Which of the following is correct regarding filtration of viruses from the body?

A) It is a specific immunity process B) PHAGOCYTES IN THE SPLEEN AND LYMPH NODES ATTACK THE VIRUS AS SOON AS IT IS DETECTED, REMOVING IT FROM THE BLOOD C) It is a relatively slow process D) The process of filtration is virus specific E) All of the above are true

Which of following is/are traits of interferon?

A) It is composed of antibody protein B) It is found in all stage of a developing fetus except the third trimester C) IT IS SPECIES SPECIFIC BUT NOT VIRUS SPECIFIC D) It is produced within 14 days of virus exposure E) All of the above

Which of the following are NOT true of Anthrax?

A) It is most commonly a disease of livestock B) It can manifest itself in a relatively non-threatening form associated with the skin C) Is caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis D) IS MOST SERIOUS IN THE GASTROINTESTINAL FORM E) The inhalation form has a high fatality rate, even with treatment

Which of the following is NOT true concerning the cell wall of prokaryotes?

A) It is somewhat rigid, determining the shape of the cell B) CONSTRICTION AND TWISTING OF THE CELL WALL ALLOWS BACTERIAL MOVEMENTS C) It contains a sugar polymer from which peptides are attached D) Gram (+) and Gram (-) cell walls are chemically different but the same thickness E) None of the above

Which of the following is not true of host cell transformation?

A) It is the genetic modification of host cells by infection with a virus B) Causes infected cells to become neoplastic (new forms) C) Some cells behave abnormally only for a period of time (warts, polyps) while others are transformed to behave abnormally with no cellular controls reinstated (malignant tumors) D) Cause infected cells to begin slowly making viruses, slowly releasing the virus without host cell damage E) ALL OF THE ABOVE ARE TRUE OF TRANSFORMATION

Which of the following are true of the cytoplasmic membrane?

A) It uses proteins as selective gates and sensors B) It defines the boundaries but not the shape of the cell C) It is a semipermeable barrier D) It mainly consists of a phospholipid bilayer which is always in motion E) ALL OF THE ABOVE ARE TRUE OF THE CYTOPLASMIC MEMBRANE

The macromolecule unique to the cell walls of gram negative bacteria is:

A) LIPOPOLYSACCHARIDE B) Teichoic acid C) Lipoprotein D) Peptidoglycan E) All of the above

Which of the following is not a member of the human normal flora?

A) LISTERIA B) Escherichia C) Neisseria D) Lactobacillus E) All of the above are human normal flora

Which of the following organisms is least likely to be normal flora?

A) Lactobacillus acidophilus B) Neisseria meningitidis C) Branhamella catarrhalis D) Corynebacterium xerosis E) EHEC

Which of the following organisms is known to cause mastitis (in cattle or humans)?

A) Lactobacillus monocytogenes B) CORYNEBACTERIUM ULCERCANS C) Escherichia coli D) Bacillus cereus E) Moraxella catarrhalis

Which of the following organisms are not members of the normal flora?

A) Lactobacillus spp B) Neisseria flava C) Corynebacterium jeikeium D) Enteroaggregative Escherichia coli E) ALL OF THE ABOVE ARE MEMBERS OF THE NORMAL FLORA

The macromolecule unique to the cell walls of all bacteria is:

A) Lipopolysaccharide B) Teichoic acid C) Lipoprotein D) PEPTIDOGLYCAN E) All of the above are unique to bacterial cell walls

Which statement is true?

A) Lophotrichous flagella are tufts on one "end" of bacterial cells; peritrichous flagella are individual flagella on the "ends" of bacterial cells B) Peritrichous flagella are all over the bacterial cells; lophotrichous flagella are tufts on one or both ends of bacterial cells C) Atrichous are individual flagella on the both ends of a bacterial cell; peritrichous flagella are tufts on one end of bacterial cells D) Monotrichous are all over the bacterial cells; atrichous cells are incapable of synthesizing flagella E) NONE OF THE ABOVE ARE TRUE

Enzymes:

A) MAKE REACTIONS MORE FAVORABLE BY LOWERING THE ENERGY OF ACTIVATION (OR THE ENERGY INPUT REQUIRED) B) Can accept any number of similar substrates in the active site C) Require a cofactor or coenzyme in order for a reaction to proceed D) Are permanently changed during a reaction E) All of the above

Which of the following are true of the Micrococcaceae?

A) MOST ARE KNOWN TO BE MEMBERS OF THE NORMAL FLORA B) Many members are frank pathogens C) They are all catalase negative D) They include the group B Beta-hemolytic staphylococci of the Lancefield groupings E) All of the above

Which of the following is not a storage material synthesized by bacterial cells?

