midterm (practice)
A β-hemolytic streptococcus gives the following reactions: • CAMP: positive • Bacitracin: susceptible The technologist should: a. report the organism as presumptive group A streptococci b. Report the organisms as presumptive group B streptococci c. report the organisms as β-hemolytic streptococci, not group A or B d. perform a Lancefield grouping test.
d. perform a Lancefield grouping test
Cause of neonatal meningitis
E. coli
The main difference between organisms undergoing mixed acid fermentation and those undergoing butylenes glycol fermentation is that mixed acid fermenters: a. produce less acid and more CO . b. produce less acid and are VP-positive c. are methyl red-negative. d. produce more acid and less CO
d. produce more acid and less CO
Nonmotile
Klebsiella pneumoniae
All of the following are manual systems for identification of staphylococci except: a. RapID Staph-PLUS. b. API Staph. c. Vitek 2 gram-positive identification cards. d. API Staph-Ident.
c. Vitek 2 gram-positive identification cards.
The drug of choice for the treatment of meningitis caused by Listeria monocytogenes is: a. ceftriaxone. b. gentamicin. c. ampicillin. d. ciprofloxacin. e. ceftazidime
c. ampicillin.
The majority of Haemophilus influenzae infections are caused by which of the following capsular serotypes? a. d b. c c. b d. a
c. b
Which of the following combinations of media is the best for culturing joint fluid when N. gonorrhoeae is suspected? a. ML and MTM agars b. Blood and EMB agars c. blood and CHOC agars d. blood and MTM agars
c. blood and CHOC agars
The atmospheric condition required by N. gonorrhoeae is: a. routine air b. anaerobic c. capnophilic d. microaerophilic
c. capnophilic
The test that distinguishes staphylococci from streptococci is: a. coagulase b. bacitracin susceptibility c. catalase d. modified oxidase
c. catalase
A fastidious gram-negative bacillus is isolated from three sets of blood cultures. The organism is slow-growing, oxidase-positive, catalase-negative, and indole-positive. This organism is: a. Bordetella parapertussis. b. Eikenella corrodens. c. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans. d. Cardiobacterium hominis. e. Capnocytophaga ochracea
d. Cardiobacterium hominis.
On Tinsdale agar, this organism forms black colonies with brown haloes: a. Listeria monocytogenes b. Actinomyces israelii c. Arcanobacterium haemolyticum d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae e. Bacillus anthracis
d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
A physician submits a throat specimen for a rapid antigen test for group A streptococci. the latex agglutination test shows no clumping. The technologist should now: a. report the test results as positive. b. repeat the test using an enzyme immunoassay method. c. report the test results as negative. d. report the test results as negative and set up a throat culture
d. report the test results as negative and set up a throat culture
Which of the following holding or transportation methods is not appropriate for N. gonorrhoeae? a. inoculated plates in candle jar at 35°C b. swabs in nonnutritive transport media at room temperature c. nutritive transport system at 35°C d. swabs in nonnutritive transport media under refrigeration
d. swabs in nonnutritive transport media under refrigeration
Which of the following features do Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Serratia, and Hafnia have in common? a. Producing H2S b. MR-positive c. VP-positive d. Oxidase-positive e. Indole-positive
c. VP-positive
Swarming observed on BAP
Proteus mirabilis
DNAse positive result
Serratia marcescen
Better growth at 25°C than at 37°C
Yersinia enterocolitica
Cystine tryptic digest (CTA) media used for identification of Neisseria spp. should be inoculated and cultured in: a. A nonCO2 incubator at 35C for up to 72 b. A CO2 incubator at 42C for up to 72 hours. c. An anaerobic incubator at 35C for up to 72 hors d. A CO2 incubator at 35C for 24 hours.
a. A nonCO2 incubator at 35C for up to 72
Which of the following organisms is a well-recognized periodontal pathogen? a. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans b. Cardiobacterium valvarum c. Aggregatibacter segnis d. Actinobacillus hominis e. Suttonella indologenes
a. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
A gram-positive bacillus is isolated from a 25-year-old male with AIDS. The organism is catalase-positive, white, creamy, and nonhemolytic on blood agar and produces a strong "cheesy" odor. Based on this information, this organism is probably: a. Brevibacterium casei. b. Bacillus cereus. c. Corynebacterium jeikeium. d. Turicella otitidis. e. Listeria monocytogenes.
a. Brevibacterium casei.
Which of the following media are appropriate for culturing coagulase-negative staphylococci? Mark all that apply. a. CNA agar b. MacConkey Agar c. EMB agar (Eosin-Methylene Blue) d. Blood Agar
a. CNA agar/d. Blood Agar
Which one of the following members of the Enterobacteriaceae has been associated with meningitis and brain abscess in neonates? a. Citrobacter koseri b. Edwardsiella tarda c. Klebsiella pneumoniae d. Shigella sonnei e. Yersinia enterocolitica
a. Citrobacter koseri
A healthy 3-year-old child develops diarrhea that lasts about a week, and that is bloody for a few days. His diarrhea resolves, but he remains lethargic and passes only a little urine. A blood smear shows fragmented red blood cells and no platelets. What etiologic agent of infection would most likely produce the signs and symptoms displayed in this case? a. E. coli O157:H7 b. Campylobacter jejuni c. Salmonella typhi d. Shigella flexneri e. Yersinia enterocolitica
a. E. coli O157:H7
A small, gram-negative coccobacillus recovered from the CSF of a 2-year-old child gave the following results: Indole = + X requirement = + Urease = + Sucrose = Neg Glucose = + (acid) V requirement = + Lactose = Neg Hemolysis = Neg Which is the most likely identification? a. Haemophilus influenzae b. Haemophilus parainfluenzae c. Haemophilus aphrophilus d. Haemophilus ducreyi
a. Haemophilus influenzae
Third-generation cephalosporins, such as ceftriaxone, are the drugs of choice for the treatment of infections caused by: a. Haemophilus influenzae. b. Bordetella parapertussis. c. Haemophilus ducreyi. d. Streptobacillus moniliformis. e. Bartonella henselae
a. Haemophilus influenzae.
Two genera of Streptococcus-like bacteria are intrinsically resistant to vancomycin. These two genera are: a. Leuconostoc and Pediococcus. b. Vagococcus and Gemella. c. Alloiococcus and Facklamia. d. Enterococcus and Melissococcus. e/ Ignavigranum and Dolosicoccus
a. Leuconostoc and Pediococcus.
