Nclex Review: Depression, Depression NCLEX, Bipolar Disorder NCLEX, Schizophrenia NCLEX Questions, Schizophrenia NCLEX questions, Schizophrenia NCLEX part 2, NCLEX Schizophrenia

Negative Symptoms

-Blunted affect -Poverty of thought(Alogia) -Loss of motivation(Avolition) -Inability to experience pleasure or joy(Anhedonia)

Depressive & Other mood symptoms

-Dysphoria -Suicidal -Hopelessness

Abnormal Motor Behavior

-Echolalia: Repeating speech of another person -Echopraxia: Repeating movements of another person -Waxy Flexibility: Having arms or legs in certain position and holding that same position for hours.

Positive symptoms

-Hallucinations -Delusions -Disorganized speech -Bizzare Behavior

Cognitive Symptoms

-Inattention, easily distracted -Impaired memory -Poor problem solving and decision making skills -illogical -impaired judgement

The client states to the nurse, "I take citalopram (Celexa) 40 mg every day like my physician prescribed. I have also been taking St. John's wort 750 mg daily for the past 2 weeks." Which of the following indicate that the client is developing serotonin syndrome? Select all that apply. 1. Confusion. 2. Restlessness. 3. Constipation. 4. Diaphoresis. 5. Ataxia.

1, 2, 3, 5, . Serotonin syndrome can occur if a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor is combined with a monoamine oxidase inhibitor, a tryptophan-serotonin precursor, or St. John's wort. Signs and symptoms of serotonin syndrome include mental status changes, such as confusion, restlessness or agitation, headache, diaphoresis, ataxia, myoclonus, shivering, tremor, diarrhea, nausea, abdominal cramps, and hyperreflexia. Constipation is not associated with serotonin syndrome.

The nurse is conducting an intake interview with an Asian American female who reports sadness, physical and mental fatigue, anxiety, and sleep disturbance. Prior to the client's time with the physician, it is important for the nurse to obtain information about the client's use of which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. Tea. 2. Herbal medicine. 3. Breathing exercise. 4. Massage. 5. Folk healer.

1, 2, 5. It is important for the nurse to obtain information about the client's use of tea, herbal medicine, and a folk healer because the information is critical to the safe prescription of psychotropic medication. Breathing exercises, massage, and acupuncture are also traditional therapies used by the Asian American population, but do not interfere with the use of medications.

The client diagnosed with severe major depression has been taking Lexapro 10 mg (escitalopram) daily for the past 2 weeks. Which of the following parameters should the nurse monitor most closely at this time? 1. Suicidal ideation. 2. Sleep. 3. Appetite. 4. Energy level.

1. After about 2 weeks of medication therapy, the nurse should expect improvements in sleep, appetite and energy though mood may not have improved significantly yet. The increased energy related to better sleep and food intake gives the client the ability to act on thoughts to harm self (suicide) since the depressed mood has not completely lifted.

During a group session, a client who is depressed tells the group that he lost his job. Which of the following responses by the nurse is best? 1. "It must have been very upsetting for you." 2. "Would you tell us about your job." 3. "You'll find another job when you're better." 4. "You were probably too depressed to work."

1. By stating, "It must have been very upsetting for you," the nurse conveys empathy to the client by recognizing the underlying meaning of a painful occurrence. The nurse's statement invites the client to verbalize feelings and thoughts and lets the client know that the nurse is listening to and respects the client. Telling the client to talk about the job disregards the client's feelings and is nontherapeutic for the depressed client because of underlying feelings of worthlessness and guilt that are commonly present. Telling the client that he will find another job when he is better or that he was probably too depressed to work is inappropriate because it disregards the client's feelings and may promote additional feelings of failure and inadequacy in the client.

The client is receiving 6 mg of selegiline transdermal system (Emsam) every 24 hours for major depression. The nurse should judge teaching about Emsam to be effective when the client makes which statement? 1. "I need to avoid using the sauna at the gym." 2. "I can cut the patch and use a smaller piece." 3. "I need to wait until the next day to put on a new patch if it falls off." 4. "I might gain at least 10 lb from Emsam."

1. Selegiline transdermal system is the first transdermal monoamine oxidase inhibitor. The client on Emsam needs to avoid exposing the application site to external sources of direct heat, such as saunas, heating lamps, electric blankets, heating pads, heated water beds, and prolonged direct sunlight because heat increases the amount of selegiline that is absorbed, resulting in elevated serum levels of selegiline. Cutting the patch and using a smaller piece will result in a decreased amount of medication absorption, most likely leading to a worsening of the symptoms of depression. The client should apply a new patch as soon as possible if one falls off to ensure an adequate amount of medication absorption. Emsam is not associated with significant weight gain, although a weight gain of 1 to 2 lb (2.2 to 4.4 kg) is possible.

The client with depression who is taking imipramine (Tofranil) states to the nurse, "My doctor wants me to have an electrocardiogram (ECG) in 2 weeks, but my heart is fine." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? 1. "It's routine practice to have ECGs periodically because there is a slight chance that the drug may affect the heart." 2. "It's probably a precautionary measure because I'm not aware that you have a cardiac condition." 3. "Try not to worry too much about this. Your doctor is just being very thorough in monitoring your condition." 4. "You had an ECG before you were prescribed imipramine and the procedure will be the same."

1. Telling the client that ECGs are done routinely for all clients taking imipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant, is an honest and direct response. Additionally, it provides some reassurance for the client. Commonly, a client with depression will ruminate, leading needlessly to increased anxiety. Tricyclic antidepressants may cause tachycardia, ECG changes, and cardiotoxicity. Telling the client that it's probably a precautionary measure because the nurse is not aware of a cardiac condition instills doubt and may cause undue anxiety for the client. Telling the client not to worry because the doctor is very thorough dismisses the client's concern and does not give the client adequate information. Explaining that the client had an ECG before initiating therapy with imipramine and that the procedure will be the same does not answer the client's question.

When developing the teaching plan for the family of a client with severe depression who is to receive electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), which of the following information should the nurse include? 1. Some temporary confusion and disorientation immediately after a treatment is common. 2. During an ECT treatment session, the client is at risk for aspiration. 3. Clients with severe depression usually do not respond to ECT. 4. The client will not be able to breathe independently during a treatment.

1. The family needs to be informed that some confusion and disorientation will occur as the client emerges from anesthesia immediately after ECT, to lessen their fear and anxiety about the procedure. The nurse will assist the client with reorientation (time, person, and place) and will give clear, simple instructions. The client may need to lie down after ECT because of the effects of the anesthesia. Informing the family that there is a danger of aspiration during ECT is inappropriate and unnecessary. The risk of aspiration occurring during ECT is minimal because food and fluids are withheld for 6 to 8 hours before the treatment. In addition, the client receives atropine to inhibit salivation and respiratory tract secretions. Telling the family that the client will not be able to breathe independently during ECT may frighten them unnecessarily. If asked, the nurse should inform the family that the anesthesiologist mechanically ventilates the client with 100% oxygen immediately before the treatment. The client with severe depression responds to ECT. Usually, ECT is used for those who are severely depressed and not responding to pharmacotherapy and for those who are highly suicidal.

The client exhibits a flat affect, psychomotor retardation, and depressed mood. The nurse attempts to engage the client in an interaction but the client does not respond to the nurse. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? 1. "I'll sit here with you for 15 minutes." 2. "I'll come back a little bit later to talk." 3. "I'll find someone else for you to talk with." 4. "I'll get you something to read."

1. The most appropriate action is for the nurse to remain with the client even if the client does not engage in conversation with the nurse. A client with severe depression may be unable to engage in an interaction with the nurse because the client feels worthless and lacks the necessary energy to do so. However, the nurse's presence conveys acceptance and caring, thus helping to increase the client's self-worth. Telling the client that the nurse will come back later, stating that the nurse will find someone else for the client to talk with, or telling the client that the nurse will get her something to read conveys to the client that she is not important, reinforcing the client's negative view of herself. Additionally, such statements interfere with the client's development of a sense of security and trust in the nurse.

The physician orders mirtazapine (Remeron) 30 mg P.O. at bedtime for a client diagnosed with depression. The nurse should: 1. Give the medication as ordered. 2. Question the physician's order. 3. Request to give the medication in the morning. 4. Give the medication in three divided doses.

1. The nurse should give the medication as ordered. Mirtazapine is given once daily, preferably at bedtime to minimize the risk of injury resulting from postural hypotension and sedative effects. The usual dosage ranges from 15 to 45 mg. There is no reason to question the physician's order. The nurse should administer the medication as ordered. Requesting to give the medication in three divided doses is inappropriate and demonstrates the nurse's lack of knowledge about the drug.

The client is taking 50 mg of lamotrigine (Lamictal) daily for bipolar depression. The client shows the nurse a rash on his arm. What should the nurse do? 1. Report the rash to the physician. 2. Explain that the rash is a temporary adverse effect. 3. Give the client an ice pack for his arm. 4. Question the client about recent sun exposure.

1. The nurse should immediately report the rash to the physician because lamotrigine can cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a toxic epidermal necrolysis. The rash is not a temporary adverse effect. Giving the client an ice pack and questioning the client about recent sun exposure are irresponsible nursing actions because of the possible seriousness of the rash.

After administering a prescribed medication to a client who becomes restless at night and has difficulty falling asleep, which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate? 1. Sitting quietly with the client at the bedside until the medication takes effect. 2. Engaging the client in interaction until the client falls asleep. 3. Reading to the client with the lights turned down low. 4. Encouraging the client to watch television until the client feels sleepy.

1. To promote adequate rest (6 to 8 hours per night) and to eliminate hyposomnia, the nurse should sit with the client at the bedside until the medication takes effect. The presence of a caring nurse provides the client with comfort and security and helps to decrease the client's anxiety. Engaging the client in interaction until the client falls asleep, reading to the client, or encouraging the client to watch television may be too stimulating for the client, consequently increasing rather than decreasing the client's restlessness.

A client with schizophrenia is prescribed second-generations antipsychotic. The client's mother asks, "About how long will it take until we see any changes in his symptoms?" Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? 1. "Generally, it takes about one to two weeks to be effective in changing symptoms" 2. "You should see improvement in about 36 to 48 hours" 3. "His symptoms should subside almost immediately" 4. "It will take about 6 to 12 weeks until the drug is effective"

1. "Generally, it takes about one to two weeks to be effective in changing symptoms" Generally, it takes about one to two weeks for antipsychotic drugs to effect a change in symptoms. During the stabilization period, the selected drug should be given an adequate trial, generally 6 to 12 weeks, before considering a change in the drug prescription. If treatment effects are not seen, another antipsychotic agent may be tried

Types of Schizophrenia

1. Catatonic 2. Paranoid 3. Residual 4.Disorganized 5.Undifferentiated

Positive symptoms of schizophrenia, specifically hallucinations and delusions, are thought to be caused by hyperactivity of which neurotransmitter? 1. Dopamine 2. Norepinephrine 3. Acetylcholine 4. Epinephrine

1. Dopamine Positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as delusions and hallucinations, are thought to be caused by dopamine hyperactivity in the mesolimbic tract at the D2 receptor site in the striatal area, where memory and emotion are regulated. Hyperactivity of acetylcholine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine are not associated with schizophrenia

A nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with schizophrenia. The nurse suspects that the client may be experiencing water intoxication based on which finding? SATA 1. Emotional lability 2. Enhanced attention span 3. Muscle twitching 4. Increase in hallucinations 4. Irritability

1. Emotional lability 3. Muscle twitching 4. Increase in hallucinations 4. Irritability Findings associated with water intoxication include muscle twitching, irritability, increased psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations, and lability. Enhanced attention is not associated with water intoxication

A client with schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine (Clozaril). The nurse would monitor the client closely for specific signs of which of the following? 1. Infection 2. Hypotension 3. Nausea 4. Weight loss

1. Infection Agranulocytosis can develop with the use of all antipsychotic drugs, but it is most likely to develop with clozapine use. Therefore, the nurse needs to be alert for signs of infection, particularly bacterial infection. Hypotension may occur with any antipsychotic drug. Nausea is a common side effect of many drugs. Weight gain, not loss, can occur with olanzapine and clozapine

Which of the following are key diagnostic criteria of schizophrenia? SATA 1. One or more major areas of social or occupational functioning markedly below previously achieved levels 2. Continuous signs for at least six months 3. Delusions present for a significant portion of time during a one-month period 4. Major depression occurring concurrently with active symptoms 5. A direct physiologic effect of a substance or medical condition

1. One or more major areas of social or occupational functioning markedly below previously achieved levels 2. Continuous signs for at least six months 3. Delusions present for a significant portion of time during a one-month period Key diagnostic criteria includes continuous signs for at least six months, one or more major areas of social or occupational functioning markedly below previously achieved levels, and delusions present for a significant portion of time during a one-month period. Other criteria include the absence, or insignificant duration, of major depressive, manic, or mixed episodes occurring concurrently with active symptoms, and that the disease is not a direct physiologic effect of a substance or medical condition

11. A client is diagnosed with bipolar disorder: manic episode. Which nursing intervention would be implemented to achieve the outcome of "Client will gain 2 lb by the end of the week?" 1. Provide client with high-calorie finger foods throughout the day. 2. Accompany client to cafeteria to encourage adequate dietary consumption. 3. Initiate total parenteral nutrition to meet dietary needs. 4. Teach the importance of a varied diet to meet nutritional needs.