A) Magnetite B) Phosphate granules (Volutin) C) Poly-B-Hydroxybutyrate D) Metachromatic granules E) ALL OF THE ABOVE ARE STORAGE MATERIALS SYNTHESIZED BY BACTERIAL CELLS

Which molecule(s) are NOT associated with the cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria?

A) N-acetylmuramic acid B) N-ACETYLGLUTAMIC ACID C) Teichoic acids D) Diaminopilemic acid E) All of the molecules listed above are associated with Gram-positive cell walls

Which of the following bacteria causes an infection characterized by severe lower abdominal pain, dysuria, and vaginal bleeding?

A) NEISSERIA GONORRHOEAE B) Neisseria sicca C) EHEC D) Listeria monocytogenes E) None of the above cause the symptoms listed

Which of the following statements is true of fermentation?

A) Necessary in some organisms when no suitable inorganic terminal electron acceptor is present B) ATP yields tend to be low C) Obligate fermenters are able to compete in nature by completing this process quickly D) In some organisms this is necessary because of a lack of an electron transport chain E) ALL OF THE ABOVE ARE TRUE OF FERMENTATION

Which of the following are true of normal flora?

A) Normal flora are non-pathogenic B) Normal flora can secrete proteins that eliminate competitors C) NORMAL FLORA TAKE UP SPACE AND PROVIDE NUTRIENTS D) Normal flora are always opportunistic pathogens E) Normal flora populations only change when there is extended exposure to antibiotics

Which of the following statements are true regarding the number of water molecules produced by the electron transport chain during aerobic transportation?

A) Number varies with the types of pathways engaged B) ONE WATER MOLECULE IS GENERATED FOR EACH SOLUBLE ELECTRON CARRIER C) NADH results in generation of 3 water molecules during aerobic respiration D) FADH2 results in generation of 2 water molecules during aerobic respiration E) The total number of water molecules generated during aerobic respiration differs based on how quickly the organism can carry out the process

ABC transport involves:

A) Obtaining a molecule which is found in very high concentrations outside of the cell B) A BINDING PROTEIN WHICH PHYSICALLY BRINGS A MOLECULE TO ANOTHER PROTEIN ON THE CELL MEMBRANE C) A docking protein that only allows the molecule to pass out of the cell D) A transport protein that phosphorylates the molecule on passage across the membrane E) All of the above

Which of the following is/are true of Vibrio cholerae?

A) Organisms enter small intestine, adhere to the intestinal mucosa, and invade the surrounding tissues and bloodstreams B) Causes a mild diarrheal disease, similar to food poisoning C) PRODUCES A TOXIN WHICH CAUSES CELLS TO BECOME SEVERELY DEHYDRATED D) No fatal infections have been reported E) Only contracted from consumption of raw shellfish/seafood

A glycocalyx is known to do all but which of the following?

A) PROVIDE A MECHANISM TO STORE EXCESS CARBOHYDRATES B) Protects from environmental conditions (ex: drying, O2) C) Helps bacteria escape phagocytosis by host cells D) Helps the bacteria to adhere to surfaces E) All of the above are true of capsules

Which of the following statements are true of immune response?

A) Peak response is reached 14 days after exposure to the foreign agent B) In cases where the host has been vaccinated the peak response is reached in 7 days C) Immune response involves producing antibodies against foreign materials D) Antibodies serve as the immune response "memory" and allow faster elimination of the foreign material upon additional exposure E) ALL OF THE ABOVE ARE TRUE

Which organism causes the most serious form of malaria?

A) Plasmodium ovale B) Balantidium malariae C) PLASMODIUM FALCIPARUM D) Giardia vivax E) C and D only

Which of the following statements are true of Branhamella catarrhalis?

A) Previously described as a member of the genus Moraxella B) NORMAL FLORA OF THE UPPER RESPIRATORY TRACT C) Common cause for ear infections and sinusitis in individuals with chronic respiratory D) Typical cause for sinusitis in smokers, asthmatics, and patients with a deviated septum E) All of the above statements are true of Branhamella catarrhalis

Cells are classified into two major types depending on their overall structure. Cells with membrane-bound organelles and a true nucleus are called:

A) Prokaryotes B) Bacteria C) EUKARYOTES D) Archaebacteria E) Both A and B are correct

Fimbriae are known to do which of the following?

A) Provide a mechanism to store excess carbohydrates B) Protects from environmental conditions (ex: drying, O2) C) Helps bacteria escape phagocytosis by host cells D) HELPS THE BACTERIA TO ADHERE TO SURFACES E) All of the above are true of pili

Which of the following organisms does not cause urinary tract infections?

