Musculoskeletal

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Which ligament of the hip extends from the anterior inferior iliac spine of the pelvis to the intertrochanteric line of the femur? A. lateral collateral ligament B. ischiofemoral ligament C. pubofemoral ligament D. iliofemoral ligament

Correct Answer: iliofemoral ligament The iliofemoral ligament extends from the anterior inferior iliac spine of the pelvis to the intertrochanteric line of the femur. The structure is considered to be the strongest ligament in the body and serves to prevent excessive hip extension and assists to maintain upright posture.

Which structure is not a component of the femoral triangle? A. inguinal ligament B. adductor longus C. sartorius D. iliotibial band

Correct Answer: iliotibial band The femoral triangle is comprised of the inguinal ligament, adductor longus, and sartorius. Within the femoral triangle is the femoral nerve, femoral artery, and femoral vein.

Which of the following muscles is used during forced expiration? A. latissimus dorsi B. transverse abdominis C. sternocleidomastoid D. quadratus lumborum

Correct Answer: transverse abdominis Muscles active during forced exhalation include rectus abdominis, transverse abdominis, external obliques, and internal obliques.

The blunt tooth-like dens is part of which cervical vertebrae? A. C1 B. C2 C. C6 D. C7

Correct Answer: C2 The axis (C2) has a superior projection called the dens. The articulation between the dens and the anterior arch of the atlas forms the atlantoaxial joint.

Which spinal nerve exits between the 4th and 5th cervical vertebrae? A. C3 B. C4 C. C5 D. C6

Correct Answer: C5 In the cervical spine, each nerve root is named for the vertebra below it. This occurs since the C1 nerve root exits between the occiput and C1 vertebra.

What is the name of the disk that is located between the C7 and T1 vertebrae? A. C7 disk B. C8 disk C. T1 disk D. T2 disk

Correct Answer: C7 disk The C7 disk is located between the C7 and T1 vertebrae. The C8 nerve root exits between the C7 and T1 vertebrae. There are only seven cervical disks.

What vertebral level is most consistent with the sacroiliac joint? A. L2-L4 B. L4-S1 C. S1-S3 D. S3-S5

Correct Answer: S1-S3 The sacrum is attached to the pelvis by strong ligaments forming the sacroiliac joint. The joint's primary function is to transfer weight between the axial and the appendicular skeletons. The sacroiliac joint is located at the S1-S3 spinal level.

The spine of the scapula is opposite the spinous process of which vertebra? A. C7 B. T2 C. T3 D. T4

Correct Answer: T3 The majority of sources indicate that the superior angle of the scapula is at the T2 spinal level while the inferior angle of the scapula is at the T7 spinal level. The spine of the scapula is at the T3 spinal level.

What is the primary action of the dorsal interossei on the metacarpophalangeal joints of the index, middle, and ring fingers? A. Abduction B. Adduction C. Flexion D. Extension

Correct Answer: abduction There are four dorsal interossei whose primary action is abduction of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints of the index, middle, and ring fingers. The secondary action is flexion of the MCP joints for the index, middle, and ring fingers and extension of the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints for the index, middle, and ring fingers.

Which of the following is not part of the anatomical snuff box? A. extensor pollicis brevis B. extensor pollicis longus C. abductor pollicis brevis D. abductor pollicis longus

Correct Answer: abductor pollicis brevis The abductor pollicis brevis is not part of the anatomical snuff box. When the hand is ulnarly deviated the scaphoid bone becomes palpable in the anatomical snuffbox region.

What are the primary actions of the teres major on the shoulder? A. medial rotation, abduction, flexion B. extension, lateral rotation, adduction C. lateral rotation, flexion, abduction D. adduction, extension, medial rotation

Correct Answer: adduction, extension, medial rotation The teres major acts to adduct, extend, and medially rotate the shoulder. The muscle is innervated by the lower subscapular nerve.

The adductor tubercle of the femur is the insertion for which muscle? A. pectineus B. adductor magnus C. sartorius D. gracilis

Correct Answer: adductor magnus The adductor magnus is a large triangular muscle situated on the medial thigh that has two parts. The adductor portion is innervated by the obturator nerve and acts to adduct the hip. The hamstring portion of the adductor magnus is innervated by the tibial nerve and acts to extend the hip.