The Gram stain of a lemon-yellow colony shows gram-positive cocci in tetrads. This organism is most likely: a. Micrococcus b. S. epidermidis c. S. aureus d. Stomatococcus
a. Micrococcus
Name the genera that are members of the Micrococcaceae family. a. Micrococcus, Stomatococcus, and Staphylococcus b. Streptococcus, Micrococcus c. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus d. Micrococcus, Staphylococcus, and Streptococcus
a. Micrococcus, Stomatococcus, and Staphylococcus
Sputum from a patient with pneumonia produced many colonies of gram-negative diplococci on a chocolate plate that were also present in fewer numbers on MTM after 48 hours. Given the following results, what is the most likely identification? Catalase= + Oxidase= + DNAse = + Tributyrin hydrolysis= + Glucose = Neg Sucrose= Neg Lactose= Neg Maltose= Neg Fructose= Neg a. Moraxella catarrhalis b. Neisseria elongata c. Neisseria sicca d. Neisseria flavescens
a. Moraxella catarrhalis
V factor is another name for: a. NAD b. ALA c. vitamin B6 d. hemin
a. NAD
MTM medium is used primarily for the selective recovery of which organism from genital specimens? a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae b. Neisseria lactamica c. Neisseria sicca d. Neisseria flavenscens
a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
The Superoxol test is used as a rapid presumptive test for: a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae b. Neisseria lactamica c. Moraxella (Branamella) catarrhalis d. Neisseria meningitidis
a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Culture on MTM media of a vaginal swab produced several colonies of gram-negative diplococci that were catalase and oxidase positive and Superoxol negative. Given the following carbohydrate reactions, select the most likely identification. Glucose = + Maltose= + Sucrose= Negative Fructose= Negative Lactose= + a. Neisseria lactamica b. Neisseria flavescens c. Neisseria sicca d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
a. Neisseria lactamica
Cellulosimicrobium cellulans is the current name for: a. Oerskovia xanthineolytica. b. Dermabacter hominis. c. Cellulomonas hominis. d. Oerskovia turbata. e. Cellulosimicrobium funkei.
a. Oerskovia xanthineolytica.
Which of the following members of the family Enterobacteriaceae are H S-positive? 2 a. Salmonella species b. Shigella species c. E. coli d. Klebsiella species e. Providencia species
a. Salmonella species
Which of the following media is not selective for N. menigitidis? a. MTM agar b. NYC agar c. ML agar d. CHOC agar
d. CHOC agar
A coagulase-negative Staphylococcus is isolated from a patient with endocarditis. Rapid tests indicate that the isolate is PYRpositive and ornithine decarboxylase-positive. What can be suspected is the identity of this organism? a. Staphylococcus lugdunensis b. Staphylococcus saprophyticus c. Staphylococcus epidermidis d. Staphylococcus haemolyticus e. Staphylococcus schleiferi
a. Staphylococcus lugdunensis
The former name of Streptococcus gallolyticus subspecies gallolyticus is a. Streptococcus bovis I. b. Streptococcus bovis II.1. c. Streptococus bovis II.2. d. Streptococcus lutetiensis. e. Streptococcus infantarius.
a. Streptococcus bovis I.
Most human isolates of group C b-hemolytic streptococci belong to which species/subspecies? a. Streptococcus dysgalactiae subspecies equisimilis b. Streptococcus equi subspecies zooepidemicus c. Streptococcus dysgalactiae subspecies dysgalactiae d. Streptococcus equi subspecies equi e. Streptococcus equi subspecies ruminatorum
a. Streptococcus dysgalactiae subspecies equisimilis
CO2 stimulates the growth of many streptococci isolates. a. True b. False
a. True
Gonococci often have two types of colonies a. True b. False
a. True
H. influenzae biogroup aegypticus cause "pinkeye" a. True b. False
a. True
H. influenzae biogroup aegypticus cause "pinkeye" a. True b. False
a. True
H. influenze is part of the normal flora of the human upper respiratory tract. a. True b. False
a. True
Pneumonococci ususally appear as gram-positive, lancet-shaped diplococci in a gram-stained smear. a. True b. False
a. True
The staph latex agglutination test detects protein A. a. True b. False
a. True
Viridans streptococci are normal oral flora. a. True b. False
a. True
In the reference broth microdilution antimicrobial susceptibility testing procedure, which of the following is true of vancomycinintermediate Staphylococcus aureus (VISA)? a. VISA isolates will have vancomycin MICs of 4 to 8 μg/mL. b. Test results can be read after 18 hours of incubation. c. The final endpoint MIC is determined after 38 hours of incubation. d. The test is performed with trypticase-soy broth. e. VISA isolates will have vancomycin MICs of ≥8 μg/mL.
a. VISA isolates will have vancomycin MICs of 4 to 8 μg/mL.
A gram-negative rod is isolated from the blood culture of an 18month-old child. The organism grows on CHOC but not blood or eosin-methylene blue agar. The best test to perform on this isolate is: a. X and V factor requirements b. motility c. oxidase d. catalase
a. X and V factor requirements
Enterobacter sakazakii can be differentiated from Enterobacter cloacae by its: a. Yellow pigmentation and negative sorbitol fermentation b. Pink pigmentation and positive arginine dihydrolase c. Yellow pigmentation and positive urease d. H S production on TSI
a. Yellow pigmentation and negative sorbitol fermentation
Gram-negative diplococci recovered from an MTM plate and giving a positive oxidase test can be presumptively identified as: a. all of these options b. Neisseria meningitidis c. Neisseria lactamica d. Neisseria gnorrhoeae
a. all of these options
In most cases, the vectors for human infections with Bartonella henselae are: a. cat fleas. b. deer flies. c. Ixodes ticks. d. rats. e. dogs
a. cat fleas.
The diphtheria toxin produced by toxigenic Corynebacterium diphtheriae isolates: a. catalyzes the transfer of the adenoribosyl moiety of NAD to elongation factor 2, thereby inhibiting protein synthesis. b. binds to the ribosome-transfer RNA complex, thereby inhibiting protein synthesis. c. binds to DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and inhibits the transcription of messenger RNA. d. binds to DNA polymerase, thereby inactivating DNA synthesis. e. binds to the 30S ribosomal subunit to inhibit protein synthesis.
a. catalyzes the transfer of the adenoribosyl moiety of NAD to elongation factor 2, thereby inhibiting protein synthesis.
The drug of choice for the treatment of infection caused by Bordetella pertussis is: a. erythromycin b. clindamycin. c. ceftriaxone. d. first-generation cephalosporins (e.g., cefazolin). e. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
a. erythromycin
All of the following are characteristics of the genus Enterococcus except: a. growing at 10 C but not growing at 45 C. b. Hydrolyzing esculin in the presence of 40% bile. c. Growing at pH 9.6. d. Producing pyrrolidonyl arylamidase. e. Growing in broth in the presence of 6.5% NaCl.
a. growing at 10 C but not growing at 45 C.
The Biolog System for identification of staphylococci: a. identifies these organisms on the basis of differential oxidation of a variety of chemical substrates. b. uses a battery of rapid phenotypic tests for species-level identification. c.uses standard phenotypic tests for staphylococcal species identification. d. uses the same technology as MALDI-TOF mass spectroscopy e. uses a battery of ribosomal RNA probes to determine species identification.
a. identifies these organisms on the basis of differential oxidation of a variety of chemical substrates.
