NASM CES Exam Prep 2023
Which test is indicated if a client is unable to straighten their arms overhead? a. Modified Thomas test b. Elbow and wrist extension c. Lumbar flexion and extension d. Seated thoracic rotation
Elbow and wrist extension
Greatest strength gains take place while the muscle is under resistance while doing which of the following? a. Stabilizing b. Lengthening c. Perturbating d. Shortening
Lengthening
What is the most appropriate duration for a static stretching warm-up? a. Correct! This is the recommended acute variables for static stretching. b. Less than or equal to 60 seconds c. 90 seconds or more 6. 180 seconds only
Less than or equal to 60 seconds
What is the recommended number of active movements to include in Step 2 of the myofascial rolling program? a. 1 to 3 b. 2 to 3 c. 4 to 6 d. 7 to 10
4 to 6
At 45 degrees, how many pounds of stress are added to the head? a. 49 pounds b. 60 pounds c. 10-12 pounds d. 40 pounds
49 pounds
What is a potential problem with using a sports ball, such as a lacrosse ball, as a myofascial ball? a. A new user will not be able to apply enough pressure. b. A lacrosse ball may have too much surface area to be effective. c. A new user will have difficulty regulating the pressure applied when rolling some areas. d. A lacrosse ball may be too soft to be effective.
A new user will have difficulty regulating the pressure applied when rolling some areas.
Kaden is a 45-year-old office work just beginning a corrective exercise program. What is an example of a total body primer exercise for more advanced programming in the future? a. Ball squat with overhead press b. Seated overhead press c. Push up d. Barbell squat
Ball squat with overhead press
What is the name given for the wrist bones collectively? a. Carpals b. Tarsals c. Metatarsals d. Metacarpals
Carpals
What is the name given for the wrist bones collectively? a. Tarsals b. Metacarpals c. Carpals d. Metatarsals
Carpals
How can sustained forward head posture also contribute to the development of TMJ (jaw) disorders? a. Promoting underactivity in the suboccipital muscles b. Causing a reduction of force requirements for the jaw muscles c. Causing stabilization of the hyoid bone d. Causing alteration of length-tension relationships in the head and neck
Causing alteration of length-tension relationships in the head and neck
Which term best describes the amount of mobility or motion obtained by the examiner without any assistance by the client? a. Contract-relax motion b. Active motion c. Assisted motion d. Passive motion
Passive motion
Which term best describes the normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allow for the full range of motion of a joint? a. Mobility b. Contractility c. Elasticity d. Flexibility
Flexibility
What strategy can a fitness professional use to improve client self-care adherence? a. Have the client schedule more sessions each week. b. Scold the client for not exercising on their own time. c. Give the client homework related to their fitness program. d. Instruct the client to also see a Licensed Massage Therapist.
Give the client homework related to their fitness program.
The theoretical basis that attempting to strengthen muscles when joint motion restriction is present will provide less-than-optimal results and limited joint ROM comes in part from which of the following? a. Mennell's truisms b. Kendall's postures c. Clark's models d. Janda's syndromes
Mennell's truisms
Which muscle would be considered overactive/shortened, leading to knee dominance during the overhead squat assessment? a. Adductor complex b. Hamstrings complex c. Quadriceps complex d. Gluteus maximus
Quadriceps complex
Recent research has found which of the following regarding the use of wobble boards, soft mats, and air-filled bladders? a. They are ideal for producing strength. b. They may decrease joint stiffness. c. They may increase motor control. d. They are ideal for producing power.
They may increase motor control.
Which muscle would be considered underactive/lengthened, leading to scapular winging during the Davies test? a. Cervical extensors b. Pectoralis minor c. Serratus anterior d. Latissimus dorsi
Serratus anterior
The combination of enhanced motor unit activation, synchronization, and firing rate is known to increase what at that specific muscle? a. Intermuscular coordination b. Strength c. Tenacity d. ROM
Strength
A client presents with excessive wrist flexion during the assessment process. What activity would be a good next choice activity after inhibiting the wrist flexors? a. Inhibit the wrist extensors b. Stretch the wrist extensors c. Stretch the wrist flexors d. Inhibit the triceps
Stretch the wrist flexors
Integration techniques are used to reeducate the Human Movement System back into what type functional movement pattern? a. Length-tension b. Synergistic c. Force-couple d. Cooperative
Synergistic
What is the long-term impact that repeated heavy lifting can have on the kinetic chain? a. Shoulder impingement b. Breathing Pattern Dysfunction c. Overpronation of the feet d. Synergistic dominance
Synergistic dominance
The glenohumeral joint is what type of joint? a. Fibrous b. Fused c. Synovial d. Cartilaginous
Synovial
What best describes a closed-packed position of the shoulder? a. The glenohumeral joint is at 90 degrees of abduction and full external rotation. b. The glenohumeral joint has full internal rotation and 90 degrees of adduction. c. The glenohumeral joint has full internal rotation and adduction. d. The glenohumeral joint is at 90 degrees of abduction and full internal rotation.
The glenohumeral joint is at 90 degrees of abduction and full external rotation.
Which type of movement assessment should always be performed first? a. Static b. Loaded c. Transitional d. Dynamic
Transitional
Which type of movement assessment should always be performed first? a. Transitional b. Loaded c. Dynamic d. Static
Transitional
What ligament creates the carpal tunnel? a. Extensor retinaculum b. Transverse carpal ligament c. Synovium d. Flexor retinaculum
Transverse carpal ligament
Which of the following would be an example of an agonist muscle role? a. The triceps brachii contracting during elbow flexion. b. The hamstrings contracting during hip extension. c. The biceps brachii contracting during elbow flexion. d. The rectus femoris contracting during hip extension.
The biceps brachii contracting during elbow flexion.
