musculoskeletal questions

11. which patient data does the nurse recognize as a risk factor for a patient with a history of a pathological fracture? Select all that apply 1. history of falling 2. paget disease 3. jogging 4. cancer 5. osteoporosis 6. daily carbonated beverage intake

(2, 4, 5) are correct. Pathological fractures result from disease. (1, 3, 6) are not diseases.

15. the nurse is teaching the patient about contracture prevention after an above the knee amputation (AKA). The nurse evaluates the patient as requiring further teaching if the patient states which of these interventions should be used? Select all that apply 1. lie prone for 30 mintues 2. sit in chair for 2 hours 3. elevate stump of pillow daily 4. ensure stump lies flat on bed 5. elevate head of bed during the day 6. elevate foot of bed daily

(2, 3, 5, 6) are correct. Further teaching is needed as they all promote flexion of the hip, which would promote contracture development and prevent the use of a prosthesis. (1, 4) prevent contracture development and should be used.

The nurse would evaluate the patient as requiring further teaching if the patient stated which of these serum blood tests is elevated in gout? Select all that apply 1. alkaline phosphatase 2. calcium 3. creatine kinase 4. myoglobin 5. phosphorus 6. uric acid

(1, 2, 3, 4, 5) are not elevated, so further teaching would be needed. (6) is incorrect. Uric acid is elevated in gout.

8. the nurse provides discharge teaching for the patient with gout. The nurse would evaluate the patient as understanding if the patient says which of the following can be eaten? Select all that apply 1. cod 2. chicken 3. eggs 4. liver 5. sardines 6. cherries

(1, 2, 3, 6) are correct. They are not high-purine foods and can be eaten. (4, 5) are high in purines and should be avoided.

13. the nurse teaches the patient, who has risk factors for osteoporosis, prevention methods. The nurse evaluates the patient as understanding the teaching if the patient states lifestyle changes will include which of these? Select all that apply 1. daily walking 2. increased milk intake 3. limited dark green leafy vegetables 4. weight training 5. maintaining normal weight 6. calcium supplement

(1, 2, 4, 6) are correct. Weight-bearing exercise and weight training, intake of foods high in calcium, and supplements help prevent osteoporosis. (3) is incorrect. Dark green leafy vegetables are high in calcium and should be included in the diet. (5) is incorrect. Maintaining normal weight is important to reduce stress on joints to prevent osteoarthritis, not osteoporosis

9. the nurse is gathering functional date on a patient with arthritis. The nurse would collect date in which of these areas? Select all that apply 1. ability to feed self 2. appearance of joints 3. bathing practices 4. dressing ability 5. pain level 6. response to treatment

(1, 3, 4) are correct. Feeding, bathing, and dressing one's self are activities of daily living, which are parts of a functional assessment. (2, 5, 6) are not items evaluated in a functional assessment

14. the nurse is to administer alendronate (Fosamax) to a patient. Which of the following actions should the nurse implement to safely administer the medication? Select all that apply 1. verify allergies 2. administer at bedtime 3. give on an empty stomach 4. give with 6 to 8 ounces of water only 5. after administration, wait 1 hour before giving other medication 6. instruct patient to remain upright for 30 minutes

(1, 3, 4, 6) are correct. (2) is incorrect. Give in morning upon arising. (5) is incorrect. Wait 30 minutes before giving other medication.

which of the following medications should a patient with gout be encouraged to avoid in order to prevent a gout attack? 1. aspirin 2. acetaminophen 3. motrin 4. codeine 5. excedrin 6. percodan

(1, 5, 6) are correct. They contain aspirin, which can cause an attack of gout. (2, 3, 4) are incorrect

3. a patient is in skin traction using a foam boot with velcro fasteners for a fractured hip. The nurse would document this type of skin traction as which of the following? 1. gardner tongs 2. buck traction 3. crutchfield tongs 4. steinmann pin

(2) is correct. Buck traction is skin traction. (1, 3, 4) are examples of skeletal traction.