A) Providencia B) Proteus C) Serratia D) Klebsiella E) ALL OF THE ABOVE CAUSE UTIS

Salmonellosis:

A) Requires a dose of only 200 or fewer cells B) Has an incubation period of 14 days C) Is characterized by a high fever and bloody diarrhea D) IS SELF LIMITING E) All of the above

Glycolysis:

A) Requires oxygen B) Produces 3 ATP molecules C) Produces 4 molecules of NAD+ D) MAY OCCUR UNDER AEROBIC OR ANAEROBIC CONDITIONS SINCE O2 HAS NO ROLE E) All of the above

Some bacteria are capable of synthesizing storage granules. Which of the following is true about the role of these?

A) Reserves of materials that the cell has synthesized but has never required B) RESERVES OF MATERIALS THAT THE CELL CURRENTLY HAS IN ABUNDANCE C) Waste materials which will be excreted via a mechanism similar to a contractile vacuole in a eukaryote D) They serve to propel the cell towards or away from a chemical stimuli E) All of the above

Which of the following organisms does not produce a toxin other than O antigen?

A) SERRATIA B) Salmonella C) Klebsiella D) Shigella E) All of the above organisms produce additional toxins

Which of the following organisms is known to be a non-pathogenic soil organism that is a normal member of the skin flora, although usually found on the extremities due to cooler temperatures, which is gram positive, catalase positive, and coagulase negative cocci?

A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Staphylococcus epidermidis C) MICROCOCCUS LUTEUS D) Streptococcus agalactiae E) Streptococcus mutans

Which of the following organisms are not members of the normal flora?

A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Streptococcus mutans C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Staphylococcus epidermidis E) ALL OF THE ABOVE ARE MEMBERS OF THE NORMAL FLORA

Which of the following organisms is least likely to be normal flora of the oral/respiratory tract?

A) Streptococcus mutans B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Streptococcus aureus D) MICROCOCCUS LUTEUS E) All of the above are found in equal numbers in the oral/respiratory tract

Which of the following are not known to cause meningitis?

A) Streptococcus pneumoniae B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) Streptococcus agalactiae E) ALL OF THE ABOVE CAUSE MENINGITIS

Which of the following correctly lists a substrate-level phosphorylation reaction of glycolysis?

A) Succinyl CoA --> Succinate B) Fructose-6-phosphate --> Fructose-1,6-biphosphate C) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate --> 1,3-bisphophoglycerate D) 1,3-BISPHOSPHOGLYCERATE --> 3-PHOSPHOGLYCERATE E) A and D are both correct

The type of mycotic disease in which there is an invasion and destruction of the keratin of skin, hair, and nails:

A) Superficial B) Cutaneous C) Subcutaneous D) Systemic E) A AND B ARE CORRECT

Hyaluronidase, synthesized by some of the gram positive cocci:

A) Synthesizes hyaluronic acid which destroys the red blood cells B) DEGRADES HYALURONIC ACID, THE BASE MATERIAL OF THE CONNECTIVE TISSUE BETWEEN CELLS C) Allows the bacterial cell to move through cell membranes of individual host cells D) Attacks the leukocytes causing cellular damage in the host E) Increases vascular permeability

The net gain of ATP per molecule of glucose metabolized anaerobically via the Embden-Meyerhoff-Parnas pathway in prokaryotes is:

A) TWO B) Thirty six C) Thirty eight D) Eight E) Unable to be determined with the information given

A negative sense virus is one that:

A) Takes over control of the host cell from the cytoplasm B) TAKES OVER CONTROL OF THE HOST CELL FROM THE NUCLEUS C) Is a retrovirus D) Is always a ssDNA virus E) B and C only

The groups of organisms that a virus may infect is known as its:

A) Target circle B) HOST RANGE C) Susceptible group D) Receptor type E) All of the above

Which of the following statements is not true of Bordatella pertussis?

A) The cell is a spirochete, meaning that it has spiral shaped cells B) LIFE-LONG IMMUNITY IS PROVIDED BY THE DTAP VACCINE C) It is the causative agent of Whooping Cough D) It is closely related to the causative agent of Kennel Cough E) All of the above are true of Bordatella pertussis

Fungal infections are typically spread by:

A) The fecal-oral route B) THE RESPIRATORY ROUTE C) Body fluids (especially blood) D) Person to person E) A and C are equally common modes of transmission

Which of the following statements is false?

A) The flagellar filament protein subunit is flagellin B) A P ring is present in all cells that are capable of motility C) FLAGELLA ROTATE AT A CONSTANT SPEED D) The hook is the wider region at the base of the filament E) Each turn of the flagellar motor requires 3 ATP equivalents

In spore germination:

A) The free spore must break open so that water may enter B) THE FREE SPORE SENSES A FAVORABLE ENVIRONMENT, TAKES ON WATER AND SWELLS C) A vegetative cell will emerge from an endospore D) An immature, fast-growing bacterial cell emerges from the endospore E) B and D only

A glycocalyx is all but which of the following?