1. Provide client with high-calorie finger foods throughout the day.

4. A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder: depressive episode intentionally overdoses on sertraline (Zoloft). Family members report that the client has experienced anorexia, insomnia, and recent job loss. Which nursing diagnosis should a nurse prioritize? 1. Risk for suicide R/T hopelessness 2. Anxiety: severe R/T hyperactivity 3. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements R/T refusal to eat 4. Dysfunctional grieving R/T loss of employment

1. Risk for suicide R/T hopelessness

Which of the following is considered a first-generation antipsychotic drug used to treat psychosis in the United States? 1. fluphenazine (Proxlixin) 2. clozapine (Clozaril) 3. olanzapine (Zyprexa) 4. aripiprazole (Abilify)

1. fluphenazine (Proxlixin) Fluphenazine (Proxlixin) is a first-generation antipsychotic medication. Abilify, Clozaril, and Zyprexa are second-generation antipsychotics

The client with depression has been consistent with taking 12.5 mg of paroxetine (Paxil) extended release daily. The nurse judges the client to be benefiting from this drug therapy when the client demonstrates which of the following behaviors? Select all that apply. 1. Takes 2-hour evening naps daily. 2. Completes homework assignments. 3. Decreases pacing. 4. Increases somatization. 5. Verbalizes feelings.

2, 3, 5. Symptoms of depression include depressed mood, anhedonia, appetite disturbance, sleep disturbance, psychomotor disturbance, fatigue, feelings of worthlessness, excessive or inappropriate guilt, decreased concentration, and recurrent thoughts of death or suicide. Paroxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor antidepressant that also can be used to treat anxiety. Improved concentration, verbalization of feelings, and decreased agitation or pacing are signs of improvement. Taking 2-hour evening naps daily is still a sign of fatigue or lack of energy, and the increased use of somatization (bodily complaints) could be signs of continued symptoms of depression.

A female client with severe depression and weight loss has not eaten since admission to the hospital 2 days ago. Which of the following approaches should the nurse include when developing this client's plan of care to ensure that she eats? 1. Serving the client her meal trays in her room. 2. Sitting with the client and spoon-feeding if required. 3. Calling the family to bring the client food from home. 4. Explaining the importance of nutrition in recovery.

2. A depressed client commonly is not interested in eating because of the psychopathology of the disorder. Therefore, the nurse must take responsibility to ensure that the client eats, including spoon-feeding the client (placing the food on the spoon, putting the food near the client's mouth, and asking her to eat) if necessary. Serving the client her tray in her room does not ensure that she will eat. Calling the family to bring the client food from home usually is allowed, but it is still the nurse's responsibility to ensure that the client eats. Explaining the importance of nutrition in recovery is not helpful. The client may intellectually know that eating is important but may not be interested in eating or want to eat.

A client with major depression and psychotic features is admitted involuntarily to the hospital. He will not eat because his "bowels have turned to jelly," which the client states is punishment for his wickedness. The client requests to leave the hospital. The nurse denies the request because commitment papers have been initiated by the physician. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a criterion for the client to be legally committable? 1. Evidence of psychosis. 2. Being gravely disabled. 3. Risk of harm to self or others. 4. Diagnosis of mental illness

2. Criteria for commitment include being gravely disabled and posing a harm to self or others. This client is not threatening to harm himself in the form of suicide or to harm others. The client is gravely disabled because of his inability to care for himself- namely, not eating because of his delusion. Evidence of psychosis or psychotic symptoms or diagnosis of a mental illness alone does not make the client legally eligible for commitment.

A client with depression who is taking doxepin (Sinequan) 100 mg P.O. at bedtime has dizziness on arising. Which of the following suggestions is most appropriate? 1. "Try taking a hot shower." 2. "Get up slowly and dangle your feet before standing." 3. "Stay in bed until you are feeling better." 4. "You need to limit the fluids you drink."

2. Doxepin and other tricyclic antidepressants may cause postural hypotension, especially in the morning. Postural hypotension occurs because the tricyclic antidepressant inhibits the body's natural vasoconstrictive reaction when a person stands. The nurse regularly monitors the client's vital signs, both lying and standing. The nurse should instruct the client to rise slowly and dangle his feet before standing. Advising the client to take a hot shower is detrimental to the client's safety. Heat causes vasodilation, which could further exacerbate the dizziness, placing the client at risk for falls and subsequent injury. Telling the client to stay in bed until he is feeling better is not helpful and is impractical. The client with depression would rather stay in bed and withdraw from others. Placing the client on fluid restriction is detrimental to the client with depression whose fluid and food intake may be inadequate.

A client is receiving paroxetine (Paxil) 20 mg every morning. After taking the first three doses, the client tells the nurse that the medication upsets his stomach. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give to the client? 1. "Take the medication an hour before breakfast." 2. "Take the medication with some food." 3. "Take the medication at bedtime." 4. "Take the medication with 4 oz of orange juice."

2. Nausea and gastrointestinal upset is a common, but usually temporary, side effect of paroxetine (Paxil). Therefore, the nurse would instruct the client to take the medication with food to minimize nausea and stomach upset. Other more common side effects are dry mouth, constipation, headache, dizziness, sweating, loss of appetite, ejaculatory problems in men, and decreased orgasms in women. Taking the medication an hour before breakfast would most likely lead to further gastrointestinal upset. Taking the medication at bedtime is not recommended because Paxil can cause nervousness and interfere with sleep. Because orange juice is acidic, taking the medication with it, especially on an empty stomach, may lead to nausea or increase the client's gastrointestinal upset.

A client who experienced sleep disturbances, feelings of worthlessness, and an inability to concentrate for the past 3 months was fired from her job a month ago. The client tells the nurse, "My boss was wonderful! He was understanding and a really nice man." The nurse interprets the client's statement as representing the defense mechanism of reaction formation. Which of the following would be the best response by the nurse? 1. "But, I don't understand, wasn't he the one who fired you?" 2. "Tell me more about having to work while not being able to sleep or concentrate." 3. "It must have been hard to leave a boss like that." 4. "It sounds like he would hire you back if you asked.

2. Option 1 casts doubt on the client's perception, which is likely to increase the client's anxiety and make the client feel defensive. Options 3 & 4 further the client's unrealistic perception of the situation. Option 2 focuses on the client and her feelings which is the most effective approach to help her realistically consider her situation and decrease the anxiety that led the client to use the defense mechanism of reaction formation.

When teaching the client with atypical depression about foods to avoid while taking phenelzine (Nardil), which of the following should the nurse include? 1. Roasted chicken. 2. Salami. 3. Fresh fish. 4. Hamburger.

2. Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). MAOIs block the enzyme monoamine oxidase, which is involved in the decomposition and inactivation of norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, and tyramine (a precursor to the previously stated neurotransmitters). Foods high in tyramine- those that are fermented, pickled, aged, or smoked- must be avoided because, when they are ingested in combination with MAOIs, a hypertensive crisis occurs. Some examples include salami, bologna, dried fish, sour cream, yogurt, aged cheese, bananas, pickled herring, caffeinated beverages, chocolate, licorice, beer, Chianti, and alcohol-free beer.

Which of the following comments indicates that a client understands the nurse's teaching about sertraline (Zoloft)? 1. "Zoloft will probably cause me to gain weight." 2. "This medicine can cause delayed ejaculations." 3. "Dry mouth is a permanent side effect of Zoloft." 4. "I can take my medicine with St. John's wort."

2. Sertraline, like other selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), can cause decreased libido and sexual dysfunction such as delayed ejaculation in men and an inability to achieve orgasm in women. SSRIs do not typically cause weight gain but may cause loss of appetite and weight loss. Dry mouth is a possible side effect, but it is temporary. The client should be told to take sips of water, suck on ice chips, or use sugarless gum or candy. St. John's wort should not be taken with SSRIs because a severe reaction could occur.

During an interaction with the nurse, a client states, "My husband has supported me every time I've been hospitalized for depression. He'll leave me this time. I'm an awful wife and mother. I'm no good. Nothing I do is right." Based on this information, which of the following nursing diagnoses should the nurse identify when developing the client's plan of care? 1. Impaired social interaction related to unsatisfactory relationships as evidenced by withdrawal. 2. Chronic low self-esteem related to lack of self-worth as evidenced by negative statements. 3. Risk for self-directed violence related to feelings of guilt as evidenced by statements of suicidal ideation. 4. Ineffective coping related to hospitalizations as evidenced by impaired judgment.

2. The client's negative thinking and statements are directly related to the psychopathology of depression. The client's views and feelings about herself reflect low self-esteem. Although Impaired social interaction, Risk for self-directed violence, and Ineffective coping are possible nursing diagnoses, there are insufficient data to support these diagnoses. Further assessment is needed to identify supportive data.

A client was admitted to the inpatient unit 3 days ago with a flat affect, psychomotor retardation, anorexia, hopelessness, and suicidal ideation. The physician prescribed 75 mg of venlafaxine extended release (Effexor XR) to be given every morning. The client interacted minimally with the staff and spent most of the day in his room. As the nurse enters the unit at the beginning of the evening shift, the client is smiling and cheerfully greets the nurse. He appears to be relaxed and joins the group for community meeting before supper. What should the nurse interpret as the most likely cause of the client's behavior? 1. The Effexor is helping the client's symptoms of depression significantly. 2. The client's sudden improvement calls for close observation by the staff. 3. The staff can decrease their observation of the client. 4. The client is nearing discharge due to the improvement of his symptoms.

2. The client's sudden improvement and decrease in anxiety most likely indicates that the client is relieved because he has made the decision to kill himself and may now have the energy to complete the suicide. Symptoms of severe depression do not suddenly abate because most antidepressants work slowly and take 2 to 4 weeks to provide a maximum benefit. The client will improve slowly due to the medication. The sudden improvement in symptoms does not mean the client is nearing discharge and decreasing observation of the client compromises the client's safety.

The client with major depression and suicidal ideation has been taking bupropion (Wellbutrin) 100 mg P.O. four times daily for 5 days. Assessment reveals the client to be somewhat less withdrawn, able to perform activities of daily living with minimal assistance, and eating 50% of each meal. At this time, the nurse should monitor the client specifically for which of the following behaviors? 1. Seizure activity. 2. Suicide attempt. 3. Visual disturbances. 4. Increased libido.

2. The nurse must monitor the client for a suicide attempt at this time when the client is starting to feel better because the depressed client may now have enough energy to carry out an attempt. Bupropion inhibits dopamine reuptake; it is an activating antidepressant and could cause agitation. Although bupropion lowers the seizure threshold, especially at doses greater than 450 mg/ day, and visual disturbances and increased libido are possible adverse effects, the nurse must closely monitor the client for suicide attempt. As the client with major depression begins to feel better, the client may have enough energy to carry out an attempt.

A client diagnosed with major depression spends most of the day lying in bed with the sheet pulled over his head. Which of the following approaches by the nurse is most therapeutic? 1. Wait for the client to begin the conversation. 2. Initiate contact with the client frequently. 3. Sit outside the client's room. 4. Question the client until he responds.

2. The nurse should initiate brief, frequent contacts throughout the day to let the client know that he is important to the nurse. This will positively affect the client's self-esteem. The nurse's action conveys acceptance of the client as a worthwhile person and provides some structure to the seemingly monotonous day. Waiting for the client to begin the conversation with the nurse is not helpful because the depressed client resists interaction and involvement with others. Sitting outside of the client's room is not productive and not necessary in this situation. If the client were actively suicidal, then a one-on-one client-to-staff assignment would be necessary. Questioning the client until he responds would overwhelm him because he could not meet the nurse's expectations to interact.

The physician orders fluoxetine (Prozac) orally every morning for a 72-year-old client with depression. Which transient adverse effect of this drug requires immediate action by the nurse? 1. Nausea. 2. Dizziness. 3. Sedation. 4. Dry mouth.

2. The presence of dizziness could indicate orthostatic hypotension, which may cause injury to the client from falling. Nausea, sedation, and dry mouth do not require immediate intervention by the nurse.

