NCLEX Cancer of the Reproductive system

For a female client with newly diagnosed cancer, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Anxiety related to the threat of death secondary to cancer diagnosis. Which expected outcome would be appropriate for this client? A. "Client verbalizes feelings of anxiety." B. "Client doesn't guess at prognosis." C. "Client uses any effective method to reduce tension." D. "Client stops seeking information."

Answer: A Rationale: Verbalizing feelings are the client's first step in coping with the situational crisis. It also helps the health care team gain insight into the client's feelings, helping guide psychosocial care. Suppressing speculation may prevent the client from coming to terms with the crisis and planning accordingly. Some methods of reducing tension, such as illicit drug or alcohol use, may prevent the client from coming to terms with the threat of death as well as cause physiologic harm. Seeking information can help a client with cancer gain a sense of control over the crisis

The nurse is visiting a patient receiving radiation therapy. Which of the following statements is incorrect and requires additional teaching? A: "I may lose the ability to sweat" B: "To keep the radiation from burning my skin, I will use lotion" C: "I need to check my mouth frequently for signs of irritation" D: "During radiation therapy, I may lose some of my hair and foods may not taste right"

Answer: B: "To keep the radiation from burning my skin, I will use lotion" Rationale: Skin products must be prescribed by the physician because they can irritate the skin

A hospitalized client with an internal radiation implant calls the nurse to the room to report the implant is dislodged and is lying in the bed. The nurse's actions would include which of the following? A: Apply gloves and place implant in a biohazard bag B: Use long-handled forceps to pick up the implant and place it into lead container C: Have client pick up the implant and place it into lead container D: Notify infection control personnel to dispose of implant

Answer: B: Use long-handled forceps to pick up the implant and place it into lead container Rationale: Direct handling of the implant causes exposure to radiation and no one should directly touch the implant. Gloves and biohazard bags do not offer protection from radiation. Long-handled forceps should be used to pick up the implant and lead containers are necessary to prevent exposure to radiation.

A 58 year old female is concerned about her risk for developing breast cancer. She began menarche at age 14, had 3 children before the age of 35, went through menopause at age 50 with an associated weight gain of 20 lbs. Which of the risk factors would contribute to this client's risk of developing breast cancer? A. menarche at age 14 B. children before the age of 35 C. postmenopausal obesity D. menopause at age 50

Answer: C Rationale: Postmenopausal obesity is a risk factor for developing breast cancer

10. What would be most important for the nurse to teach the patient to protect themselves from infection? A) Avoiding crowds and taking antipyretics such as Aspirin TID to avoid a fever. B) Assessing their vital signs weekly and reporting a persistent fever of 102 degrees or greater. C) Bathing daily and washing their hands frequently, especially after using restroom or handling contaminated objects. D) Interacting only with individuals who have recently been vaccinated with live or attenuated vaccines.

Answer: C - Bathing daily and washing their hands frequently, especially after using restroom or handling contaminated objects.

The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the surgical unit following a right modified radical mastectomy. The nurse includes which of the following in the nursing plan of care? A. Take blood pressure in the right arm only. B. Draw serum laboratory samples from the right arm only. C. Position the client supine with the right arm elevated on a pillow. D. Check the right posterior axilla area when assessing the surgical dressing.

Answer: D Rationale: If there is drainage or bleeding from the surgical site after a mastectomy, gravity will cause the drainage to seep down and soak the posterior axillary portion of the drainage first. The nurse checks this area to detect early bleeding. The patient should be positioned with the head of the bed in semi-Fowler's position and the arm elevated on pillows to decrease edema. Edema is likely to occur because lymph drainage channels have been resected during the surgical procedure. Blood pressure management, venipuncture, and intra-venous sites should not involve use of the operative arm.

The community health nurse is instructing a group of young female clients bout breast self-examination. The nurse should instruct the clients to perform the examination at which time? A. At the onset of menstruation B. Every month during ovulation C. Weekly at the same time of day D. 1 week after menstruation begins

Answer: D Rationale: The breast self-examination should be performed monthly, 7 days after the onset of the menstrual period. Performing the examination weekly is not recommended. At the onset of menstruation and during ovulation, hormonal changes occur that may alter breast tissue.

The nurse is caring for a patient suffering from anorexia secondary to chemotherapy. Which of the following strategies would be most appropriate for the nurse to use to increase the patient's nutritional intake? A) Increase intake of liquids at mealtime to stimulate appetite. B) Serve three large meals per day plus snacks between each meal C) Avoid the use of liquid protein supplements to encourage eating at mealtime D) Add items such as skim milk powder, cheese, honey, or peanut butter to selected foods

Answer: D - Add items such as skim milk powder, cheese, honey, or peanut butter to selected foods.

A 22 year old client asks about the purpose of the HPV vaccine (Gardasil). What is an appropriate nursing explanation? A. It is to lower the risk of contracting melanoma. B. It is a vaccine that prevents infection by all strains of HPV. C. The vaccine treats infections of HPV. D. The vaccine can lower the risk of cervical cancer.

Answer: D. The vaccine can lower the risk of cervical cancer. Rationale: The HPV vaccine can prevent infection by certain strains of HPV, not all strains. It is useful in that it can lower the risk of developing cervical cancer. It does not treat preexisting infection, but can prevent infection by other types.

8. The nurse is teaching a postmenopausal patient with breast cancer about the expected outcomes of her cancer treatment. The nurse evaluates that the teaching has been effective when the patient says a. "After cancer has not recurred for 5 years, it is considered cured." b. "I will need to have follow-up examinations for many years after I have treatment before I can be considered cured." c. "Cancer is considered cured if the entire tumor is surgically removed." d. "Cancer is never considered cured, but the tumor can be controlled with surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation." .

B Rationale: The risk of recurrence varies by the type of cancer; for breast cancer in postmenopausal women, the patient needs at least 20 disease-free years to be considered cured. Some cancers (e.g., leukemia) are cured by nonsurgical therapies such as radiation and chemotherapy

10. External-beam radiation is planned for a patient with endometrial cancer. The nurse teaches the patient that an important measure to prevent complications from the effects of the radiation is to a. test all stools for the presence of blood. b. inspect the mouth and throat daily for the appearance of thrush. c. perform perianal care with sitz baths and meticulous cleaning. d. maintain a high-residue, high-fat diet.

C Rationale: Radiation to the abdomen will affect organs in the radiation path, such as the bowel, and cause frequent diarrhea. Stools are likely to have occult blood from the inflammation associated with radiation, so routine testing of stools for blood is not indicated. Radiation to the abdomen will not cause stomatitis. A low-residue diet is recommended to avoid irritation of the bowel when patients receive abdominal radiation.

12. A patient with Hodgkin's lymphoma is undergoing external radiation therapy on an outpatient basis. After 2 weeks of treatment, the patient tells the nurse, "I am so tired I can hardly get out of bed in the morning." An appropriate intervention for the nurse to plan with the patient is to a. exercise vigorously when fatigue is not as noticeable. b. consult with a psychiatrist for treatment of depression. c. establish a time to take a short walk every day. d. maintain bed rest until the treatment is completed.