7. the nurse is inspecting a knee of a patient who reports pain and stiffness. As the patient moves the knee, the nurse hears a grating sound. The nurse correctly documents the grating sound as which of the following? 1. friction rub 2. crepitation 3. effusion 4 subcutaneous emphysema

(2) is correct. Crepitation is the term used for a grating sound heard in a joint. (1) is incorrect. A friction rub is associated with either pleural or pericardial inflammation or fluid accumulation. (3) is incorrect. An effusion is a collection of fluid in a space. (4) is incorrect. Subcutaneous emphysema is leaking air that is felt under the skin

4. a patient sustains a closed fracture of the right tibia and is placed in a long leg plaster cast, which is still damp. Which of the following methods should the nurse use to move the cast to prevent complications? 1. have patient reposition own leg 2. use palms to move the cast 3. use fingertips to grasp cast 4. do not move the cast until it is dry

(2) is correct. Palming the cast to move it prevents indentations being made in the wet cast with fingertips. (1, 3, 4) are incorrect.

12. which of the following symptoms would the nurse most likely be told was the first symptom that caused a patient with rheumatoid arthritis to see health care? 1. cold intolerance 2. stiff, sore joints 3. shortness of breath 4. crepitation

(2) is correct. Stiff, sore joints are one of the early symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis. (1, 4) are not early symptoms. (3) is not a related symptom

1. which of the following is the recommended protocol for caring for a severed body part that may be replanted? Select all that apply 1. cover it with a warm, dry towel 2. wrap it in a clean, moist cloth 3. place it directly on dry ice 4. wrap it in a dry, sterile dressing 5. seal in a plastic bag 6. place it in ice

(2, 5) is correct. It should be wrapped in a cool, moist cloth (sterile, if available) and sealed in a plastic bag. (1) is incorrect. It should be cool and moist. (3) is incorrect. It is not placed on dry ice, which is also not readily available. (4) is incorrect. It is not readily available or moist. (6) is incorrect. It is not placed in ice to avoid extreme temperature.

10. the nurse is reviewing an erythrocyte sedimentation rate for a patient. Which of the following does the nurse understand is the purpose of this test? 1. to identify the number of red blood cells the patient has 2. to determine sedimentation found in red blood cells 3. to identify the presence of systemic inflammation 4. to diagnose various types of arthritis

(3) is correct. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is a general screening test for systemic inflammation. (1, 2, 4) are incorrect.

5. a patient is being treated with gold therapy for rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following interventions is essential when gold therapy is started? Select all that apply 1. remove all metal objects patient is wearing 2. check allergies to iodine 3. give a test dose of gold 4. plan a biweekly dosing schedule 5. monitor the patient after the injection 6. teach the patient to obtain daily weight

(3, 5) are correct. Giving a test dose of gold is important to observe for an allergic reaction, and the patient is monitored after the test dose for an allergic reaction. (1, 2, 4, 6) are incorrect.

8. what actions should the nurse take after observing a joint that has a grating sound with movement? Select all that apply 1. abduct the extremity 2. adduct the extremity 3. immediately stop joint movement 4. flex the joint 5. protect the joint 6. maintain joint immobilization

(3, 5, 6) are correct. Joint movement should immediately be stopped to prevent further joint injury, the joint should be protected from further injury, and immobilization of the joint should be maintained to prevent joint damage. (1, 2, 4) would move the joint, causing possible injury.

10. following a patients bone biopsy, the nurse inspects the biopsy site. The nurse is monitoring for what complication that may occur immediately following a biopsy? 1. joint dislocation 2. crepitation 3. infection 4. hematoma formation

(4) is correct. A hematoma may develop after a biopsy. (1) does not occur from a biopsy. (2) is incorrect. Crepitation is heard in a joint. (3) is incorrect. An infection would not develop immediately.

