Missed Questions- Midterm Exam and on

Based on this statement, determine which stage of change a client is in: "I know what I need to do to lose weight, but I just can't do it." A. Precontemplation B. Contemplation C. Preparation D. Action

B. Contemplation; The classic indicator for a patient in the contemplation stage of change is a "yes, but" statement. The majority of RDNs' clients are in the contemplation stage when they come to their first appointment. (Sauter C, Constance A. Inspiring and Supporting Behavior Change: A Food and Nutrition Professional's Counseling Guide. 2nd ed. Chicago, IL: Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics; 2016.)

BMI at or greater than the 95th percentile is: A. at risk for overweight B. obese C. overweight D. severe childhood obesity

B. obese; Healthy weight is defined as body mass index (BMI) in the 5th percentile to less than the 85th percentile. Overweight encompasses the 85th to less than the 95th percentile. Obese is defined as equal to or greater than the 95th percentile. (American Academy of Pediatrics. Pediatric Nutrition Handbook. 7th ed. Elk Grove Village, IL: American Academy of Pediatrics; 2013.)

What product is more likely to be sold using a LIFO inventory approach? A. Salmon portions B. Brick of cheddar C. Deli meat cuts D. Jar of spaghetti sauce

D. Jar of spaghetti sauce; The LIFO, or last-in/first-out, inventory approach is not practical for perishable goods of using newest inventory first. LIFO is better suited for nonperishable products, as perishable food could spoil while sitting idle in inventory, thereby leading to losses. (Tardi C. Inventory valuation: LIFO vs FIFO. Investopedia. Updated April 2020. Accessed November 23, 2020. Available at: Website)

Which of the following is a secondary characteristic of culture? A. Religion B. Age C. Gender D. Socioeconomic status

D. Socioeconomic status; Socioeconomic status is a secondary characteristic of an individual's cultural identity. (Stein K. Moving cultural competency from abstract to act. J Am Diet Assoc. 2010;110(2):180-187.)

What type of commercial cooking equipment allows the user to fry, simmer, steam, saute, or grill a variety of foods in large batches? A. Combo oven B. Steam-jacketed kettle C. Eight-burner cook top D. Tilting skillet

D. Tilting skillet; A tilting skillet has the capacity to meet a broad range of cooking needs. It can fry, simmer, steam, saute, or grill a variety of foods in large batches. (Gregoire)

What nutrient intake should be screened in older adults to identify susceptibility to infection? A. Riboflavin B. Selenium C. Calcium D. Zinc

D. Zinc; Decreased consumption of dietary zinc has been associated with the aging process. Zinc is critical for the immune system, and deficiency can lead to depressed immunity and increased susceptibility to infection. (Molnar JA, Underdown MJ, Clark WA. Nutrition and chronic wounds. Adv Wound Care. 2014;3(11):663-681. Accessed April 23, 2020. Available at: Website)

The most influential perception factor in a person's preference for a particular food is A. olfactory B. mouthfeel or texture C. visual D. gustatory.

D. gustatory; Taste, or gustatory perception, is the most influential factor in food preferences, more so than mouthfeel (texture), smell (olfactory), or visual. (Edelstein S. Food Science: An Ecological Approach. Burlington, MA: Jones and Bartlett; 2013)

The two financial statements primarily used by foodservice managers to analyze operational effectiveness are the A. inventory valuation record and budget. B. balance sheet and inventory valuation record. C. budget and income statement. D. income statement and balance sheet.

D. income statement and balance sheet.; The inventory valuation record contains an accounting of the cost of items kept in the inventory. The balance sheet is a list of assets, liabilities, and capital, and the income statement is a financial statement that shows all operating results for a desired time period. (Gregoire MB, Spears MC. Foodservice Organizations: A Managerial and Systems Approach. 9th ed. Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson; 2016.)

A diagnosis of hypersensitivity to food requires A. conducting a food challenge without restricting the suspected food. B. documented atopic dermatitis. C. using an elimination diet for 3 weeks. D. verifying the food that causes an adverse reaction and excluding other causes of adverse reactions.

D. verifying the food that causes an adverse reaction and excluding other causes of adverse reactions; To confirm a food hypersensitivity diagnosis, the clinician is required to verify that the food allergen alone causes the adverse reaction. (American Academy of Pediatrics. Pediatric Nutrition Handbook. 7th ed. Elk Grove Village, IL: American Academy of Pediatrics; 2013.)

What are the physical activity ranges for sedentary, low active, active, and very active

sedentary- 1.0 or more to less than 1.4; low active- 1.4 or more to less than 1.6; active- 1.6 or more to less than 1.9; very active- 1.9 or more to less than 2.5

A ___________________ menu, also called prix fixe menu, is a complete meal at a fixed price.

table d'hôte

In motivational interviewing, which of the following is an example of managing discord if a client hesitates at the suggestion to eat more spinach? A. "Maybe there are other green leafy vegetables you could try." B. "You should try fresh spinach instead of frozen." C. "Spinach is actually quite good if you mix it into smoothies." D. "You've been talking about making changes, so I'm thinking this is a simple, straightforward change for you."

A. "Maybe there are other green leafy vegetables you could try."; The other options are examples of "righting reflex," where the provider offers advice. "Managing discord" works to deescalate the situation and avoid negative reactions; it disrupts the power struggle that may occur and the session thus doesn't become a series of "yes, but" arguments from the client. (Miller W, Rollnick SR. Motivational Interviewing: Helping People Change. 3rd ed. New York: Guilford; 2013.)

Using the following figures, calculate the break-even point for a café: Fixed costs = $52,000; variable costs = $85,000; total sales= $210,000. A. $86,666.66 B. $113,333.33 C. $130,000.00 D. $473,000.00

A. $86,666.66; Break-even point in sales = Fixed costs/Contribution margin ratio Contribution margin ratio = Contribution margin/Total sales Contribution margin = Total sales - Variable costs To figure out the break-even point in this question: 1. Determine contribution margin $210,000- $85,000= $125,000 2. Determine contribution ratio $125,000/$210,000=.595 Round this figure to .60 3. Determine break-even point $52,000/.60=$86,666.66 (Gregoire MB, Spears MC. Foodservice Organizations: A Managerial and Systems Approach. 9th ed. Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson; 2016.)