When a gram-stained smear for N. gonorrhoeae is requested on a throat specimen, the laboratory should: a. notify the requester that the specimen is not appropriate for the test request and suggest a culture b. perform the test and examine for intracellular gram-negative diplococci c. perform the test and examine for extracellular gram-negative diplococci d. perform the test, examine for gram-negative diplococci, and request a culture
a. notify the requester that the specimen is not appropriate for the test request and suggest a culture
A gram-positive coccus gives the following reactions: Catalase: bubbles Slide coagulase: clumps in saline Clumps when plasma is added The technologist should: a. perform a tube coagulase test b. identify the organism as S. aureus c. perform a novoviocin susceptibility test d. inoculate an MSA plate
a. perform a tube coagulase test
The major virulence factor responsible for the ability of Staphylococcus epidermidis to colonize and form biofilms on IV catheters is: a. polysaccharide intercellular adhesins. b. cell wall lipoteichoic acids. c. protein A. d. lipase production. e. coagulase.
a. polysaccharide intercellular adhesins.
The diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis is most readily accomplished by: a. scoring a Gram's stain for the relative presence and amounts of Gardnerella morphotypes, Mobiluncus morphotypes, and Lactobacillus morphotypes. b. ruling out infection with Candida albicans and Trichomonas vaginalis. c. performing a direct molecular assay for identification of Gardnerella vaginalis in vaginal discharge specimens. d. performing a wet preparation and looking for "clue cells." e. isolation of Gardnerella vaginalis from vaginal discharge specimens.
a. scoring a Gram's stain for the relative presence and amounts of Gardnerella morphotypes, Mobiluncus morphotypes, and Lactobacillus morphotypes.
In cattle, Mannheimia haemolytica causes a severe respiratory tract infection called: a. shipping fever. b. meningoencephalitis. c. brucellosis. d. melioidosis. e. glanders.
a. shipping fever.
An X and V factor requirement test was performed on a Haemonphilusisolate in the following manner: 1. A suspension of the organism was prepared in tyrpticase soy broth. 2. The organism was swabbed onto a CHOC agar plate 3. X and V factor strips were placed on the agar plate 4. The plate was incubated for 24 hours at 35°C in CO2 5. On examination, the plated showed growth over the entire plate. An evaluation of the procedure and test indicates that the: a. test is invalid; CHOC agar is not approptriate for the X and V factor requirement test b. test is invalid: the plate should not have been incubated in CO2 c. test is invalid; trypticase soy broth is not an appropriate medum for preparing the organism suspension d. organism should be identified as H. aphrophhilus
a. test is invalid; CHOC agar is not approptriate for the X and V factor requirement test
The principle difference between the pertussis vaccines DTaP and TdaP is that: a. the concentration of diphtheria toxoid is reduced in TdaP in comparison with DTaP. b. DTaP is licensed for use in the United States, whereas TdaP is not. c. DTaP contains whole-cell pertussis vaccine, whereas TdaP contains acellular pertussis vaccine. d. DTaP is formulated for previously vaccinated adults, whereas TdaP is for primary immunization of infants. e. DTaP contains pertussis toxoid, whereas TdaP does not.
a. the concentration of diphtheria toxoid is reduced in TdaP in comparison with DTaP.
The organisms in a gram-stained smear prepared from an 18hour-old-culture of Neisseria spp. appear blue on microscopic examination. These organisms are: a. under decolorized b. the proper color c. over decolorized d. probably too old to properly Gram stain
a. under decolorized
Which of the following nutrients are required by satelliting streptococci? Mark all that apply. a. thiol b. vitamin B6 c. pyridoxal d. hemin
a/b/c
The reagent for the superoxol test is: a. tetramethyl-ρ-phenylenediamine b. 30 percent H2O2 c. plasma d. ninhydrin
b. 30 percent H2O2
Variation in colony types seen with fresh isolates of Neisseria gonorrhoeae and sometimes with Neisseria meningitidis are the result of: a. Multiple nutritional requirements b. All of these options c. Use of a transparent medium d. Pili on the cell surface
b. All of these options
Isolates of vancomycin-resistant enterococci usually belong to which species? a. Enterococcus faecalis b. Enterococcus faecium c. Enterococcus avium d. Enterococcus gallinarum e. Enterococcus casseliflavus
b. Enterococcus faecium
Lactose-fermenting, gram-negative bacilli were isolated from urine. What would be the most likely identity of the isolate? a. Enterococcus faecalis b. Escherichia coli c. Proteus mirabilis d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa e. Shigella species
b. Escherichia coli
Chancres are caused by H. ducreyi. a. True b. False
b. False
S. aureus is rarely isolated from the nose in normal individuals. a. True b. False
b. False
The "school-of-fish" gram-stain morphology is characteristic of H. parainfluenzae. a. True b. False
b. False
The penicillin disk test helps to distinguish M. cattarrhalis from Neisseria spp. a. True b. False
b. False
Which Haemophilus species is generally associated with endocarditis? a. H. influenzae b. H. aphrophilus c. H. ducreyi d. H haemolyticus
b. H. aphrophilus
A species of Haemophilus that requires X factor only is: a. H. parainfluenzae b. H. ducreyi c. H. influenzae d. H. haemolyticus
b. H. ducreyi
Identification tests performed on a Haemophilusisolate gave the following results: • β-Hemolysis • Growth between the X and V factor strips This organism is: a. H. parainfluenzae b. H. haemolyticus c. H. parahaemolyticus d. H. influenzae
b. H. haemolyticus
Ornithine decarboxylase production, urease production, and indole production are phenotypic tests that can be used for biotyping: a. Bordetella species. b. Haemophilus species. c. Aggregatibacter species. d. Brucella species. e. Bartonella species
b. Haemophilus species.
Which group of tests best differentiate Enterobacter aerogenes from Edwardsiella tarda? a. Motility, citrate, and urease b. Hydrogen sulfide (H S) production, sucrose fermentation, indole and VP c. Lysine decarboxylase, urease, and arginine dihydrolase d. Motility, H S production, and DNase
b. Hydrogen sulfide (H S) production, sucrose fermentation, indole and VP
A gram-positive coccus gives the following reactions: Catalase: bubbles Bacitracin: small zone of inhibition Furazolidone: no zone of inhibition Modified oxidase: blue color The technologist should now: a. Identifiy and report the organism as Stomatococcus spp. b. Identify and report the organism as Micrococcus spp. c. perform a staph latex agglutination test d. repeat the catalase test with positive and negative controls
b. Identify and report the organism as Micrococcus spp.
Haemophilus influenzae causes ocular infections (pinkeye) and requires X and V factors in the primary medium for growth. The subspecies Haemophilus influenza (biogroup) aegypitius can further be identified and differentiated by which two tests? a. oxidase and catalase b. Indole and xylose c. Glucose and urease d. ALA test and oxidase
b. Indole and xylose
The zoonotic agent that is a leading cause of bacteremia and meningitis in Asia is: a. Streptococcus gallolyticus. b. Streptococcus porcinus. c. Streptococcus suis. d. Streptococcus infantarius. e. Streptococcus agalactiae.
c. Streptococcus suis.