Which muscle does not act to extend the shoulder? A. Latissimus Dorsi B. Triceps Brachii (Long head) C. Anterior Deltoid D. Teres Major

Correct Answer: anterior deltoid The anterior deltoid acts to forward flex the shoulder and does not participate in extension. The posterior deltoid acts to extend the shoulder.

All of the following spinal ligaments limit flexion except: A. ligamentum flavum B. anterior longitudinal ligament C. supraspinous ligament D. posterior longitudinal ligament

Correct Answer: anterior longitudinal ligament The anterior longitudinal ligament limits thoracolumbar extension and reinforces the anterior portion of the intervertebral disks and vertebrae.

Which structure can be found through palpation of the sinus tarsi? A. anterior tibiiofibular ligament B. anterior talofibular ligament C. calcaneofibular ligament D. deltoid ligament

Correct Answer: anterior talofibular ligament The sinus tarsi is located on the dorsal lateral aspect of the foot distal to the lateral malleolus. The anterior talofibular ligament can be palpated in the sinus tarsi when the foot is inverted.

Which hamstring muscle inserts most laterally, causing flexion, as well as, lateral rotation of the knee? A. semitendinosus B. biceps femoris C. semimembranosis D. iliotibial band

Correct Answer: biceps femoris The hamstring muscle group is made up of the semitendinosus, semimembranosus, and biceps femoris. The biceps femoris inserts on the lateral aspect of the head of the fibula, the semitendinosus inserts on the proximal aspect of the medial surface of the tibia, and the semimembranosus inserts on the medial condyle of the tibia.

Which of the following ligaments is not a component of the deltoid ligament? A. anterior tibiotalar ligament B. calcaneofibular ligament C. tibiocalcaneal ligament D. tibionavicular ligament

Correct Answer: calcaneofibular ligament The calcaneofibular ligament is not a component of the deltoid ligament. The calcaneofibular ligament is an extracapsular ligament that resists inversion of the talus within the midrange of talocrural motion.

Which of the following represents the distal row of carpal bones in the hand? A. capitate, hamate, trapezoid, trapezium B. hamate, lunate, scaphoid, trapezium C. triquetrum, hamate, capitate, trapezium D. scaphoid, hamate, trapezoid, lunate

Correct Answer: capitate, hamate, trapezoid, trapezium The distal row of carpal bones from lateral to medial consists of the trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, and hamate. The proximal row of carpal bones from lateral to medial consists of the scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, and pisiform

What is the lateral articular surface of the distal humerus called? A. capitulum B. trochlea C. olecranon fossa D. coronoid fossa

Correct Answer: capitulum The capitulum is the lateral portion of the distal humerus that articulates with the head of the radius.

Which ligament, immediately superior to the glenohumeral joint, can be an area of impingement? A. coracoacromial ligament B. coracohumeral ligament C. superior glenohumeral ligament D. trapezoid ligament

Correct Answer: coracoacromial ligament The coracoacromial ligament spans the gap between the acromion process and coracoid process, thus creating a ceiling over the head of the humerus.

Which muscle actively contributes to producing a tenodesis grip? A. flexor digitorum profundus B. extensor digitorum C. palmaris longus D. Opponens pollicis

Correct Answer: extensor digitorum A tenodesis grip is a method of grasping used by patients with C6 and C7 tetraplegia who have paralysis of the finger and thumb flexor muscles, but active wrist extensors. The grip is most effective with shortened wrist and finger flexors.

Which of the following structures is not contained within the popliteal fossa? A. tibial nerve B. common fibular nerve C. femoral artery D. popliteal artery

Correct Answer: femoral artery The popliteal fossa is bordered superolaterally by the biceps femoris, superomedially by the semimembranosus, and inferolaterally and inferomedially by the lateral and medial heads of the gastrocnemius. The contents include the popliteal artery and vein, tibial and common fibular nerves, posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh, and termination of the small saphenous vein. The femoral artery becomes the popliteal artery as it exits the adductor canal through the adductor hiatus.