What is the physical activity factor range for "very active"? : A. 1.9 to less than 2.5 B. 2.6 to less than 3.2 C. 1.6 to less than 1.9 D. 3.3 to less than 3.9

A. 1.9 to less than 2.5; To estimate total energy needs, multiply the resting metabolic rate by a physical activity factor. The range for physical activity factors are sedentary (1.0 or more to less than 1.4); low active (1.4 or more to less than 1.6); active (1.6 or more to less than 1.9); and very active (1.9 or more to less than 2.5). (Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics. Interventions for the treatment of overweight and obesity in adults. Available at: http://www.eatrightpro.org/~/media/eatrightpro%20files/practice/position%20and%20practice%20papers/position%20papers/weightmanagement.ashx. Accessed April 10, 2020.)

All breastfed infants should receive how many IUs of vitamin D per day during the first 2 months of life? A. 400 B. 500 C. 600 D. 800

A. 400; Because breastmilk alone does not provide infants with an adequate intake of vitamin D, it is recommended that breastfed infants should be given 400 IU (10 mcg) vitamin D beginning within the first 2 months of life. (American Academy of Pediatrics. Pediatric Nutrition Handbook. 7th ed. Elk Grove Village, IL: American Academy of Pediatrics; 2013.)

What inventory control method classifies products according to their value? A. ABC B. Mini-max C. Perpetual inventory D. Par rate

A. ABC; The ABC method classifies inventory products according to value. For example, the high-value A products may represent only about 20% of inventory but up to 80% of the inventory value. Mini-max and par rate are methods to help determine how much to order. Perpetual inventory is an up-to-date, ongoing count of food and supplies in storage. (Gregoire)

The kitchen illustrated below is characteristic of which of the following foodservice systems? Deck ovens/Range/Tilting skillet/Refrigerator/Freezer/Preparation counter/Bulk hot carts/Bulk cold carts 1 Commissary 2 Conventional 3 Ready-prepared 4 Assembly/serve

1 Commissary; The commissary food system is a centralized procurement and production facility with the distribution of prepared menu items to several remote areas for final preparation and service. In the conventional system, foods are purchased in different stages of preparation for an individual operation and production, distribution, and service are completed on the same premises. Ready prepared items are produced and held chilled or frozen until heated for serving. Assemble serve are food systems where menu items are purchased prepared and require minimal cooking before service. (Gregorie)

What is the most important condition needed for bacterial growth? 1 food, especially foods high in protein and carbohydrate 2 Oxygen 3 moisture 4 temperature

1 food, especially foods high in protein and carbohydrate

Joe would like to control costs for his facility. He determines that he can probably reduce his fixed costs. Which cost, therefore, can he reduce? 1 insurance 2 cost of china 3 labor cost 4 food cost

1 insurance; Insurance can be considered a semi-variable cost because different companies charge different amounts.

The most commonly used evaluation technique for measuring food preferences is: 1. Hedonic scale 2. triangle test 3. paired comparison test 4. duo-trio test

1. Hedonic scale; The hedonic scale is the most common because it tests the overall acceptability of the food by rating the different attributes of the food such as sweetness, saltiness, crumbliness, ect. Each attribute in the hedonic scale is rated from like extremely to dislike extremely. The triangle test is a sensory test in which the panelist is presented with one different and two alike samples at the same time and is asked to taste the samples in order to identify the different one. A paired comparison test is used to differentiate between a pair of coded samples on the basis of some specific characteristics such as sweetness, crumbliness, moistness when chewing, lightness, or degree of browning. A duo-trio test is an overall difference test that will determine whether or not a sensory difference exists between two samples and is used instead of the triangle test when the product has a relatively intense taste, odor, and/or kinesthetic effects that may impact sensitivity. (Gregoire)

Which of the following vegetable fats has the highest percentage of saturated fatty acids? 1. coconut oil 2. butter 3. lard 4. peanut oil

1. coconut oil; Coconut oil has 59% sat fat. Butter has 36% sat fat. Lard has 25% sat fat. Peanut oil has 11% sat fat. (Calorie King)

The ripening process of cheese encompasses the use of: 1. molds and bacteria 2. sugar and water 3. oils and water 4. moisture and a cold environment 5. warmth and water

1. molds and bacteria; Ripened cheeses are made by coagulating milk proteins with enzymes, rennet, and culture acids. These cheeses are then ripened or aged by bacteria or mold. Examples include cheddar, swiss, colby, parmesan and more.

The food labeling law defines "light" or "lite" as ______ fewer calories than the regular food.

1/3

A high temperature dishwashing machine used for heat sanitizing requires water in the final rinse cycle at temperatures of at least: ____F- ________F

170-180F

Who is responsible for investigating & reporting cases of Food Bourne illnesses? 1 USDA's food Safety & Inspection Service 2 CDC 3 DHHS 4 FDA

2 CDC; The USDA's food safety & inspection is responsible for ensuring meat, poultry, fresh water fish (Siluriformes) and eggs are properly labeled and packaged. The CDC is responsible for protecting the people from health threats. The department of health and human services previously DHHS, now HHS is responsible for regulating food products and pharmaceutical drugs. The FDA is a consumer protection agency that determines quality standards of food and cosmetics ensuring meat poultry and dish are pure and wholesome. FDA also regulates food irradiation, GMOs, and nutrition labeling. (Gregorie)

Which of the following assures consumers that meat is fit for human consumption? 1. Institutional Meat Purchasing Specifications 2. Wholesome Meat Act of 1967 3. National Association of Meat Purveyors 4. USDA Meat Approval Act

2. Wholesome Meat Act of 1967; The Institutional Meat Purchasing Specifications are a series of meat product specification that is maintained by the Agricultural Marketing Service AMS. The Wholesome Meat Act of 1967 gave the USDA authority to regulate transporters, renderers, cold storage warehouses, and animal-food manufacturers. Causing the requirements on imported meat to become more stringent and inspection of all animals prior to slaughter mandatory. The national association of meat purveyors is the largest meat trade organization in North America. The USDA meat approval act provided the USDA with the authority to inspect, certify, and identified the class, quality, and condition of agricultural products and required that all facilities adopt humane handling and slaughtering methods.

A good conductor of heat would be: 1. glass 2. copper 3. wood 4. none of the above

2. copper; metals as a group are good conductors of heat and the best metal conductors of heat are copper, iron and aluminum. Stainless steel is not as effective. (Gregorie)

This restaurant type menu planning has a complete menu at a set price. 1. a la carte 2. table d'hote 3. dujour 4. two tier

2. table d'hote; An a la carte menu is when food items can be ordered and are priced separately rather than within one meal like table d'hote. A dujour menu is the menu specials for that week. Two tier is a menu formatting style.