C Rationale: Walking programs are used to keep the patient active without excessive fatigue. Vigorous exercise when the patient is less tired may lead to increased fatigue. Fatigue is expected during treatment and is not an indication of depression. Bed rest will lead to weakness and other complications of immobility.

6. When reviewing the chart for a patient with cervical cancer, the nurse notes that the cancer is staged as Tis, N0, M0. The nurse will teach the patient that a. the cancer cells are well-differentiated. b. it is difficult to determine the original site of the cervical cancer. c. further testing is needed to determine the spread of the cancer. d. the cancer is localized to the cervix.

D Rationale: Cancer in situ indicates that the cancer is localized to the cervix and is not invasive at this time. Cell differentiation is not indicated by clinical staging. Because the cancer is in situ, the origin is the cervix. Further testing is not indicated given that the cancer has not spread.

The nurse is teaching a client who is receiving an antiestrogen drug about the side effects she may encounter. Which side effects does the nurse include in the discussion? (Select all that apply.) A. Heavy menses B. Smooth facial skin C. Hyperkalemia D. Breast tenderness E. Weight loss F. Deep vein thrombosis

D, F Breast tenderness and shrinking breast tissue may occur with antiestrogen therapy. Venous thromboembolism may also occur. Irregular menses or no menstrual period is the typical side effect of antiestrogen therapy. Acne may also develop. Hypercalcemia, not hyperkalemia, is typical. Fluid retention with weight gain may also occur.

The nurse reinforces instructions to the client about breast self-examination (BSE). The nurse instructs the client to lie down and examine the left breast. Which is the correct area for placing a pillow when examining the left breast?

Under the left shoulder

The nurse determines that a client with which history is most at risk for endometrial cancer?

Estrogen replacement therapy

A client with cancer has undergone a total abdominal hysterectomy and has a Foley catheter in place. The nurse should expect to note which type of urinary drainage immediately following this surgery?

Blood tinged

11. Which action by a nursing assistant (NA) caring for a patient with a temporary radioactive cervical implant indicates that the RN should intervene? a. The NA places the patient's bedding in the laundry container in the hallway. b. The NA flushes the toilet once after emptying the patient's bedpan. c. The NA stands by the patient's bed for an hour talking with the patient. d. The NA gives the patient an alcohol-containing mouthwash for oral care. .

C Rationale: Because patients with temporary implants emit radioactivity while the implants are in place, exposure to the patient is limited. Laundry and urine/feces do not have any radioactivity and do not require special precautions. Cervical radiation will not affect the oral mucosa, and alcohol-based mouthwash is not contraindicated

A client has just been told by the health care provider about her diagnosis of breast cancer. The client responds, "Oh no, does this mean I'm going to die?" The nurse interprets which response as the client's initial reaction?

Fear

A client with endometrial cancer is receiving doxorubicin (Adriamycin), an antineoplastic agent. The nurse should specifically collect data about which criterion?

Hematological laboratory values

The nurse is reinforcing instructions to a community group regarding the risks and causes of bladder cancer. The nurse determines that there is a need for further teaching if a member of the community group makes which statement regarding this type of cancer

It most often occurs in women

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving chemotherapy and notes that the platelet count is 10,000 cells/mm3. On the basis of this laboratory value, the nurse should collect which data as a priority?

Level of consciousness

6) Previous administrations of chemotherapy agents to a cancer patient have resulted in diarrhea. Which of the following dietary modifications should the nurse recommend? A. A bland, low-fiber diet B. A high-protein, high-calorie diet C. A diet high in fresh fruits and vegetables D. A diet emphasizing whole and organic foods

Answer: A - A bland, low-fiber diet

A 58-year-old woman calls the health clinic when she has a moderate amount of vaginal bleeding after 6 years of menopause. The nurse will anticipate scheduling the patient for A. endometrial biopsy. B. dilation and curettage (D&C). C. laser endometrial ablation. D. uterine balloon therapy.

Answer: A. endometrial biopsy Rationale: A postmenopausal woman with vaginal bleeding should be evaluated for endometrial cancer, and endometrial biopsy is the primary test for endometrial cancer. D&C will be needed only if the biopsy does not provide sufficient information to make a diagnosis. Endometrial ablation and balloon therapy are used to treat menorrhagia, which is unlikely in this patient

A client undergoing radiation therapy has a severely depressed WBC count. The nurse should include which priority nursing intervention in the plan of care? A: Place the client in a private room and maintain strict aseptic technique with all procedures B: Encourage the client to include fresh fruits and vegetables in the diet C: Educate the client to avoid shaving with a razor D: Encourage frequent visitors to reduce the client's feelings of isolation

Answer: A: Place the client in a private room and maintain strict aseptic technique with all procedures Rationale: The immunosuppressed client is at a high risk for infection. A private room, maintaining aseptic technique, and limiting visitors will reduce exposure and risk.

While being prepared for a biopsy of a lump in the right breast, the patient asks the nurse what the difference is between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor. The nurse explains that a benign tumor differs from a malignant tumor in that benign tumors A. Do not cause damage to adjacent tissue. B. Do not spread to other tissues and organs. C. Are simply an overgrowth of normal cells. D. Frequently recur in the same site.

Answer: B Rationale: The major difference between benign and malignant tumors is that malignant tumors invade adjacent tissues and spread to distant tissues and benign tumors never metastasize. Both types of tumors may cause damage to adjacent tissues. The cells differ from normal in both benign and malignant tumors. Benign tumors usually do not recur.

When planning care for a client being treated for cervical cancer, it would be a priority for the nurse to include which of the following in the plan of care? A. Instruction on birth control methods. B. Vigorous fluid hydration. C. Assessment of sexual function. D. Daily weights.

Answer: C. Assessment of sexual function. Rationale: Surgery and radiation therapy for cervical cancer often result in shortening of the vagina, vaginal dryness, and loss of libido due to emotional issues related to sexuality and femininity. Therefore, the client's feelings about sexuality and the partner's feelings should be assessed. If a client is not sexually active, instructions should be given in the use of a vaginal dilator and lubricant to prevent adhesion of the vaginal walls. While instruction about birth control methods may be needed for some clients, treatment for cervical cancer may include total abdominal hysterectomy, so that this would not be appropriate for all clients. Encouraging fluids and daily weights are not priorities for cervical cancer care.

In educating a client, what would the nurse NOT mention as a risk factor that increases the risk of developing endometrial cancer? A. Obesity B. Increased age C. Having had several children D. Diabetes

Answer: C. Having had several children.

The nurse is making a home visit to a client receiving external radiation therapy on an outpatient basis. Further teaching is necessary when the nurse observes the client doing which of the following? A: Washing radiation site with plain water and patting skin dry B: Protecting skin with soft, loose clothing C: Applying lotion to irritated skin D: Inspecting skin for damage

Answer: C: Applying lotion to irritated skin Rationale: Lotion, deodorant, and powders should not be applied to the radiation site during the treatment period to avoid further irritation to the skin.