What is the recommended verbal instruction when performing the cervical rotation test? a. "Look over shoulder until the ear is in line with the tip of the shoulder." b. "Look over your shoulder and use your hands to apply pressure." c. "Look over your right then left shoulder as far as you comfortably can." d. "Look over shoulder 90 degrees to each side."
"Look over your right then left shoulder as far as you comfortably can."
Which instruction provided to a client would correctly assist them to perform static stretching of their right sternocleidomastoid (SCM)? a. "Place your left arm behind your back and then use your right hand to help move your head backward and upward." b. "Place your left arm to your side, rotate your head to the left, and then use your right hand to help side bend your neck to the right." c. "Place your right arm to your side, rotate your head to the right, and then use your left hand to help side bend your neck to the left." d. "Place your right arm behind your back and then use your left hand to help move your head forward and downward."
"Place your right arm to your side, rotate your head to the right, and then use your left hand to help side bend your neck to the left."
A Corrective Exercise Specialist is recommending the supine chin tuck activation exercise to help address a client's postural abnormality. Which instruction correctly describes how to perform this exercise? a. "Slowly move your head straight back and then immediately move your head back to the start position." b. "Slowly move your head straight back, hold this position for 2 seconds, and then return back to the start position in 4 seconds." c. "Quickly move your head straight back, hold this position for 2 seconds, and then quickly return back to the start position." d. "Slowly move your head straight back, hold this position for 4 seconds, and then return back to the start position in 2 seconds."
"Slowly move your head straight back, hold this position for 2 seconds, and then return back to the start position in 4 seconds."
A corrective exercise client is going to use the myofascial roller to inhibit overactive tissues. What is the recommended length of time to hold direct pressure on a target tissue? a. 90 to 120 seconds b. 2 to 5 minutes c. 70 to 90 seconds d. 30 to 60 seconds
30 to 60 seconds
Intervertebral discs make up what percentage of the height of a healthy spine? a. 25% b. 80% c. 10% d. 50%
25%
What degree of performance impairments are associated with prolonged static stretching in isolation (no dynamic warm-up activities)? a. 1-2% b. 8-10% c. 3-7% d. 15-18%
3-7%
What is the most appropriate duration for a task-specific activities during warm-up? a. Less than or equal to 1 minute per muscle group b. 5 to 15 minutes c. 30 minutes d. Less than or equal to 2 minutes
5 to 15 minutes
In order to satisfy hydration needs, most average exercisers should consume which amount of water before bed and within 1 hour prior to exercise? a. 200 mL (6.8 oz) b. 500 mL (16.9 oz) c. 1000 mL (33.8 oz) d. 1200 mL (40.6 oz)
500 mL (16.9 oz)
What is the minimum typical duration of acute static stretching per muscle group in isolation (no dynamic warm-up activities) that would lead to performance impairments? a. 60 seconds b. 30 seconds c. 120 seconds d. 20 seconds
60 seconds
What percent of ACL ruptures occur during single-foot contact in physical activity secondary to uncontrolled lower extremity biomechanics? a. 70% b. 60% c. 90% d. 50%
70%
What best describes the psycho-physiological concept of stretch tolerance? a. A client can tolerate the maximum amount of discomfort during a prolonged stretch. b. A client can tolerate the level of discomfort during a prolonged stretch. c. A client can tolerate the maximum amount of pain during a dynamic stretching activity d. A client can only tolerate a short duration of stretching due to pain.
A client can tolerate the level of discomfort during a prolonged stretch.
A ligament injury to the acromioclavicular joint is best classified as what? a. GH dislocation b. AC dislocation c. GH separation d. AC separation
AC separation
Which muscles are commonly underactive/lengthened in the Lower Crossed Syndrome? a. Hip flexors, adductors, lumbar extensors, and gastrocnemius b. Gastrocnemius, soleus, adductors, and internal obliques c. Hip flexors, lumbar extensors, gastrocnemius, and soleus d. Abdominals, gluteus maximus, medius, and hip extensors
Abdominals, gluteus maximus, medius, and hip extensors
What position should the shoulder be in when performing the shoulder internal and external rotation test? a. Adducted and bent to 90 degrees b. Adducted and fully extended c. Abducted and bent to 90 degrees d. Abducted and fully extended
Abducted and bent to 90 degrees
During a bench press exercise, which muscle synergy is occurring? a. Activation of the triceps brachii as the agonist with the posterior deltoid and middle trapezius assisting synergistically b. Activation of biceps brachii as the agonist with pectoralis major and anterior deltoid assisting synergistically. c. Activation of the triceps brachii as the agonist with pectoralis major and anterior deltoid assisting synergistically. d. Activation of the pectoralis major as an agonist with the triceps brachii and anterior deltoid assisting synergistically.
Activation of the pectoralis major as an agonist with the triceps brachii and anterior deltoid assisting synergistically
The supraspinatus is responsible for which eccentric action? a. Adduction of the arm b. Shoulder external rotation c. Abduction of the arm d. Stabilizes the shoulder girdle
Adduction of the arm
Which lower-body muscles are commonly overactive in Pes Planus Distortion Syndrome? a. Gluteus maximus, hamstrings, abdominals, internal obliques, and vastus lateralis b. Adductors, iliopsoas, peroneals, gastrocnemius, and soleus c. Hamstrings, gluteus maximus, medius, abdominals, and external obliques d. Abdominals, internal obliques, gluteus minimus and maximus, and tensor fascia lata
Adductors, iliopsoas, peroneals, gastrocnemius, and soleus
How does proprioception influence movement? a. Afferent information from internal feedback is delivered to the central nervous system for use in monitoring and manipulating movement. b. Afferent information from internal feedback is delivered directly to the muscular system to use in monitoring and manipulating movement. c. Afferent information from external feedback is delivered directly to the central nervous system to use in monitoring and manipulating movement. d. Afferent information from external feedback is sent directly to the muscular system for manipulating movement.