Food labeling laws require that a food provide _____ of a nutrient's daily value in order to be labeled "high in," "rich in," or an "excellent source" of that nutrient.

20%

Which of the following extinguishers is best to use on a grease fire? 1 triangle symbol 2 circle symbol 3 square symbol 4 inverted triangle symbol

3 square symbol; The A triangle extinguisher is used for cloth, wood, rubber, paper and plastics. The C circle extinguisher is used for electrical fires. The B square extinguisher is used for gasoline, grease, and oil fires. The inverted triangle symbol is a sign that informs that an object is a fire hazard and is not an extinguisher. The D star extinguisher is used for combustible metals. The K hexagon (6 sides) is used for kitchen fires.

Reorder point is: Assume the restaurant uses perpetual order method.*Determine the reorder point and at that point the amount of canned pears to order given the following: 1.*Normal usage is 35 cans a week 2.*It takes 3 days to get delivery of items 3.*Par stock = 42 cans 4. Cans can come packed 12 to a case 5. Safety stock is 6 cans 1. 15 cans 2. 27 cans 3. 21 cans 4. 36 cans

3. 21 cans; ROP= (sales/day*delivery time)+ safety stock; ((35/7)*3)+6= 21cans

Given the following data, compute the number of raw pounds needed for a banquet of 500 persons. Ingredients:*roast leg of lamb Serving size:*4 oz. Edible yield:*47% 1. 125 lbs. 2. 424 lbs. 3. 266 lbs. 4. 235 lbs

3. 266 lbs; 4oz/0.47= 8.5oz*500people= 4250oz/16= 265.6lbs

Which sweetener would a person with PKU be warned on the label about using 1. Sorbitol 2. Saccharin 3. Aspartame 4. Acesulfame- K

3. Aspartame; Aspartame is converted to phenylalanine in the body which must be avoided by people with Phenylketonuria (PKU) because they lack the enzyme to breakdown the amino acid phenylalanine. Sorbitol is sugar alcohol also known as glucitol. Saccharin is an artificial sweetener that is as sweet as sucrose but has a metallic aftertaste. Acesulfame-K is a sugar substitute that contains potassium.

Which additive improves crispness in vegetables? 1. BHA 2. BHT 3. Calcium 4. Pectin

3. Calcium; BHA is an antioxidant used as an additive in foods to prevent fats from going rancid. BHT is a stabilizing food additive that helps fat retain smell, color and flavor. Calcium is a preservative and favoring agent that binds to metals and prevents them from participating which might cause discoloration or flavor loss. Pectin is an emulsifying agent that gels, stabilizes and thickens foods like pudding, canned foods, cakes, and pies.

In which order are the purchasing activities accomplished? 1. Determine inventory or stock level, plan menu, inspect deliveries, select vendor. 2. Develop purchase order, price quotation, determine inventory level, plan menu. 3. Plan menu, write specs, develop purchase order, select vendor. 4. Write specs, receive and inspect deliveries, identify items to be purchased, determine quality and quantity needed.

3. Plan menu, write specs, develop purchase order, select vendor.

Starches that have excellent thickening properties and do not gel contain large proportions of: 1. amylose 2. linear polysaccharides 3. amylopectin 4. glycogen

3. amylopectin

An example of a pre-gelatinized starch is: 1. sorghum starch 2. arrowroot 3. instant pudding 4. corn starch 5. tapioca

3. instant pudding; Pregelatinized starch is a starch that has been pre-cooked, dried and ground into flake or powder form. Quickly and easily dissolving in cold liquids, pregelatinized starches allow products to develop full viscosity without cooking. Instant pudding does not need to be cooked.

When you add lemon juice to green beans they turn olive green. The chlorophyll pigment has come into contact with acid and as a result the pigment has chemically changed to: 1. chlorophyllin 2. anthocyanins 3. pheophytin 4. none of these, it remains the same

3. pheophytin; Adding a chlorophyll green bean with acidic lemon juice causes it to lose it's central Mg2+ ion causing the green bean to produce a dark bluish waxy pigment. Chlorophyllin is chlorophyll with copper instead of magnesium.

Examples of forecasting models include: 1. objective model 2. product-moment model 3. time-series model 4. all are examples

3. time-series model: The three types of forecasting models are time series, causal, and subjective. Each of the types have subtypes. A time series models follow the assumption that actual events follow an identifiable pattern over time and are best for short-term forecasts. The time series subtypes are moving average forecasting and exponential smoothing forecasting. Causal models are based on the assumption that there is a relationship between the item being forecast and other factors for example selling price and number of customers. Types of causal models include regression analysis forecasting that assumes a linear relationship between the points. Subjective models are used when relevant data is scarce and patters do not persist over time. An example of subjective models is the delphi technique in which a panel of experts are questioned on a topic until consensus is reached. (Gregoire)

The gravy of a frozen entree separated into unattractive lumps when it was reheated. What should the cook have done to prevent this condition? 1. allow the frozen entree to sit on the counter for 30 minutes 2. use more fat in the gravy 3. use a modified starch in cooking 4. blend the flour and the fat in a blender

3. use a modified starch in cooking; Reheated gravy separates into lumps because when gravy is thickened with flour or cornstarch the starch granules release long, straight chains of glucose called amylose. The stringy amylose molecules tangle and form a net-like structure that vies the gravy its thick consistency. When gravy cools, the amylose crystallizes and the net-like structure breaks down, causing it to weep. To prevent this, use a modified starch or a pre-cooked starch that is gluten-free so there is no amylose structure to break.

How can you decrease the cholesterol in a muffin recipe? 1. use whole milk 2. use sour cream instead of margarine 3. use egg substitute instead of whole egg 4. use evaporated milk

3. use egg substitute instead of a whole egg; Cholesterol comes from animal products. There is cholesterol in milk, sour cream, and eggs. Margarine is plant-based so there is no cholesterol. Egg substitute is not egg therefore there should be no cholesterol because it is usually for vegans or allergies.

How do you check the amount of overrun in ice cream? 1. check for air holes 2. taste for richness of flavor 3. weigh the gallon on receipt 4. count the number of servings per gallon

3. weigh the gallon on receipt

Following food labeling laws, to be identified as low in fat, a serving of food must contain less than ______ fat.