Which instruction is most appropriate for the nurse to convey to the client with chemotherapy-induced neuropathy? A. Bathe in cold water. B. Wear cotton gloves when cooking. C. Consume a diet high in fiber. D. Make sure shoes are snug

. C. Consume a diet high in fiber. A high-fiber diet will assist with constipation due to neuropathy. The client should bathe in warm water, not hotter than 96° F. Cotton gloves may prevent harm from scratching; protective gloves should be worn for washing dishes and gardening. Wearing cotton gloves while cooking can increase the risk for burns. Shoes should allow sufficient length and width to prevent blisters. Shoes that are snug can increase the risk for blisters in a client with peripheral neuropathy.

Which of the following is correct about the rate of cell growth in relation to chemotherapy? A. Faster growing cells are less susceptible to chemotherapy B. Non dividing cells are more susceptible to chemotherapy C. Faster growing cells are more susceptible to chemotherapy D. Slower growing cells are more susceptible to chemotherapy

ANSWER C The faster the cell grows the more susceptible it is to chemotherapy,

The nurse is reinforcing discharge instructions to a client with cancer of the prostate after a prostatectomy. The nurse should reinforce which discharge instruction?

Avoid lifting objects heavier than 20 pounds for at least 6 weeks

The nurse is caring for a client with cancer receiving chemotherapy who has developed stomatitis. The nurse plans to give mouth care by using oral care agents and devices that meet which additional criterion?

Care will be based on the severity of stomatitis

The nurse is caring for a client after a mastectomy. Which nursing intervention should assist with preventing lymphedema of the affected arm?

Elevating the affected arm on a pillow above heart level

A client receiving chemotherapy asks the nurse, "What will I do when my hair starts to fall out?" Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

Encourage her to select a wig

The nurse is collecting data from a client with a history of bladder cancer. Which sign/symptom is the client most likely to report?

Hematuria

A client is tentatively diagnosed with ovarian cancer. The nurse gathers data about which late symptom of this disease?

Pelvic pain, anemia, and ascites

The nurse is reinforcing instructions to a client on performing a testicular self-examination (TSE). Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?

The best time for the examination is after a shower

16. When the nurse is administering a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent intravenously, an important consideration is to a. stop the infusion if swelling is observed at the site. b. infuse the medication over a short period. c. administer the chemotherapy through small-bore catheter. d. hold the medication unless a central venous line is available.

A Rationale: Swelling at the site may indicate extravasation, and the IV should be stopped immediately. The medication should generally be given slowly to avoid irritation of the vein. The size of the catheter is not as important as administration of vesicants into a running IV line to allow dilution of the chemotherapy drug. These medications can be given through peripheral lines, although central vascular access devices (CVADs) are preferred.

22. A 40-year-old divorced mother of four school-age children is hospitalized with metastatic cancer of the ovary. The nurse finds the patient crying, and she tells the nurse that she does not know what will happen to her children when she dies. The most appropriate response by the nurse is a. "Why don't we talk about the options you have for the care of your children?" b. "Many patients with cancer live for a long time, so there is time to plan for your children." c. "For now you need to concentrate on getting well, not worry about your children." d. "Perhaps your ex-husband will take the children when you can't care for them."

A Rationale: This response expresses the nurse's willingness to listen and recognizes the patient's concern. The responses beginning "Many patients with cancer live for a long time" and "For now you need to concentrate on getting well" close off discussion of the topic and indicate that the nurse is uncomfortable with the topic. In addition, the patient with metastatic ovarian cancer may not have a long time to plan. Although it is possible that the patient's ex-husband will take the children, more assessment information is needed before making plans.

The nurse includes which factors in teaching regarding the typical warning signs of cancer? (Select all that apply.) A. Persistent constipation B. Scab present for 6 months C. Curdlike vaginal discharge D. Axillary swelling E. Headache

A, B, D Change in bowel habits, a sore that does not heal, and a lump or thickening in the breast or elsewhere are all potential warning signs of cancer. Curdlike vaginal discharge represents a yeast infection. Headache is not a warning sign, but may be present with multiple problems.

When caring for the client receiving cancer chemotherapy, which signs or symptoms related to thrombocytopenia should the nurse report to the health care provider? (Select all that apply.) A. Bruises B. Fever C. Petechiae D. Epistaxis E. Pallor

A, C, D Bruising, petechiae, and epistaxis (nosebleeds) are symptoms of a low platelet count. Fever is a sign of infection secondary to neutropenia. Pallor is a sign of anemia.

The nurse has received in report that a client receiving chemotherapy has severe neutropenia. Which interventions does the nurse plan to implement? (Select all that apply.) A. Assess for fever. B. Observe for bleeding. C. Administer pegfilgrastim (Neulasta) - a biologic response modifier D. Do not permit fresh flowers or plants in the room. E. Do not allow the client's 16-year-old son to visit. F. Teach the client to omit raw fruits and vegetables from the diet.

A, C, D, F Any temperature elevation in a client with neutropenia is considered a sign of infection and should be reported immediately to the health care provider. Administration of biological response modifiers, such as filgrastim (Neupogen) and pegfilgrastim (Neulasta), is indicated in neutropenia to prevent infection and sepsis. Flowers and plants may harbor organisms such as fungi or viruses and are to be avoided for the immune-suppressed client. All fruits and vegetables should be cooked well; raw fruits and vegetables may harbor organisms. Thrombocytopenia, or low platelet levels, causes bleeding, not low neutrophils (a type of white blood cell). The client is at risk for infection, not the visitors, if they are well; however, very small children, who may get frequent colds and viral infections, may pose a risk.

The nurse is teaching a 47-year-old woman about recommended screening practices for breast cancer. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the nurse's instructions? A. "My mother and grandmother had breast cancer, so I am at risk." B. "I get a mammogram every 2 years since I turned 30." C. "A clinical breast examination is performed every month since I turned 40." D. "A computed tomography (CT) scan will be done every year after I turn 50."

A. "My mother and grandmother had breast cancer, so I am at risk." A strong family history of breast cancer indicates a risk for breast cancer. Annual rather than biannual screening may be indicated for a strong family history. An annual mammogram is performed after age 40 or in younger clients with a strong family history. The client may perform a self-breast examination monthly; a clinical examination by a health care provider is indicated annually. Annual CT breast scans after age 50 are not a current recommendation.

The RN working on an oncology unit has just received report on these clients. Which client should be assessed first? A. Client with chemotherapy-induced neutropenia who has just been admitted with an elevated temperature B. Client with lymphoma who will need administration of an antiemetic before receiving chemotherapy C. Client with metastatic breast cancer who is scheduled for external beam radiation in 1 hour D. Client with xerostomia associated with laryngeal cancer who needs oral care before breakfast

A. Client with chemotherapy-induced neutropenia who has just been admitted with an elevated temperature Neutropenia poses high risk for life-threatening sepsis and septic shock, which develop and progress rapidly in immune-suppressed people; the nurse should see the client with chemotherapy-induced neutropenia first. The client with lymphoma and the client with metastatic breast cancer are not in distress and can be assessed later. The client with dry mouth (xerostomia) can be assessed later, or the nurse can delegate mouth care to unlicensed assistive personnel.