An 84-year-old female nursing home resident in mild respiratory distress was admitted to the hospital. Workup revealed a hazy left lower lobe infiltrate on chest X-ray associated with hypoxemia. She required mechanical ventilation and was placed on broadspectrum antibiotics. A sputum sample described as "currant jelly" in appearance grew a gram-negative rod that appeared as a mucoid pink colony on MacConkey agar. Further testing revealed that the organism was oxidase-negative and a glucose fermenter. What is the most likely etiologic agent of this patient's pneumonia? a. Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Klebsiella pneumoniae c. Legionella pneumoniae d. Mycoplasma pneumoniae e. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Klebsiella pneumoniae
A gram-negative rod is recovered from a catheterized urine sample from a nursing home patient. The lactose-negative isolate tested positive for indole, urease, ornithine decarboxylase, and phenylalanine deaminase and negative for H The most probable identification is: a. Edwardsiella spp. b. Morganella spp. c. Ewingella spp. d. Shigella spp.
b. Morganella spp
Which of the following products is responsible for satellite growth of Haemophilus spp. around colonies of Staphylococcus and Neisseria spp. on sheep blood agar? a. Oxidase b. NAD c. Indole d. Hemin
b. NAD
All of the following organisms are valid Pasteurella species or former valid Pasteurella species except: a. Pasteurella dagmatis. b. Pasteurella bettyae c. Pasteurella multocida. d. Avibacterium gallinarum. e. Pasteurella canis
b. Pasteurella bettyae
Peripheral lymphocytosis observed during Bordetella pertussis infection is caused by the biologic effects of which Bordetella pertussis virulence factor? a. Tracheal cytotoxin b. Pertussis toxin c. Filamentous hemagglutinin d. Adenylate cyclase-hemolysin e. Heat-labile dermonecrotizing toxin
b. Pertussis toxin
Which of the following is a characteristic of strains of Haemophilus influenzae that are resistant to ampicillin? a. Hydrolysis of chloramphenicol b. Production of β-lactamase enzymes c. Hydrolysis of urea d. All of the options
b. Production of β-lactamase enzymes
6. Which of the following organisms, found in normal fecal flora, may be mistaken biochemically for the genus Yersinia? a. Klebsiella spp b. Proteus spp c. coli d. Enterobacter spp
b. Proteus spp
Former members of the genus Stomatococcus are now classified in the genus: a. Arthrobacter b. Rothia. c. Kytococcus. d. Micrococcus. e. Staphylococcus
b. Rothia.
The CAMP test is performed by streaking group B streptococci perpendicular to a streak of: a. coagulase-negative staphylococci ATCC25912 b. S. aureus ATCC25923 c. group A streptococci d. nonenterococcal group D streptococci
b. S. aureus ATCC25923
Which of the following staphylococcal species may be clumping factor-positive? a.Staphylococcus warneri b. Staphylococcus schleiferi subspecies schleiferi c. Staphylococcus haemolyticus d. Staphylococcus hominis subspecies hominis e. Staphylococcus hominis subspecies novobiosepticus
b. Staphylococcus schleiferi subspecies schleiferi
The coryneform organism that has been isolated from middle ear fluids of children with acute otitis media is: a. Arcanobacterium haemolyticum. b. Turicella otitidis. c. Rothia aeria. d. Corynebacterium afermentans. e. Corynebacterium striatum.
b. Turicella otitidis.
A technologist is performing a nitrate reduction test. When dimethyl-α-naphthylamine and sulfanilic acid were added, the medium did not change color. The technologist should: a. reincubate the tube overnight b. add zinc to the tube c. record the test result as negative d. record the test result as positive
b. add zinc to the tube
Penicillin resistance in Streptococcus pneumoniae is caused by: a. production of b-lactamase enzymes. b. alteration in porin molecules associated with transport of antimicrobial agents c. alterations in several penicillin-binding proteins. d. induction and activation of an antimicrobial efflux pump mechanism.
b. alteration in porin molecules associated with transport of antimicrobial agents
Bacteremia and endocarditis with Streptococcus gallolyticus subspecies gallolyticus is associated with: a. high morbidity and mortality. b. colorectal carcinoma. c. the development of neonatal meningitis. d. the presence of intrauterine infection. e. ingestion of undercooked pork or pork products
b. colorectal carcinoma.
A gram-negative diplococcus was isolated from the endocervical culture of a 10-year-old girl. The organism gave the following test results: • MTM agar: growth • oxidase: positive • Carbohydrate utilization tests: glucose, positive, maltose, negative: lactose, negative: sucrose, negative The technologist should: a. subculture isolate onto nutrient agar b. confirm the identity of isolate with another method c. request that a vaginal specimen be submitted for culture d. report N. gonorrhoeae isolated
b. confirm the identity of isolate with another method
The peptide nucleic acids (PNAs) used in the PNA FISH and QuickFISH assays identify organisms by: a. hybridization with species-specific staphylococcal plasmids. b. hybridization with species-specific ribosomal RNA sequences. c. amplification of specific ribosomal RNA sequences. d. hybridization with species-specific chromosomal DNA sequences. e. None of the above
b. hybridization with species-specific ribosomal RNA sequences.
Rapid molecular surveillance tests for the direct detection of MRSA are FDA cleared for: a. skin and soft tissue specimens. b. nares specimens only. c. nares, axilla, throat, and groin specimens. d. throat and nares specimens only. e. blood cultures only.
b. nares specimens only
The drug of choice for the treatment of group A streptococcal pharyngitis is: a. ceftriaxone. b. penicillin. c. erythromycin. d. clindamycin. e. gentamicin.
b. penicillin
A medium appropriate for the satellite test a. trypticase soy agar b. sheeps blood agar c. horse blood agar d. CHOC agar
b. sheeps blood agar
An oxidase-positive, gram-negative diplococcus growing on CHOC agar gives the following reactions: • β-galactosidase: negative • γ-glutamylaminopeptidase: positive • Hydroxyprolylaminopeptidase: positive The technologist should: a. perform nitrate reduction and DNAse tests b. subculture the isolate onto a gonococcal selective medium c. identify the isolate as N. gonorrhoeae d. subculture the isolate onto nutrient agar
b. subculture the isolate onto a gonococcal selective medium
Cereulide is a low-molecular-weight compound that is responsible for: a. pseudomembrane formation by Corynebacterium diphtheriae. b. the symptoms of short-incubation food poisoning caused by Bacillus cereus. c. internalization and intracellular survival of Listeria monocytogenes. d. pharyngeal inflammation during infection with Arcanobacterium haemolyticum
b. the symptoms of short-incubation food poisoning caused by Bacillus cereus.