6. the nurse is caring for a patient who has a fractured ankle in a cast. The patient has morphine 5 to 10 mg intramuscularly ordered every 3 to 4 hours. The patient received morphine 5 mg 2 hours and 45 minutes ago. The patient is rating the pain at 10 and moans that the leg hurts. Vital signs are within normal limits. The patient has good capillary refill. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take next? 1. apply ice to the cast 2. notify the health care provider immediately 3. remove pillow under the cast 4. prepare morphine 10 mg for administration

(4) is correct. The morphine should be prepared so it is ready to give promptly when it can be given after 3 hours; 10 mg should be given because the pain level is at the maximum and is occurring before the minimum ordered time interval. (1) is incorrect. Applying ice to the cast may be helpful. However, because the pain is at the maximum, it will not provide enough relief. (2) is incorrect. There are no abnormalities to report to the health care provider at this time. (3) is incorrect. Removing the pillow may increase pain if swelling increases.

7. the nurse turns a 2 day postoperative patient with a right total hip replacement (THR) using three pillows between the legs. The nurse later returns and finds the patient lying supine with the leg crossed. Which of the following should the nurse immediately observe to determine whether a complication has developed? 1. the right knee for crepitation 2. the left leg for internal rotation 3. the left leg for loss of function 4. the right leg for shortening

(4) is correct. This is a sign of hip dislocation. (1, 2, 3) are incorrect.

The orthopedic office nurse is providing care to a client who has been injured in a fall onto an icy patch of sidewalk a year ago. The client states that they still cannot move their knee due to the pain and swelling. The nurse anticipates that the health-care provider will use which of the following diagnostic procedures? 1. Arthroscopy 2. Bone biopsy 3. Arthrocentesis 4. Serum alkaline phosphatase assessment

1. Arthroscopy Option 1: The client may have received an injury to the joint, soft tissue, ligaments, or tendons. The surgeon will use range of motion to visualize any tears or defects. Option 2: This test would assess the bone itself for abnormalities, such as osteomyelitis or cancer; it is not used to diagnose an injury of the joint. Option 3: This would be an assessment of the synovial fluid in the joint. The client has injured themselves and may have torn a ligament or tendon during the fall. Option 4: This would be an assessment for metabolic bone diseases or bone cancer.

The orthopedic health-care provider (HCP) has ordered a closed reduction of an oblique fracture of the right radius bone. The client asks the nurse why they will have a splint on their arm instead of a cast. Which of the following would be the most appropriate answer? 1. Because there is a cut close to the fracture site, the splint will be used to monitor healing of the skin wound while immobilizing the fracture. 2. A pain medication and sedative will be given prior to the procedure, and the HCP will manually pull on the limb to manipulate the ends into alignment. 3. The cast would not maintain proper alignment for this type of fracture. 4. The splint is easier to clean and keeps the arm cool during the summer months.

1. Because there is a cut close to the fracture site, the splint will be used to monitor healing of the skin wound while immobilizing the fracture. Option 1: The wound will need to be monitored for healing and prevention of infection. The cast would be a closed area, preventing visualization of the wound. Option 2: This explains the procedure, not the rationale for the splint. This is an example of nontherapeutic communication. Option 3: The cast would be as effective if not more effective at maintaining alignment had the client not had an open wound. Option 4: The splint would need to stay clean and dry during the treatment.

Match each part of a synovial joint with the correct function. 1. Articular cartilage 2. Joint capsule 3. Synovial membrane 4. Synovial fluid 5. Bursae A. Lines the joint capsule and secretes synovial fluid B. Prevents friction within the joint cavity C. Encloses the joint similar to a sleeve D. Permit tendons to slide easily across a joint E. Provides a smooth surface on the joint surfaces of bones

1. E 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. D

A client arrives to the orthopedic office for their second hylan g-f 20 injection for their osteoarthritis. What is the purpose of this injection? 1. Hylan g-f 20 provides a replacement for the cushioning synovial fluid for pain control and increased flexibility. 2. Hylan g-f 20 provides temporary pain relief due to its antiinflammatory properties. 3. Hylan g-f 20 provides a replacement of the cartilage lost due to osteoarthritis. 4. Hylan g-f 20 prepares the client for total joint replacement.