9. What tool should a nurse use to differentiate occasional spontaneous behaviors of children from behaviors associated with bipolar disorder? 1. "Risky Activity" tool 2. "FIND" tool 3. "Consensus Committee" tool 4. "Monotherapy" tool

2. "FIND" tool Rationale: The nurse should use the "FIND" tool to differentiate occasional spontaneous behaviors of children from behaviors associated with bipolar disorder. FIND is an acronym that stands for frequency, intensity, number, and duration and is used to assess behaviors in children.

A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder is distraught over insomnia experienced over the last 3 nights and a 12-pound weight loss over the past 2 weeks. Which should be this client's priority nursing diagnosis? 1. Knowledge deficit R/T bipolar disorder AEB concern about symptoms 2. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements R/T hyperactivity AEB weight loss 3. Risk for suicide R/T powerlessness AEB insomnia and anorexia 4. Altered sleep patterns R/T mania AEB insomnia for the past 3 nights

2. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements R/T hyperactivity AEB weight loss

13. A client has been diagnosed with major depressive episode. After treatment with fluoxetine (Prozac), the client exhibits pressured speech and flight of ideas. Based on this symptom change, which physician action would the nurse anticipate? 1. Increase the dosage of fluoxetine. 2. Discontinue the fluoxetine and rethink the client's diagnosis. 3. Order benztropine (Cogentin) to address extrapyramidal symptoms. 4. Order olanzapine (Zyprexa) to address altered thoughts.

2. Discontinue the fluoxetine and rethink the client's diagnosis.

14. Which is the basic premise of a recovery model used to treat clients diagnosed with bipolar disorder? 1. Medication adherence 2. Empowerment of the consumer 3. Total absence of symptoms 4. Improved psychosocial relationships

2. Empowerment of the consumer

When investigating biologic theories related to schizophrenia, which of the following neuroanatomic findings would be consistent with this mental health disorder? 1. Enlarged hippocampus 2. Enlarged lateral ventricle 3. Smaller third ventricle 4. Enlarged brain volume

2. Enlarged lateral ventricle The lateral and third ventricles are somewhat larger, and total brain volume is somewhat smaller, in persons with schizophrenia compared with those without schizophrenia. The thalamus and the medial temporal lobe structures, including the hippocampus, superior temporal, and prefrontal cortices, also tend to be smaller

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is in anticholinergic crisis. The nurse would expect which finding to be noted upon assessment? 1. Bradycardia 2. Facial flushing 3. Incontinence 4. Hypothermia

2. Facial flushing Clinical manifestations of anticholinergic crisis include facial flushing, tachycardia. urinary retention, and hyperthermia (fever)

5. A client diagnosed with bipolar I disorder: manic episode refuses to take lithium carbonate (Lithobid) because of excessive weight gain. In order to increase adherence, which medication should a nurse anticipate that a physician may prescribe? 1. Sertraline (Zoloft) 2. Valproic acid (Depakote) 3. Trazodone (Desyrel) 4. Paroxetine (Paxil)

2. Valproic acid (Depakote)

A client diagnosed with major depression has sleep and appetite disturbances, a flat affect and is withdrawn. The client has been taking fluvoxamine (Luvox) 50 mg twice daily for 5 days. Which client behavior is most important to report to the next shift? 1. Client's flat affect. 2. Client's interacting with a visitor. 3. Client sleeping from 11 p.m. to 6 a.m. 4. Client spending the entire evening in her room.

3. The most important behavior to report to the next shift is that the client was able to sleep from 11 p.m. to 6 a.m. This indicates that improvement in the symptoms of depression is occurring as a result of pharmacologic therapy. The nurse would expect to observe improvement in sleep, appetite, and psychomotor behavior first before improvement in cognitive symptoms. The client's flat affect is still a symptom of depression. The fact that the client had a visitor is not as important as changes in the client's behavior. Spending the evening in the room is a continuation of the client's withdrawn behavior and is important to report but not as important as the improvement in sleep.

A nurse is conducting a psychoeducational group for family members of clients hospitalized with depression. Which family member's statement indicates a need for additional teaching? 1. "My husband will slowly feel better as his medicine takes effect over the next 2 to 4 weeks." 2. "My wife will need to take her antidepressant medicine and go to group to stay well." 3. "My son will only need to attend outpatient appointments when he starts to feel depressed again." 4. "My mother might need help with grocery shopping, cooking, and cleaning for a while."

3. Additional teaching is needed for the family member who states her son will only need to attend outpatient appointments when he starts to feel depressed again. Compliance with medication and outpatient follow-up are key in preventing relapse and rehospitalization. The statements expressing expectations of feeling better as medication takes effect, needing medicine and group therapy to stay well, and needing help with grocery shopping, cooking, and cleaning for a while indicate the families' understanding of depression, medication, and follow-up care.

After a period of unsuccessful treatment with Elavil (amitriptyline), a woman diagnosed with depression is switched to Parnate (tranylcypromine). Which statement by the client indicates the client understands the side effects of Parnate? 1. "I need to increase my intake of sodium." 2. "I must refrain from strenuous exercise." 3. "I must refrain from eating aged cheese or yeast products." 4. "I should decrease my intake of foods containing sugar."

3. Cheese and yeast products contain tyramine which the client should avoid to prevent a negative interaction with Parnate, a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor. Sodium will not interact with Parnate and neither exercise nor sugar needs to be limited.

When developing a teaching plan for a client about the medications prescribed for depression, which of the following components is most important for the nurse to include? Create 1. Pharmacokinetics of the medication. 2. Current research related to the medication. 3. Management of common adverse effects. 4. Dosage regulation and adjustment.

3. Compliance with medication therapy is crucial for the client with depression. Medication noncompliance is the primary cause of relapse among psychiatric clients. Therefore, the nurse needs to teach the client about managing common adverse effects to promote compliance with medication. Teaching the client about the medication's pharmacokinetics may help the client to understand the reason for the drug. However, teaching about how to manage common adverse effects to promote compliance is crucial. Current research about the medication is more important to the nurse than to the client. Teaching about dosage regulation and adjustment of medication may be helpful, but typically the physician, not the client, is the person in charge of this aspect

A nurse is educating a client who has been diagnosed with dysthymia about possible treatment for the disorder. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? 1. "Antidepressants, particularly the SSRI group, offer you the best treatment for your dysthymia." 2. "Doctors recommend that clients experiencing dysthymia receive electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) to treat their disorder." 3. "Because you have a mild, though long-lasting dysthymic mood, psychotherapy can usually bring improvement with less likelihood of the need for medication." 4. "Since your dysthymia indicates a long-lasting mild depression, long-term psychoanalysis would be the best treatment for you."

3. Dysthymia is a milder, persistent type of depression in which sufferers are able to minimally carry on their work (Option 3). Options 1 and 2 are treatments used for occurrences of major depression with ECT being used as a last resort when several medications fail. Psychoanalysis is a very involved, long-term treatment rarely used now due to its cost and the long period of treatment required for results.

A client who has had three episodes of recurrent endogenous depression within the past 2 years states to the nurse, "I want to know why I'm so depressed." Which of the following statements by the nurse is most helpful? 1. "I know you'll get better with the right medication." 2. "Let's discuss possible reasons underlying your depression." 3. "Your depression is most likely caused by a brain chemical imbalance." 4. "Members of your family seem very supportive of you."

3. Endogenous depression (depression coming from within the person) is biochemical in nature. The biologic theory of depression indicates a neurotransmitter imbalance involving serotonin, norepinephrine, and possibly dopamine. Reactive depression is caused by the occurrence of something happening outside the body, such as the death of a loved one or another significant loss. Stating that the client will improve with the right medication or that family members seem supportive does not address the client's immediate concerns of not knowing the cause of the depression. Discussing possible reasons for the client's depression is nontherapeutic because the depression is endogenous and biochemically based.

When preparing a teaching plan for a client about imipramine (Tofranil), which of the following substances should the nurse tell the client to avoid while taking the medication? 1. Caffeinated coffee. 2. Sunscreen. 3. Alcohol. 4. Artificial tears.

3. Imipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant, in combination with alcohol will produce additive central nervous system depression. Although caffeinated coffee is safe to use when the client is taking imipramine, it is not recommended for a client with depression who may be experiencing sleep disturbances. Imipramine may cause photosensitivity so the client would be instructed to use sunscreen and protective clothing when exposed to the sun. Reduced lacrimation may occur as a side effect of imipramine. Therefore, the use of artificial tears may be recommended.

The client with recurring depression will be discharged from the psychiatric unit. Which suggestion to the family is best to help them prepare for the client's return home? 1. Discourage visitors while the client is at home. 2. Provide for a schedule of activities outside the home. 3. Involve the client in usual at-home activities. 4. Encourage the client to sleep as much as possible.

3. It is best to involve the client in usual at-home activities as much as the client can tolerate them. Discouraging visitors may not be in the client's best interest because visits with supportive significant others will help reinforce supportive relationships, which are important to the client's self-worth and self-esteem. Providing for a schedule of activities outside the home may be overwhelming for the client initially. Involving the client in planning for outside activities would be appropriate. Encouraging the client to sleep as much as possible is nontherapeutic and promotes withdrawal from others.

Which of the following statements by a client taking trazodone (Desyrel) as prescribed by the physician indicates to the nurse that further teaching about the medication is needed? 1. "I will continue to take my medication after a light snack." 2. "Taking Desyrel at night will help me to sleep." 3. "My depression will be gone in about 5 to 7 days." 4. "I won't drink alcohol while taking Desyrel."

3. Symptom relief can occur during the 1st week of therapy, with optimal effects possible within 2 weeks. For some clients, 2 to 4 weeks is needed for optimal effects. The client's statement that the depression will be gone in 5 to 7 days indicates to the nurse that clarification and further teaching is needed. Trazodone should be taken after a meal or light snack to enhance its absorption. Trazodone can cause drowsiness, and therefore the major portion of the drug should be taken at bedtime. The depressant effects of central nervous system depressants and alcohol may be potentiated by this drug

The client who has been taking venlafaxine (Effexor) 25 mg P.O. three times a day for the past 2 days states, "This medicine isn't doing me any good. I'm still so depressed." Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate? 1. "Perhaps we'll need to increase your dose." 2. "Let's wait a few days and see how you feel." 3. "It takes about 2 to 4 weeks to receive the full effects." 4. "It's too soon to tell if your medication will help you."

3. The client needs to be informed of the time lag involved with antidepressant therapy. Although improvement in the client's symptoms will occur gradually over the course of 1 to 2 weeks, typically it takes 2 to 4 weeks to get the full effects of the medication. This information will help the client be compliant with medication and will also help in decreasing any anxiety the client has about not feeling better. The client's dose may not need to be increased; it is too early to determine the full effectiveness of the drug. Additionally, such a statement may increase the client's anxiety and diminish self-worth. Telling the client to wait a few days discounts the client's feelings and is inappropriate. Although it is too soon to tell whether the medication will be effective, telling this to the client may cause the client undue distress. This statement is somewhat negative because it is possible that the medication will not be effective, possibly further compounding the client's anxiety about not feeling better

Which of the following behaviors exhibited by a client with depression should lead the nurse to determine that the client is ready for discharge? 1. Interactions with staff and peers. 2. Sleeping for 4 hours in the afternoon and 4 hours at night. 3. Verbalization of feeling in control of self and situations. 4. Statements of dissatisfaction over not being able to perform at work.

3. The client who verbalizes feeling in control of self and situations no longer feels powerless to affect an outcome but realizes that one's actions can have an impact on self and situations. It is common for the client with depression to feel powerless to affect an outcome and to feel a lack of control over a situation. Although interacting with staff and peers is a positive action, the client could be conversing in a negative or nontherapeutic manner. Sleeping 4 hours in the afternoon and 4 hours at night is evidence of symptomatology and does not indicate improvement or recovery. Verbalizing dissatisfaction over not being able to perform at work indicates that the client is most likely focusing on shortcomings and powerlessness.

A 62-year-old female client with severe depression and psychotic symptoms is scheduled for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) tomorrow morning. The client's daughter asks the nurse, "How painful will the treatment be for Mom?" The nurse should respond by saying which of the following? 1. "Your mother will be given something for pain before the treatment." 2. "The physician will make sure your mother doesn't suffer needlessly." 3. "Your mother will be asleep during the treatment and will not be in pain." 4. "Your mother will be able talk to us and tell us if she's in pain."