3g

What gas is released from a fire? 1 helium 2 hydrogen 3 carbon dioxide 4 carbon monoxide

4 carbon monoxide; When a fire burns the oxygen in the room is gradually used and replaced with carbon dioxide but as that builds up int eh air the fuel is prevented from burning fully and starts to release carbon monoxide.

Which is not true regarding work simplification procedures? 1 decreases costs 2 increases productivity 3 eliminates unnecessary parts of job 4 looks at overall scope of work

4 looks at the overall scope of work; Work simplification procedures eliminate unnecessary parts of the job to increase productivity and decrease cost.

When an employee is injured on the job the supervisor first 1 takes action to correct the reason for the accident 2 sends the employee home for the rest of the day 3 assigns an alternate employee to handle the injured employee's duties 4 secures a medical evaluation of the extent of the injury

4 secures a medical evaluation of the extent of the injury; When an employee is injured, first provide medical attention to the injured person, then secure the accident site so no one else gets hurt and evidence is preserved, investigate and gather facts, then notify your managed care organization MCO and OSHA

The FDA is responsible for: 1 pesticide residue tolerance levels 2 standard of fill, assuring mea wholesomeness, nutrition labels 3 grading of meat 4 standard of identity, nutrition labels, imitation foods

4 standard of identity, nutrition labels, imitation foods; The FDA is a consumer protection agency that determines quality standards of food and cosmetics ensuring meat poultry, and dish are pure and wholesome. FDA also regulates food irradiation, GMOs, and nutrition labeling.

Amount of cases to order are: Assume the restaurant uses perpetual order method.*Determine the reorder point and at that point the amount of canned pears to order given the following: 1.*Normal usage is 35 cans a week 2.*It takes 3 days to get delivery of items 3.*Par stock = 42 cans 4. Cans can come packed 12 to a case 5. Safety stock is 6 cans 1. 36 cases 2. 6 cases 3. 2 cases 4. 3 cases

4. 3 cases; 35(can/week)/12(can/case)= 2.9cases/week used

A food service uses the periodic order method.*Determine amounts to order for canned peaches if orders are placed every two weeks and 1.*normal usage is 2 cases per week of 24 cans per case 2.*20 cans are presently on hand 3.*amount desired at end of 44 cans 1. 2 cases 2. 3 cases 3. 4 cases 4. 5 cases

4. 5 cases; Since cases are ordered every 2 weeks first calculate the amount used in 2 weeks= 4 cases or 96cans. If 44 cans left over are desired more than 4 cases is needed (even with the 20 cans on hand). Check the 5 case answer by converting it to cans, 120+20 (on-hand)= 140-96 (used)= 44 leftover

Two of the listed ingredients on a frozen food label are BHA and BHT. What is their function? 1. Flavor enhancers 2. Emulsifier 3. Prevent enzymatic browning 4. Antioxidants for fat

4. Antioxidants for fat; BHA is an antioxidant used as an additive in foods to prevent fats from going rancid. BHT is a stabilizing food additive that helps fat retain smell, color and flavor.

Pasteurized milk differs from homogenized pasteurized milk in: 1. vitamin D content 2. butterfat content 3. ascorbic acid content 4. size of fat particles

4. size of fat particles; While pasteurization is the heating of milk to kill bacteria, homogenization involves processing milk so that the cream does not separate. The homogenization process results in smaller fat particles.

Dry food should be stored between what temperatures?

50°F to 70°F.; Storage temperatures over 70°F may shorten the shelf life and temperatures less than 50°F are not needed since the dry foods are not potentially hazardous. (National Restaurant Association Education Foundation. ServSafe Coursebook. 6th ed. Chicago: NRA; 2012.)

Which of the following growth charts is currently recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention to assess weight in relation to stature in children and adolescents aged 2 to 20 years? A. BMI-for-age B. Length-for-age C. Weight-for-age D. Stature-for-age

A. BMI-for-age; The CDC recommends BMI-for-age charts to assess weight in relation to stature for children and adolescents aged 2 to 20 years. Weight-for-stature charts are available as an alternative to accommodate children aged 2-5 years who are not evaluated beyond the preschool years. (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, National Center for Health Statistics. 2000 CDC Growth Charts: United States. Last reviewed June 2017. Accessed July 25, 2020. Available at: Website)

The Emergency Food Assistance Program and the Disaster Feeding Program are examples of food distribution programs. Which of the following statements best describes the similarities of the two programs? A. Both programs serve children, adolescents, and other age groups and provide commodity foods to local food distribution and service agencies. B. Both programs serve older adults and provide commodity foods to local food distribution and service agencies. C. Both programs serve low-income populations and supplemental food supplies are either distributed to individual households or as meals served in congregate dining centers. D. Both programs serve children, adolescents, and other age groups and food supplies are either distributed to individual households or as meals served in congregate dining centers.

A. Both programs serve children, adolescents, and other age groups and provide commodity foods to local food distribution and service agencies.; Both of these programs serve children, adolescents, and other age groups and provide commodity foods that serve meals. The Emergency Food Assistance Program does not distribute to individual households. (The American Dietetic Association. The position of the American Dietetic Association: child and adolescent nutrition assistance programs. J Am Diet Assoc. 2010;110:794-795.)

Which of the following changes in eating pattern has research shown to most positively contribute to a decrease in energy consumption among children? A. Children participating in family-style meals at home B. Children being provided a child-special meal C. Parents or caregivers serving children on individual plates D. Parents or caregivers providing scheduled meals and snacks in the home

A. Children participating in family-style meals at home; Participating in family-style meals at home discourages children from overeating. (Position of the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics: nutrition guidance for healthy children ages 2 to 11 years. J Acad Nutr Diet. 2014;114(8):1257-1276.)

What is the term for when allergens are transferred from food containing an allergen to the food served to the customer? A. Cross-contact B. Cross-contamination C. Cross-connection D. Cross-transfer

A. Cross-contact; Cross-contamination is when pathogens can be transferred from one surface or food to another. Cross-connection is a physical link between safe water and dirty water, which can come from drains, sewers, or other wastewater sources. Cross-transfer is a made-up term. (National Restaurant Association Education Foundation. ServSafe Coursebook. 6th ed. Chicago: NRA; 2012:3-6, 1-5, 1115.)