The oncology nurse is caring for a group of clients receiving chemotherapy. The client with which sign/symptom is displaying bone marrow suppression? A. Hemoglobin of 7.4 and hematocrit of 21.8 B. Potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L and diarrhea C. 250,000 platelets/mm3 D. 5000 white blood cells/mm3

A. Hemoglobin of 7.4 and hematocrit of 21.8 Bone marrow suppression causes anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia; the client with a hemoglobin of 7.4 and hematocrit of 21.8 has anemia demonstrated by low hemoglobin and hematocrit. The client with diarrhea and a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L has hypokalemia and electrolyte imbalance. The client with 250,000 platelets/mm3 and the client with 5000 white blood cells/mm3 demonstrate normal values.

9) Which of the following nursing diagnoses is most appropriate for a patient experiencing myelosuppression secondary to chemotherapy for cancer treatment? A. Acute pain B. Hypothermia C. Powerlessness D.Risk for infection

Answer: D - Risk for infection

The nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy who reports anorexia. Which measure does the nurse use to best monitor for cachexia? A. Monitor weight B. Trend red blood cells and hemoglobin and hematocrit C. Monitor platelets D. Observe for motor deficits

A. Monitor weight Cachexia results in extreme body wasting and malnutrition; severe weight loss is expected. Anemia and bleeding tendencies result from bone marrow suppression secondary to invasion of bone marrow by a cancer or a side effect of chemotherapy. Motor deficits result from spinal cord compression.

During the administration of a chemotherapeutic drug, the nurse observes that there is a lack of blood return from the intravenous catheter. The priority action by the nurse would be to A. stop the administration of the drug immediately B. reposition the client's arm and continue with the administration of the drug C. apply a tourniquet to the patient's affected arm and notify the doctor D. continue to administer the drug and assess for edema at the IV site

Answer A Chemotherapeutic agents are irritating to tissues. Lack of blood return from the IV catheter indicates that it is out of vein. Therefore, administration of the drug should be stopped immediately

3) A nurse is instructing a client how to decrease nausea secondary to chemotherapy and radiation. The nurse understands that the client needs more teaching if the client states, "I will try A. eating small, frequent meals" B. Staying upright for at least on hour during meals" C. Avoiding a lot of liquids with my meals" D. Increasing the amount of unsaturated fats in my diet"

Answer - D - increasing the amount of unsaturated fats in my diet"

A nurse is teaching a group of women about the appropriate method for performing a breast self-exam (BSE). Which of the following statements regarding breast self-exam demonstrates correct comprehension of the material? A. "Breast exams should begin around age 30." B. "Breast exams should be done one week prior to the menstrual cycle." C. "Breast exams should incorporate both feeling and looking at the breasts." D. "Breast exams should be done during the middle of the menstrual cycle."

Answer C Rationale: Breast exams should incorporate both feeling and looking at the breasts. Premenstrual swelling and tenderness of the breasts may be present one week prior. Breast self-examination should begin as early as possible, preferably when the individual is an adolescent.

The nurse is caring for a young woman who is dying from breast cancer. The nurse determines that a defining characteristic of anticipatory grieving is present when the young woman: A. Discusses thoughts and feelings related to the loss. B. Has prolonged emotional reactions and outbursts. C. Verbalizes unrealistic goals and plans for the future. D. Ignores untreated medical conditions that require treatment.

Answer: A Rationale: The nurse can determine the client's stage of grief by observing the client's behavior. This is important because the appropriate nursing diagnoses must be developed so that the plan of care is appropriate.

4) The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client being admitted to the hospital who is immunosuppressed and will be placed on neutropenic precautions. With regard to neutropenic precautions, which intervention is incorrect? A) admitting the client to a semi-private room B) placing a precaution sign on the door to the room C) placing a mask on the client if the client leaves the room D) removing a vase with fresh flowers left by a previous client

Answer: A - admitting the client to a semiprivate room

The husband of a client with cervical cancer says to the nurse, "The doctor told my wife that her cancer is curable. Is he just trying to make us feel better?" Which would be the nurse's most accurate response? A. "When cervical cancer is detected early and treated aggressively, the cure rate is almost 100%" B. "The 5-year survival rate is about 75%, which makes the odds pretty good." C. "Saying a cancer is curable means that 50% of all women with the cancer survive at least 5 years." D. "Cancers of the female reproductive tract tend to be slow-growing and respond well to treatment."

Answer: A. "When cervical cancer is detected early and treated aggressively , the cure rate is almost 100%" Rationale: When cervical cancer is detected early and treated aggressively, the cure rate approaches 100%. The incidence of cervical cancer has increased among African Americans, Native Americans, and Latinas, and these women often have a poorer prognosis because the cancer is not identified early. Papanicolaou (Pap) smears and colposcopy have the potential to decrease mortality from invasive carcinoma when these screening and treatment programs are utilized by women.

A 40-year-old divorced mother of four school-age children is hospitalized with metastatic cancer of the ovary. The nurse finds the patient crying, and she tells the nurse that she does not know what will happen to her children when she dies. The most appropriate response by the nurse is A. "Why don't we talk about the options you have for the care of your children?" B. "Many patients with cancer live for a long time, so there is time to plan for your children." C. "For now you need to concentrate on getting well, not worry about your children." D. "Perhaps your ex-husband will take the children when you can't care for them."

Answer: A. "Why don't we talk about the options you have for the care of your children?"  Rationale: This response expresses the nurse's willingness to listen and recognizes the patient's concern. The responses beginning "Many patients with cancer live for a long time" and "For now you need to concentrate on getting well" close off discussion of the topic and indicate that the nurse is uncomfortable with the topic. In addition, the patient with metastatic ovarian cancer may not have a long time to plan. Although it is possible that the patient's ex-husband will take the children, more assessment information is needed before making plans.

Nausea and vomiting are common adverse effects of radiation. When should a nurse administer antiemetics? A: 30 minutes before the initiation of therapy B: With the administration of therapy C: Immediately after nausea begins D: When therapy is completed

Answer: A: 30 minutes before the initiation of therapy Rationale: Antiemetics are most beneficial when given before the onset of nausea and vomiting. If the antiemetic was given with the medication or after the medication, it could lose its maximum effectiveness when needed.