1. Hylan g-f 20 provides a replacement for the cushioning synovial fluid for pain control and increased flexibility. Option 1: Hylan g-f 20 has properties similar to the synovial fluid, which cushions the joint. It is injected directly into the knee for optimum effect.

The nurse is providing care to a client who is 1 day status post above-the-knee amputation. Which of the following nursing interventions would be most appropriate at this time? Select all that apply. 1. Monitor temperature, inspect for redness or drainage. 2. Assess for gastrointestinal symptoms, such as diarrhea or constipation. 3. Limit the use of pillows for the residual limb to less than 24 hr. 4. Teach the client to perform activities of daily living prior to discharge. 5. Begin education on prosthesis and shrinker sock use.

1. Monitor temperature, inspect for redness or drainage. 3. Limit the use of pillows for the residual limb to less than 24 hr. Option 1: Monitor for signs and symptoms of infection. Option 2: The client who has undergone an amputation typically does not have constipation so soon after surgery. Option 3: Continued use of a pillow can lead to flexion contractures, which would inhibit the use of a prosthesis. Check the limb periodically and have the client lie prone for 30 min four times a day, if possible. Option 4: Physical and occupational therapy will facilitate the rehabilitation process, and the nurse will follow their lead by reinforcing the teachings. Option 5: This would start either prior to surgery or during rehabilitation. This client is a fresh postoperative client, and the wound would need to heal prior to the introduction of a prosthesis.

The nurse is providing care to an elderly client who has sustained a hip fracture. The client asks why the surgeon recommends an open reduction internal fixation. What would be an appropriate response to the client? 1. Open reduction and internal fixation of the hip allows early ambulation while the bone is healing. 2 .Open reduction and internal fixation of the hip allows the health-care provider to visualize signs of osteoporosis. 3. Open reduction and internal fixation of the hip is contraindicated for elderly clients due to the complexity of surgery. 4. Open reduction and internal fixation of the hip is less harmful to the client than an external fixture.

1. Open reduction and internal fixation of the hip allows early ambulation while the bone is healing. Option 1: This allows early ambulation and helps decrease the risk of complications from immobility. Option 2: Osteoporosis is not diagnosed visually, but rather it is diagnosed with a bone density scan. Option 3: Because hip fractures affect older adults more than any other age group, this is not an appropriate answer. Option 4: External fixtures are not conducive to a hip fracture due to the area and higher potential for infection and contamination.

The client with a thyroid deficiency is at risk for which of the following musculoskeletal issues? 1. Osteoporosis 2. Deep vein thrombosis 3. Muscular atrophy 4. Fasciitis

1. Osteoporosis Option 1: The thyroid hormone calcitonin promotes retention of calcium in the bones. The parathyroid hormone increases the removal of calcium and phosphate from the bones. Option 2: Although the thyroid hormones are related to metabolism and calcitonin, this is not a musculoskeletal issue. Option 3: Although the thyroid hormones are related to metabolism and tissue repair, the best answer would be osteoporosis, because thyroid hormones involve not only tissue buildup but also calcitonin. Option 4: This would be an injury or infection of the fascia, which does not involve the thyroid hormones.

The nurse is providing care to a client who sustained a traumatic amputation of their right arm via a leaf blower. The client is in otherwise excellent health, and the trauma team was able to retrieve the amputated limb for replantation. Which of the following actions by the team would facilitate a successful replantation of the limb? Select all that apply. 1. Rinsing the dirty limb immediately. 2. Placing the limb in a plastic bag and covering with ice. 3. Applying a tourniquet on the stump. 4. Applying oxygen to the client at the scene. 5. Administering an anticoagulant to the client.

1. Rinsing the dirty limb immediately. 2. Placing the limb in a plastic bag and covering with ice. Option 1: This may prevent infection. Option 2: This may prevent cellular damage during transport. Option 3: This may cause tissue damage to the stump area and prevent successful replantation. Option 4: This would help oxygenate the client but does not facilitate replantation of the severed limb. Option 5: This could cause the client to hemorrhage while awaiting the replantation.