Afferent information from internal feedback is delivered to the central nervous system for use in monitoring and manipulating movement.
Which view allows for the optimal assessment of frontal plane movements (adduction and abduction)? a. Anterior b. Posterior c. Lateral d. Top
Anterior
Which is a recommended modification to training if a client has diagnosed plantar fasciitis? a. Immediately incorporate foot strengthening exercises. b. Focus on releasing the anterior muscle group. c. Increase impact-based exercises to strengthen the foot. d. Avoid impact-based exercises and focus on increasing ankle mobility.
Avoid impact-based exercises and focus on increasing ankle mobility.
Overactivity in which muscles contributes to forward head posture? a. Adductor magnus, hamstring complex, and piriformis b. Psoas, TFL, latissimus dorsi, adductors, rectus femoris, and spinal extensor complex c. Cervical extensors, levator scapulae, sternocleidomastoid, upper trapezius d. Levator scapulae, pectoralis minor, and upper trapezius
Cervical extensors, levator scapulae, sternocleidomastoid, upper trapezius
Myofascial rolling is classified as what type of intervention? a. Strengthening b. Therapeutic modality c. Stretching d. Compression
Compression
What type of muscle contractions are common during the jumping phase of the depth jump? a. Eccentric b. Isokinetic c. Isometric d. Concentric
Concentric
What induces reciprocal inhibition in active stretching? a. Contraction of antagonist muscles b. Excitation of agonist muscles c. Inhibit synergist muscles d. Contraction of agonist muscles
Contraction of antagonist muscles
Overhead movements, often used in integrated dynamic movements, standing, unilateral and bilateral exercises, help to place increased stress on what other area? a. Triceps b. Ipsilateral musculature c. Lats d. Core musculature
Core musculature
What position is recommended for the fingers and hands during the thoracic extension test? a. Crossed over the chest b. Crossed in front of chest holding a dowel rod c. Interlocked and outstretched in front of the chest d. Arms down by the sides
Crossed over the chest
Knee injuries often occur during landing and, therefore, it is important to assess if the client lacks musculoskeletal control of the lower extremity during landing if there are no compensations observed during earlier assessment. The depth jump is one such assessment. During a depth jump assessment, most impairments will be observed during what phase? a. Finish/landing b. Deceleration c. Start or take off d. Jump/movement
Deceleration
Polly demonstrates forward head posture during her assessment. Which of her muscles are most likely underactive? a. Suboccipital, levator scapulae, sternocleidomastoid, and upper trapezius b. Deep cervical flexors, lower trapezius, middle trapezius, and rhomboids c. Latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major, pectoralis minor, teres major d. Lower trapezius, middle trapezius, and serratus anterior
Deep cervical flexors, lower trapezius, middle trapezius, and rhomboids
Performing a walking pattern with or without resistance is an example of activation for which subsystem? a. Posterior oblique b. Lateral c. Anterior oblique d. Deep longitudinal
Deep longitudinal
In order to obtain neuromuscular efficiency and optimization of human movement, total-body integrated exercises are called on to provide and control which of the following? a. Degrees of freedom b. Circumduction c. Balance d. Joint ROM
Degrees of freedom
During which phase of the muscle action spectrum are most strength gains developed? a. Eccentric deceleration b. The amortization phase c. Concentric acceleration d. Isometric stabilization
Eccentric deceleration
Which type of exercises are the "gold standard" for Achilles tendinopathy? a. Concentric b. Eccentrics c. Isometrics d. High intensity intervals
Eccentrics
Scott demonstrates an excessive posterior pelvic tilt during the overhead squat assessment. Which of the following would be the most appropriate muscle to activate? a. Hamstrings complex b. Abdominal complex c. Adductor magnus d. Erector spinae
Erector spinae
Through which movement does the subtalar joint load or absorb energy? a. Eversion b. Abduction c. Dorsiflexion d. Inversion
Eversion
The Kendall kyphosis-lordosis posture presents with which of the following static positions in the lower body? a. Excessive lumbar lordosis, anterior tilted pelvis, flexed hips, and flexed/hyperextended knees b. Decreased lumbar lordosis, extended hips, extended knees, and dorsiflexed ankles c. Lateral thoracic shift, decreased lumbar lordosis, posterior pelvic tilt, and extended knees d. Posterior tilted pelvis, decreased lumbar lordosis, extended knees, and dorsiflexed ankles
Excessive lumbar lordosis, anterior tilted pelvis, flexed hips, and flexed/hyperextended knees
Lengthening of the biceps is most effective with which shoulder position? a. External rotation b. Extension c. Flexion d. Internal rotation
Extension
According to the Screw-Home Mechanism, in an open-chain position and as the knee extends, what action best describes the motion of the tibia on the femur during the last 30 degrees? a. Flexion b. Internal rotation c. Abduction d. External rotation
External rotation
When should the static posture assessment be conducted during an objective assessment session with a client? a. First b. Second c. Third d. Fourth
First
What three methods can be used to deliver optimal movement strategies to different types of clients? a. Informal subjective assessments, explaining "incorrect movement", and using random online exercise routines. b. Performance testing, maximal strength testing, and core strengthening programs. c. Formal assessment sessions, a "feels right" strategy, and pre-formatted routines that are effective for the general population. d. Movement based testing, clinical gait analysis, and sports performance testing.
Formal assessment sessions, a "feels right" strategy, and pre-formatted routines that are effective for the general population.