The nurse is caring for a 35-year old patient receiving radiation and chemotherapy. Which statement by the patient indicates that he is using a positive coping mechanism that is useful during treatments? A: I may miss my own hair, but I have chosen a nice wig to wear B: Losing my hair won't bother me at all C: I'm never going to leave the house if I am bald D: I will not lose my hair and I'll make sure of that

Answer: A: I may miss my own hair, but I have chosen a nice wig to wear Rationale: Expressing personal feelings and positive interventions demonstrate positive coping mechanisms

7) The nurse is caring for a patient receiving an initial dose of chemotherapy to treat a rapidly growing metastatic colon cancer. The nurse is aware that this patient is at risk for tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) and will monitor the patient closely for which of the following abnormalities associated with this oncologic emergency? A. Hypokalemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hypouricemia D. Hypophosphatemia

Answer: B - Hypocalcemia

The nurse is caring for a client following a mastectomy. Which nursing intervention would assist in preventing lymphedema of the affected arm? A. Placing cool compresses on the affected arm B. Elevating the affected arm on a pillow above heart level C. Avoiding arm exercises in the immediate post-operative period. D. Maintaining an intravenous site below the antecubital area of the affected side

Answer: B Rationale: Following mastectomy, the arm should be elevated above the level of the heart. Simple arm exercises should be encouraged. No blood pressure readings, injections, intravenous lines, or blood draws should be performed on the affected arm. Cool compresses are not a suggested measure to prevent lymphedema from occurring

A patient has undergone a mastectomy. The nurse determines that the client is having the most difficulty adjusting to the loss of the breast if which behavior is observed? A. Performs arm exercises B. Refuses to look at the dressing C. Reads the post operative care booklet D. Requests pain medication when needed

Answer: B Rationale: The patient demonstrated the most difficult adjustments to the loss if she refuses to look at the dressing. This indicates that the client is not ready or willing to begin to acknowledge and cope with the surgery. Performing arm exercises is an action oriented behavior on the part of the patient and is considered a positive sign of adjustment. Reading the post operative care booklet indicates an interest in self care and is a positive action oriented option that is helpful, although there is no direct connection to adjustment to the loss of the breast.

A 50 year old female client complains of bloating and indigestion and tells the nurse she has gained two inches in her waist recently. Which question should the nurse ask the client? A:"What do you eat before you feel bloated?" B:"Have you had your ovaries removed?" C:"Are your stools darker in color lately?" D:"Is this indigestion worse when you lie down?"

Answer: B. "Have you had your ovaries removed?" Rationale: Ovarian Cancer has vague symptoms of abdominal discomfort, but increasing abdominal girth is the most common symptom. If the client has had the ovaries removed, then the nurse could assess for another cause.

A female client has a mother who died from ovarian cancer and sister diagnosed with it. Which recommendations should the nurse make regarding early detection of ovarian cancer? A:The client should consider having a prophylactic bilateral oophorectomy B:The client should have a trans-vaginal ultrasound and a CA-125 lab test every 6 months C:The client should have yearly MRI scans D:The client should have a biannual gyn exam with flexible sigmoidoscopy

Answer: B. The client should have a trans-vaginal ultrasound and a CA-125 lab test every 6 months Rationale: A trans-vaginal ultrasound is a sonogram probe is inserted into the vagina and sound waves are directed toward the ovaries. The CA-125 tumor marker is elevated in several cancers. It is nonspecific but, coupled with the sonogram, can provide info about ovarian cancer for early diagnosis.

A recently divorced male who has undergone radiation therapy for testicular cancer tells the nurse he is unable to achieve an erection. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is most appropriate? A: Ineffective coping related to the effects of radiation therapy B: Sexual dysfunction related to the effects of radiation therapy C: Disturbed body image related to the effects of radiation therapy D: Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to radiation therapy

Answer: B: Sexual dysfunction related to the effects of radiation therapy Rationale: Radiation may cause sexual dysfunction. Libido may only be temporarily affected, and the client should be provided with emotional support.

When teaching safety precautions to the client with internal radiation implant, the nurse would include which statement in explanations to the client? A: No precautions are necessary for internal radiation therapy implants B: The client poses a risk of radiation exposure to others C: The client must remain in solitary isolation for the entire hospitalization D: Visitors should maintain a distance of 30 feet from the client at all times

Answer: B: The client poses a risk of radiation exposure to others Rationale: Internal radiation is emitted outward to people in close contact as long as the implant is in place. Therefore, certain precautions to protect others must be taken: The client should have a private room, and visitors should maintain a distance of 6 feet and limit visits to 10-30 minutes.

5) A nurse is caring for a client who was admitted to receive chemotherapy for treatment of ovarian cancer. The client vomited after each previous dose of chemotherapy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent vomiting? A. Speak to the provider about decreasing the chemotherapy dose B. Withhold food and fluids prior to and during treatment C. Provide the client with an emesis basin during treatment D. Administer and antiemetic prior to chemotherapy

Answer: D - Administer an antiemetic prior to chemotherapy

Mina, who is suspected of an ovarian tumor, is scheduled for a pelvic ultrasound. The nurse provides which pre-procedure instruction to the client? A. Eat a light breakfast only B. Maintain an NPO status before the procedure C. Wear comfortable clothing and shoes for the procedure D. Drink six to eight glasses of water without voiding before the test

Answer: D. Drink six to eight glasses of water without voiding before the test Rationale: A pelvic ultrasound requires the ingestion of large volumes of water just before the procedure. A full bladder is necessary so that it will be visualized as such and not mistaken for a possible pelvic growth. An abdominal ultrasound may require that the client abstain from food or fluid for several hours before the procedure. Option C is unrelated to this specific procedure.

A woman tells the nurse that "there's been a lot of cancer in my family." The nurse should instruct the client to report which possible sign of cervical cancer? A. Pain B. Leg edema C. Urinary and rectal symptoms D. Light bleeding or watery vaginal discharge

Answer: D. Light bleeding or watery vaginal discharge. Rationale: In its early stages, cancer of the cervix is usually asymptomatic, which underscores the importance of regular Pap smears. A light bleeding or serosanguineous discharge may be apparent as the first noticeable symptom. Pain, leg edema, urinary and rectal symptoms, and weight loss are late signs of cervical cancer.

At a senior citizen program, the nurse who was invited to speak to the group is teaching them about detecting the early signs of cancer. Which of the following should the nurse include? A: Do not overexpose yourself to the sun B: Exercise for no more than 7 minutes a day C: Lower the amount of fats in your diet D: Do a monthly breast self-exam

Answer: D: Do a monthly breast self-exam Rationale: Monthly breast exams aid in early detection of cancer. Changing the patients diet and limiting exposure to the sun may help with prevention but not detection.

A nurse is counseling the family of patient who has terminal breast cancer about palliative care. The nurse explains that which of the following are goals of palliative care? Select all that apply. A. Delays death B. Offers a support system C. Provides relief from pain D. Enhances the quality of life E. Focuses only on the patient not the family F. Manages symptoms of disease and therapies

Answers: B, C, D, F Rationale: Palliative care is a philosophy of total care. Palliative care goals include the following: providing relief from pain and other distressing symptoms, affirming life and regarding dying as a normal process, neither hastening nor postponing death, integrating psychological and spiritual aspects of client care, offering a support system to help the client live as actively as possible until death, offering a support system to help families cope during the client's illness and their own bereavement, and enhancing the quality of life.

7. Which statement by a patient who is scheduled for a needle biopsy of the prostate indicates that the patient understands the purpose of a biopsy? a. "The biopsy will tell the doctor whether the cancer has spread to my other organs." b. "The biopsy will help the doctor decide what treatment to use for my enlarged prostate." c. "The biopsy will determine how much longer I have to live." d. "The biopsy will indicate the effect of the cancer on my life."