3. The nurse should explain that ECT is a safe treatment and that the client is given an ultra- short-acting anesthetic to induce sleep before ECT and a muscle relaxant to prevent musculoskeletal complications during the convulsion, which typically lasts 30 to 60 seconds to be therapeutic. Atropine is given before ECT to inhibit salivation and respiratory tract secretions and thereby minimize the risk of aspiration. Medication for pain is not necessary and is not given before or during the treatment. Some clients experience a headache after the treatment and may request and be given an analgesic such as acetaminophen (Tylenol). Telling the daughter that the physician will ensure that the client does not suffer needlessly would not provide accurate information about ECT. This statement also implies that the client will have pain during the treatment, which is untrue

A client has been taking 30 mg of duloxetine hydrochloride (Cymbalta) twice daily for 2 months because of depression and vague aches and pains. While interacting with the nurse, the client discloses a pattern of drinking a 6-pack of beer daily for the past 10 years to help with sleep. What should the nurse do first? 1. Refer the client to the dual diagnosis program at the clinic. 2. Share the information at the next interdisciplinary treatment conference. 3. Report the client's beer consumption to the physician. 4. Teach the client relaxation exercises to perform before bedtime.

3. The nurse should report the client's beer consumption to the physician. Duloxetine should not be administered to a client with renal or hepatic insufficiency because the medication can elevate liver enzymes and, together with substantial alcohol use, can cause liver injury. Referring the client to the dual diagnosis program, sharing information at the next interdisciplinary treatment conference, and teaching the client relaxation exercises are helpful interventions for the nurse to implement. However, reporting the findings to the physician is most important.

7. A client began taking lithium carbonate (Lithobid) for the treatment of bipolar disorder approximately 1 month ago. The client asks if it is normal to have gained 12 pounds in this time frame. Which is the appropriate nursing response? 1. "That's strange. Weight loss is the typical pattern." 2. "What have you been eating? Weight gain is not usually associated with lithium." 3. "Weight gain is a common, but troubling, side effect." 4. "Weight gain only occurs during the first month of treatment with this drug."

3. "Weight gain is a common, but troubling, side effect."

Which of the following would the nurse expect to administer to a client with schizophrenia who is experiencing a dystonic reaction? 1. Risperidone (Risperdal) 2. Trihexyphenidyl (Artane) 3. Benztropine (Cogentin) 4. Aripiprazole (Abilify)

3. Benztropine (Cogentin) A client experiencing a dystonic reaction should receive immediate treatment with benztropine (Cogentin). Risperidone (Risperdal) and aripiprzole (Abilify) are antipsychotics that may cause dystonic reactions. Trihexyphenidyl (Artane) is used to treat Parkinsonism due to antipsychotic drugs

After teaching a group of nursing students about neurotransmitters associated with schizophrenia, the nursing instructor determines that the education was successful when the students verify which of the following as playing a role in the positive symptoms of schizophrenia? 1. Glutamate 2. Serotonin 3. Dopamine 4. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

3. Dopamine Positive symptoms of schizophrenia, specifically hallucinations and delusions, are thought to be related to dopamine hyperactivity. Studies are revealing that schizophrenia does not result from the dysregulation of a single neurotransmitter or biogenic amine, such as norepinephrine or serotonin. Hypothesis suggests a role for glutamate and GABA. However, dopamine dysfunction is also thought to be involved in psychosis with other disorders

12. A nursing instructor is teaching about bipolar disorders. Which statement differentiates the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria of a manic episode from a hypomanic episode? 1. During a manic episode, clients may experience an inflated self-esteem or grandiosity, and these symptoms are absent in hypomania. 2. During a manic episode, clients may experience a decreased need for sleep, and this symptom is absent in hypomania. 3. During a manic episode, clients may experience psychosis, and this symptom is absent in hypomania. 4. During a manic episode, clients may experience flight of ideas and racing thoughts, and these symptoms are absent in hypomania.

3. During a manic episode, clients may experience psychosis, and this symptom is absent in hypomania.

Clients diagnosed with schizophrenia may experience disordered water balance that may lead to water intoxication. Which of the following may occur as a result of water intoxication? 1. Oliguria 2. Hypernatremia 3. Hyponatremia 4. Weight loss

3. Hyponatremia Hyponatremia is a life-threatening complication of unknown cause. When a client ingests an unusually large volume of water, the kidneys' capacity to excrete water is overwhelmed, and serum sodium levels rapidly fall below the normal range of 135 to 145 mEq/L, to a neurological signs such as muscle twitching and irritability, and the client is at risk for seizures, coma or possible death. Polyuria and increased diurnal weight gain may occur.

A client with schizophrenia is experiencing delusions. The client states, "There's a huge apocalypse coming and an end of the world is near." The nurse interprets this statement as which type of delusion? 1. Somatic 2. Grandiose 3. Nihilistic 4. Persecutory

3. Nihilistic A nihilistic delusion involves the belief that one is dead or a calamity is impending. A grandiose delusion involves the belief that one has exceptional powers, wealth, skill, influence, or destiny. A persecutory delusion involves the belief that one is being watched, ridiculed, harmed or plotted against. A somatic delusion involves the belief about abnormalities in bodily structure or functions

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is having delusions that he is being plotted against by the government. This would be documented as which of the following types of delusion? 1. Somatic 2. Grandiose 3. Persecutory 4. Nihilistic

3. Persecutory A persecutory delusion is a belief that one is being watched, ridiculed, harmed, or plotted against. The belief that one has exceptional powers, wealth. skill, influence, or destiny is a grandiose delusion. A nihilistic delusion is the belief that one is dead or a calamity is impending. A somatic delusion is the belief about abnormalities in bodily functions or structures

Which of the following is an anticholinergic side effect associated with some antipsychotic medications? 1. Increased tearing 2. Salivation 3. Photophobia 4. Diarrhea

3. Photophobia Photophobia, dry mouth, decreased lacrimation, and constipation are anticholinergic side effects associated with some antipsychotic medications

A client has been prescribed clozapine (Clozaril) for treatment of schizophrenia. The patient must be taught to monitor which blood levels weekly while taking this drug? 1. Platelets 2. Hemoglobin 3. WBC 4. Hematocrit

3. WBC Agranulocytosis can develop with the use of all antipsychotic drugs, but it is most likely to develop with clozapine use. Clients taking clozapine should have regular blood tests. White blood cells and granulocyte counts should be measured before treatment is initiated, and at least weekly or twice weekly after treatment begins

Which of the following is the best predictor of a client's favorable response to the choice of an antidepressant? 1. The drug's side effect profile. 2. The client's age at diagnosis. 3. The cost of the medication. 4. A favorable response by a family member.

4. A favorable response by a family member to a medication and a previous response to medication are good predictors of a favorable client response to a medication because the illness is genetic and hereditary. Although the side effects of the drug, the client's age at diagnosis, and the cost of the medication are important factors to consider when choosing antidepressant therapy, this information does not necessarily predict how a client will respond to a specific drug.

When assessing a client who is receiving tricyclic antidepressant therapy, which of the following should alert the nurse to the possibility that the client is experiencing anticholinergic effects? Analyze 1. Tremors and cardiac arrhythmias. 2. Sedation and delirium. 3. Respiratory depression and convulsions. 4. Urine retention and blurred vision.

4. Anticholinergic effects, which result from blockage of the parasympathetic (craniosacral) nervous system, include urine retention, blurred vision, dry mouth, and constipation. Tremors, cardiac arrhythmias, and sexual dysfunction are possible side effects, but they are caused by increased norepinephrine availability. Sedation and delirium are not anticholinergic effects. Sedation may be a therapeutic effect because many clients with depression experience agitation and insomnia. Delirium, typically not a side effect, would indicate toxicity, especially in elderly clients. Respiratory depression, convulsions, ataxia, agitation, stupor, and coma indicate tricyclic antidepressant toxicity.

A client who is depressed states, "I'm an awful person. Everything about me is bad. I can't do anything right." Which of the following responses by the nurse is most therapeutic? 1. "Everybody around here likes you." 2. "I can see many good qualities in you." 3. "Let's discuss what you've done correctly." 4. "You were able to bathe today."

4. By saying, "You were able to bathe today," the nurse is pointing out a visible accomplishment or strength, thereby increasing the client's feelings of self-worth and self-esteem. Stating that "everybody around here likes you" or discussing what the client has done correctly is inappropriate because although the client may agree with the nurse, the client still may be depressed. Stating that the nurse sees many good qualities in the client is not helpful because a person's feeling of self-worth is generally determined by accomplishments. Intellectual understanding does not help the client with severe depression. Additionally, the nurse cannot talk a client out of depression because major depression is endogenous and biochemical in nature. Medication should restore the neurotransmitter balance and relieve the depression.

The nurse is distinguishing between delusions experienced by a client diagnosed with major depression with psychotic features and the delusions of a client diagnosed with schizophrenia. The essential difference is: 1. Major depression delusions are more likely to be negative than schizophrenic delusions. 2. Major depression delusions clear up less quickly than schizophrenic delusions. 3. Major depression delusions are more likely than schizophrenic delusions to require long-acting depot antipsychotic medication given intramuscularly. 4. Major depression delusions are more mood congruent than schizophrenic delusions.

4. Delusions occurring in schizophrenia tend to be more mood incongruent and more bizarre than delusions experienced with depression. Schizophrenic delusions clear up less quickly and are more likely to require depot antipsychotic medication, which are administered intramuscularly. Delusions in major depression match the client's mood, are somewhat more reality based, and tend to resolve once the client is properly medicated.

A client taking paroxetine (Paxil) 40 mg P.O. every morning tells the nurse that her mouth "feels like cotton." Which of the following statements by the client necessitates further assessment by the nurse? 1. "I'm sucking on ice chips." 2. "I'm using sugarless gum." 3. "I'm sucking on sugarless candy." 4. "I'm drinking 12 glasses of water every day."

4. Dry mouth is a common, temporary side effect of paroxetine. The nurse needs to further assess the client's water intake when the client states she is drinking lots of water. Excessive intake of water could be harmful to the client and could lead to electrolyte imbalance. Dry mouth is caused by the medication, and drinking a lot of water will not eliminate it. Sucking on ice chips or using sugarless gum or candy is appropriate to ease the discomfort of dry mouth associated with paroxetine.

Which of the following outcomes should the nurse include in the initial plan of care for a client who is exhibiting psychomotor retardation, withdrawal, minimal eye contact, and unresponsiveness to the nurse's questions? 1. The client will initiate interactions with peers. 2. The client will participate in milieu activities. 3. The client will discuss adaptive coping techniques. 4. The client will interact with the nurse.

4. In the initial plan of care, the most appropriate outcome would be that the client will interact with the nurse. First, the client would begin interacting with one individual, the nurse. The nurse would gradually assist the client to engage in interactions with other clients in one-on-one contacts, progressing toward informal group gatherings and eventually taking part in structured group activities. The client needs to experience success according to the client's level of tolerance. Initiating interactions with peers occurs when the client can gain a measure of confidence and self-esteem instead of feeling intimidated or unduly anxious. Discussing adaptive coping techniques is an outcome the client may be able to reach when symptoms are not as severe and the client can concentrate on improving coping skills.

The nurse is planning care with a Mexican-American client who is diagnosed with depression. The client believes in "mal ojo" (the evil eye), and uses treatment by a root healer. The nurse should do which of the following? 1. Avoid talking to the client about the root healer. 2. Explain to the client that Western medicine has a scientific, not mystical, basis. 3. Explain that such beliefs are superstitious and should be forgotten. 4. Involve the root healer in a consultation with the client, physician and nurse.

4. Including the root healer gives credibility and respect to the client's cultural beliefs. Avoiding talking about the healer demonstrates either ignorance or disregard for the client's cultural values. Negative comparison of root healing with Western medicine not only denigrate the client's beliefs, but are likely to alienate him or her and cause them to end treatment.

A client with major depression is to be discharged home tomorrow. When preparing the client's discharge plan, which of the following areas is most important for the nurse to review with the client? 1. Future plans for going back to work. 2. A conflict encountered with another client. 3. Results of psychological testing. 4. Medication management with outpatient follow-up.

4. Medication management with outpatient follow-up is of vital importance to discuss with the client before discharge. The nurse teaches and clarifies any questions related to medication and outpatient treatment. The client also has the opportunity to voice feelings related to medication and treatment. The goal is to assist the client in making a successful transition from hospital to home with optimal functioning outside the hospital for as long as possible. The nurse may also need to assist with decreasing any anxiety the client may have related to discharge. Discussing future plans for returning to work or employment is not as immediate a concern as assisting with medication and treatment compliance. Noncompliance with medication is a primary cause of relapse in a client with a psychiatric disorder. Reviewing a conflict the client had encountered with another client is not appropriate or therapeutic at this time unless the client brings it to the nurse's attention. The conflict should have been dealt with and resolved when it occurred. Reviewing the results of psychological testing is the responsibility of the physician if he chooses.

A male client who is very depressed exhibits psychomotor retardation, a flat affect, and apathy. The nurse observes the client to be in need of grooming and hygiene. Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate? 1. Explaining the importance of hygiene to the client. 2. Asking the client if he is ready to shower. 3. Waiting until the client's family can participate in the client's care. 4. Stating to the client that it's time for him to take a shower.