Tightness of the anterior scalene muscles would cause elevation of which structure? A. clavicle B. scapula C. first rib D. second rib

Correct Answer: first rib The anterior scalenes originate on the transverse processes of the cervical vertebrae (i.e., C3-C6) and insert on the first rib. As a result, tightness of the muscles often results in elevation of the first rib. The scalene muscle group can serve as accessory muscles for breathing.

What tendon surrounds the pisiform bone? A. palmaris longus B. flexor carpi ulnaris C. adductor pollicis D. lumbricals

Correct Answer: flexor carpi ulnaris The pisiform bone is a sesamoid bone that is surrounded by the flexor carpi ulnaris. The flexor carpi ulnaris is a primary wrist flexor and ulnar deviator. The muscle is innervated by the ulnar nerve.

All of the following muscles act to extend the hip except: A. gluteus maximus B. gluteus minimus C. semitendinosus D. biceps femoris

Correct Answer: gluteus minimus The gluteus minimus acts to abduct the hip and is innervated by the superior gluteal nerve. The gluteus medius, piriformis, obturator internus, and tensor fasciae latae also abduct the hip.

Which of the following ligaments supports the glenohumeral joint, limiting inferior translation of the humeral head when above 90 degrees of abduction? A. transverse humeral ligament B. inferior glenohumeral ligament C. middle glenohumeral ligament D. superior glenohumeral ligament

Correct Answer: inferior glenohumeral ligament The inferior glenohumeral ligament is located inferior to the glenohumeral joint and is thus taut when the upper extremity is abducted above 90 degrees, limiting inferior translation of the humeral head. The inferior glenohumeral ligament consists of an anterior band, posterior band, and axillary pouch.

Which structure serves to stabilize against axial forces at the wrist? A. dorsal radiocarpal ligament B. radial collateral ligament C. palmar radiocarpal ligament D. interosseus membrane

Correct Answer: interosseus membrane The interosseus membrane serves to stabilize against axial forces at the wrist. It consists of a dense band of fibrous connective tissue that runs obliquely from the radius to the ulna. The structure spans from the proximal radioulnar joint to the distal radioulnar joint.

Which muscle plays a significant role in depressing the mandible during mouth opening? A. medial pterygoid B. temporalis C. lateral pterygoid D. masseter

Correct Answer: lateral pterygoid The lateral pterygoid is made up of two heads. It is one of the few muscles of mastication that opens the mouth.

Which muscle is responsible for moving the right eye when looking to the right (abduction of the right eye)? A. inferior oblique muscle B. superior oblique muscle C. medial rectus muscle D. latereal rectus muscle

Correct Answer: latereal rectus muscle The lateral rectus muscle rotates the eye away from the nose. This muscle would be responsible for the movement of the right eye when a patient looks to the right.

Which muscle's action includes elevation and downward rotation of the scapula? A. serratus anterior B. upper trapezius C. lower trapezius D. levator scapulae

Correct Answer: levator scapulae The levator scapulae originates on the transverse processes of C1-C4 and inserts on the superior portion of the medial border of the scapula. The muscle's actions include scapular elevation and downward rotation.

Which part of the sternum articulates with the clavicles? A. coracoid B. sternal body C. menubrium D. xiphoid

Correct Answer: manubrium The manubrium is the most superior section of the sternum. The manubrium articulates with the clavicles, and first and second ribs. The manubrium connects to the sternal body at the angle of Louis.

The sustentaculum tali is located on the: A. lateral aspect of calcaneus B. medial aspect of navicular C. medial aspect of talus D. medial aspect of calcaneus

Correct Answer: medial aspect of calcaneus The sustentaculum tali is located on the medial aspect of the calcaneus and is the site of attachment for the spring ligament which is responsible for supporting the medial longitudinal arch and the head of the talus which bears a large percentage of the body's weight.

Which ligament provides stability to the knee during a valgus stress? A. medial collateral B. lateral collateral C. anterior cruciate D. posteror cruciate

Correct Answer: medial collateral The medial collateral ligament (MCL) runs from slightly above the medial femoral epicondyle to the medial aspect of the shaft of the tibia. The deep capsular fibers are attached to the medial meniscus. The MCL prevents excessive valgus displacement of the tibia relative to the femur.