Under which domain within nutrition-focused physical findings would lanugo be documented? A. Hair B. Nails C. Extremities D. Digestive system

A. Hair; Lanugo is fine, pale hair. Lanugo is present in undernourished patients; an example of a patient who may present with lanugo hair formation is one with protein-energy malnutrition related to anorexia nervosa. (Skipper A. Applying the Nutrition Care Process: Nutrition Diagnosis and Intervention. Support Line. 2007;29(6):12-23. Available at: https://www.andeal.org/files/file/Skipper_Article%20(2).pdf. Accessed December 12, 2016.)

Assuming that a patient's obesity is related to excessive energy intake is a form of which of the following? A. Implicit bias B. Nutrition diagnosis C. Confirmation bias D. Behavioral theory

A. Implicit bias; Making assumptions about the etiology of a patient's obesity is a form of implicit bias. Implicit biases occur at the unconscious level and are involuntarily formed. These unconscious attitudes may influence the quality of the care delivery. Confirmation bias involves seeking to validate ideas or concepts that an individual wants to be true. (Puhl RM, Phelan SM, Nadglowski J, Kyle TK. Overcoming Weight Bias in the Management of Patients With Diabetes and Obesity. Clin Diabetes. 2016;34(1):44-50.)

Which of the following ratios indicates an organization's ability to meet current financial obligations? A. Liquidity B. Operating C. Activity D. Profitability

A. Liquidity; "Current" signifies within 12 months. Liquidity is ease with which assets (ie, cash, accounts receivable, inventory, and prepaid expenses) can be converted to cash. Therefore, liquidity ratios indicate an organization's ability to repay its debts within the next 12 months or its ability to meet current obligations. Operating ratios indicate an operation's success in generating sales and controlling expenses (eg, food and labor cost percentages). Activity ratios examine how effectively an organization utilizes its assets (eg, inventory turnover). Profitability ratios measure an organization's ability to generate profit in relation to sales. (Gregoire)

In terms of CVD, what are sedentary behavior, body mass index, and diabetes collectively considered? A. Modifiable risk factors B. Comorbidities C. Nonmodifiable risk factors D. Nutrition-focused physical findings

A. Modifiable risk factors; Modifiable risk factors are behaviors and measurements that elevate or lower a person's risk of disease but that can theoretically be changed if certain measures are taken. Body mass index, sedentary behavior, and diabetes are all risk factors for cardiovascular disease that could potentially be modified, thereby lowering the risk. Non-modifiable risk factors would include variables such as age and family history. (Barnes A. Emerging modifiable risk factors for cardiovascular disease in women. Tex Heart Inst J. 2013;40(3):293-295.)

What type of power is used when placing an employee on a performance improvement plan?A. Punitive B. Legal C. Expert D. Interpersonal

A. Punitive; Placing an employee on a performance improvement plan, or PIP, is a form of punitive power. PIPs are typically implemented when an employee is not meeting specific job goals or demonstrates behaviors of concern to management. The PIP gives the employee the opportunity to address the deficiency and succeed. (Society for Human Resource Management. How to establish a performance improvement plan. Accessed April 23, 2020. Available at: Website)

Which of the following is a true statement regarding organic foods? A. Raw or processed agricultural products in the organic category may contain up to 5% non-organic ingredients allowed per the National List. B. Some operations are exempt from certification, including organic farmers who sell organic foods or crops worth $10,000 or less. C. Raw or processed agricultural products in the "100% organic" category must contain ingredients that are at least 90% certified organic. D. A product labeled as "MADE WITH" organic may use the USDA organic seal if no more than three ingredients are not certified.

A. Raw or processed agricultural products in the organic category may contain up to 5% non-organic ingredients allowed per the National List; According to the USDA, "Organic" can be used to label any product that contains a minimum of 95 percent organic ingredients (excluding salt and water). Up to 5 percent of the ingredients may be nonorganic agricultural products that are not commercially available as organic and/or nonagricultural products that are on the National List. (US Department of Agriculture. Labeling Organic Products. Available at:)

According to the Joint Commission, which of the following is fundamental to cost-effective performance improvement? A. Safety B. Professional expertise C. Technology D. Employee motivation

A. Safety; Patient safety is a major concern in all health care settings. A focus on safety in performance improvement programs leads to cost savings through prevention of medical errors. (Joint Commission Resources. Cost-Effective Performance Improvement in Hospitals. Oakbrook Terrace, IL: JCAHO; 2005:57.)

What is considered the evidence for a nutrition diagnostic statement? A. Signs and Symptoms B. Problem C. Etiology D. Intervention

A. Signs and Symptoms; Nutrition diagnostic statements are also known as PES, which stands for Problem, Etiology, Signs and Symptoms. The standard presentation of a PES statement is: [Problem] related to [Etiology] as evidenced by [Signs and Symptoms]. (Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics. Learn about the Nutrition Care Process. Available at: https://ncpt.webauthor.com/encpt-tutorials. Accessed May 22, 2019.)

How would a dietitian working in management use solvency ratios? A. To determine if the company can meet debt obligations in the long term B. To establish a system that ensures no debts go unpaid for longer than 2 months C. To ensure that staff salaries remain competitive within the industry D. To develop primary and contingency plans for future staffing needs

A. To determine if the company can meet debt obligations in the long term; Solvency is a company's ability to meet long-term debt obligations, and a basic solvency ratio represents the relationship between total assets and total liabilities. Solvency ratios are used to determine if there is enough earnings and cash flow for the company to meet interest expenses as they accrue over time. (Gregoire)

How wide should an aisle be for two people with a mobile cart to move through? A. 40" B. 50" C. 60" D. 72"

B. 50"

What is secreted in the bloodstream in amounts equal to insulin secretion and thus can be used as a clinical indicator of endogenous insulin production?A. Glucose B. C-peptide C. Glutamic acid D. Cortisol

B. C-peptide; Insulin is secreted as two polypeptide chains joined by disulfide bonds. C-peptide is released when the two chains separate. (Nelms M, Sucher K, Lacey K, Roth SL. Nutrition Therapy and Pathophysiology. 2nd ed. Belmont, CA: Wadsworth, Cengage Learning; 2011: 485.)

For the needs of infants born prematurely, human milk is deficient in A. Potassium B. Calcium C. Sodium D. Chloride

B. Calcium; Human milk does not meet the calcium and phosphorus needs for normal bone mineralization in infants born prematurely. Therefore, breastmilk can be supplemented with human milk fortifiers that contain calcium and phosphorus. (Mahan LK, Raymond JL, Escott-Stump S. Krause's Food, Nutrition, and Diet Therapy. 15th ed. Philadelphia, PA: WB Saunders Company; 2011.)