4. The client with depression is preoccupied, has decreased energy, and cannot make decisions, even simple ones. Therefore, the nurse presents the situation, "It's time for a shower," and assists the client with personal hygiene to preserve his dignity and self-esteem. Explaining the importance of good hygiene to the client is inappropriate because the client may know the benefits of hygiene but is too fatigued and preoccupied to pay attention to self-care. Asking the client if he is ready for a shower is not helpful because the client with depression commonly cannot make even simple decisions. This action also reinforces the client's feeling about not caring about showering. Waiting for the family to visit to help with the client's hygiene is inappropriate and irresponsible on the part of the nurse. The nurse is responsible for making basic decisions for the client until the client can make decisions for himself.

A 16-year-old client is prescribed 10 mg of paroxetine (Paxil) at bedtime for major depression. The nurse should instruct the client and parents to monitor the client closely for which adverse effect? 1. Headache. 2. Nausea. 3. Fatigue. 4. Agitation.

4. The nurse closely monitors the client taking paroxetine for the development of agitation, which could lead to self-harm in the form of a suicide attempt. Headache, nausea, and fatigue are transient adverse effects of paroxetine.

A client taking mirtazapine (Remeron) is disheartened about a 20 lb weight gain over the past 3 months. The client tells the nurse, "I stopped taking my Remeron 15 days ago. I don't want to get depressed again, but I feel awful about my weight." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? 1. "Focusing on diet and exercise alone should control your weight." 2. "Your depression is much better now, so your medication is helping you." 3. "Look at all the positive things that have happened to you since you started Remeron." 4. "I hear how difficult this is for you and will help you approach the doctor about it."

4. The nurse should express concern for the client and offer to help the client speak with the physician which will lend support to the client's concerns. The client who has stopped the medication must be taken seriously because medication non-compliance could result in a recurrence of symptoms of depression. Telling the client to focus on diet and exercise ignores the client's feelings and subtly implies the weight gain is the client's fault. Pointing out that the medication has helped and that positive things have happened since the depression lifted may be true, but it does not address the client's current feelings or needs.

A client is taking phenelzine (Nardil) 15 mg P.O. three times a day. The nurse is about to administer the 1 p.m. dose when the client tells the nurse that about having a throbbing headache. Which of the following should the nurse do first? 1. Give the client an analgesic ordered p.r.n. 2. Call the physician to report the symptom. 3. Administer the client's next dose of phenelzine. 4. Obtain the client's vital signs.

4. The nurse should first take the client's vital signs because the client could be experiencing a hypertensive crisis, which requires prompt intervention. Signs and symptoms of a hypertensive crisis include occipital headache, a stiff or sore neck, nausea, vomiting, sweating, dilated pupils and photophobia, nosebleed, tachycardia, bradycardia, and constricting chest pain. Giving this client an analgesic without taking his vital signs first is inappropriate. After the client's vital signs have been obtained, then the nurse would call the physician to report the client's complaints and vital signs. Administering the client's next dose of phenelzine before taking his vital signs could result in a dangerous situation if the client is experiencing a hypertensive crisis.

After a few minutes of conversation, a female client who is depressed wearily asks the nurse, "Why pick me to talk to? Go talk to someone else." Which of the following replies by the nurse is best? 1. "I'm assigned to care for you today, if you'll let me." 2. "You have a lot of potential, and I'd like to help you." 3. "I'll talk to someone else later." 4. "I'm interested in you and want to help you."

4. The nurse tells the client that the nurse is interested in her to increase the client's sense of importance, worth, and self-esteem. Also, stating that the nurse wants to help conveys to the client that she is worthwhile and important. Telling the client that the nurse is assigned to care for her is impersonal and implies that the client is being uncooperative. Telling the client that the nurse is there because the client has potential for improvement will not help the client with low self-esteem because most people develop a sense of self-worth through accomplishment. Simply saying that the client has a lot of potential will not convince her that she is worthwhile. Telling the client that the nurse will talk to someone else later is not client-focused and does not address the client's question or concern.

10. A nursing instructor is discussing various challenges in the treatment of clients diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Which student statement demonstrates an understanding of the most critical challenge in the care of these clients? 1. "Treatment is compromised when clients can't sleep." 2. "Treatment is compromised when irritability interferes with social interactions." 3. "Treatment is compromised when clients have no insight into their problems." 4. "Treatment is compromised when clients choose not to take their medications."

4. "Treatment is compromised when clients choose not to take their medications."

6. A client diagnosed with bipolar I disorder is exhibiting severe manic behaviors. A physician prescribes lithium carbonate (Eskalith) and olanzapine (Zyprexa). The client's spouse questions the Zyprexa order. Which is the appropriate nursing response? 1. "Zyprexa in combination with Eskalith cures manic symptoms." 2. "Zyprexa prevents extrapyramidal side effects." 3. "Zyprexa increases the effectiveness of the immune system." 4. "Zyprexa calms hyperactivity until the Eskalith takes effect."

4. "Zyprexa calms hyperactivity until the Eskalith takes effect."

When preparing a class presentation about schizophrenia, which of the following would the nurse most likely include? 1. Delusions are more commonly noted in younger children with schizophrenia 2. Schizophrenia is more commonly diagnosed in children than in adolescents 3. Very few individuals with schizophrenia reach older adulthood 4. Improvement in symptoms can occur as a client with a history of schizophrenia reaches older adulthood

4. Improvement in symptoms can occur as a client with a history of schizophrenia reaches older adulthood People with schizophrenia do reach older adulthood and others develop schizophrenia late in life. For older clients who have had schizophrenia since young adulthood, this mat be a times in which they experience some improvement in symptoms or decrease in relapse fluctuations. The diagnosis of schizophrenia in children before adolescence is rare. If it does occur, hallucinations tend to be more visual and delusions are less developed

Which of the following extrapyramidal side effects is noted by the client having bradykinesia and a shuffling gait? 1. Tardive dyskinesia 2. Akathisia 3. Acute dystonia 4. Pseudoparkinsonism

4. Pseudoparkinsonism Pseudoparkinsonism is noted by resting tremor, rigidity, a masklike face, and a shuffling gait. Akathisia occurs when the client has motor restlessness evidenced by pacing, rocking, or shifting from foot to foot. Symptoms of acute dystonia are intermittent or fixed abnormal postures of the eyes, face, tongue, neck, trunk, and extremities

8. A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder has been taking lithium carbonate (Lithobid) for one year. The client presents in an emergency department with a temperature of 101F (38C), severe diarrhea, blurred vision, and tinnitus. How should the nurse interpret these symptoms? 1. Symptoms indicate consumption of foods high in tyramine. 2. Symptoms indicate lithium carbonate discontinuation syndrome. 3. Symptoms indicate the development of lithium carbonate tolerance. 4. Symptoms indicate lithium carbonate toxicity.

4. Symptoms indicate lithium carbonate toxicity.

A client is diagnosed with bipolar disorder: manic phase. Which nursing intervention would be implemented to achieve the outcome of "Client will gain 2 lbs by the end of the week?" A. Provide client with high-calorie finger foods throughout the day. B. Accompany client to cafeteria to encourage adequate dietary consumption. C. Initiate total parenteral nutrition to meet dietary needs. D. Teach the importance of a varied diet to meet nutritional needs.

A. Provide client with high-calorie finger foods throughout the day.

A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depression. The client is unable to concentrate, has no appetite, and is experiencing insomnia. Which should be included in this client's plan of care? A. A simple, structured daily schedule with limited choices of activities B. A daily schedule filled with activities to promote socialization C. A flexible schedule that allows the client opportunities for decision making D. A schedule that includes mandatory activities to decrease social isolation

ANS: A A client diagnosed with depression has difficulty concentrating and may be overwhelmed by activity overload or the expectation of independent decision making. A simple, structured daily schedule with limited choices of activities is more appropriate.

A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder was raised in an excessively religiously based household. Which nursing intervention would be most appropriate to address this client's underlying problem? A. Encourage the client to bring into awareness underlying sources of guilt. B. Teach the client that religious beliefs should be put into perspective throughout the life span. C. Confront the client with the irrational nature of the belief system. D. Assist the client to modify his or her belief system in order to improve coping skills.

ANS: A A client raised in an excessively religiously based household maybe at risk for experiencing guilt to the point of accepting liability in situations for which one is not responsible. The client may view himself or herself as evil and deserving of punishment leading to depression. Assisting the client to bring these feelings into awareness allows the client to realistically appraise distorted responsibility and dysfunctional guilt.

A nurse reviews the laboratory data of a client suspected of having major depressive disorder. Which laboratory value would potentially rule out this diagnosis? A. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 6.2 U/mL B. Potassium (K+) level of 4.2 mEq/L C. Sodium (Na+) level of 140 mEq/L D. Calcium (Ca2+) level of 9.5 mg/dL

ANS: A According to the DSM-IV-TR, symptoms of major depressive disorder cannot be due to the direct physiological effects of a general medical condition (e.g., hypothyroidism). The diagnosis of major depressive disorder may be ruled out if the client's laboratory results indicate a high TSH level which results from a low thyroid function or hypothyroidism. In hypothyroidism, metabolic processes are slowed leading to depressive symptoms.

If clozapine (Clozaril) therapy is being considered, the nurse should evaluate which laboratory test to establish a baseline for comparison in order to recognize a potentially life-threatening side effect? A. White blood cell count B. Liver function studies C. Creatinine clearance D. Blood urea nitrogen

ANS: A The nurse should establish a baseline white blood cell count to evaluate a potentially life-threatening side effect if clozapine (Clozaril) is being considering as a treatment option. Clozapine can have a serious side effect of agranulocytosis in which a potentially fatal drop in white blood cells can occur.

After taking chlorpromazine (Thorazine) for 1 month, a client presents to an emergency department (ED) with severe muscle rigidity, tachycardia, and a temperature of 105oF (40.5C). The nurse expects the physician to recognize which condition and implement which treatment? A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome and treat by discontinuing Thorazine and administering dantrolene (Dantrium) B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome and treat by increasing Thorazine dosage and administering an antianxiety medication C. Dystonia and treat by administering trihexyphenidyl (Artane) D. Dystonia and treat by administering bromocriptine (Parlodel)

ANS: A The nurse should expect that an ED physician would diagnose the client with neuroleptic malignant syndrome and treat the client by discontinuing chlorpromazine (Thorazine) and administering dantrolene (Dantrium). Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a potentially fatal condition characterized by muscle rigidity, fever, altered consciousness, and autonomic instability. The use of typical antipsychotics is largely being replaced by atypical antipsychotics due to fewer side effects and lower risks.

A 16-year-old-client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia experiences command hallucinations to harm others. The client's parents ask a nurse, "Where do the voices come from?" Which is the appropriate nursing reply? A. "Your child has a chemical imbalance of the brain which leads to altered thoughts." B. "Your child's hallucinations are caused by medication interactions." C. "Your child has too little serotonin in the brain causing delusions and hallucinations." D. "Your child's abnormal hormonal changes have precipitated auditory hallucinations."

ANS: A The nurse should explain that a chemical imbalance of the brain leads to altered thought processes. Hallucinations, or false sensory perceptions, may occur in all five senses. The client who hears voices is experiencing an auditory hallucination.

A psychiatrist prescribes a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) for a client. Which foods should the nurse teach the client to avoid? A. Pepperoni pizza and red wine B. Bagels with cream cheese and tea C. Apple pie and coffee D. Potato chips and diet cola

ANS: A The nurse should instruct the client to avoid pepperoni pizza and red wine. Foods with high tyramine content can induce hypertensive crisis within 2 hours of ingestion. Symptoms of hypertensive crisis include severe occipital and/or temporal pounding headaches with occasional photophobia, sensations of choking, palpitations, and a feeling of "dread."

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine (Clozaril). Which client symptoms related to the side effects of this medication should prompt a nurse to intervene immediately? A. Sore throat, fever, and malaise B. Akathisia and hypersalivation C. Akinesia and insomnia D. Dry mouth and urinary retention

ANS: A The nurse should intervene immediately if the client experiences a sore throat, fever, and malaise when taking the atypical antipsychotic drug clozapine (Clozaril). Clozapine can have a serious side effect of agranulocytosis, in which a potentially fatal drop in white blood cells can occur. Symptoms of infectious processes would alert the nurse to this potential.

Which statement should indicate to a nurse that an individual is experiencing a delusion? A. "There's an alien growing in my liver." B. "I see my dead husband everywhere I go." C. "The IRS may audit my taxes." D. "I'm not going to eat my food. It smells like brimstone."

ANS: A The nurse should recognize that a client who claims that an alien is inside his or her body is experiencing a delusion. Delusions are false personal beliefs that are inconsistent with the person's intelligence or cultural background.