B Rationale: A biopsy is used to determine whether the prostate enlargement is benign or malignant and determines the type of treatment that will be needed. Biopsy does not give information about metastasis, life expectancy, or the impact of cancer on the patient's life; the three remaining statements indicate a need for patient teaching.

20. A patient who is receiving interleukin-2 (IL-2) therapy (Proleukin) complains to the nurse about all of these symptoms. Which one is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Generalized aches b. Dyspnea c. Decreased appetite d. Insomnia

B Rationale: Dyspnea may indicate capillary leak syndrome and pulmonary edema, which requires rapid treatment. The other symptoms are common with IL-2 therapy, and the nurse should teach the patient that these are common adverse effects that will resolve at the end of the therapy.

26. Which information noted by the nurse reviewing the laboratory results of a patient who is receiving chemotherapy is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Hemoglobin of 10 g/L b. WBC count of 1700/µl c. Platelets of 65,000/µl d. Serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dl .

B Rationale: Neutropenia places the patient at risk for severe infection and is an indication that the chemotherapy dose may need to be lower or that white blood cell (WBC) growth factors such as filgrastim (Neupogen) are needed. The other laboratory data do not indicate any immediate life-threatening adverse effects of the chemotherapy

4. In teaching about cancer prevention to a community group, the nurse stresses promotion of exercise, normal body weight, and low-fat diet because a. most people are willing to make these changes to avoid cancer. b. dietary fat and obesity promote growth of many types of cancer. c. people who exercise and eat healthy will make other lifestyle changes. d. obesity and lack of exercise cause cancer in susceptible people.

B Rationale: Obesity and dietary fat promote the growth of malignant cells, and decreasing these risk factors can reduce the chance of cancer development. Many people are not willing to make these changes. Good diet and exercise habits are not a guarantee that other healthy lifestyle changes will then occur. Obesity and lack of exercise do not cause cancer, but they promote the growth of altered cells.

14. A patient undergoing external radiation has developed a dry desquamation of the skin in the treatment area. The nurse knows that teaching about management of the skin reaction has been effective when the patient says a. "I can use ice packs to relieve itching in the treatment area." b. "I can buy a steroid cream to use on the itching area." c. "I will expose the treatment area to a sun lamp daily." d. "I will scrub the area with warm water to remove the scales."

B Rationale: Steroid (over-the-counter [OTC] hydrocortisone) cream may be used to reduce itching in the area. Ice and sunlamps may injure the skin. Treatment areas should be cleaned gently to avoid further injury.

21. A 32-year-old male patient is to undergo radiation therapy to the pelvic area for Hodgkin's lymphoma. He expresses concern to the nurse about the effect of chemotherapy on his sexual function. The best response by the nurse to the patient's concerns is a. "Radiation does not cause the problems with sexual functioning that occur with chemotherapy or surgical procedures used to treat cancer." b. "It is possible you may have some changes in your sexual function, and you may want to consider pretreatment harvesting of sperm if you want children." c. "The radiation will make you sterile, but your ability to have sexual intercourse will not be changed by the treatment." d. "You may have some temporary impotence during the course of the radiation, but normal sexual function will return."

B Rationale: The impact on sperm count and erectile function depends on the patient's pretreatment status and on the amount of exposure to radiation. The patient should consider sperm donation before radiation. Radiation (like chemotherapy or surgery) may affect both sexual function and fertility either temporarily or permanently.

1. While being prepared for a biopsy of a lump in the right breast, the patient asks the nurse what the difference is between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor. The nurse explains that a benign tumor differs from a malignant tumor in that benign tumors a. do not cause damage to adjacent tissue. b. do not spread to other tissues and organs. c. are simply an overgrowth of normal cells. d. frequently recur in the same site.

B Rationale: The major difference between benign and malignant tumors is that malignant tumors invade adjacent tissues and spread to distant tissues and benign tumors never metastasize. Both types of tumors may cause damage to adjacent tissues. The cells differ from normal in both benign and malignant tumors. Benign tumors usually do not recur.

17. A chemotherapeutic agent known to cause alopecia is prescribed for a patient. To maintain the patient's self-esteem, the nurse plans to a. suggest that the patient limit social contacts until regrowth of the hair occurs. b. encourage the patient to purchase a wig or hat and wear it once hair loss begins. c. have the patient wash the hair gently with a mild shampoo to minimize hair loss. d. inform the patient that hair loss will not be permanent and that the hair will grow back.

B Rationale: The patient is taught to anticipate hair loss and to be prepared with wigs, scarves, or hats. Limiting social contacts is not appropriate at a time when the patient is likely to need a good social support system. The damage occurs at the hair follicle and will occur regardless of gentle washing or use of a mild shampoo. The information that the hair will grow back is not immediately helpful in maintaining the patient's self-esteem.

The nurse is conducting a community health education class on diet and cancer risk reduction. What should be included in the discussion? (Select all that apply.) A. Limit sodium intake. B. Avoid beef and processed meats. C. Increase consumption of whole grains. D. Eat "colorful fruits and vegetables," including greens. E. Avoid gas-producing vegetables such as cabbage.

B, C, D Consuming bran and whole grains and avoiding red meat and processed foods such as lunchmeats can reduce cancer risk. Consuming foods high in vitamin A, including apricots, carrots, and leafy green and yellow vegetables, can also reduce cancer risk. Reducing sodium is helpful in the treatment of hypertension and heart and kidney failure; no evidence suggests that lowering of sodium intake decreases the incidence of cancer. Eating cruciferous vegetables such as broccoli, cauliflower, Brussels sprouts, and cabbage may actually reduce cancer risk.

What are the common cancers related to tobacco use? (Select all that apply.) A. Cardiac cancer B. Lung cancer C. Cancer of the tongue D. Skin cancer E. Cancer of the larynx

B, C, E Organs exposed to the carcinogens in tobacco (lungs, tongue, larynx) are the most likely to develop cancer. Oral cancer is also a risk with "smokeless" tobacco. The heart does not contain cells that divide; therefore, cardiac cancer is unlikely. Skin cancer generally is related to repeated sun and other ultraviolet exposure, such as that found with tanning beds.

The nurse suspects metastasis from left breast cancer to the thoracic spine when the client has which symptom? A. Vomiting B. Back pain C. Frequent urination D. Cyanosis of the toes

B. Back pain Typical sites of breast cancer metastasis include bone (manifested by back pain), lung, liver, and brain. Signs of metastasis to the spine may include numbness, pain, paresthesias and tingling, and loss of bowel and bladder control, but not vomiting. Although frequent urination may be a sign of bladder cancer, incontinence is more indicative of spinal metastasis. Cyanosis of the toes indicates decreased tissue perfusion, often related to atherosclerotic disease.

Which manifestation of an oncologic emergency requires the nurse to contact the health care provider immediately? A. New onset of fatigue B. Edema of arms and hands C. Dry cough D. Weight gain

B. Edema of arms and hands Edema of the arms and hands indicates worsening compression of the superior vena cava consistent with superior vena cava syndrome. The compression must be relieved immediately, often with radiation therapy, because death can result without timely intervention. New onset of fatigue may likely be an early manifestation of hypercalcemia, which usually develops slowly, but because it is an early manifestation, this is not the priority. Dry cough is not a manifestation that is specific to an oncologic emergency; however, it may be a side effect of chemotherapy. Weight gain could be an early sign of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone; although this should be addressed, it is an early sign so it is not the priority.