Which of the following conditions would be the nurse's priority assessment for a client related to the musculoskeletal system? 1. The client is at risk for venous pooling and deep vein thrombosis. 2. The client is at risk for fluid imbalance and urinary retention. 3. The client is at risk for constipation and diarrhea. 4. The client is at risk for impaired skin integrity and pressure ulcers.

1. The client is at risk for venous pooling and deep vein thrombosis. Option 1: The musculoskeletal system, specifically the voluntary muscles, collectively contribute to the return of blood from the legs through muscular compression. This would be a priority issue. Option 2: Although this is a concern, it is not a priority musculoskeletal concern compared to the possibility of deep vein thrombosis. Option 3: Although this is a concern, this is a gastrointestinal disorder. This is not a priority musculoskeletal issue compared to deep vein thrombosis. Option 4: Although an immobile client is at risk for pressure ulcers, this is not a priority issue compared to deep vein thrombosis.

A client reports severe, increasing pain after application of a cast to treat a left lower tibial fracture. The nurse assesses the left foot and notes sluggish capillary refill, and toes are cool to the touch. The client further states that they feel burning in their toes and sole of the affected foot. Which of the following are symptoms of compartment syndrome? 1. The client reports severe, increasing pain after application of a cast. 2. The client complains of itching under the cast. 3. The nurse assesses the left foot and notes sluggish capillary refill. 4. The client complains that the cast is heavy and awkward. 5. The client states that they have a tingling in their toes and distal portion of their foot.

1. The client reports severe, increasing pain after application of a cast. 3. The nurse assesses the left foot and notes sluggish capillary refill. 5. The client states that they have a tingling in their toes and distal portion of their foot. Option 1: Pain is usually the initial complaint if the pain is not relieved with opioids. Option 2: This is a typical complaint due to the closed space and loss of moisture to the area under the cast. Option 3: Pulselessness is a late and ominous sign of compartment syndrome. Option 4: This is a typical complaint due to the weight and location of the cast. The cast immobilizes the affected bone and prevents movement of the joints superior and inferior to the break. Option 5: Paresthesia is another symptom of compartment syndrome. Remember the others, including pain, paresthesia, pallor, paralysis, pulselessness, and poikilothermia.

Which of the following are methods to prevent complications from the effects on the musculoskeletal system and aging? Select all that apply. 1. Weight-bearing exercises 2. Strength training 3. A diet rich in vitamins A and C 4. Maintenance of immunizations 5. Adequate and consistent intake of calcium and phosphorus

1. Weight-bearing exercises 2. Strength training 3. A diet rich in vitamins A and C 5. Adequate and consistent intake of calcium and phosphorus Option 1: Weight bearing will increase bone matrix deposition and increase bone density. Option 2: Strength training may slow the loss of strength and prevent falls and accidents. Option 3: Vitamins A and C are necessary for the production of bone matrix. Option 4: Although immunizations would prevent illness and possible loss of strength due to a long illness, this is not specific to musculoskeletal system maintenance. Option 5: The body needs adequate calcium for not only bone health, but also for overall health, and the aging body typically takes in less nutrients.

The nurse is providing care to the postmenopausal older adult. The nurse provides information on weight-bearing exercise. What is the reason for this information in regard to the musculoskeletal system? 1. Weight-bearing exercises decrease the effects of osteoporosis. 2. Weight-bearing exercises increase the synergistic effects of fine motor control and balance. 3. Weight-bearing exercises help with circulation. 4. Weight-bearing exercises decrease blood glucose levels.

1. Weight-bearing exercises decrease the effects of osteoporosis. Option 1: The loss of bone can be offset by performing weight-bearing physical exercises, which stimulate bone matrix deposition, increasing bone density. Option 2: Although exercise will slow bone loss resulting from the normal effects of aging and loss of strength, it is not specific to weight bearing. Option 3: Improved circulation is not specific to weight bearing and is a cardiovascular effect, not musculoskeletal. Option 4: Blood glucose levels are not specific to weight bearing, and this is an endocrine issue, not musculoskeletal.