Which decision-making process would be most appropriate for determining whether medication, consultations with a registered dietitian nutritionist, or some combination of the two is the best approach for lowering serum triglyceride levels? A. Decision tree B. Cost-effectiveness analysis C. Network chart D. Cost-benefit analysis

B. Cost-effectiveness analysis; Various techniques have been developed to assist managers with decision making. In this scenario, cost-effectiveness analysis is the best process. Cost-effectiveness provides a comparison of alternative course of action in terms of their cost, savings, and effectiveness of reaching the objective (lowering triglycerides). A decision tree is a decision support tool that uses a tree-like model of possible decisions and their possible consequences but does not include effectiveness. Network charts are useful for presenting a graphic representation of a project, depicting the flow and sequence of activities and events; most appropriate in an example like planning, scheduling, and controlling a catered lunch. Finally, cost-benefit provides a comparison of cost but does not consider effectiveness so would not meet the needs of this scenario. (Gregoire)

The use of a sugar substitute is regulated by: A. NIH B. FDA C. WHO D. FTC

B. FDA; The FDA regulates most things. The national institutes of health NIH is a part of the USDHHS and it's involved in health research. The WHO is the world health organization, involved in global health. The FTC is the Federal Trade Commission and they regulate advertising, and product claims.

Which of the following situations reduces a manager's span of control? A. Managing less complicated work B. Having a greater geographical dispersion of workers C. Receiving expert advice from colleagues or superiors D. Using clear and comprehensive policies

B. Having a greater geographical dispersion of workers; Span of control refers to the number of subordinates that can be managed effectively and efficiently by a supervisor. Geographic dispersion can diminish span of control. (gregoire)

Which of these acronyms is related to required compliance with safety standards? A. SDS B. OSHA C. HACCP D. MDS

B. OSHA; OSHA is the Occupational Safety and Health Administration. The agency requires employers to comply with the Hazard Communication Standard, also known as Right-to-Know, which requires employers to train employees on how to safely use the chemicals they work with. SDS is a Safety Data Sheet contains important safety information about chemicals and has replaced the material safety data sheet (MSDS). HACCP, Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points, is based on identifying significant biological, chemical, or physical hazards at specific points within a product's flow. MDS is Minimum Data Set is a standardized screening and assessment tool of health status used in long-term care. (National Restaurant Association Education Foundation. ServSafe Coursebook. 6th ed. Chicago: NRA; 2012:12-14.)

Which of the following flooring materials would be best suited for high-traffic cooking areas? A. Ceramic tiles B. Quarry tiles C. Concrete D. Rubber

B. Quarry tiles; Quarry tile is wear resistant and nonporous. Ceramic tile is best used on walls. Concrete is hard, tires employees by causing muscle fatigue, and may cause accidents if individuals slip or fall when the floor is wet. Rubber floors are more difficult to clean. (Gregoire)

When using the Nutrition Care Process, what three things do dietetics practitioners do in completing Nutrition Monitoring and Evaluation? A. Prioritize nutrition diagnoses, consult the Academy's evidence-based nutrition practice guidelines, and determine patient-focused expected outcomes. B. Scrutinize, measure, and assess the changes in nutrition care indicators. C. Confer with patient, client, caregivers, define a nutrition plan and strategies, and determine time and frequency of care. D. Identify resources needed, communicate the nutrition care plan, and implement the plan.

B. Scrutinize, measure, and assess the changes in nutrition care indicators; Scrutinizing, measuring, and assessing are the key activities during the monitoring and evaluation step. (Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics. eNCPT Tutorials. Accessed November 19, 2020. Available at: Website)

During a nutrition consult, a patient says: "I understand I can improve my diet by packing my own lunch, but I don't want to miss the social time with my coworkers." In the setting of motivational interviewing, what is this an example of? A. Change talk B. Sustain talk C. Developing discrepancy D. Resistance

B. Sustain talk; The client's statement is not change talk because it argues for the status quo. Developing discrepancy is a technique employed by the clinician. Motivational interviewing rejects the concept of resistance and understands ambivalence is a natural component of the change process. The client's statement is an example of sustain talk because it presents an argument for maintaining status quo. (Miller W, Rollnick SR. Motivational Interviewing: Helping People Change. 3rd ed. New York, NY: Guilford; 2013.)

What is the purpose of developing a house/regular diet? A. To avoid imposing diet restrictions on older adults near the end of life B. To liberalize diets and decrease the number of therapeutic diets required in a care facility C. To adopt a standardized rotation of meals to serve to care facility residents D. To formalize the dining structure to ensure all care facility residents can be fed efficiently

B. To liberalize diets and decrease the number of therapeutic diets required in a care facility; A house/regular diet is the most liberal diet. It is not considered a therapeutic or mechanically altered diet. The majority of patients will benefit from a house/regular diet. Benefits of a liberalized diet include the following: -Increased patient food and beverage choices -Simplified meal-ordering procedures -Improved dining experience -Improved flavor and acceptance of foods served -Added options to address inadequate intake -Simplified foodservice -Decreased potential meal service errors -Streamlined guidance on diet definitions (who can have what foods/fluids) -Increased staff time for calm interaction during meal selection and service -Additional supports for a successful survey process (Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics. Nutrition Care Manual: Diet Manual: Diet Liberalization. Accessed August 3, 2020. Available at: Website)

Oxidative rancidity occurs in foods that have a A. high saturated fatty acid content. B. high unsaturated fatty acid content. C. high protein content. D. high moisture content.

B. high unsaturated fatty acid content; In oxidative rancidity, the double bonds of an unsaturated fatty acid can undergo cleavage, releasing volatile aldehydes and ketones. This process can be suppressed by the exclusion of oxygen or by the addition of antioxidants. Oxidation primarily occurs with unsaturated fats. (McWilliams M. Foods: Experimental Perspectives. 8th ed. New York City, NY: Pearson; 2016.)

What are the breakeven point equations?