Which medication does the nurse plan to administer to a client before chemotherapy to decrease the incidence of nausea and vomiting? A. Morphine B. Ondansetron (Zofran) C. Naloxone (Narcan) D. Diazepam (Valium)

B. Ondansetron (Zofran) Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 receptor blocker that blocks serotonin to prevent nausea and vomiting. Morphine is a narcotic analgesic or opiate; it may cause nausea. Naloxone is a narcotic antagonist used for opiate overdose. Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, is an antianxiety medication only; lorazepam, another benzodiazepine, may be used for nausea.

The nurse is caring for a client with end-stage ovarian cancer who needs clarification on the purpose of palliative surgery. Which outcome should the nurse teach the client is the goal of palliative surgery? A. Cure of the cancer B. Relief of symptoms or improved quality of life C. Allowing other therapies to be more effective D. Prolonging the client's survival time

B. Relief of symptoms or improved quality of life The focus of palliative surgery is to improve quality of life during the survival time. Curative surgery removes all cancer cells, visible and microscopic. Debulking is a procedure that removes some cancerous tissue, allowing other therapies to be more effective. Many therapies, such as surgery, chemotherapy, and biotherapy, increase the client's chance of cure and survival, but palliation improves quality of life.

Which activity performed by the community health nurse best reflects primary prevention of cancer? A. Assisting women to obtain free mammograms B. Teaching a class on cancer prevention C. Encouraging long-term smokers to get a chest x-ray D. Encouraging sexually active women to get annual Papanicolaou (Pap) smears

B. Teaching a class on cancer prevention Primary prevention involves avoiding exposure to known causes of cancer; education assists clients with this strategy. Mammography is part of a secondary level of prevention, defined as screening for early detection. Chest x-ray is a method of detecting a cancer that is present—secondary prevention and early detection. A Pap smear is a means of detecting cervical cancer early—secondary prevention.

The nurse is caring for a client dying of ovarian cancer. During care, the client states, "If I can just live long enough to attend my daughter's graduation, I'll be ready to die." Which phase of coping is this client experiencing?

Bargaining

A 52-year-old client relates to the nurse that she has never had a mammogram because she is terrified that she will have cancer. Which response by the nurse is therapeutic? A. "Don't worry, most lumps are discovered by women during breast self-examination." B. "Does anyone in your family have breast cancer?" C. "Finding a cancer in the early stages increases the chance for cure." D. "Have you noticed a lump or thickening in your breast?"

C. "Finding a cancer in the early stages increases the chance for cure." Providing truthful information addresses the client's concerns. Mammography can detect lumps smaller than those discovered by palpation. Asking about family history or symptoms is not therapeutic because it does not address the client's fear of cancer.

Which statement made by a client allows the nurse to recognize whether the client receiving brachytherapy for ovarian cancer understands the treatment plan? A. "I may lose my hair during this treatment." B. "I must be positioned in the same way during each treatment." C. "I will have a radioactive device in my body for a short time." D. "I will be placed in a semiprivate room for company."

C. "I will have a radioactive device in my body for a short time." Brachytherapy refers to short-term insertion of a radiation source. Side effects of radiation therapy are site-specific; this client is unlikely to experience hair loss from treating ovarian cancer with radiation. The client undergoing teletherapy (external beam radiation), not brachytherapy, must be positioned precisely in the same position each time. The client who is receiving brachytherapy must be in a private room.

A client who is scheduled to undergo radiation for prostate cancer is admitted to the hospital by the nurse. Which statement by the client is most important to communicate to the health care provider? A. "I am allergic to iodine." B. "My urinary stream is very weak." C. "My legs are numb and weak." D. "I am incontinent when I cough."

C. "My legs are numb and weak." Numbness and weakness should be reported to the physician because paralysis caused by spinal cord compression can occur. Prostate cancer may frequently metastasize to the bone, specifically the spine. Allergy to iodine should be reported when contrast media will be used, but dye is not used in radiation therapy. A weak urinary stream and incontinence are common clinical manifestations of prostate cancer. Incontinence associated with coughing is typical of stress incontinence and is not a complication of cancer.

A newly graduated RN has just finished a 6-week orientation to the oncology unit. Which client is most appropriate to assign to the new graduate? A. A 30-year-old with acute lymphocytic leukemia who will receive combination chemotherapy today B. A 40-year-old with chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting who has had no urine output for 16 hours C. A 45-year-old with pancytopenia who will require IV administration of erythropoietin (Procrit) D. A 72-year-old with tumor lysis syndrome who is receiving normal saline IV at a rate of 250 mL/hr

C. A 45-year-old with pancytopenia who will require IV administration of erythropoietin (Procrit) A new nurse after a 6-week oncology orientation possesses the skills to care for clients with pancytopenia and with administration of medications to correct anemia. The clients with acute lymphocytic leukemia and chemotherapy-induced nausea are complex clients requiring a nurse certified in chemotherapy administration. The client with tumor lysis syndrome has complicated needs for assessment and care and should be cared for by an RN with more oncology experience.

Which finding alarms the nurse when caring for a client receiving chemotherapy who has a platelet count of 17,000/mm3? A. Increasing shortness of breath B. Diminished bilateral breath sounds C. Change in mental status D. Weight gain of 4 pounds in 1 day

C. Change in mental status A change in mental status could result from spontaneous bleeding; in this case, a cerebral hemorrhage may have developed. Increasing shortness of breath is typically related to anemia, not to thrombocytopenia. Diminished breath sounds may be related to many factors, including poor respiratory excursion, infection, and atelectasis, which is not related to thrombocytopenia. A large weight gain in a short period may be related to kidney or heart failure; bleeding is the major complication of thrombocytopenia.

When caring for a client receiving chemotherapy, the nurse plans care during the nadir of bone marrow activity to prevent which complication? A. Drug toxicity B. Polycythemia C. Infection D. Dose-limiting side effects

C. Infection The lowest point of bone marrow function is referred to as the nadir; risk for infection is highest during this phase. Drug toxicity can develop when drug levels exceed peak concentrations. Polycythemia refers to an increase in the number of red blood cells; typically chemotherapy causes reduction of red blood cells or anemia. Dose limiting side effects occur when the dose or frequency of chemotherapy need to be altered or held, such as in the case of severe neutropenia or neurologic dysfunction .

When caring for the client with chemotherapy-induced mucositis, which intervention will be most helpful? A. Administering a biological response modifier B. Encouraging oral care with commercial mouthwash C. Providing oral care with a disposable mouth swab D. Maintaining NPO until the lesions have resolved

C. Providing oral care with a disposable mouth swab The client with mucositis would benefit most from oral care; mouth swabs are soft and disposable and therefore clean and appropriate to provide oral care. Biological response modifiers are used to stimulate bone marrow production of immune system cells; mucositis or sores in the mouth will not respond to these medications. Commercial mouthwashes should be avoided because they may contain alcohol or other drying agents that may further irritate the mucosa. Keeping the client NPO is not necessary because nutrition is important during cancer treatment; a local anesthetic may be prescribed for comfort.