The Kendall sway-back posture presents with which of the following static positions in the upper body? a. Tilted head, flexed cervical spine, and flat upper thoracic spine b. Neutral head, extended lumbar spine, and lateral thoracic shift c. Neutral head, neutral cervical spine, and flat thoracic spine d. Forward head, extended cervical spine, and excessive thoracic kyphosis
Forward head, extended cervical spine, and excessive thoracic kyphosis
What should the fitness professional do when they first observe movement compensations during integrated movement in order to allow the athlete to cognitively process proper form? a. Stop the exercise b. Give verbal cues c. Decrease the load to require less from the muscles d. Increase the load to demand more from the muscles
Give verbal cues
Which muscle would be considered underactive/lengthened, leading to knee dominance during the split squat assessment? a. Quadriceps complex b. Gluteus medius c. Adductor complex d. Gluteus maximus
Gluteus maximus
Weaknesses in which muscle may allow over-pronation deviations in subtalar joint motion during gait? a. Gluteus medius b. Adductor complex c. Peroneus longus d. Quadriceps
Gluteus medius
Matt presented with a knee valgus compensation that did not improve with a heel lift on the overhead squat assessment. What two muscles should be addressed as a key part of the activation exercises of Matt's corrective exercise program? a. Gastrocnemius and soleus b. Gluteus medius and gluteus maximus c. TFL/IT band d. Biceps femoris
Gluteus medius and gluteus maximus
Pain on the inside of the elbow may be a symptom of what condition? a. Golfer's elbow b. Tennis elbow c. Bicep tendinopathy d. Tricep tendinopathy
Golfer's elbow
Which activities are most commonly related to habitual repetitive movement? a. Spraining an ankle while running. b. Golfing multiple days per week. c. Having an appendix removed. d. Sitting at a desk every day.
Golfing multiple days per week
Which best describes the testing leg starting position during the active knee extension test? a. Hip fully extended with knee straight b. Neutral hip with knee bent to 90 degrees c. Hip flexed to 90 degrees with knee bent to 90 degrees d. Hip flexed to 90 degrees with knee straight or at 0 degrees
Hip flexed to 90 degrees with knee bent to 90 degrees
Which best describes the testing leg starting positon during the active knee extension test? a. Neutral hip with knee bent to 90 degrees b. Hip flexed to 90 degrees with knee straight or at 0 degrees c. Hip flexed to 90 degrees with knee bent to 90 degrees d. Hip fully extended with knee straight
Hip flexed to 90 degrees with knee bent to 90 degrees
Foam rolling the posterior adductor magnus and hamstring complex helps to reduce tension in the tissues allowing for appropriate levels of which joint action to be achieved? a. Knee flexion b. Hip extension c. Hip flexion d. Hip adduction
Hip flexion
Which lower-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall lordotic posture? a. Vastus medialis, gluteus maximus, and minimus b. Hip flexors, lumbar extensors, and internal obliques (upper) c. Gluteus maximus, adductors, and peroneals d. Gluteus maximus, hamstrings, and adductors
Hip flexors, lumbar extensors, and internal obliques (upper)
What common knee injury results from overuse and is usually caused by muscle weakness in the kinetic chain and is commonly seen in runners? a. IT Band Syndrome b. Patellofemoral Syndrome c. ACL injury d. Patellar tendinopathy
IT Band Syndrome
Why might a fitness professional choose to use ankle mobility screening on a client? a. If the client demonstrates excessive forward lean that was not corrected by the heels elevated modification b. If the client demonstrates the arms falling forward c. If the client demonstrates feet turning out that was corrected by the heels elevated modification d. If the client explains they have a history of calf tightness
If the client demonstrates feet turning out that was corrected by the heels elevated modification
Can fitness professionals administer Instrument-Assisted Soft Tissue Mobilization to their clients? a. Fitness professionals can use IASTM as long a they are certified as a personal trainer. b. In general, IASTM is a specialized treatment conducted by a trained healthcare professional. c. Fitness professionals can use IASTM as long as the client provides verbal consent. d. In general, fitness professionals can administer IASTM as long as they have supervisor approval at their facility.
In general, IASTM is a specialized treatment conducted by a trained healthcare professional.
Georgia has completed Phases 1 and 2 of the Corrective Exercise Continuum for forward head posture. Which of the following is most appropriate activation exercise for her? a. Squat to row b. Ball roll-outs c. Incline dumbbell scaption d. Ball combo 1
Incline dumbbell scaption
Which group of muscles in the feet are considered stabilizers? a. Extrinsic muscles b. External muscles c. Invertor muscles d. Intrinsic muscles
Intrinsic muscles
Which is an abnormal movement associated with a seven-fold increase in ankle sprains? a. Increased spinal rigidity b. Increased knee flexion movement c. Increased postural sway d. Increased knee extension movement
Increased postural sway
Which lower-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall sway-back posture? a. Intercostals, abdominals, internal obliques, and hip extensors b. Gluteus medius, adductors, and quadriceps c. Gluteus maximus, transversus abdominis, and rectus abdominis d. Lumbar extensors, hip flexors, quads, and adductors
Intercostals, abdominals, internal obliques, and hip extensors
Which of the following describes the ability of different muscles in the body to work together to allow coordination of global and refined movements? a. Total body coordination b. Intermuscular coordination c. Intramuscular coordination d. Multiplanar coordination
Intermuscular coordination
Which lower-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall kyphosis-lordosis posture? a. Quadriceps, hamstrings, and gluteus maximus b. Abdominals, gluteus maximus, medius, and hip extensors c. Hip extensors, tibialis posterior, and gluteus minimus d. Internal obliques, hip flexors, and lumbar extensors
Internal obliques, hip flexors, and lumbar extensors
Isolated strengthening is a technique used to increase what? a. Intramuscular coordination b. Extensibiility c. Synergistic dominance d. Activation
Intramuscular coordination
Peter, a Corrective Exercise Specialist, has completed his assessment of a new client who demonstrated non-neutral wrist during her assessment. He's completed Phases 1-3 of the Corrective Exercise Continuum, what should be his next exercise with his client? a. Seated dumbbell wrist flexion b. Inverted row c. Standing triceps push down d. Military shoulder press
Inverted row
What type of myofascial intervention is Instrument-Assisted Soft Tissue Mobilization? a. It is a type of stretching technique that improves myofascial mobility. b. It is a myofascial technique that is considered part of acupuncture and cupping. c. It is a type of myofascial rolling technique administered by the fitness professional. d. It is a specialized technique that uses instruments to provide a mobilizing effect on the myofascia.