3. A patient with paranoid schizophrenia is hospitalized after arguing with co-workers and threatening to harm them. The patient is aloof and suspicious and says, "Two staff members I saw talking were plotting to kill me." Based on data gathered at this point, which nursing diagnoses relate? Select all that apply.

ANS: A, B a. Risk for other-directed violence b. Disturbed thought processes

Laboratory results reveal decreased levels of prolactin in a client diagnosed with schizophrenia. When assessing the client, which symptoms should a nurse expect to observe?(Select all that apply.) A. Apathy B. Social withdrawal C. Anhedonia D. Auditory hallucinations E. Delusions

ANS: A, B, C The nurse should expect that a client with decreased levels of prolactin would experience apathy, social withdrawal, and anhedonia. Decreased levels of prolactin can cause depression which would result in the above symptoms.

A client is prescribed phenelzine (Nardil). Which of the following client statements should indicate to a nurse that discharge teaching about this medication has been successful? (Select all that apply.) A. "I'll have to let my surgeon know about this medication before I have my cholecystectomy." B. "Guess I will have to give up my glass of red wine with dinner." C. "I'll have to be very careful about reading food and medication labels." D. "I'm going to miss my caffeinated coffee in the morning." E. "I'll be sure not to stop this medication abruptly."

ANS: A, B, C, E The nurse should evaluate that teaching has been successful when the client states that phenelzine (Nardil) should not be taken in conjunction with the use of alcohol or foods high in tyramine and should not be stopped abruptly. Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) that can have negative interactions with other medications. The client needs to tell other physicians about taking MAOIs due to the risk of drug interactions.

Which of the following components should a nurse recognize as an integral part of a rehabilitative program when planning care for clients diagnosed with schizophrenia? (Select all that apply.) A. Group therapy B. Medication management C. Deterrent therapy D. Supportive family therapy E. Social skills training

ANS: A, B, D, E The nurse should recognize that group therapy, medication management, supportive family therapy, and social skills training all play an integral part in rehabilitative programs for clients diagnosed with schizophrenia. Schizophrenia results from various combinations of genetic predispositions, biochemical dysfunctions, physiological factors, and psychological stress. Effective treatment requires a comprehensive, multidisciplinary effort.

A nurse is administering risperidone (Risperdal) to a client diagnosed with schizophrenia. The therapeutic effect of this medication would most effectively address which of the following symptoms? (Select all that apply.) A. Somatic delusions B. Social isolation C. Gustatory hallucinations D. Flat affect E. Clang associations

ANS: A, C, E The nurse should expect that risperidone (Risperdal) would be effective treatment for somatic delusions, gustatory hallucinations, and clang associations. Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic that has been effective in the treatment of the positive symptoms of schizophrenia and in maintenance therapy to prevent exacerbation of schizophrenic symptoms.

A nursing home resident has a diagnosis of dysthymic disorder. When planning care for this client, which of the following symptoms should a nurse expect the client to exhibit? (Select all that apply.) A. Sad mood on most days B. Mood rating of 2/10 for the past 6 months C. Labile mood D. Sad mood for the past 3 years after spouse's death E. Pressured speech when communicating

ANS: A, D The nurse should anticipate that a client with a diagnosis of dysthymic disorder would experience a sad mood on most days for more than 2 years. The essential feature of dysthymia is a chronically depressed mood which can have an early or late onset.

1. The family members of a patient newly diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia state that they do not understand what has caused the illness. The nurse's response should be based on which models? Select all that apply.

ANS: A, D a. Neurobiological d. Genetic

An isolative client was admitted 4 days ago with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. Which nursing statement would best motivate this client to attend a therapeutic group being held in the milieu? A. "We'll go to the day room when you are ready for group." B. "I'll walk with you to the day room. Group is about to start." C. "It must be difficult for you to attend group when you feel so bad." D. "Let me tell you about the benefits of attending this group."

ANS: B A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder exhibits little to no motivation and must be firmly directed by staff to participate in therapy. It is difficult for a severely depressed client to make decisions, and this function must be temporarily assumed by the staff.

A client is diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Which nursing diagnosis should a nurse assign to this client to address a behavioral symptom of this disorder? A. Altered communication R/T feelings of worthlessness AEB anhedonia B. Social isolation R/T poor self-esteem AEB secluding self in room C. Altered thought processes R/T hopelessness AEB persecutory delusions D. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements R/T high anxiety AEB anorexia

ANS: B A nursing diagnosis of social isolation R/T poor self-esteem AEB secluding self in room addresses a behavioral symptom of major depressive disorder. Other behavioral symptoms include psychomotor retardation, virtually nonexistent communication, maintaining a fetal position, and no personal hygiene and/or grooming.

A client who has been taking buspirone (BuSpar) as prescribed for 2 days is close to discharge. Which statement indicates to the nurse that the client has an understanding of important discharge teaching? A. "I cannot drink any alcohol with this medication." B. "It is going to take 2 to 3 weeks in order for me to begin to feel better." C. "This drug causes physical dependence and I need to strictly follow doctor's orders." D. "I can't take this medication with food. It needs to be taken on an empty stomach."

ANS: B Buspar takes at least 2 to 3 weeks to be effective in controlling symptoms of depression. This is important to teach clients in order to prevent potential noncompliance due to the perception that the medication is ineffective.

A newly admitted client diagnosed with major depressive disorder states, "I have never considered suicide." Later the client confides to the nurse about plans to end it all by medication overdose. What is the most helpful nursing reply? A. "I'm glad you shared this. There is nothing to worry about. We will handle it together." B. "Bringing this up is a very positive action on your part." C. "We need to talk about the things you have to live for." D. "I think you should consider all your options prior to taking this action."

ANS: B By admitting to the staff a suicide plan, this client has taken responsibility for possible personal actions and expresses trust in the nurse. Therefore, the client may be receptive to continuing a safety plan. Recognition of this achievement reinforces this adaptive behavior.

A client admitted to the psychiatric unit following a suicide attempt is diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Which behavioral symptoms should the nurse expect to assess? A. Anxiety and unconscious anger B. Lack of attention to grooming and hygiene C. Guilt and indecisiveness D. Expressions of poor self-esteem

ANS: B Lack of attention to grooming and hygiene is the only behavioral symptom presented. Depressed clients do not care enough about themselves to participate in grooming and hygiene.

A nurse is implementing a one-on-one suicide observation level with a client diagnosed with major depressive disorder. The client states, "I'm feeling a lot better so you can stop watching me. I have taken up too much of your time already." Which is the best nursing reply? A. "I really appreciate your concern but I have been ordered to continue to watch you." B. "Because we are concerned about your safety, we will continue to observe you." C. "I am glad you are feeling better. The treatment team will consider your request." D. "I will forward you request to your psychiatrist because it is his decision."

ANS: B Often suicidal clients resist personal monitoring which impedes the implementation of a suicide plan. A nurse should continually observe a client when risk for suicide is suspected.

A newly admitted client is diagnosed with major depressive disorder with suicidal ideations. Which would be the priority nursing intervention for this client? A. Teach about the effective of suicide on family dynamics. B. Carefully and unobtrusively observe based on assessed data, at varied intervals around the clock. C. Encourage the client to spend a portion of each day interacting within the milieu. D. Set realistic achievable goals to increase self esteem.

ANS: B The most effective way to interrupt a suicide attempt is to carefully, unobtrusively observe based on assessed data at varied intervals around the clock. If a nurse observes behavior that indicates self-harm, the nurse can intervene to stop the behavior and keep the client safe.

Which nursing behavior will enhance the establishment of a trusting relationship with a client diagnosed with schizophrenia? A. Establishing personal contact with family members. B. Being reliable, honest, and consistent during interactions. C. Sharing limited personal information. D. Sitting close to the client to establish rapport.

ANS: B The nurse can enhance the establishment of a trusting relationship with a client diagnosed with schizophrenia by being reliable, honest, and consistent during interactions. The nurse should also convey acceptance of the client's needs and maintain a calm attitude when dealing with agitated behavior.

During an admission assessment, a nurse asks a client diagnosed with schizophrenia, "Have you ever felt that certain objects or persons have control over your behavior?" The nurse is assessing for which type of thought disruption? A. Delusions of persecution B. Delusions of influence C. Delusions of reference D. Delusions of grandeur

ANS: B The nurse is assessing the client for delusions of influence when asking if the client has ever felt that objects or persons have control of the client's behavior. Delusions of control or influence are manifested when the client believes that his or her behavior is being influenced. An example would be if a client believes that a hearing aid receives transmissions that control personal thoughts and behaviors.

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia tells a nurse, "The 'Shopatouliens' took my shoes out of my room last night." Which is an appropriate charting entry to describe this client's statement? A. "The client is experiencing command hallucinations." B. "The client is expressing a neologism." C. "The client is experiencing a paranoid delusion." D. "The client is verbalizing a word salad."

ANS: B The nurse should describe the client's statement as experiencing a neologism. A neologism is when a client invents a new word that is meaningless to others but may have symbolic meaning to the client. Word salad refers to a group of words that are put together randomly.

What is the rationale for a nurse to perform a full physical health assessment on a client admitted with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder? A. The attention during the assessment is beneficial in decreasing social isolation. B. Depression can generate somatic symptoms that can mask actual physical disorders. C. Physical health complications are likely to arise from antidepressant therapy. D. Depressed clients avoid addressing physical health and ignore medical problems.

ANS: B The nurse should determine that a client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder needs a full physical health assessment because depression can generate somatic symptoms that can mask actual physical disorders. Somatization is the process by which psychological needs are expressed in the form of physical symptoms.

A client who has been taking fluvoxamine (Luvox) without significant improvement asks a nurse, "I heard about something called a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Can't my doctor add that to my medications?" Which is an appropriate nursing reply? A. "This combination of drugs can lead to delirium tremens." B. "A combination of an MAOI and Luvox can lead to a life-threatening hypertensive crisis." C. "That's a good idea. There have been good results with the combination of these two drugs." D. "The only disadvantage would be the exorbitant cost of the MAOI."

ANS: B The nurse should explain to the client that combining an MAOI and Luvox can lead to a life-threatening hypertensive crisis. Symptoms of hypertensive crisis include severe occipital and/or temporal pounding headaches with occasional photophobia, sensations of choking, palpitations, and a feeling of "dread."

A client has been recently admitted to an inpatient psychiatric unit. Which intervention should the nurse plan to use to reduce the client's focus on delusional thinking? A. Present evidence that supports the reality of the situation B. Focus on feelings suggested by the delusion C. Address the delusion with logical explanations D. Explore reasons why the client has the delusion

ANS: B The nurse should focus on the client's feelings rather than attempt to change the client's delusional thinking by the use of evidence or logical explanations. Delusional thinking is usually fixed, and clients will continue to have the belief in spite of obvious proof that the belief is false or irrational.

A paranoid client presents with bizarre behaviors, neologisms, and thought insertion. Which nursing action should be prioritized to maintain this client's safety? A. Assess for medication noncompliance B. Note escalating behaviors and intervene immediately C. Interpret attempts at communication D. Assess triggers for bizarre, inappropriate behaviors

ANS: B The nurse should note escalating behaviors and intervene immediately to maintain this client's safety. Early intervention may prevent an aggressive response and keep the client and others safe.

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a flat affect, paranoid delusions, anhedonia, anergia, neologisms, and echolalia. Which statement correctly differentiates the client's positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia? A. Paranoid delusions, anhedonia, and anergia are positive symptoms of schizophrenia. B. Paranoid delusions, neologisms, and echolalia are positive symptoms of schizophrenia. C. Paranoid delusions, anergia, and echolalia are negative symptoms of schizophrenia. D. Paranoid delusions, flat affect, and anhedonia are negative symptoms of schizophrenia.

ANS: B The nurse should recognize that positive symptoms of schizophrenia include paranoid delusions, neologisms, and echolalia. The negative symptoms of schizophrenia include flat affect, anhedonia, and anergia. Positive symptoms reflect an excess or distortion of normal functions. Negative symptoms reflect a decrease or loss of normal functions.

A college student has quit attending classes, isolates self due to hearing voices, and yells accusations at fellow students. Based on this information, which nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize? A. Altered thought processes R/T hearing voices AEB increased anxiety B. Risk for other-directed violence R/T yelling accusations C. Social isolation R/T paranoia AEB absence from classes D. Risk for self-directed violence R/T depressed mood

ANS: B The nursing diagnosis that must be prioritized in this situation should be risk for other-directed violence R/T yelling accusations. Hearing voices and yelling accusations indicates a potential for violence, and this potential safety issue should be prioritized.