The best specimen for diagnosing gonorrhea by gram-stained smear is: a. endocervical material b. urethral discharge from a man c. rectal swab d. discharge from an eye
b. urethral discharge from a man
Early onset disease in the neonate associated with group B streptococci: a. becomes clinically evident about 7 days after birth. b. usually presents with bacteremia, pneumonia, and/or meningitis. c. is ordinarily caused by nosocomial exposure and acquisition of the organism. d. is not associated with any maternal risk factors. e. is usually caused by serotype III strains of group B streptococci.
b. usually presents with bacteremia, pneumonia, and/or meningitis.
Which of the following are α hemolytic? Mark all that apply. a. group A streptococci b. viridans streptococci c. nonenterococcal group D streptococci d. S. pneumoniae
b/c/d
The reagent that is used for the catalase test is: a. 30% hydrogen peroxide. b. 10% hydrogen peroxide/EDTA. c. 3% hydrogen peroxide. d. 10% hydrogen peroxide. e. 3% EDTA.
c. 3% hydrogen peroxide.
A gram-positive coccus is isolated from a urine culture in colony counts of >10 cfu/mL. The isolate is a-hemolytic on sheep blood, is LAP-positive, is PYR-negative, and does not grow on bile esculin media but does grow in 6.5% NaCl. What is the identity of this urinary tract pathogen? 5 a. Enterococcus faecalis b. Gemella species c. Aerococcus urinae d. Aerococcus viridans e. Streptococcus urinalis
c. Aerococcus urinae
Haemophilus species that require the V factor (NAD) are easily recovered on which primary agar plate? a. Blood agar made with sheep red cells b. Xylose agar c. Chocolate agar d. Blood agar made with horse red cells
c. Chocolate agar
The following members of the family Enterobacteriaceae are always lactose negative except: a. Salmonella. b. Shigella. c. Citrobacter. d. Edwardsiella. e. Proteus.
c. Citrobacter.
An outbreak of gastroenteritis is reported among children in a preschool day care center. The affected children present with lowgrade fever, malaise, vomiting, and diarrhea with a prominent amount of mucus but with no gross blood. Which one of the following bacteria is the most likely cause of the outbreak among these children? a. Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) b. Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC) c. Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC) d. Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC) e. E. coli O157:H7
c. Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)
The major virulence factor of group A b-hemolytic streptococci is: a. hyaluronidase. b. opacity factor. c. M protein. d. streptokinase. e. cysteine protease
c. M protein.
A gram-negative diplococcus isolated from a CSF specimen gives the following results: • MTM agar: growth • Nutrient agar: no growth • Oxidase: positive • Carbohudrateurilization tests: glucose, yellow; maltose, yellow; lactose, red; sucrose red This organism is: a. N. lactamica b. N. gonorrhoeae c. N. meningitidis d. M. catarrhalis
c. N. meningitidis
A Gram stain of a urethral discharge from a man showing extracellular and intracellular gram-negative diplococci within segmented neutrophils is a presumptive identification for: a. Neisseria meningitidis b. Neisseria lactamica c. Neisseria gnorrhoeae d. Moraxella catarrhalis
c. Neisseria gnorrhoeae
A gram-positive coccus is isolated from a catheter tip culture. The organism is weakly catalase-positive and is coagulase-negative. The colonies are noted to be gray-white and very "sticky" when touched with an inoculating loop. What is the likely identity of this organism? a. Micrococcus luteus b. Kytococcus schroeteri c. Rothia mucilaginosa d. Staphylococcus epidermidis e. Staphylococcus auricularis
c. Rothia mucilaginosa
A nasal swab is inoculated onto an MSA plate and incubated overnight at 35C. An examination of the plate shows numerous colonies on yellow agar. This culture is most likely to contain: a. Micrococcus spp. b. Stomatococcus spp. c. S. aureus d. Coagulase-negative staphylococci
c. S. aureus
A 25-year-old male living in the United States develops a fever ranging between 100 and 102 F for a duration of 7 days following a recent visit to India. In addition to gradually increasing fevers, he complains of headache, myalgia, malaise, and anorexia. Before his recent visit to India, he did not receive any vaccinations nor did he take malaria prophylaxis. His vital signs were normal except for the elevated temperature, and physical examination revealed no major findings, with the exception of generalized maculopapular rash. To exclude malaria, a blood film ° ° was prepared and the result was negative. His fever persisted for 7 days and was followed by gastrointestinal symptoms. Blood and stool samples were submitted for culture, and both grew the etiologic agent of his disease. Based on these findings, what is the most likely etiologic agent in this patient's disease? a. Edwardsiella tarda b. Enteroinvasive E. coli c. Salmonella typhi d. Shigella dysenteriae e. Vibrio cholerae
c. Salmonella typhi
The coagulase-negative staphylococcal species that is most frequently isolated from human clinical specimens is: a. Staphylococcus saprophyticus. b. Staphylococcus lugdunensis. c. Staphylococcus epidermidis. d. Staphylococcus haemolyticus. e. Staphylococcus hominis
c. Staphylococcus epidermidis.
"Haverhill fever" is a febrile illness caused by ingestion of food or water that is contaminated with: a. Mannheimia haemolytica. b. Pasteurella aerogenes. c. Streptobacillus moniliformis. d. Bartonella bacilliformis. e. Brucella abortus.
c. Streptobacillus moniliformis.
The pX01 plasmid of Bacillus anthracis: a. is similar to virulence plasmids found in Yersinia pestis. b. is not found in any other Bacillus species. c. contains the structural genes for protective antigen, edema factor, and lethal factor of Bacillus anthracis. d. is composed of toxin genes that are expressed only in the absence of carbon dioxide. e. contains the five-gene operon encoding the Bacillus anthracis capsule
c. contains the structural genes for protective antigen, edema factor, and lethal factor of Bacillus anthracis
If a bacterial isolate produces a positive aminolevulinic acid (ALA)-porphyrin test, it means that the organism: a. is unable to synthesize porphyrin intermediates of hemin from aminolevulinic acid (ALA). b. is able to produce indole. c. is able to synthesize porphyrin intermediates of hemin from aminolevulinic acid (ALA). d. is able to synthesize aminolevulinic acid from hemin. e. is able to hydrolyze urea
c. is able to synthesize porphyrin intermediates of hemin from aminolevulinic acid (ALA).
The tube coagulase test: a. detects bound coagulase. b. is performed using citrated rabbit plasma. c. is performed using rabbit plasma with EDTA d. is incubated at 25 C to 30 C for 18 to 24 hours before reading. o o e. is only positive for Staphylococcus aureus strains that are slide coagulase-negative.
c. is performed using rabbit plasma with EDTA.
Members of the genus Abiotrophia and genus Granulicatella were formerly called: a. members of the Streptococcus mitis group. b. members of the Streptococcus bovis group. c. nutritionally variant, nutritionally deficient, or "satelliting" streptococci. d. members of the genus Enterococcus.
c. nutritionally variant, nutritionally deficient, or "satelliting" streptococci.