It is a specialized technique that uses instruments to provide a mobilizing effect on the myofascia.
Which statement most accurately defines an informed consent agreement with a corrective exercise client? a. It outlines the procedures and actions professionals are permitted to administer in accordance with the law. b. It outlines general information and associated risks involved with the corrective exercise process. c. It is a questionnaire used to help determine if a person is ready to undertake an increase in physical activity. d. It is a series of subjective questions that relate to lifestyle, occupation, and past medical history.
It outlines general information and associated risks involved with the corrective exercise process.
Which movement impairment is characterized by an upright trunk and more knee flexion excursion than hip flexion excursion? a. Knee dominance b. Excessive anterior pelvic tilt c. Knee varus d. Knee valgus
Knee dominance
Decreased abdominal core neuromuscular control may contribute to which of the following positions of the lower extremity, which can lead to increased risk of knee injuries? a. Knee hyperextension b. Knee varus c. Knee valgus d. Knee hypoextension
Knee valgus
Weakness of the external rotators of the LPHC will result in synergistic dominance of the TFL and adductors resulting in what observed compensation at the knee? a. Knee valgus b. Knee dominance c. Extension d. Knee varus
Knee valgus
What is the key compensation to look for during a single-leg squat assessment? a. Knee varus b. Knee dominance c. Knee valgus d. Hyperextension
Knee valgus
During a movement assessment, if the foot over-supinates, what compensation would one observe? a. Knee valgus b. Knee varus c. Knee dominance d. Hyperextension
Knee varus
Which best describes the recommended knee position during the lumbar flexion test? a. Knees completely flexed b. Knees slightly flexed c. Knees in a comfortable position d. Knees straight
Knees straight
What term is used to describe the form of feedback whereby a fitness professional notes abnormal movement during a squat and asks the client if they felt or saw anything abnormal? a. Sensorimotor integration b. Knowledge of results c. Knowledge of performance d. Internal feedback
Knowledge of performance
Most ankle sprains occur at which aspect of the ankle? a. Medial b. Lateral c. Posterior d. Anterior
Lateral
Which of the following tissues that surround the spine limit intersegmental motion, maintain the integrity of the lumbar spine, and may fail when proper motion cannot be created, proper posture cannot be maintained, or excessive motion cannot be resisted by the surrounding musculature? a. Ligaments b. Muscles c. Laminar groove d. Tendons
Ligaments
What are the two scientific theories behind myofascial rolling? a. Break myofascial adhesions and relax the muscle. b. Local mechanical and neurophysiological effect c. Reduce myofascial restriction and improve "stretch tolerance." d. Local blood flow changes and decreased pain
Local mechanical and neurophysiological effect
What type of stretching can lead to decreased incidences of muscle and tendon injury? a. Short-term static stretching b. Long-term static stretching c. Short-term neuromuscular stretching d. Long-term dynamic stretching
Long-term static stretching
Which are the four dysfunctional spinal postures identified by Kendall? a. Lordotic, flat-back, sway-back, and kyphosis-lordosis b. Upper Crossed Syndrome, Lower Crossed Syndrome, and kyphosis-lordosis c. Kyphosis-lordosis, Layered Crossed Syndrome, and text neck d. Sway-back, lordotic, and Upper Crossed Syndrome
Lordotic, flat-back, sway-back, and kyphosis-lordosis
Which are the four dysfunctional spinal postures identified by Kendall? a. Sway-back, lordotic, and Upper Crossed Syndrome b. Upper Crossed Syndrome, Lower Crossed Syndrome, and kyphosis-lordosis c. Kyphosis-lordosis, Layered Crossed Syndrome, and text neck d. Lordotic, flat-back, sway-back, and kyphosis-lordosis
Lordotic, flat-back, sway-back, and kyphosis-lordosis
Subjects with which of the following issues have been reported to demonstrate impaired postural control, delayed muscle relaxation, abnormal muscle recruitment patterns, and notably diminished transverse abdominis and multifidus activation? a. Low back pain b. Anterior pelvic tilt c. Herniated disc d. Posterior pelvic tilt
Low back pain
In an OHSA, tightness in hip flexors, erector spinae, and latissimus dorsi will most likely contribute to which movement dysfunction? a. Knees cave in b. Excessive forward lean c. Low-back arch d. Feet turn out
Low-back arch
Low sets and relatively light weights are needed to allow for the slow tempo and high repetition range to provide mild stress to specific areas of the body that benefit from regular activations with which of the following intensities? a. High-level activations b. Moderate-level activations c. Beginner-level activations d. Low-level activations
Low-level activations
Medial tibial stress syndrome typically presents on which aspect of the tibia? a. Center of the medial tibia b. Lower 1/3 of the medial tibia c. Lower 1/3 of the lateral tibia d Upper 1/3 of the medial tibia
Lower 1/3 of the medial tibia
Which of the Janda syndromes has both an A and B designation? a. Lower Crossed Syndrome b. Pes Planus Distortion Syndrome c. Upper Crossed Syndrome d. Layered Crossed Syndrome
Lower Crossed Syndrome
Which muscle would be considered underactive/lengthened, leading to the arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment? a. Upper trapezius b. Cervical extensors c. Latissimus dorsi d. Lower trapezius
Lower trapezius
When screening the lumbo-pelvic hip complex, which tests should the fitness professional begin with? a. Active knee flexion test b. Lumbar flexion and extension c. Modified Thomas test d. Thoracic extension test
Lumbar flexion and extension