A client is admitted with a diagnosis of depression NOS (not otherwise specified). Which client statement would describe a somatic symptom that can occur with this diagnosis? A. "I am extremely sad, but I don't know why." B. "Sometimes I just don't want to eat because I ache all over." C. "I feel like I can't ever make the right decision." D. "I can't seem to leave the house without someone with me."

ANS: B When a client diagnosed with depression expresses physical complaints, the client is experiencing somatic symptoms. Somatic symptoms occur with depression because of a general slowdown of the entire body reflected in sluggish digestion, constipation, impotence, anorexia, difficulty falling asleep, and a wide variety of other symptoms.

An individual experiences sadness and melancholia in September continuing through November. Which of the following factors should a nurse identify as most likely to contribute to the etiology of these symptoms? (Select all that apply.) A. Gender differences in social opportunities that occur with age B. Drastic temperature and barometric pressure changes C. Increased levels of melatonin D. Variations in serotonergic functioning E. Inaccessibility of resources for dealing with life stressors

ANS: B, C, D The nurse should identify drastic temperature and barometric pressure changes, increased levels of melatonin, and/or variations in serotonergic functioning as contributing to the etiology of the client's symptoms. A number of studies have examined seasonal patterns associated with mood disorders and have revealed two prevalent periods of seasonal involvement: spring (March, April, May) and fall (September, October, November).

2. A nurse at the mental health clinic plans a series of psychoeducational groups for persons with schizophrenia. Which two topics would take priority?

ANS: B, E b. The importance of correctly taking your medication e. Ways to quit smoking

A nurse admits an older client who is experiencing memory loss, confused thinking, and apathy. A psychiatrist suspects depression. What is the rationale for performing a mini-mental status exam? A. To rule out bipolar disorder B. To rule out schizophrenia C. To rule out senile dementia D. To rule out a personality disorder

ANS: C A mini-mental status exam should be performed to rule out senile dementia. The elderly are often misdiagnosed with senile dementia when depression is their actual diagnosis. Memory loss, confused thinking, or apathy symptomatic of dementia actually may be the result of depression.

A 75-year-old client diagnosed with a long history of depression is currently on doxepin (Sinequan) 100 mg daily. The client takes a daily diuretic for hypertension and is recovering from the flu. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse assign highest priority? A. Risk for ineffective thermoregulation R/T anhidrosis B. Risk for constipation R/T excessive fluid loss C. Risk for injury R/T orthostatic hypotension D. Risk for infection R/T suppressed white blood cell count

ANS: C A side effect of Sinequan is orthostatic hypotension. Dehydration due to fluid loss from a combination of diuretic medication and flu symptoms can also contribute to this problem, putting this client at risk for injury R/T orthostatic hypotension.

A newly admitted client has taken thioridazine (Mellaril) for 2 years with good symptom control. Symptoms exhibited on admission included paranoid delusions and hallucinations. The nurse should recognize which potential cause for the return of these symptoms? A. The client has developed tolerance to the antipsychotic medication. B. The client has not taken the medication with food. C. The client has not taken the medication as prescribed. D. The client has combined alcohol with the medication.

ANS: C Altered thinking can affect a client's insight into the necessity for taking antipsychotic medications consistently. When symptoms are no longer bothersome, clients may stop taking medications that cause disturbing side effects. Clients may miss the connection between taking the medications and an improved symptom profile.

A client states, "I hear voices that tell me that I am evil." Which outcome related to these symptoms should the nurse expect this client to accomplish by discharge? A. The client will verbalize the reason the voices make derogatory statements. B. The client will not hear auditory hallucinations. C. The client will identify events that increase anxiety and illicit hallucinations. D. The client will positively integrate the voices into the client's personality structure.

ANS: C It is unrealistic to expect the client to completely stop hearing voices. Even when compliant with antipsychotic medications, clients may still hear voices. It would be realistic to expect the client to associate stressful events with an increase in auditory hallucinations. By this recognition the client can anticipate symptoms and initiate appropriate coping skills.

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia states, "Can't you hear him? It's the devil. He's telling me I'm going to hell." Which is the most appropriate nursing reply? A. "Did you take your medicine this morning?" B. "You are not going to hell. You are a good person." C. "I'm sure the voices sound scary. The devil is not talking to you. This is part of your illness." D. "The devil only talks to people who are receptive to his influence."

ANS: C The most appropriate reply by the nurse is to reassure the client with an accepting attitude while not reinforcing the hallucination. Reminding the client that "the voices" are a part of his or her illness is a way to help the client accept that the hallucinations are not real.

Parents ask a nurse how they should reply when their child, diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia, tells them that voices command him to harm others. Which is the appropriate nursing reply? A. "Tell him to stop discussing the voices." B. "Ignore what he is saying, while attempting to discover the underlying cause." C. "Focus on the feelings generated by the hallucinations and present reality." D. "Present objective evidence that the voices are not real."

ANS: C The most appropriate response by the nurse is to instruct the parents to focus on the feelings generated by the hallucinations and present reality. The parents should maintain an attitude of acceptance to encourage communication but should not reinforce the hallucinations by exploring details of content. It is inappropriate to present logical arguments to persuade the client to accept the hallucinations as not real.

An aging client diagnosed with chronic schizophrenia takes an antipsychotic and a beta-adrenergic blocking agent (propranolol) for hypertension. Understanding the combined side effects of these drugs, which statement by a nurse is most appropriate? A. "Make sure you concentrate on taking slow, deep, cleansing breaths." B. "Watch your diet and try to engage in some regular physical activity." C. "Rise slowly when you change position from lying to sitting or sitting to standing." D. "Wear sunscreen and try to avoid midday sun exposure."

ANS: C The most appropriate statement by the nurse is to instruct the client to rise slowly when changing positions. Antipsychotic medications and beta blockers cause a decrease in blood pressure. When given in combination, this side effect places the client at risk for developing orthostatic hypotension.

A depressed client reports to a nurse a history of divorce, job loss, family estrangement, and cocaine abuse. Which theoretical principle best explains the etiology of this client's depressive symptoms? A. According to psychoanalytic theory, depression is a result of anger turned inward. B. According to object-loss theory, depression is a result of abandonment. C. According to learning theory, depression is a result of repeated failures. D. According to cognitive theory, depression is a result of negative perceptions.

ANS: C The nurse should assess that this client's depressive symptoms may have resulted from repeated failures. This assessment was based on the principles of learning theory. Learning theory describes a model of "learned helplessness" in which multiple life failures cause the client to abandon future attempts to succeed.

A client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia states, "My psychiatrist is out to get me. I'm sad that the voice is telling me to stop him." What symptom is the client exhibiting, and what is the nurse's legal responsibility related to this symptom? A. Magical thinking; administer an antipsychotic medication B. Persecutory delusions; orient the client to reality C. Command hallucinations; warn the psychiatrist D. Altered thought processes; call an emergency treatment team meeting

ANS: C The nurse should determine that the client is exhibiting command hallucinations. The nurse's legal responsibility is to warn the psychiatrist of the potential for harm. A client who is demonstrating a risk for violence could potentially become physically, emotionally, and/or sexually harmful to others or to self.

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others. Which medication should a nurse expect a physician to order to address this type of symptom? A. Haloperidol (Haldol) to address the negative symptom B. Clonazepam (Klonopin) to address the positive symptom C. Risperidone (Risperdal) to address the positive symptom D. Clozapine (Clozaril) to address the negative symptom

ANS: C The nurse should expect the physician to order risperidone (Risperdal) to address the positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Risperidone (Risperdal) is an atypical antipsychotic used to reduce positive symptoms, including disturbances in content of thought (delusions), form of thought (neologisms), or sensory perception (hallucinations).

A client diagnosed with schizoaffective disorder is admitted for social skills training. Which information should be taught by the nurse? A. The side effects of medications B. Deep breathing techniques to decrease stress C. How to make eye contact when communicating D. How to be a leader

ANS: C The nurse should plan to teach the client how to make eye contact when communicating. Social skills, such as making eye contact, can assist clients in communicating needs and maintaining connectedness.

A client diagnosed with psychosis NOS (not otherwise specified) tells a nurse about voices telling him to kill the president. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize for this client? A. Disturbed sensory perception B. Altered thought processes C. Risk for violence: directed toward others D. Risk for injury

ANS: C The nurse should prioritize the diagnosis risk for violence: directed toward others. A client who hears voices telling him to kill someone is at risk for responding and reacting to the command hallucination. Other risk factors for violence include aggressive body language, verbal aggression, catatonic excitement, and rage reactions.

A client is diagnosed with schizophrenia. A physician orders haloperidol (Haldol) 50 mg bid, benztropine (Cogentin) 1 mg prn, and zolpidem (Ambien) 10 mg HS. Which client behavior would warrant the nurse to administer benztropine? A. Tactile hallucinations B. Tardive dyskinesia C. Restlessness and muscle rigidity D. Reports of hearing disturbing voices

ANS: C The symptom of tactile hallucinations and reports of hearing disturbing voices would be addressed by an antipsychotic medication such as haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia, a potentially irreversible condition, would warrant the discontinuation of an antipsychotic medication such as haloperidol. An anticholinergic medication such as benztropine would be used to treat the extrapyramidal symptoms of restlessness and muscle rigidity.

What client information does a nurse need to assess prior to initiating medication therapy with phenelzine (Nardil)? A. The client's understanding of the need for regular blood work B. The client's mood and affect score, using the facility's mood scale C. The client's cognitive ability to understand information about the medication D. The client's access to a support network willing to participate in treatment

ANS: C There are many dietary and medication restrictions when taking Nardil. A client must have the cognitive ability to understand information about the medication and which foods, beverages, and medications to eliminate when taking Nardil.

The nurse is providing counseling to clients diagnosed with major depressive disorder. The nurse chooses to assess and attempt to modify the negative thought patterns of these clients. The nurse is functioning under which theoretical framework? A. Psychoanalytic theory B. Interpersonal theory C. Cognitive theory D. Behavioral theory

ANS: C When a nurse assesses and attempts to modify negative thought patterns related to depressive symptoms, the nurse is using a cognitive theory framework.

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia takes an antipsychotic agent daily. Which assessment finding should a nurse immediately report to the client's attending psychiatrist? A. Respirations of 22 beats/minute B. Weight gain of 8 pounds in 2 months C. Temperature of 104F (40C) D. Excessive salivation

ANS: C When assessing a client diagnosed with schizophrenia who takes an antipsychotic agent daily, the nurse should immediately address a temperature of 104F (40C). A temperature this high can be a symptom of the rare but life-threatening neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

Sertraline (Zoloft) has been prescribed for a client complaining of poor appetite, fatigue, and anhedonia. Which consideration should the nurse recognize as influencing this prescriptive choice? A. Zoloft is less expensive for the client. B. Zoloft is extremely sedating and will help with sleep disturbances. C. Zoloft has less adverse side effects than other antidepressants. D. Zoloft begins to improve depressive symptoms quickly.

ANS: C Zoloft is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) that has a relatively benign side effect profile as compared with other antidepressants.

A nurse is planning care for a child who is experiencing depression. Which medication is approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for the treatment of depression in children and adolescents? A. Paroxetine (Paxil) B. Sertraline (Zoloft) C. Citalopram (Celexa) D. Fluoxetine (Prozac)

ANS: D Fluoxetine (Prozac) is FDA approved for the treatment of depression in children and adolescents. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) used in the treatment of depression. All antidepressants carry an FDA warning for increased risk of suicide in children and adolescents.

Which client statement expresses a typical underlying feeling of clients diagnosed with major depressive disorder? A. "It's just a matter of time and I will be well." B. "If I ignore these feelings, they will go away." C. "I can fight these feelings and overcome this disorder." D. "I deserve to feel this way."

ANS: D Hopelessness and helplessness are typical symptoms of clients diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Depressive symptoms are often described as anger turned inward.

A nurse is caring for four clients taking various medications including imipramine (Tofranil), doxepine (Sinequan), ziprasidone (Geodon), and tranylcypromine (Parnate). The nurse orders a special diet for the client receiving which medication? A. Tofranil B. Senequan C. Geodon D. Parnate

ANS: D Hypertensive crisis occurs in clients receiving monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) who consume foods or drugs high in tyramine content.

Which nursing intervention would be most appropriate when caring for an acutely agitated client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia? A. Provide neon lights and soft music. B. Maintain continual eye contact throughout the interview. C. Use therapeutic touch to increase trust and rapport. D. Provide personal space to respect the client's boundaries.

ANS: D The most appropriate nursing intervention is to provide personal space to respect the client's boundaries. Providing personal space may serve to reduce anxiety and thus reduce the client's risk for violence.

A nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. The nurse asks the client, "Do you receive special messages from certain sources, such as the television or radio?" Which potential symptom of this disorder is the nurse assessing? A. Thought insertion B. Paranoid delusions C. Magical thinking D. Delusions of reference

ANS: D The nurse is assessing for the potential symptom of delusions of reference. A client who believes that he or she receives messages through the radio is experiencing delusions of reference. When a client experiences these delusions, he or she interprets all events within the environment as personal references.