The nurse is assessing a client who has a musculoskeletal disorder. Which of the following would be considered subjective data pertaining to the musculoskeletal system? 1. Palpate all pulses below the involved area. 2. Identify the client's level of activity prior to the problem. 3. Identify any deformities or changes in the body. 4. Identify any difficulty breathing with exercise. 5. Ask the client whether they have any allergies.

2. Identify the client's level of activity prior to the problem. 3. Identify any deformities or changes in the body Option 1: This would be considered objective data. The nurse would note any alterations that may indicate altered vascular integrity of the affected area or demonstrate developing compartment syndrome. Option 2: The nurse would ask the client "what activities do you participate in, and how often?" This would provide baseline information regarding the client's level of activity prior to the problem. Option 3: This would affect the client's self-concept, which may alert the staff of a possible need for assistance with strategies to cope with the stress of a possible chronic musculoskeletal condition. Option 4: This would be an endurance, cardiovascular, or respiratory question, not a musculoskeletal system question. Option 5: If the client has allergies, they may be using compounds that interact with diagnostic testing, treatments, or therapies (e.g., iodine contrast dye would be contraindicated for a client with shellfish allergies).

The nurse is the first to arrive to the side of a client's side who has fallen onto outstretched hands and is lying down holding their left arm. The nurse quickly assesses the left arm to see a swelling and an abnormal "bump" on the wrist. The priority rationale for the nurse to immediately immobilize the wrist is which of the following? 1. Immobilization will decrease the client's anxiety by preventing visualization of the injury. 2. Immobilization may prevent the occurrence of osteomyelitis. 3. Immobilization will decrease the pain of the fracture. 4. Immobilization will prevent compartment syndrome from occurring during transportation to the emergency department.

2. Immobilization may prevent the occurrence of osteomyelitis. Option 1: At this point, the client may be anxious and in pain, so visualization of the injury is not a priority rationale. Option 2: The fracture appears closed at this time, and any movement may displace the bone outside of the body. This would increase the likelihood of an open fracture and exposure of the bone tissue to pathogens. Option 3: Although this may help decrease the risk of further trauma or pain at the fracture, this is not the rationale for the immediate immobilization. Option 4: Although this injury is at risk for compartment syndrome, this syndrome typically does not occur immediately after a fracture. It is a response to the inflammation and lack of space within the fascia.

The nurse is providing information to a client who has been diagnosed with avascular necrosis of the right femoral head. Which of the following components of the client's health history would have caused this musculoskeletal issue? 1. The client is a retired physical education teacher for an elementary school. 2. The client has a 10-yr history of steroid use for severe allergies. 3. The client is a thin postmenopausal vegetarian. 4. The client has a history of long-term use of antibiotics.

2. The client has a 10-yr history of steroid use for severe allergies. Option 1: Unless there is mention of trauma, this occupational history would not indicate a cause for avascular necrosis. Option 2: The long-term use of steroids could cause loss of bone density, cause trauma to the bone, and impede the blood flow to the bone. Option 3: Although some diets may exacerbate bone loss, there is no indication of this being the cause. Option 4: Long-term use of antibiotics is not an indication for avascular necrosis, unless the antibiotics had been used to treat osteomyelitis.

which of the following is the transmitter at neuromuscular junctions? 1. sodium ions 2. acetylcholine 3. a nerve impulse 4. cholinesterase

2. acetylcholine

A client arrives to their health-care provider's (HCP's) office with complaints of bilateral wrist pain. The client states that they recently found employment as an assembly line factory worker. The HCP notes that the client appears fatigued and has unintentionally lost 30 lb since their last examination. The client attributes the weight loss to their new diet that includes an increase in organ meats and shellfish.The HCP then performs a synovial biopsy that reveals cloudy, dark-yellow synovial fluid. The HCP obtains the client's latest laboratory results, which reveal decreased red blood cells, increased total cholesterol, and a positive C-reactive protein.Which of those signs and symptoms are indicative for rheumatoid arthritis?Select all that apply. 1. Repetitive motion with new employment at factory 2. Weight loss 3. Cloudy synovial fluid 4. Decreased red blood cells 5. Positive C-reactive protein