What is the common origin of the wrist flexors? A. lateral epicondyle of the humerus B. medial epicondyle of the humerus C. radial head D. ulnar styloid

Correct Answer: medial epicondyle of the humerus The medial epicondyle of the humerus is the common origin for the flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum superficialis, and pronator teres. Medial epicondylitis is usually caused by repetitive wrist flexion.

The articular disc of the temporomandibular joint has an attachment to all of the following structures except: A. medial pterygoid B. capsule C. retrodiscal lamina D. temporal bone

Correct Answer: medial pterygoid The articular disc is made primarily of dense fibrous connective tissue in which the anterior edge attaches to the tendon of the superior head of the lateral pterygoid muscle.

Which bone of the foot is located between the head of the talus and the three cuneiform bones? A. first metatarsal B. calcaneus C. cuboid D. navicular

Correct Answer: navicular The navicular is located on the medial side of the foot and articulates with the three cuneiforms distally, the talus proximally, and the cuboid laterally.

Which muscle unlocks the locked knee by rotating the tibia medially on the femur? A. peroneus longus B. plantaris C. popliteus D. soleus

Correct Answer: popliteus The popliteus originates on the lateral femoral epicondyle and inserts on the posterior surface of the tibia. The muscle medially rotates the tibia on the femur if the femur is fixed (i.e., sitting) or laterally rotates the femur on the tibia if the tibia is fixed (i.e., standing up).

What muscle originates on the depicted bony landmark? A. Sartorius B. Gracilis C. Rectus Femoris D. Iliopsoas

Correct Answer: rectus femoris The rectus femoris originates on the anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS) and inserts on the tibial tuberosity via the patellar tendon. The rectus femoris acts to flex the hip and extend the knee.

Which of the following ribs are classified as floating ribs? A. ribs 1-4 B. ribs 5-7 C. ribs 8-10 D. ribs 11-12

Correct Answer: ribs 11-12 Ribs 11 and 12 do not attach to either the sternum or the costal cartilage at their distal ends and are therefore classified as floating ribs. Ribs 11 and 12 articulate only with the bodies of the T11 and T12 vertebrae, not with the transverse processes

Which carpal bones articulate with the radius? A. triquetrum and lunate B. scaphoid and lunate C. trapezium and scaphoid D. capitate and triquetrum

Correct Answer: scaphoid and lunate The radius articulates with the wrist at the radiocarpal joint. The concave surface of the distal end of the radius articulates with the scaphoid and lunate

Which of the following muscles works in opposition to the deltoid to prevent scapular winging? A. Rhomboid Major B. Rhomboid Minor C. Trapezius D. Serratus Anterior

Correct Answer: serratus anterior The serratus anterior originates on the 1st through 8th ribs on the lateral chest wall and inserts along the medial border of the scapula. This muscle acts to stabilize the scapula against the chest wall.

The patella is classified as what type of bone? A. short B. sesamoid C. flat D. irregular

Correct Answer: sesamoid The patella is a sesamoid bone attached to the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle. It plays a large role in the knee extensor mechanism functioning as an anatomical pulley.

What muscle originates on the coracoid process? A. brachioradialis B. extensor digitorum C. short head of the biceps brachii D. latissimus dorsi

Correct Answer: short head of the biceps brachii The long head of the biceps brachii originates on the supraglenoid tubercle and the short head originates on the coracoid process. The muscle is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve.

What is the sequence of the erector spinae muscles from medial to lateral? A. iliocostalis, longissimus, spinalis B. longissimus, iliocostalis, spinalis C. spinalis, longissimus, iliocostalis D. spinalis, iliocostalis, longissimus

Correct Answer: spinalis, longissimus, iliocostalis The erector spinae from medial to lateral consist of the spinalis, longissimus, and iliocostalis. The erector spinae runs vertically and extends throughout the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar regions of the spine.