What is the recommended client position when performing the passive hip internal rotation test? a. Standing with knees straight and feet shoulder-width apart b. Lying prone on the table with legs together c. Lying supine on a table d. Standing with knees straight and feet in a comfortable position
Lying prone on the table with legs together
A client presents with the Janda Upper Crossed Syndrome. Which muscles are commonly underactive/lengthened? a. Pectorals, biceps, triceps, and levator scapulae b. Middle and lower trapezius, rhomboids, and serratus anterior c. Pectorals, scalenes, cervical extensors, and biceps d. Pectorals, upper trapezius, levator scapulae, and cervical extensors
Middle and lower trapezius, rhomboids, and serratus anterior
A client has shown dysfunction on a static assessment of the elbow. What would the next reasonable step in the assessment processbe? a. Mobility assessment of the elbow and wrist b. Shoulder press c. Refer the client out for additional testing d. Loaded movement assessment of the elbow and wrist
Mobility assessment of the elbow and wrist
Which of the following is defined as the inability to move a joint through what should be its full range of motion? a. Movement impairment b. Mobility restriction c. Synergistic dominance d. Relative flexibility
Mobility restriction
During a session, a Corrective Exercise Specialist notices hyperkyphosis of the thoracic spine. What technique would improve the resultant neck and shoulder position? a. Subscapularis/teres major isolated strengthening b. Bench press c. Push-ups d. Mobilize the thoracic spine with a foam roller and stretch the pectoralis group.
Mobilize the thoracic spine with a foam roller and stretch the pectoralis group.
A client demonstrates a knee dominance compensation. The observed compensation did not improve with OHS with heel lift. What mobility test will the fitness professional use to test the hip flexors? a. Adductor test b. Modified Thomas test c. Prone knee flexion test d. Active knee extension test
Modified Thomas test
What term is used to describe how the CNS integrates sensory information with previous experiences? a. Motor learning b. Motor control c. Motor behavior d. Motor development
Motor control
What is practiced with limited resistance with slow tempos and high repetitions so that the client can modify and rehearse quality movement? a. Movement efficiency b. Muscular efficiency c. Postural efficiency d. Structural efficiency
Movement efficiency
Which internal tissue or structure can get irritated and lead to pain when herniated discs press against it? a. Intervertebral disc b. Nerve c. Foramen d. Spine
Nerve
What type of stretching is also known as PNF? a. Dynamic b. Static c. Ballistic d. Neuromuscular
Neuromuscular
What is the anatomic action of the longus capitus and longus colli muscles? a. Rotation of the cervical spine b. Extension of the cervical spine c. Nodding of the chin d. Sidebending of the cervical spine
Nodding of the chin
"Weightlifter's shoulder" is a term associated with what clinical presentation? a. Tendinopathy of the rotator cuff b. Dislocation of the GH during bench press c. Osteoarthritis of the AC joint d. Osteoarthritis of the GH joint
Osteoarthritis of the AC joint
Orthotics are typically used to control which foot type? a. Any foot types b. Over-pronated c. Over-supinated d. Neutral foot
Over-pronated
If a client has a history of ankle sprains, which assessment can be used to determine if this has negatively influenced gluteal strength? a. Overhead squat b. Static LPHC posture with feet shoulder-width apart c. Manual muscle test of the hamstrings d. Ankle mobility
Overhead squat
Limited dynamic postural control, core muscle strength, and core muscle endurance are all significant risk factors for the developmentof which type of injury in the lower extremity? a. Overuse b. Atrophy c. Inflammatory d. Compression
Overuse
Knee valgus and varus, an increased Q angle, poor quadriceps and hamstrings flexibility, poor eccentric deceleration capabilities, and playing on hard surfaces are all risk factors for developing what common knee injury? a. Patellofemoral Syndrome b. Patellar tendinopathy c. ACL injury d. IT Band Syndrome
Patellar tendinopathy
Which upper-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall flat-back posture? a. Pectoralis minor, shoulder adductors, upper trapezius, and levator scapulae b. Middle trapezius, biceps, forearm flexors, and lower trapezius c. Rhomboids, scalenes, biceps, and triceps d. Middle trapezius, rhomboids, deltoids, and biceps
Pectoralis minor, shoulder adductors, upper trapezius, and levator scapulae
When one or both ilia are irregularly rotated, showing altered movement in the Human Movement System during standing or sitting, it is referred to as which of the following? a. Anterior rotation b. Pelvic asymmetry c. Posterior rotation d. Lateral tilt
Pelvic asymmetry
What reflex is directly influenced by forward head posture? a. Knee jerk reflex b. Stretch reflex c. Flexor reflex d. Pelvo-ocular reflex
Pelvo-ocular reflex
Which of the following best describes how to introduce tissue movement with the myofascial roller? a. Perform passive movements such as trainer assisted flexion/extension while maintaining pressure. b. Roll in a slow continuous motion for 60 seconds. c. Perform active movements such as flexion/extension while maintaining pressure. d. Perform quick active movements while continuously rolling back and forth on the target tissue.
Perform active movements such as flexion/extension while maintaining pressure.
What should a fitness professional do to attempt to identify a potential root cause of the primary movement impairment in the foot and ankle? a. Ask the client where they feel tension. b. Perform the heels elevated overhead squat modification. c. Allow the client to squat in whatever is a comfortable position. d. Move directly into mobility assessments.
Perform the heels elevated overhead squat modification.