Break-even point in sales = Fixed costs/Contribution margin ratio; Contribution margin ratio = Contribution margin/Total sales; Contribution margin = Total sales - Variable costs

In December 2014, the FDA approved a final rule that calorie and other nutrition labeling would be required for standard menu items offered for sale in a restaurant or similar retail food establishment that is part of a chain with _____ or more locations, doing business under the same name, and offering for sale substantially the same menu items. A. 5 B. 10 C. 20 D. 30

C. 20; As part of the Affordable Care Act, the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act was amended to require restaurants and similar retail food establishments that are part of a chain with 20 or more locations doing business under the same name and offering for sale substantially the same menu items to provide calorie and other nutrition information for standard menu items. (US Food and Drug Administration. Food Labeling; Nutrition Labeling of Standard Menu Items in Restaurants and Similar Retail Food Establishments. Federal Register: The Daily Journal of the United States Government. December 12, 2014. Available at: https://www.federalregister.gov/articles/2014/12/01/2014-27833/food-labeling-nutrition-labeling-of-standard-menu-items-in-restaurants-and-similar-retail-food#h-15. Accessed December 8, 2016)

What percentage of a food product's ingredients must be organically produced to allow the claim "Made with Organic Ingredients"? A. 50% B. 60% C. 70% D. 80%

C. 70%, When packaged products indicate they are "made with organic [specific ingredient or food group]," this means they contain at least 70% organically produced ingredients. If there is less than 70% organic ingredients in a product, the manufacturer can list them on the ingredient panel and can list the organic ingredient percentage on the information panel, but "organic" cannot be claimed on the principal display panel. (US Department of Agriculture. Organic 101: What does the USDA organic label mean? May 23, 2019. Accessed June 10, 2020. Available at: Website)

Which of the following conditions may be affected by the chromium and nickel content of stainless steel cookware? A. Iron-deficiency anemia B. Autism C. Dermatitis D. Atherosclerosis

C. Dermatitis; Stainless steel cookware contains nickel and chromium. Nickel and, to a lesser extent, chromium can induce contact allergic dermatitis. Stainless steel grade, cooking time, and cookware usage may play a role in leaching during food preparation. (Kamerud KL, Hobbie KA, Anderson KA. Stainless steel leaches nickel and chromium into foods during cooking. J Agric Food Chem. 2013;61(39):9495-9501.doi: 10.1021/jf402400v)

Which of the following is an example of focus strategy? A. Hospital nutrition services revises all patient menus to reflect condition-specific recommendations and restrictions B. Hospital convenes a consumer panel to offer feedback on proposed foodservice offerings C. Hospital begins marketing home meal replacements and delivery for its hospital staff D. Hospital system consolidates its dietary department managerial staff to be housed in one location

C. Hospital begins marketing home meal replacements and delivery for its hospital staff; Focus strategy uses a cost leadership or differentiation strategy to target a specific, limited-size market niche. This approach is exemplified in a hospital's plan to market home meal replacements and delivery for its hospital staff. (Gregoire)

What organization creates national standards for foodservice equipment? A. CDC B. FDA C. NSF D. OSHA

C. NSF; NSF is accredited by the American National Standards Institute (ANSI). NSF has developed more than 80 voluntary American National Standards under the scope of public health, safety, environment, and sustainability assessment. NSF/ANSI standards are developed through a public process that ensures balanced input from industry representatives, public health/regulatory officials, and users/consumer representatives. The CDC investigates foodborne illnesses. The FDA issues the Model Food Code. OSHA investigates workplace accidents. (National Restaurant Association Education Foundation. ServSafe Coursebook. 6th ed. Chicago: NRA; 2012: 11-10.)

What is the term for a care delivery model in which multidisciplinary treatment is coordinated through a primary care physician to ensure the patient receives necessary care in a timely, individualized manner? A. Health maintenance organization B. Ambulatory care facility C. Patient-centered medical home D. Group practice

C. Patient-centered medical home; A patient-centered medical home is a care delivery model in which multidisciplinary treatment is coordinated through a primary care physician to ensure the patient receives necessary care in a timely, individualized manner. A health maintenance organization, or HMO, is network of doctors, hospitals, and other health care providers who have agreed to accept a certain level of payment for any provided services, which lowers costs for members. An ambulatory care facility is an outpatient care center that provides services like diagnosis, treatment, consultation, and intervention. Group practice refers to a private practice shared by multiple providers. (US Department of Health and Human Services, Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality. Defining the PCMH. Accessed June 24, 2020. Available at: Website)

Which of the following is an advantage of a case control study? A. It is easy to validate data in these studies. B. They facilitate study of mechanism of disease C. They are inexpensive to conduct D. Suitable comparison groups are easily identified

C. They are inexpensive to conduct; It is relatively inexpensive to conduct a case control study. However, in these studies, it also can be very difficult to validate data and select a suitable comparison group, and they do not help in studying the mechanism of disease. (Boyle MA, Holben DH. Community Nutrition in Action: An Entrepreneurial Approach. 6th ed. Boston, MA: Cengage; 2012.)

On a printed menu, items that management wishes to sell more of should be placed so that they are the first and/or last thing a customer sees. This positioning strategy is the science of A. menu design. B. menu placement. C. menu psychology. D. menu structure.

C. menu psychology; Menu psychology is an examination of how to design a menu to influence what customers pick to eat. (Gregoire)

One advantage of using a crossover design over a parallel design is A. it requires a shorter study duration. B. a larger sample size is used. C. there is a reduction in variability. D. a washout period is not needed.

C. there is a reduction in variability; Crossover design includes a washout period and does not have to be a shorter study duration. The advantage to crossover design is that it uses the same subjects who serve as the control, thus receiving the same treatment, resulting in a reduction in variability. This reduction in variability allows for a smaller sample size. (Van Horn L, Beto J. Research: Successful Approaches in Nutrition and Dietetics. 4th ed. Chicago, IL: Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics; 2019.)

The term for a menu style that has all components of a meal priced individually is __________. A. prix fixe B. table d'hôte C. à la carte D. family style

C. à la carte; In an à la carte menu, items are priced individually. A table d'hôte menu, also called prix fixe menu, is a complete meal at a fixed price. Family style is a style of serving food and has nothing to do with pricing. (Gregoire MB, Spears MC. Foodservice Organizations: A Managerial and Systems Approach. 9th ed. Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson; 2016.)