3. Cloudy synovial fluid 4. Decreased red blood cells 5. Positive C-reactive protein Option 1: This is a risk factor for carpal tunnel syndrome and possibly osteoarthritis. Option 2: This may be a sign of rheumatoid arthritis if taken into consideration with other symptoms (e.g., if the client complains of fatigue, general malaise, pain, or redness in the joints). Option 3: This is indicative of rheumatoid arthritis or an infection of the synovial fluid. Option 4: This can be an indication of rheumatoid arthritis. The battery of tests would help facilitate the proper diagnosis. Option 5: This can be an indication of rheumatoid arthritis as a part of the battery of tests.

Which of the following medications treat osteoporosis by increasing bone density? Select all that apply. 1. Prednisone 2. Nonsteroidal antiiflammatory drugs 3. Denosumab 4. Levothyroxine 5. Teriparatide

3. Denosumab 5. Teriparatide Option 1: In fact, this medication may exacerbate osteoporosis, as it is a secondary cause of osteoporosis. Option 2: This would be treatment for pain control, not a therapy to increase bone density. Option 3: This is a monoclonal antibody that inhibits the protein that signals bone removal. Option 4: Although the thyroid plays a key function in maintaining balance with serum calcium and metabolism of vital nutrients, it does not increase bone density. Option 5: This is an anabolic bone-forming medication used for both men and women at great risk for fracture. This increases bone mass by increasing the action and number of osteoblasts that form bone.

The nurse prepares a client for a diagnostic test of the entire skeletal system. The nurse administers a sedative because the client is too restless to lie still during the required 90 min of testing. The client understands this diagnostic test will include the injection of a radioisotope. This will facilitate imaging during various intervals to reveal the location of infections or tumors such as osteosarcoma. What is this diagnostic test? 1. Myelography 2. Magnetic resonance imaging 3. Nuclear medicine scan 4. Ultrasonography

3. Nuclear medicine scan Option 1: This test is usually reserved for clients unable to have a computed tomography (CT) scan or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) for complicated spinal surgery. Option 2: This test diagnoses musculoskeletal problems, especially those involving soft-tissue damage or disorders. Option 3: This test allows visualization of the entire skeleton. Clients are instructed to remove all jewelry, and the client must lie still for up to 90 minutes during the testing procedure. This is used to detect areas of tumors, inflammation, infections, and osteosarcomas. Option 4: This test uses sound waves to detect osteomyelitis, soft-tissue disorders, traumatic joint injuries, and surgical hardware placement.

1. Absorbing shock between adjacent vertebrae is the function of disks make of which of the following? 1. smooth muscle 2. synovial fluid 3. fibrous cartilage 4. adipose tissue

3. fibrous cartilage

what lab will be elevated with osteomylitis

ESR (electrolyte sedimentation rate) & WBC

which of the following organ systems are directly necessary for muscle contraction? Select all that apply a. circulatory system b. digestive system c. respiratory system d. nervous system e. sensory system

a. circulatory system c. respiratory system d. nervous system

6. which of the following is the function of synovial fluid? a. exchange nutrients b. prevent friction c. absorb water d. wear away rough surfaces

b. prevent friction

4. which of the following is the part of the brain that initiates muscle contraction? a. parietal lobe b. cerebellum c. frontal lobe d. temporal lobe

c. frontal lobe Nerve impulses originate in the motor areas of the frontal lobes of the cerebral cortex. The coordination of voluntary movement is a function of the cerebellum.

What are the three areas of musculoskeletal data collection that are important:

inspection, range of motion, and muscle tone and palpation.

Ultrasounds are used to detect......

osteomyelitis (bone infection), soft tissue disorders, traumatic joint injuries, and surgical hardware placement.

Soft tissue injuries include......

sprains, strains, dislocations, bursitis, rotator cuff injury, and carpal tunnel syndrome.