Which rotator cuff muscle has an insertion on the lesser tubercle? A. supraspinatus B. infraspinatus C. teres minor D. subscapularis

Correct Answer: subscapularis The supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor have a distal attachment on the greater tubercle of the humerus, while the subscapularis inserts on the lesser tubercle of the humerus.

Which ankle bone has articulations with the tibia, fibula, calcaneus, and navicular? A. talus B. cuboid C. medial (first) cuneiform D. lateral (third) cuneiform

Correct Answer: talus The talus bone, or ankle bone often called the tarsus, forms the lower part of the ankle joint. It is the second largest of the tarsal bones.

Which of the following is an example of a contractile source of motion restriction? A. Bursa B. Capsule C. Ligament D. Tendon

Correct Answer: tendon A tendon is a potential source of motion restriction since it functions as a contractile component of the musculotendinous unit.

The elbow ligament that allows the head of the radius to rotate and retain contact with the radial notch of the ulna is known as: A. the annular ligament B. the anterior ligament C. the posterior ligament D. the radial collateral ligament

Correct Answer: the annular ligament The annular ligament consists of a band of fibers that surrounds the head of the radius. It allows the head of the radius to rotate and maintain contact with the radial notch of the ulna.

Which of the following muscles share a common insertion site? A. coracobrachialis and pectoralis minor B. brachioradialis and brachialis C. tibialis anterior and peroneus longus D. sartorius and rectus femoris

Correct Answer: tibialis anterior and peroneus longus The tibialis anterior and peroneus longus both insert at the base of the first metatarsal and medial cuneiform. The coracobrachialis and pectoralis minor have a common origin or insertion, however, the coracobrachialis originates at the coracoid process while the pectoralis minor inserts at the same structure. The remaining muscles do not share common origins or insertions.

All of the following muscles act to evert the ankle except: A. peroneus longus B. tibialis posterior C. peroneus brevis D. peroneus tertius

Correct Answer: tibialis posterior The tibialis posterior muscle acts to plantar flex and invert the ankle and is innervated by the tibial nerve. Other plantar flexors include the soleus, gastrocnemius, peroneus longus, peroneus brevis, plantaris and flexor hallucis muscles. Other muscles that invert the ankle include the tibialis anterior and the flexor digitorum longus.

Which of the following ligamentous structures provide the greatest support to the atlantoaxial joint? A. anterior longitudinal ligament B. posterior longitudinal ligament C. ligamentum flavum D. transverse ligament of the atlas

Correct Answer: transverse ligament of the atlas The transverse ligament of the atlas is the main supporting ligament for the atlantoaxial joint. It holds the dens of the axis against the anterior arch of the atlas. The ligament also has superior and inferior projections that are collectively known as the cruciform ligament of the atlas.

The tubercles of the ribs articulate with which structure of the thoracic vertebrae? A. transverse process B. spinous process C. anterior vertebral body D. pedicle

Correct Answer: transverse process A typical thoracic vertebra will articulate with the tubercle of a rib on its transverse process and the inferior portion of the head of the rib at the superior demifacet.

Which abdominal muscle is the deepest and responds uniquely to postural perturbations? A. transversus abdominis B. rectus abdominis C. external oblique D. internal oblique

Correct Answer: transversus abdominis The transversus abdominis attaches posteriorly to the lumbar vertebrae via the posterior and middle layers of the thoracolumbar fascia. The transversus abdominis is an important muscle that provides increased stability to the lumbar spine during a variety of postures and movements

Which muscle is attached to the medial border of the patella and aids to prevent its dislocation? A. biceps femoris B. rectus femoris C. popliteus D. vastus medialis

Correct Answer: vastus medialis The vastus medialis is an important dynamic stabilizer of the knee. Strengthening activities emphasizing the vastus medialis in non-weight bearing and weight bearing positions are recommended for patients with patellar tracking dysfunction. The muscle is innervated by the femoral nerve.

Which vertebrae are characterized by facets on their bodies and long spinous processes? A. cervical B. thoracic C. lumbar D. sacral

The thoracic spine consists of 12 vertebrae with long prominent spinous processes. The first ten thoracic vertebrae have articular facets on each transverse process where the ribs articulate.


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