Infections with the emerging streptococcal pathogen Streptococcus iniae are acquired by: a. handling infected pigs and piglets. b. ingestion of undercooked pork. c. penetrating injuries from fish spines during processing and cleaning. d. contact with infected dogs and cats. e. contact with water contaminated with the organism.
c. penetrating injuries from fish spines during processing and cleaning.
A γ-hemolytic streptococcus gives the following reactions: • Bile-esculin: black • Optochin: growth occurs up to the disk The technologist should: a. report the isolate as enterococci b. report the isolate as nonenterococcal group D streptococci c. perform a 6.5% NaCl tolerance test d. perform a Lancefield serogrouping test
c. perform a 6.5% NaCl tolerance test
A technologist performs an oxidase test on an isolate of Neisseria spp. using an oxidase reagent ampule opened the previous day. A purple color appears 45 seconds after the organism is rubbed with an applicator stick onto filter paper saturated with reagent. The technologist should: a. repeat the test, making sure an iron loop is used to transfer the organism to the filter paper b. repeat the test and read the result after 5 seconds have elapsed c. repeat the test using an oxidase reagent ampule opened the day the test is performed d. accept the result
c. repeat the test using an oxidase reagent ampule opened the day the test is performed
All of the following are true regarding Bacillus anthracis except that: a. the organism forms sticky, tenacious colonies. b. the organism is catalase-positive. c. the organism is resistant to penicillin d. the organism is nonmotile. e. the organism is nonhemolytic on sheep blood agar.
c. the organism is resistant to penicillin
Pelvic actinomycosis is often associated with: a. long-term use of oral contraceptives. b. previous gonococcal or chlamydial infections. c. the presence of an intrauterine contraceptive device. d. hormone replacement therapy. e. previous surgery for cervical or ovarian cancer.
c. the presence of an intrauterine contraceptive device.
All of the following are true regarding pneumonia cause by Haemophilus influenzae in adults except that: a. most infections occur in individuals with underlying diseases, including immunodeficiency, diabetes, alcoholism, or neoplastic disease. b. most infections are caused by nontypeable Haemophilus influenzae c. type b organisms are a significant cause of pneumonia in adults. d. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is a risk factor for the development of pneumonia. e. bacteremia is uncommon in this clinical setting
c. type b organisms are a significant cause of pneumonia in adults.
Members of the Mitis group of viridans streptococci are: a. usually arginine dihydrolase- and esculin hydrolysis-positive. b. usually arginine dihyrdolase-negative and ferment both sorbitol and mannitol. c. usually arginine dihydrolase- and esculin hydrolysis-negative and do not ferment mannitol or sorbitol d. usually positive for urease production.
c. usually arginine dihydrolase- and esculin hydrolysis-negative and do not ferment mannitol or sorbitol
The late stage of Bartonella bacilliformis infection that is associated with the development of cutaneous lesions is called: a. Carrion's disease. b. bacillary angiomatosis. c. verruga peruana. d. bacillary peliosis. e. Oroya fever
c. verruga peruana.
The newly described species Streptococcus pseudopneumoniae: a. does not have any pathogenic potential. b. is a common isolates from the normal respiratory tract. c. will demonstrate resistance or intermediate susceptibility to optochin when cultures are incubated in 5% CO2 d. will demonstrate resistance or intermediate susceptibility to optochin when cultures are incubated in ambient air. e. cannot be reliably differentiated from Streptococcus pneumoniae by MALDI-TOF.
c. will demonstrate resistance or intermediate susceptibility to optochin when cultures are incubated in 5% CO2
Nonpathogenic Moraxella spp. capable of growing on selective media for Neisseria can be differentiated from Neisseria spp. by which test? a. Oxidase test b. Catalase test c. Superoxol test d. 10-unit penicillin disk
d. 10-unit penicillin disk
Molar tooth" colonies are characteristic of: a. Corynebacterium diphtheria biotype mitis. b. Trueperella pyogenes. c. Actinomyces meyeri. d. Actinomyces israelii e. Corynebacterium nigricans
d. Actinomyces israelii
A small, fastidious gram-negative coccobacillus is isolated from a bone marrow culture of a 27-year-old veterinary medicine student. The organism is noted to be oxidase-positive, catalase-positive, and also urease-positive after 2 hours of incubation. Based on this information, this isolate is probably: a. Francisella tularensis. b. Afipia felis. c. Bartonella henselae. d. Brucella melitensis e. Bartonella clarridgeiae
d. Brucella melitensis
After a long weekend visit to her boyfriend's school, a 19-year-old college student complained of burning when urinating and a strong desire to void frequently, although there was little urine to void. After 12 hours of these symptoms, she also felt a dull ache over the lower area of her back. She went to the university health service for diagnosis and treatment. A clean catch urine specimen was collected and sent to the laboratory. The following pictures show growth on the MacConkey agar plate and a Gram's stain of the organism 1. MacConkey agar plate growing urine isolate 2. Gram's stain of urine isolate Based on this information, what is the most likely cause of this woman's urinary tract infection? a. Proteus mirabilis b. Staphylococcus saprophyticus c. Group B Streptococcus d. E. coli e. Enterococcus species
d. E. coli
A state public health laboratory reported that 15 stool isolates submitted for routine molecular subtyping were indistinguishable in their pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE) patterns. The isolates were cultured from stool of 15 patients with a median age of 13 years who had onsets of illness during June 14 to July 14. All patients reported having abdominal cramps, diarrhea, and bloody stools. Five patients were hospitalized. Eleven patients reported eating frozen pre-formed ground beef patties or burgers at least once during the 7-day period preceding illness onset. All eleven reported eating the same brand's product. The etiologic agent was a gram-negative, glucose-fermenting rod, and was oxidase-negative, lactose-negative, sorbitol-negative, and H Snegative. What is the most likely etiologic agent of this outbreak? 2 a. Campylobacter jejuni b. Salmonella c. Plesiomonas shigelloides d. E. coli O157:H7 e. Shigella sonneiYou
d. E. coli O157:H7
A gram-positive coccobacillus is isolated from blood cultures of a 24-year-old woman with postpartum fever. The organism is oxidase- and catalase-negative, shows a weak, diffuse bhemolytic reaction on CNA agar, and is hippurate hydrolysispositive. What is this organism? a. Corynebacterium aurimucosum b. Lactobacillus species c. Actinobaculum species d. Gardnerella vaginalis e. Actinomyces meyeri
d. Gardnerella vaginalis
A species of Haemophilus that requires X factor only is a. H. haemolyticus b. H. parainfluenzae c. H. influenzae d. H. ducreyi
d. H. ducreyi
Which Haemophilus species is difficult to isolate and recover from genital ulcers and swollen lymph nodes? a. H. haemolyticus b. H. parahaemolyticus c. H. aphrophilus d. H. ducreyi
d. H. ducreyi
The purpose of the Hib vaccine is to protect children from infections caused by: a. all Haemophilus spp. b. nontypeable H. influenzae c. All strains of H. influenzae d. H. influenzae type b
d. H. influenzae type b
A Haemophilusisolate gave the following reactions: • Porphyrin test: flourescence • Satellites around Staphylococcus aureus • no hemolysis This organism is: a. H. parahaemolyticus b. H. influenzae c. H. aphrophilus d. H. parainfluenzae
d. H. parainfluenzae
The Staphylococcus streak technique is a test for the presumptive identification of: a. Aggregatibacter species. b. Kingella species. c. Pasteurella species. d. Haemophilus species. e. Bartonella species.
d. Haemophilus species.