The nurse corrects the nursing student when caring for a client with neutropenia secondary to chemotherapy in which circumstance? A. The student scrubs the hub of IV tubing before administering an antibiotic. B. The nurse overhears the student explaining to the client the importance of handwashing. C. The student teaches the client that symptoms of neutropenia include fatigue and weakness. D. The nurse observes the student providing oral hygiene and perineal care.

C. The student teaches the client that symptoms of neutropenia include fatigue and weakness. Symptoms of neutropenia include low neutrophil count, fever, and signs and symptoms of infection; the student should be corrected. Asepsis with IV lines is an appropriate action. Handwashing is an essential component of client care, especially when the client is at risk for neutropenia. Hygiene and perineal care help prevent infection and sepsis.

The oncology nurse should use which intervention to prevent disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? A. Monitoring platelets B. Administering packed red blood cells C. Using strict aseptic technique to prevent infection D. Administering low-dose heparin therapy for clients on bedrest

C. Using strict aseptic technique to prevent infection Sepsis is a major cause of DIC, especially in the oncology client. Monitoring platelets will help detect DIC, but will not prevent it. Red blood cells are used for anemia, not for bleeding/coagulation disorders. Heparin may be administered to clients with DIC who have developed clotting, but this has not been proven to prevent the disorder.

8. A patient with ovarian cancer tells the nurse, "I don't think my husband cares about me anymore. He rarely visits me." On one occasion when the husband was present, he told the nurse he just could not stand to see his wife so ill and never knew what to say to her. An appropriate nursing diagnosis in this situation is a. compromised family coping related to disruption in lifestyle and role changes. b. impaired home maintenance related to perceived role changes. c. risk for caregiver role strain related to burdens of caregiving responsibilities. d. interrupted family processes related to effect of illness on family members.

D Rationale: The data indicate that this diagnosis is most appropriate because the family members are impacted differently by the patient's cancer diagnosis. There are no data to suggest a change in lifestyle or role as an etiology. The data do not support impairment in home maintenance or a burden caused by caregiving responsibilities.

MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. A 61-year-old woman who is 5 feet, 3 inches tall and weighs 125 pounds (57 kg) tells the nurse that she has a glass of wine two or three times a week. The patient works for the post office and has a 5-mile mail-delivery route. This is her first contact with the health care system in 20 years. Which of these topics will the nurse plan to include in patient teaching about cancer? (Select all that apply.) a. Alcohol use b. Physical activity c. Body weight d. Colorectal screening e. Tobacco use f. Mammography g. Pap testing h. Sunscreen use

D, F, G, H Rationale: The patient's age, gender, and history indicate a need for teaching about or screening or both for colorectal cancer, mammography, Pap smears, and sunscreen. The patient does not use excessive alcohol or tobacco, she is physically active, and her body weight is healthy.

The nurse teaches a client that intraperitoneal chemotherapy will be delivered to which part of the body? A. Veins of the legs B. Lung C. Heart D. Abdominal cavity

D. Abdominal cavity Intraperitoneal chemotherapy is placed in the peritoneal cavity or the abdominal cavity. Intravenous drugs are delivered through veins. Chemotherapy delivered into the lungs is typically placed in the pleural space (intrapleural). Chemotherapy is not typically delivered into the heart.

A client who is undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer reports problems with concentration and memory. Which nursing intervention is indicated at this time? A. Explain that this occurs in some clients and is usually permanent. B. Inform the client that a small glass of wine may help her relax. C. Protect the client from infection. D. Allow the client an opportunity to express her feelings.

D. Allow the client an opportunity to express her feelings. Although no specific intervention for this side effect is known, therapeutic communication and listening may be helpful to the client. Evidence regarding problems with concentration and memory loss with chemotherapy is not complete, but the current thinking is that this process is usually temporary. The client should be advised to avoid the use of alcohol and recreational drugs at this time because they also impair memory. Chemotherapeutic agents are implicated in central nervous system function in this scenario, not infection.

The nurse presents a cancer prevention program to teens. Which instruction will have the greatest impact in cancer prevention? A. Avoid asbestos. B. Wear sunscreen. C. Get the human papilloma virus (HPV) vaccine. D. Do not smoke cigarettes.

D. Do not smoke cigarettes. All of these actions are part of cancer prevention; however, tobacco is the single most important source of preventable carcinogenesis. Asbestos may be found in older homes and buildings. Most schools have been through an asbestos abatement program so should not pose a risk. It would be important to share with teens who may be involved in the construction industry during the summer to be aware of asbestos risks. Although asbestos may present a risk for lung cancer, it is not a likely exposure for teens. Lifetime exposure to the sun and the use of tanning beds will increase the risk for cancer, but not as much as tobacco use. The HPV vaccine will decrease the risk for cervical cancer, but will not have as much of an impact on cancer prevention as avoiding tobacco.

A client with cancer is receiving chemotherapy and develops thrombocytopenia. Which intervention is a priority in the nursing plan of care?

Monitor the client for bleeding

The home health nurse is caring for a client who has a history of a kidney transplant and takes cyclosporine (Sandimmune) and prednisone (Deltasone) to prevent rejection. Which assessment finding is most important to communicate to the transplant team? A. Temperature of 96.6° F B. Reports of joint pain C. Pink and dry oral mucosa D. Palpable lump in the client's axilla

D. Palpable lump in the client's axilla Clients taking immunosuppressive drugs to prevent rejection are at increased risk for the development of cancer; any lump should be reported to the physician. Fever should be reported to the physician, but this client's temperature is normal. It is not necessary to report joint pain to the transplant team; it is not a sign of rejection and is not a complication of transplant. A pink and dry oral mucosa may be a sign of dehydration, but it is not necessary to report this to the transplant team.

An outpatient client is receiving photodynamic therapy. Which environmental factor is a priority for the client to adjust for protection? A. Storing drugs in dark locations at room temperature B. Wearing soft clothing C. Wearing a hat and sunglasses when going outside D. Reducing all direct and indirect sources of light

D. Reducing all direct and indirect sources of light Lighting of all types must be kept to a minimum with clients receiving photodynamic therapy; it can lead to burns of the skin and damage to the eyes because these clients' eyes are sensitive to light. Any drug that the client is prescribed should be considered for its photosensitivity properties; drugs should be stored according to the recommendations, but this is not the primary concern for this client. Clothing must cover the skin to prevent burns from direct or indirect light; texture is not a concern for the client receiving this treatment. The client will be homebound for 1 to 3 months after the treatment and should not go outside.

The nurse is assisting with conducting a health-promotion program at a local school. The nurse determines that there is a need for further teaching if a student identifies which as a risk factor associated with cancer?

Low-fat and high-fiber diets

The nurse should monitor for which laboratory result as indicating an adverse reaction in the client with endometrial cancer who is receiving chemotherapy?

Platelet count 20,000 cells/mm3