A whole, bone-in ham weighs 18 lbs as purchased (AP) has an edible portion yield (EP) of 56%. Each ham costs $32.94. What is the invoice cost to serve 85 lbs of cooked, sliced ham? A. $155.55 B. $223.99 C. $277.78 D. $296.46

D. $296.46; To get the edible portion yield per ham, multiply 18 lbs AP x 56% EP yield =10.08 lbs edible portion per ham. You need 85 lbs cooked sliced ham, so you would divide this amount by the edible portion per ham: 85 lbs ÷ 10.08 lbs = 8.43 hams. Thus, 9 hams are needed. Multiply the cost of the ham $32.94 x 9 hams = $296.46 (Molt M, Shugart G. Food for Fifty. 13th ed. Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson Prentice Hall; 2011:190.)

What is the expected defrost time for a 15-lb frozen turkey thawing in a refrigerator? A. 12 hours B. 1 day C. 2 days D. 3 days

D. 3 days; Frozen turkeys thawing in the refrigerator require at least 24 hours for every 5 pounds. A 15-pound turkey would need to defrost in the refrigerator for 3 days. (US Department of Agriculture, Food Safety Inspection Service. The big thaw: Safe defrosting methods. Accessed April 17, 2020. Available at: Website)

Which one of the following patient scenarios requires less stringent blood glucose targets? A. A 32-year-old with new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes B. A 65-year-old on metformin only and who is determined to lose weight and get off medication C. A 72-year-old with 8-year history of diabetes starting basal insulin therapy D. A 58-year-old with severe cardiomyopathy, depression, and limited family supports

D. A 58-year-old with severe cardiomyopathy, depression, and limited family supports; Stringent glucose targets are established with regard to life expectancy, presence of comorbid conditions, risk of hypoglycemia, and support systems. Scenarios A, B, and C represent appropriate supports to initiate basal insulin with low risk for hypoglycemia. (Inzucchi SE, Bergenstal, RM, Buse JB, Diamant M, Ferrannini E, Nauck M, Peters Al, Tsapas A, Wender R, Matthew DR. Management of hyperglycemia in type 2 diabetes: A patient-centered approach. Diabetes Care. 2012; 35 :1364 -1379.)

If the carbohydrate content of the diet is insufficient to meet the body's needs for energy, which of the following can be converted to glucose? A. Acetyl-CoA B. Fatty acids C. Carbon dioxide D. Amino acids

D. Amino acids; In a diet that lacks carbohydrates, the liver cells can make glucose from pyruvate, which can be generated by catabolizing various amino acids, and other 3-carbon compounds like glycerol. Amino acids also produce glucose to keep the brain cells alive. (Rolfes SR, Pinna K, Whitney E. Understanding Normal and Clinical Nutrition. 10th ed. Thomson Wadsworth; 2015:105.)

Which of the following would be higher in a patient with acute renal failure compared with a similar patient with optimal renal function? A. Protein needs B. Potassium needs C. Fluid needs D. Energy needs

D. Energy needs; Studies have shown a significant and strong negative correlation between creatinine clearance and resting metabolic rate, indicating that energy expenditure increases as kidney function declines. (Mahan LK, Escott-Stump S. Krause's Food, Nutrition, and Diet Therapy. 11th ed. Philadelphia, PA: WB Saunders Company; 2000:968.)

Which of the following is included in the American Academy of Pediatrics recommendations for fruit juice? A. Fruit drinks and fruit juice can be a healthy part of a child's diet. B. Fruit juice intake is acceptable at all ages if there are no added sugars. C. Fruit juice is recommended to treat dehydration and diarrhea. D. Fruit juice should not be introduced to the diet before 12 months of age

D. Fruit juice should not be introduced to the diet before 12 months of age; The American Academy of Pediatrics recommendation for juice include the following: 1- Fruit juice offers no nutritional benefits for infants younger than 1 year. 2- Fruit juice offers no nutritional benefits over whole fruit for infants and children and has no essential role in healthy, balanced diets of children. 3- 100% fresh or reconstituted fruit juice can be a healthy part of the diet of children older than 1 year when consumed as part of a well-balanced diet. Fruit drinks, however, are not nutritionally equivalent to fruit juice. 4- Juice is not appropriate in the treatment of dehydration or the management of diarrhea. (Heyman MB, Abrams SA, AAP Section on Gastroenterology, Hepatology, and Nutrition, AAP Committee on Nutrition. Fruit Juice in Infants, Children, and Adolescents: Current Recommendations. Pediatrics. 2017;139(6):e20170967.)

Which of the following glucose-lowering medications would require patient education about treatment of hypoglycemia? A. Metformin (Glucophage) B. Sitagliptin (Januvia) C. Pioglitazone (Actos) D. Glimepiride (Amaryl)

D. Glimepiride (Amaryl); Among the options, glimepiride (Amaryl) is the only secretagogue, which means the mechanism of action is stimulating the pancreas to make insulin, thereby causing the possibility of low blood glucose. (Inzucchi SE, Bergenstal, RM, Buse JB, Diamant M, Ferrannini E, Nauck M, Peters Al, Tsapas A, Wender R, Matthew DR. Management of hyperglycemia in type 2 diabetes: A patient-centered approach. Diabetes Care. 2012: 35 :1364 -1379.)

_____________ is a collaborative forum of environmental health specialists that discuss food safety in the US.

EHS-Net

Which of the following would be covered by the FDA's gluten-free labeling rule? A. Packaged seafood B. Dried eggs C. Alcoholic beverages D. Ground meat

FDA's gluten-free labeling rule covers packaged food, including supplements, intended for human consumption that fall under the labeling jurisdiction of the FDA. It does not cover foods regulated by the USDA (including dried eggs, poultry, and meat), alcoholic beverages regulated by the Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau, cosmetics, or medications. (Thompson T. Nutrition informatics competencies across all levels of practice: a National Delphi study. The gluten-free labeling rule: what registered dietitian nutritionists need to know to help clients with gluten-related disorders. J Acad Nutr Diet. 2015;115(1):13-16. US Food and Drug Administration. Questions and Answers: Gluten-Free Food Labeling Final Rule. Updated August 5, 2014. Accessed August 8, 2020. Available at: Website)

_____________ is a program that provides consumer education on food safety in the US.

FightBac!

_____________ is a program designed to determine the burden of foodborne disease in the United States, monitor trends of specific foodborne illnesses over time, attribute the burden of foodborne illness to specific foods and settings, and develop and assess interventions to reduce the burden of foodborne illness.

FoodNet

_______________ is a program database used to determine whether a foodborne outbreak is occurring in the US by using molecular surveillance.

PulseNet