A) The outer coating found on some bacteria B) Sometimes known as the slime layer C) The polysaccharide-containing material lying just outside the cell wall D) A RIGID WALL, GIVING BACTERIA ITS SHAPE E) All of the above are true of a glycocalyx

If Gibb's energy change is negative:

A) The reaction is exergonic, non-spontaneous, and requires the input of energy B) The reaction is endergonic, non-spontaneous, and requires the input of energy C) THE REACTION IS EXERGONIC, SPONTANEOUS, AND ENERGY WILL BE RELEASED D) The reaction in endergonic, spontaneous, and energy will be released E) None of the above

Which of the following is/are true of Herpesviruses?

A) They include the Epstein-Barr virus B) Are icosahedral, dsDNA viruses that are typically 150-299 nm in diameter C) They are creeping viruses because they move along nerve cells D) They include the chicken pox and shingles virus E) ALL OF THE ABOVE

Illinois state officials have recently been enforcing new health regulations on the 10,000 nail technicians who are licensed in the state in an effort to reduce the number of cases of:

A) Tinea capitis B) Tinea corporis C) Tinea ungium D) Onychomycosis E) BOTH C AND D ARE CORRECT

Which of the following is not a disease caused by Staphylococcus aureus?

A) Toxic shock syndrome B) Skin/would infections C) Pneumonia D) Food poisoning E) DENTAL CARIES

Which of the following is true during the course of the Rhizopus life cycle?

A) Two mating types come into contact and produce asexual spores via mitosis B) TWO MATING TYPES COME INTO CONTACT WHICH CAUSES A ZYGOTE TO FORM C) A rhizoid forms to anchor the zygote to a solid surface D) A sporangium develops and sexual reproduction occurs in the columella E) All of the above are true

Klebsiella:

A) Typically contain large capsules, or O antigen B) Typically are un-encapsulated making them easily phagocytized C) Produce a heat-stable enterotoxin, or H antigen, associated with flagella D) Has been reported to be the second most likely cause of urinary tract infections E) POSSESSES ANTIBIOTIC RESISTANCE PROPERTIES DUE TO ONE OR MORE PLASMIDS

Fermentation:

A) Uses an inorganic molecule as the final electron acceptor B) Uses the original substrate as the terminal electron acceptor C) Is the only metabolic capability for the Enterobacteriaceae D) IS NECESSARY IN SOME ORGANISMS TO RECYCLE SOLUBLE ELECTRON CARRIERS E) All of the above

Which of the following statements is correctly matched to the causative agent?

A) West Nile Virus- an icosahedral Picornaviridae, with ds RNA that is naked B) ZIKA VIRUS- AN ICOSAHEDRAL, ENVELOPED FLAVIVIRIDAE WITH SSRNA C) Varicella-Zoster- A helical, enveloped Poxviridae with ds DNA D) West Nile Virus- transmitted through the bite of an Anopheles mosquito, and originated in the Mississippi River Valley E) Infectious mononucleosis- targets hepatic cells, causing jaundice, and transmitted bodily fluids

Which of the following types of disease transmission is not correctly matched with its description?

A) Zoonotic transmission- are transmitted from lower animals to humans (ex: rabies) B) INSECT VECTOR TRANSMISSION- ARE DIRECTLY TRANSMITTED THROUGH A LIVING VECTOR WHICH COULD GET THE DISEASE BUT IS NOT CURRENTLY SHOWING SYMPTOMS C) Indirect transmission- usually transmitted person to person through a fomite or through food or water D) Direct transmission- spread from person to person through contact with skin, respiratory droplets, bodily fluids, etc E) All of the above are correctly matched

Coccidioidomycosis:

A) is an infection caused by Cryptococcus neoformans B) Is found in soil contaminated with bat droppings C) IS ACQUIRED WHEN HUMANS INHALE THE SPORES D) Has the largest number of cases occurring in the Mississippi River Valley regions E) Both C and D are correct

Poliovirus:

A) is transmitted via the fecal-oral route B) Specifically targets nerve cells after initial infection of the host C) Can be a paralytic virus, causing crippling to parts of the body D) Can be a very minor illness involving fever, headache, nausea, vomiting, and other flu-like symptoms E) ALL OF THE ABOVE

When considering dimorphic fungi: The _____ phase of the fungi is usually observed when the organism is grown at 37C while the ____ phase is usually observed when the organism is grown at room temperature. The ____ phase of the fungi tend to produce cottony, wooly growths, while the ____ phase of the fungi form opaque, creamy colonies.

A) yeast; mold; yeast; mold B) mold; yeast; mold; yeast C) YEAST; MOLD; MOLD; YEAST D) mold; yeast; yeast; mold E) None of the above are correct