According to recent research, which of the following may lead to increased core activation during a plank? a. Retracting and depressing the shoulder blades b. Performing a posterior pelvic tilt c. Relaxing the hip musculature d. Isometric ankle plantarflexion
Performing a posterior pelvic tilt
Which muscle is the most appropriate to static stretch for the client who demonstrates over-pronation in the overhead squat? a. Peroneus longus b. Anterior tibialis c. Gluteus medius d. Rectus femoris
Peroneus longus
Pes Planus Distortion Syndrome can lead to the following injuries? a. Metatarsal stress fractures, femur fractures, and quadriceps strains b. Hip bursitis, hamstring strains, Achilles tendonitis, and ankle arthritis c. Plantar fasciitis, medial tibial stress syndrome (shin splints), patellar tendonitis, and low-back pain d. Hip flexor strain, IT band friction syndrome, hamstring strains, and Achilles tendonitis
Plantar fasciitis, medial tibial stress syndrome (shin splints), patellar tendonitis, and low-back pain
Which muscle would be considered underactive/lengthened, leading to excessive pronation during the overhead squat assessment? a. Posterior tibialis b. TFL c. Peroneals complex d. Hamstrings complex
Posterior tibialis
Activation exercises may not be considered normal but are designed to provide isolated strengthening to specific muscles prior to moving into an integrated movement pattern by placing joints in the best position for which of the following? a. Positional activation b. Preferential activation c. Ideal activation d. Isometric activation
Preferential activation
How does the concept of tissue creep related to stretching? a. Short-term stretching can lead to a 2 month length change in muscles and tendons. b. Prolonged stretching can lead to a 1 month length change in muscles and tendons. c. Prolonged stretching can lead to a permanent length change in muscles and tendons. d. Short-term stretching can lead to a permanent length change in muscles and tendons.
Prolonged stretching can lead to a permanent length change in muscles and tendons.
What is the most appropriate muscle to inhibit if a client demonstrates heel rise during assessment? a. Anterior tibialis b. TFL c. Quadriceps d. Gluteus medius
Quadriceps
Which muscle would be considered overactive/shortened, leading to a heel rise during the overhead squat assessment? a. Gluteus maximus b. Anterior tibialis c. Quadriceps complex d. Fibularis (peroneal) complex
Quadriceps complex
De Quervain's Tenosynovitis affects which part of the hand? a. Radial side of the hand b. Ulna side c. Palmar side d. Dorsal side
Radial side of the hand
Which muscle is thought to be overactive/shortened if the client demonstrates knee extension during the modified Thomas test? a. TFL b. Psoas c. Rectus femoris d. Biceps femoris
Rectus femoris
The Kendall flat-back posture presents with which of the following static positions in the lower body? a. Excessive lumbar lordosis, tilted pelvis, and internally rotated hips and knees b. Excessive lumbar shift, anterior pelvic tilt, flexed hips, and valgus knees c. Reduced lumbar lordosis, posterior tilted pelvis, and extended hips and knees d. Excessive lumbar lordosis, anterior tilted pelvis, and flexed hips and knees
Reduced lumbar lordosis, posterior tilted pelvis, and extended hips and knees
Recent research pointed out that potential precautions and contraindications for myofascial rolling have not been thoroughly documented. Therefore, precautions and contraindications have been taken from which of the following? a. Related myofascial therapies b. Leading medical textbooks c. Leading medical experts d. Myofascial rolling literature specific to the medical profession
Related myofascial therapies
Dysfunction in intrinsic core stabilizers (transverse abdominis and multifidus) can result in which of the following? a. SIJ instability and low back pain b. Increased intersegmental stability c. Reduced force generation during movement d. Reduced ability to transfer forces from the lower extremity to the lumbo pelvic region
SIJ instability and low back pain
An over-supinated/inverted foot typically presents as which of the following? a. Hypermobile b. Unstable c. Rigid d. Neutral
Rigid
A client presents with excessive elbow flexion during the assessment process. What activity would be a good choice to start the corrective exercise process? a. Lengthen the triceps b. Isolate the wrist flexors c. SMR the bicep brachii and brachialis d. SMR the wrist extensors
SMR the bicep brachii and brachialis
What are the common neurophysiological mechanisms of myofascial rolling that result in decreased pain? a. Roller pressure may create greater myofascial relaxation or "stretch tolerance" through central nervous system (CNS) afferentinput from the Golgi tendon reflex, gamma loop modulation, and mechanoreceptors. b. Roller pressure may increase viscosity, create myofascial restriction, increase pain, and increase cellular responses. c. Roller pressure may increase viscosity, decrease pain, increase myofascial restriction, and decrease fluid changes. d. Roller pressure may modulate pain through stimulation of muscle and cutaneous receptors, afferent central nociceptivepathways (gate theory of pain), and descending anti-nociceptive pathways (diffuse noxious inhibitory control)
Roller pressure may modulate pain through stimulation of muscle and cutaneous receptors, afferent central nociceptivepathways (gate theory of pain), and descending anti-nociceptive pathways (diffuse noxious inhibitory control)
What is the recommended order of progressions when considering planes of motion? a. Sagittal > Frontal > Transverse b. Frontal > Transverse > Sagittal c. Sagittal > Scapular > Rotational d. Transverse > Sagittal > Frontal
Sagittal > Frontal > Transverse
Through which plane and motion does the talocrural joint move? a. Sagittal; dorsiflexion and plantar flexion b. Sagittal; rotation c. Transverse; rotation d. Frontal; dorsiflexion and plantar flexion
Sagittal; dorsiflexion and plantar flexion
The acromion is part of which bony structure? a. Infraspinatus fossa b. Coracoid c. Scapula d. Glenohumeral joint
Scapula
Which position should a client be in to perform the cervical flexion and extension test? a. Side lying b. Supine c. Seated d. Prone
Seated
Which is a common cause of limited ankle dorsiflexion? a. Short/overactive quadriceps b. Short/overactive plantar flexors c. Short/overactive tibialis anterior d. Short/overactive hamstrings
Short/overactive plantar flexors
A client shows her fitness professional a sports drink with a particularly high carbohydrate content and asks about the optimal amountof carbohydrates these drinks should have. What advice should be recommended? a. Sports drinks should contain 15% to 30% carbohydrate solution. b. Sports drinks should contain 35% to 50% carbohydrate solution. c. Sports drinks should contain 50 to 65% carbohydrate solution. d. Sports drinks should contain 6% to 8% carbohydrate solution.