Which of the following plates should be used in order to identiry Haemophilus haemolyticus and Haemophilus parahaemolyticus? a. Sheep blood agar and chocolate agar b. Chocolate agar and Mueller-Hinton agar with X factor added c. Brain-heart infusion agar with sheep red cells added d. Horse blood agar and Mueller-Hinton agar with X and V strips
d. Horse blood agar and Mueller-Hinton agar with X and V strips
5. Which single test best separates Klebsiella oxytoca from Klebsiella pneumoniae? a. Urease b. Sucrose c. Citrate d. Indole
d. Indole
An organism grows on MacConkey agar producing pink colonies and a cloudy pink precipitate in the agar surrounding individual colonies. Given this morphologic appearance, what additional information can be deduced about this organism? a. It is likely to be positive in the Voges-Proskauer test. b. It is likely to produce swarming colonies on blood agar. c. Inoculation of this organism to a Kligler's iron agar will produce an alkaline slant (red) and acid butt (yellow). d. It is likely to give a ++ - - reaction in the IMViC tests. e. It is likely to be identified as E.coli O157:H7.
d. It is likely to give a ++ - - reaction in the IMViC tests.
A plump, gram-negative organism is recovered from two sets of blood cultures and from knee joint fluid of a 2-year-old male child. The organism is oxidase-positive, catalase-negative, indolenegative, and b-hemolytic on sheep blood agar. Based on the history and the phenotypic characteristics, this organism is likely to be: a. Bordetella pertussis. b. Aggregatibacter segnis. c. Haemophilus influenzae. d. Kingella kingae. e. Eikenella corrodens
d. Kingella kingae.
A nasal biopsy is submitted for culture on a patient with a chronic granulomatous disease involving mucosa of the upper respiratory tract. The culture is positive for an oxidase-negative, glucosepositive, gram-negative rod. Additional testing demonstrates that the organism is VP-positive, ornithine-negative, and nonmotile. What is the most likely identification of this organism? a. Escherichia coli b. Edwardsiella tarda c. Citrobacter freundii d. Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis e. Enterobacter cloacaeYou
d. Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis
Screening for recto/vaginal carriage of group B streptococci should occur: a. as close to the time of delivery as possible. b. during the first trimester of pregnancy. c. during the second trimester of pregnancy. d. during the 35th to 37th week of gestation. e. during the first month of pregnancy
d. during the 35th to 37th week of gestation.
A gram-positive bacillus is isolated from a wound specimen from a breast abscess of a 36-year-old female. The organism is catalasenegative and slightly a-hemolytic, and resembles a viridans Streptococcus on the blood plate. Further testing established that the organism is resistant to vancomycin and is negative for H2S on a Kligler's iron agar slant. What is this organism? a. Weissella species b. Leuconostoc species c. Erysipelothrix species d. Lactobacillus species e. Propionibacterium species
d. Lactobacillus species
Which definition best fits the family Enterobacteriaceae? a. Motile, fermentative, oxidase-negative, NO3 reduced b. Motile, fermentative, oxidase-negative, NO3 -negative c. Motile, fermentative, oxidase-variable, NO3 -negative d. Motility-variable, fermentative, oxidase-negative, NO3 -positive
d. Motility-variable, fermentative, oxidase-negative, NO3 -positive
The β-galactosidase test aids in the identification of which Neisseria species? a. N. meningitidis b. N. flavescens c. N. gonorrhoeae d. N. lactamica
d. N. lactamica
3. Members of the genus Cedecea are best differentiated from Serratia spp by which test result? a. Positive motility b. Positive urease c. Positive phenylalanine deaminase d. Negative DNase
d. Negative DNase
Which of the following is not one of the clinical presentations associated with anthrax? a. Gastrointestinal anthrax b. Cutaneous anthrax c. Injectional anthrax d. Neonatal anthrax e. Pulmonary (inhalational) anthrax
d. Neonatal anthrax
A pneumococcal isolate displays a zone of 12 mm around an optochin disk. What is to be done next? a. Reporting the isolate as Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Performing a tube optochin susceptibility test c. Reporting the isolate as a viridans Streptococcus d. Performing a bile solubility test e. Repeating the optochin disk test
d. Performing a bile solubility test
A catheterized urine culture is performed on a patient presenting with kidney stones. The culture grows >100,000 CFU/mL of an organism that grows as colorless colonies on MacConkey agar and produces colonies characterized as having a swarming morphology on the blood agar plate. On triple sugar iron (TSI) agar, the organism produces a yellow slant and a black butt. It is both phenylalanine deaminase- and urease-positive. What is the most likely cause of the UTI in this patient? a. E. coli b. Enterococcus faecalis c. Corynebacterium ureolyticum d. Proteus mirabilis e. Yersinia enterocolitica
d. Proteus mirabilis
An outbreak of diarrhea occurred in the Happy Kids Day Care Center in Cleveland, Ohio. Thirty-five children ranging in age from 2 to 5 years developed fever, abdominal cramps, and straining (tenesmus) with frequent small stools. Five of the children became severely dehydrated. Gram's stains of the mucus from the children's stools revealed gram-negative rods, gram-negative cocci, and numerous neutrophils. Nonmotile, non-lactosefermenting gram-negative rods were isolated on MacConkey agar from the stools of 30 of the children. Which of the following would be the most likely causative agent of the children's enterocolitis? a. Campylobacter jejuni b. Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (O157:H7) c. Salmonella serotype choleraesuis d. Shigella sonnei! e. Yersinia enterocolitica
d. Shigella sonnei!
Resistance to novobiocin is used for the presumptive identification of: a. Staphylococcus lugdunensis. b. Staphylococcus epidermidis. c.Staphylococcus intermedius. d. Staphylococcus saprophyticus. e. Micrococcus species.
d. Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
The δ-ALA test (for porphyrins) is a confirmatory procedure for which test used for identification of Haemophilus species? a. indole production b. V factor requirement c. Urease production d. X factor requirement
d. X factor requirement
Exfoliative toxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus: a. are encoded by the staphylococcal chromosome. b. are found only in isolates that are methicillin-resistant. c. are responsible for staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome. d. cause dissolution of the mucopolysaccharide matrix of the epidermal stratum granulosum in the scalded skin syndrome. e. are high-molecular-weight extracellular lipopolysaccharides
d. cause dissolution of the mucopolysaccharide matrix of the epidermal stratum granulosum in the scalded skin syndrome.