Sports drinks should contain 6% to 8% carbohydrate solution.
When performing a static postural assessment on a client, the fitness professional notes that the client demonstrates a forward head posture. What muscle group is most likely shortened and overactive? a. Suboccipitals b. Thoracic erector spinae c. Rhomboids d. Deep cervical flexors
Suboccipitals
Javier demonstrates knee valgus during his assessment. Which of the following muscles should be inhibited? a. TFL b. Gluteus medius c. Piriformis d. Gluteus maximus
TFL
What is the most appropriate term for a overuse injury to a tendon? a. Strain b. Tendinitis c. Tendinopathy d. Sprain
Tendinopathy
What would occur if the resting length of a muscle is shorter than it should be? a. The amount of available actin on myosin cross-bridging is reduced. b. The amount of available actin on myosin cross-bridging is increased. c. Force output is increased. d. Length tension relationships will be normal.
The amount of available actin on myosin cross-bridging is reduced.
Where is the hyoid bone located in the cervical spine? a. The posterior neck in a muscular sling. b. Between C3 and C4 c. The throat d. The anterior neck in a muscular sling.
The anterior neck in a muscular sling.
What should the client do with the non-testing leg during the modified Thomas test? a. The client holds the knee so the hip and knee are at 90 degrees. b. The client holds their chest, putting the non-test hip in maximal extension. c. The client holds the knee to their chest, putting the non-test hip in maximal flexion. d. The client holds the knee so the hip and knee are flexed to 120 degrees.
The client holds the knee to their chest, putting the non-test hip in maximal flexion.
During the static postural assessment, a client demonstrates forward head posture. What compensation in the cervical spine is mostlikely to occur when this individual performs an overhead squat? a. The client's upper CS will flex and their lower CS will flex. b. The client's upper CS will rotate and their lower CS will hyperextend. c. The client's upper CS will hyperextend and their lower CS will flex. d. The client's upper CS will sidebend and their lower CS will hyperextend.
The client's upper CS will hyperextend and their lower CS will flex.
What compensatory movement pattern is termed knee valgus? a. An upright trunk and knees in front of toes. b. The hip shifting toward one side or the other. c. The knees collapsing inward. d. The knees bowing outward.
The knees collapsing inward.
Which of the following is an example of a stabilizing muscle role? a. The muscle of the rotator cuff contracting along with the deltoids during an overhead shoulder press. b. The gluteus maximus contracting during hip extension. c. The rectus femoris contracting during hip extension. d. The triceps brachii contracting along with the pectoralis major during a bench press movement.
The muscle of the rotator cuff contracting along with the deltoids during an overhead shoulder press
What muscle changes may occur as a result of a chronically inhibited neural drive? a. Force production is increased as a result of the inhibited muscle being overactive. b. The muscle on the opposing side of the joint would pull it into a shortened state. c. Force production is reduced as a result of the inhibited muscle being overactive. d. The muscle on the opposing side of the joint would pull it into a lengthened state.
The muscle on the opposing side of the joint would pull it into a lengthened state.
What compensatory movements create an excessive posterior pelvic tilt? a. The pelvis rolling forward and lumbar extension. b. The knees bowing outward. c. The pelvis rolling backward and lumbar flexion. d. An upright trunk and knees in front of toes.
The pelvis rolling backward and lumbar flexion.
Why is a textured myofascial roller theorized to be more effective than a flat myofascial roller? a. The texture roller exerts significantly more pressure to the tissue than a smooth one. b. The textured roller may roll quicker and may be generating more friction than a smooth roller. c. The textured roller was no different than the smooth roller. d. The textured roller may distort or "move" the tissues more than a smooth roller.
The textured roller may distort or "move" the tissues more than a smooth roller.
What is an important consideration regarding the "ideal amount of pressure" needed for a positive response? a. The user's goals. b. How much pressure the user believes they can tolerate. c. The user's experience with myofascial rolling. d. The user should take as much pressure as tolerable.
The user's experience with myofascial rolling.
What is the most appropriate duration for a dynamic stretching warm-up? a. 30 seconds to 1 minute b. Less than or equal to 60 seconds c. Up to 90 seconds d. Less than or equal to 30 seconds
Up to 90 seconds
Which muscle would be considered overactive/shortened, leading to scapular elevation during a loaded pulling movement? a. Upper trapezius b. Latissimus dorsi c. Lower trapezius d. Infraspinatus
Upper trapezius
If a client demonstrates feet turn out during the overhead squat assessment that was corrected with the heels elevated modification, what is the most appropriate next step? a. Supine FABER test b. Knee flexion test c. Weight-bearing lunge test d. Ankle plantarflexion test
Weight-bearing lunge test
If a client demonstrates feet turn out during the overhead squat assessment that was corrected with the heels elevated modification,what is the most appropriate next step? a. Supine FABER test b. Weight-bearing lunge test c. Ankle plantar flexion test d. Knee flexion test
Weight-bearing lunge test
If wrist extension is limited with elbow flexion, one can assume the limitation is coming from which structure(s)? a. Wrist joint b. Brachialis c. Biceps brachii d. Triceps
Wrist joint