Vancomycin-resistant enterococci that possess the vanA genotype: a. display low-level resistance to vancomycin but not teicoplanin. b. cannot transfer resistance by conjugative mechanisms. c. display constitutive vancomycin resistance. d. display high-level resistance to both vancomycin and teicoplanin.
d. display high-level resistance to both vancomycin and teicoplanin.
All of the following are characteristics of the Anginosus group of viridans streptococci except that: a. these organisms have a propensity to cause purulent, deep tissue abscesses and intra-abdominal infections. b. these organisms may be a-, b-, or nonhemolytic. c. cultures of these organisms have a characteristic "butterscotch" or "honeysuckle" odor. d. these organisms form large colonies on blood agar after 24 hours of incubation. e. these organisms may carry group A, C, F, or G antigens or may be nongroupable.
d. these organisms form large colonies on blood agar after 24 hours of incubation.
A Gram stain is prepared from an 18-hour-old culture of Haemophilus. The organisms appear blue on microscopic examination. These organisms are: a. overdecolorized b. the proper color c. propbably too old to properly gram stain d. underdecolorized
d. underdecolorized
The disease that S. saprophyticus most often causes is: a. endocarditis b. TSS (Toxic Shock Syndrome) c. folliculitis d. urinary tract infection
d. urinary tract infection
An anaerobic/facultative gram-positive bacillus that is the cause of complicated urinary tract infections and other infections is: a. Actinomyces turicensis. b. Dermabacter hominis. c. Trueperella bernardiae. d. Actinobaculum suis. e. Actinotignum schaalii
e. Actinotignum schaalii
A fastidious gram-negative coccobacillus is isolated from multiple blood cultures of a patient with endocarditis. This isolate grows on blood and chocolate agars after 3 days, but does not grow on MacConkey agar. The organism is oxidase-negative and catalasepositive, does not produce indole, and does not hydrolyze ONPG. What is this organism? a. Aggregatibacter aphrophilus b. Cardiobacterium valvarum c. Kingella kingae d. Eikenella corrodens e. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitan
e. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitan
The most common coryneform species found on human skin is: a. Corynebacterium jeikeium. b. Corynebacterium minutissimum. c. Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum. d. Corynebacterium striatum. e. Corynebacterium amycolatum
e. Corynebacterium amycolatum
A gram-negative bacillus is recovered from a facial wound of a 28year-old male. The isolate is oxidase-positive, catalase-negative, indole-negative, and asaccharolytic. On blood agar, the organism is found to be nonhemolytic and the culture has a "hypochlorite bleach" odor. This organism is probably: a. Kingella denitrificans. b. Bordetella bronchiseptica. c. Aggregatibacter aphrophilus. d. Bartonella henselae. e. Eikenella corrodens
e. Eikenella corrodens
The causative agent of erysipeloid in swine is: a. Arcanobacterium haemolyticum. b. Actinomyces suis. c. Corynebacterium ulcerans. d. Bacillus anthracis. e. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
e. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
The sexually transmitted infection called chancroid is caused by: a. Aggregatibacter aphrophilus. b. Bordetella ansorpii. c. Bartonella henselae. d. Actinobacillus ureae. e. Haemophilus ducreyi
e. Haemophilus ducreyi
The historical isolate "Corynebacterium aquaticum" was subsequently delineated to be an environmental organism related to Clavibacter species. The current name of this organism is: a. Exiguobacterium aurantiacum. b. Helcobacillus massiliensis. c. Exiguobacterium acetylicum. d. Listeria rocourti. e. Leifsonia aquatica
e. Leifsonia aquatica
The altered penicillin-binding protein (PBP) that is found in methicillin-resistant isolates of Staphylococcus aureus is called: a. PBP2c. b. PBP2. c. PBP-MR. d. PBPmecA. e. PBP2a
e. PBP2a
Which of the following is a characteristic of all bacteria belonging to the family Enterobacteriaceae? a. Ubiquitous in nature, found in water, soil, and vegetationYou b. Lactose fermenter c. Oxidase-positive d. Nitrate not reduced e. Producing acid *********** of Kligler's iron and triple sugar iron agar slants
e. Producing acid *********** of Kligler's iron and triple sugar iron agar slants
Which of the following is characteristic of Listeria monocytogenes? a. The organism does not hydrolyze hippurate. b. The organism is nonhemolytic on sheep blood agar. c. The organism is catalase-negative. d. The organism does not hydrolyze esculin. e. The organism is motile at 25 C
e. The organism is motile at 25 C
A 1-year-old African American client suffering from diarrhea and subsequent dehydration was brought into the emergency room of an intercity hospital. The family reports that the illness began a couple of days after Christmas. In questioning the parents about foodborne source of the infection, the parents reported serving chitterlings to the adults but not the children. A stool specimen sent to the laboratory grew a lactose-negative gram-negative bacillus that gave biochemical reactions typical of E. coli except that the organism was urease-positive. What is the most likely identity of the bacterium? a. E. coli 0157:H7 b. Edwardsiella tarda c. Shigella dysenteriae d. Vibrio cholerae e. Yersinia enterocolitica
e. Yersinia enterocolitica
An 18-year-old resident of Flagstaff, Arizona, was taken to a local outpatient clinic because of a 2-day history of fever, pain in his left groin, and diarrhea. On examination, left groin swelling and tenderness were noted. A groin muscle strain was diagnosed. He was treated with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents and released. One day later, the patient reported feeling weak, had difficulty breathing, and collapsed while taking a shower. A blood culture collected in the emergency room grew a gram-negative rod with bipolar staining. It was oxidase-negative and gave an alkaline slant, acid butt reaction in Kligler's iron agar. An epidemiologic investigation indicated that the patient most likely became infected as a result of bites by infected fleas while walking through a prairie dog colony in Navajo County. What is the most likely identification of the agent responsible for this patient's illness? a. Escherichia coli O157 b. Salmonella serotype arizonae c. Edwardsiella tarda d. Klebsiella ozaenae e. Yersinia pestis
e. Yersinia pestis
Foods that are most frequently implicated in Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning are: a. cooked meat dishes (e.g., beef stew). b. fruits and vegetables. c. canned goods (e.g., soups, etc.). d. unpasteurized milk products. e. foods containing cream (e.g., custards, potato salad, ice cream).
e. foods containing cream (e.g., custards, potato salad, ice cream).
The most discriminatory method for strain typing of Staphylococcus epidermidis and other coagulase-negative staphylococci is: a. Spa (protein A) gene sequencing. b. random amplified polymorphic DNA (RAPD) sequencing. c. PVL (Panton-Valentine leucocidin) gene sequencing. d. multilocus sequence typing (MLST). e. pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE).
e. pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE).
Micrococci and related species are: a. resistant to bacitracin. b. oxidase-negative using the modified oxidase test. c. fermentative gram-positive cocci. d. susceptible to lysostaphin. e. resistant to furazolidone.
e. resistant to furazolidone