A client diagnosed with seasonal affective disorder (SAD) states, "I've been feeling 'down' for 3 months. Will I ever feel like myself again?" Which reply by the nurse will best assess this client's symptoms. A. "Have you been diagnosed with any physical disorder within the last 3 months?" B. "Have you experienced any traumatic events that triggered this mood change?" C. "People who have seasonal mood changes often feel better when spring comes." D. "Help me understand what you mean when you say, 'feeling down'?"

ANS: D The nurse is using a clarifying statement in order to gather more details related to this client's mood. The diagnosis of SAD is not associated with a traumatic event.

A nurse assesses a client suspected of having major depressive disorder. Which client symptom would eliminate this diagnosis? A. The client is disheveled and malodorous. B. The client refuses to interact with others. C. The client is unable to feel any pleasure. D. The client has maxed-out charge cards and exhibits promiscuous behaviors.

ANS: D The nurse should assess that a client who has maxed-out credit cards and exhibits promiscuous behavior would be exhibiting manic symptoms. According to the DSM-IV-TR, these symptoms would rule out the diagnosis of major depressive disorder.

A client is diagnosed with dysthymic disorder. Which should a nurse classify as an affective symptom of this disorder? A. Social isolation with a focus on self B. Low energy level C. Difficulty concentrating D. Gloomy and pessimistic outlook on life

ANS: D The nurse should classify a gloomy and pessimistic outlook on life as an affective symptom of dysthymic disorder. Symptoms of depression can be described as alterations in four areas of human functions: affective, behavioral, cognitive, and physiological.

A client diagnosed with chronic schizophrenia presents in an emergency department (ED) with uncontrollable tongue movements, stiff neck, and difficulty swallowing. The nurse would expect the physician to recognize which condition and implement which treatment? A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome and treat by discontinuing antipsychotic medications B. Agranulocytosis and treat by administration of clozapine (Clozaril) C. Extrapyramidal symptoms and treat by administration of benztropine (Cogentin) D. Tardive dyskinesia and treat by discontinuing antipsychotic medications

ANS: D The nurse should expect that an ED physician would diagnose the client with tardive dyskinesia and discontinue antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is a condition of abnormal involuntary movements of the mouth, tongue, trunk, and extremities that can be an irreversible side effect of typical antipsychotic medications.

During an admission assessment, a nurse notes that a client diagnosed with schizophrenia has allergies to penicillin, prochlorperazine (Compazine), and bee stings. Based on this assessment data, which antipsychotic medication would be contraindicated? A. Haloperidol (Haldol), because it is used only in elderly patients B. Clozapine (Clozaril), because of a cross-sensitivity to penicillin C. Risperidone (Risperdal), because it exacerbates symptoms of depression D. Thioridazine (Mellaril), because of cross-sensitivity among phenothiazines

ANS: D The nurse should know that thioridazine (Mellaril) would be contraindicated because of cross-sensitivity among phenothiazines. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) and thioridazine are both classified as phenothiazines.

A confused client has recently been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft). The client's spouse is taking paroxetine (Paxil). The client presents with restlessness, tachycardia, diaphoresis, and tremors. What complication does a nurse suspect and what could be its possible cause? A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome caused by ingestion of two different seratonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome caused by ingestion of an SSRI and a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) C. Serotonin syndrome caused by ingestion of an SSRI and an MAOI D. Serotonin syndrome caused by ingestion of two different SSRIs

ANS: D The nurse should suspect that the client is suffering from serotonin syndrome possibly caused by ingesting two different SSRIs (Zoloft and Paxil). Symptoms of serotonin syndrome include confusion, agitation, tachycardia, hypertension, nausea, abdominal pain, myoclonus, muscle rigidity, fever, sweating, and tremor.

29. A patient with schizophrenia has been stable for a year; however, the family now reports the patient is tense, sleeps 3 to 4 hours per night, and has difficulty concentrating. The patient says, "Volmers are hiding in the house." The nurse can correctly assess this information as an indication of:

ANS: D) relapse

18. A patient with schizophrenia is acutely disturbed and violent. After several doses of haloperidol (Haldol), the patient is calm. Two hours later the nurse sees the patient's head rotated to one side in a stiff position; the lower jaw is thrust forward, and the patient is drooling. Which problem is most likely?

ANS: a. Acute dystonic reaction

19. An acutely violent patient with schizophrenia receives several doses of haloperidol (Haldol). Two hours later the nurse notices the patient's head rotated to one side in a stiffly fixed position; the lower jaw is thrust forward, and the patient is drooling. Which intervention by the nurse is indicated?

ANS: a. Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 50 mg IM from the PRN medication administration record.

13. A patient with delusions of persecution about being poisoned has refused all hospital meals for 3 days. Which intervention is most likely to be acceptable to the patient?

ANS: a. Allowing the patient to have supervised access to food vending machines

28. The family of a patient with undifferentiated schizophrenia is unfamiliar with the illness and the family's role in recovery. Which type of therapy should the nurse recommend?

ANS: a. Psychoeducational

4. When a patient with paranoid schizophrenia was discharged 6 months ago, haloperidol (Haldol) was prescribed. The patient now says, "I stopped taking those pills. They made me feel like a robot." What common side effects should the nurse validate with the patient?

ANS: a. Sedation and muscle stiffness

5. A nurse works with a patient with paranoid schizophrenia regarding the importance of medication management. The patient repeatedly says, "I don't like taking pills." Family members say they feel helpless to foster compliance. Which treatment strategy should the nurse discuss with the health care provider?

ANS: a. Use of a long-acting antipsychotic preparation

14. A community mental health nurse wants to establish a relationship with a very withdrawn patient diagnosed with schizophrenia. The patient lives at home with a supportive family. Select the nurse's best plan.

ANS: a. Visit daily for 4 days, then visit every other day for 1 week; stay with the patient for 20 minutes; accept silence; state when the nurse will return.

23. What assessment findings mark the prodromal stage of schizophrenia?

ANS: a. Withdrawal, misinterpreting, poor concentration, & preoccupation with religion

30. A patient with schizophrenia begins to talks about "volmers" hiding in the warehouse at work. The term "volmers" should be documented as:

ANS: a. neologism

1. A person has had difficulty keeping a job because of arguing with co-workers and accusing them of conspiracy. Today the person shouts, "They're all plotting to destroy me. Isn't that true?" Select the nurse's most therapeutic response.

ANS: b. "Feeling that people want to destroy you must be very frightening."

3. A patient diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia says, "My co-workers are out to get me. I also saw two doctors plotting to kill me." How does this patient perceive the environment?

ANS: b. Dangerous

6. A patient's care plan includes monitoring for auditory hallucinations. Which assessment findings suggest the patient may be hallucinating?

ANS: b. Darting eyes, tilted head, mumbling to self

9. A patient with catatonic schizophrenia exhibits little spontaneous movement and demonstrates waxy flexibility. Which patient needs are of priority importance?

ANS: b. Physiologic

22. Which symptoms are expected for a patient with disorganized schizophrenia?

ANS: b. Social withdrawal and ineffective communication

20. A patient has taken trifluoperazine (Stelazine) 30 mg/day orally for 3 years. The clinic nurse notes that the patient grimaces and constantly smacks both lips. The patient's neck and shoulders twist in a slow, snakelike motion. Which problem would the nurse suspect?

ANS: b. Tardive dyskinesia

11. A nurse observes a patient who is in a catatonic state and standing immobile, facing the wall with one arm extended in a salute. The patient remains immobile in this position for 15 minutes, moving only when the nurse gently lowers the arm. What is the name of this phenomenon?

ANS: b. Waxy flexibility

34. A patient with schizophrenia begins a new prescription for lurasidone HCl (Latuda). The patient is 5', 6" tall and currently weighs 204 pounds. Which topic is most important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan related to this medication?

ANS: b. Weight management strategies

2. A newly admitted patient diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia is hypervigilant and constantly scans the environment. The patient states, "I saw two doctors talking in the hall. They were plotting to kill me." The nurse may correctly assess this behavior as:

ANS: b. idea of reference

27. A patient with schizophrenia has taken a conventional antipsychotic medication for a year. Hallucinations are less intrusive, but the patient continues to have apathy, poverty of thought, and social isolation. The nurse expects a change to which medication?

ANS: b. olanzapine (Zyprexa)

10. A patient with catatonic schizophrenia is semistuporous, demonstrates little spontaneous movement, and has waxy flexibility. The patient's activities of daily living are severely compromised. An appropriate outcome is that the patient will:

ANS: b. perform self-care activities with coaching by the end of day 3.

16. A newly admitted patient with schizophrenia says, "The voices are bothering me. They yell and tell me I'm bad. I have got to get away from them." Select the nurse's most helpful reply.

ANS: c. "I'll stay with you. Focus on what we are talking about, not the voices."

35. A patient with schizophrenia has auditory hallucinations, delusions of grandeur, poor personal hygiene, and motor agitation. Which assessment finding would the nurse regard as a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

ANS: c. Poor personal hygiene

17. A patient with schizophrenia has taken fluphenazine (Prolixin) 5 mg orally twice daily for 3 weeks. The nurse now assesses a shuffling propulsive gait, a masklike face, and drooling. Which term applies to these symptoms?

ANS: c. Pseudoparkinsonism

8. A patient with schizophrenia tells the nurse, "I eat skiller. Tend to end. Easter. It blows away. Get it?" Select the nurse's best response.

ANS: d. "I am having difficulty understanding what you are saying."

32. A patient with schizophrenia and auditory hallucinations anxiously tells the nurse, "The voice is telling me to do things." Select the nurse's priority assessment question.

ANS: d. "What is the voice telling you to do?"

21. A nurse sits with a patient diagnosed with disorganized schizophrenia. The patient starts to laugh uncontrollably, although the nurse has not said anything funny. Select the nurse's best response.

ANS: d. "You're laughing. Tell me what's happening."

12. Which patient with schizophrenia would be expected to have the lowest score in global assessment of functioning?

ANS: d. 40 years old; disorganized schizophrenia since age 18; frequent relapses

26. A patient diagnosed with disorganized schizophrenia says, "It's beat. Time to eat. No room for the cat." What type of verbalization is evident?

ANS: d. Associative looseness

15. Withdrawn patients with schizophrenia:

ANS: d. Avoid relationships because they become anxious with emotional closeness.

33. A patient receiving risperidone (Risperdal) reports severe muscle stiffness at 10:30 AM. By noon, the patient has difficulty swallowing and is drooling. By 4:00 PM, vital signs are body temperature, 102.8° F; pulse, 110 beats per minute; respirations, 26 breaths per minute; and blood pressure, 150/90 mm Hg. The patient is diaphoretic. Select the nurse's best analysis and action.

ANS: d. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Immediately notify the health care provider.

24. A patient with schizophrenia says, "Contagious bacteria are everywhere. When they get in your body, you will be locked up with other infected people." Which problem is evident?

ANS: d. Paranoia

7. A health care provider considers which antipsychotic medication to prescribe for a patient with schizophrenia who has auditory hallucinations and poor social functioning. The patient is also overweight and has hypertension. Which drug should the nurse advocate?

ANS: d. aripiprazole (Abilify)

31. A patient with schizophrenia anxiously says, "I can see the left side of my body merging with the wall, then my face appears and disappears in the mirror." While listening, the nurse should:

ANS: d. maintain a normal social interaction distance from the patient.

25. A patient diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia angrily tells a nurse, "You act like a homosexual. No one trusts you or wants to be around you." Select the most likely analysis. The patient:

ANS: d. may be projecting homosexual urges.

Mutism

Absence of verbal speech

A nurse learns at report that a newly admitted client experiencing mania is demonstrating grandiose delusions. The nurse should recognize that which client statement would provide supportive evidence of this symptom? A. "I can't stop my sexual urges. They have led me to numerous affairs." B. "I'm the world's most perceptive attorney." C. "My wife is distraught about my overspending." D. "The FBI has tapped my room and are out to get me.

B. "I'm the world's most perceptive attorney."

Abnormal Thought Process: Cirumstantiality

Before getting to the point or answering a question, client gets caught up in countless details and explanations

A client on an inpatient unit is diagnosed with bipolar disorder: manic phase. During a discussion in the dayroom about weekend activities, the client raises voice, becomes irritable, and insists that plans change. What should be the nurse's initial intervention? A. Ask the group to take a vote on alternative weekend events. B. Remind the client to quiet down or leave the dayroom. C. Assist the client to move to a calmer location. D. Discuss with the client impulse control problems

C. Assist the client to move to a calmer location.

A client is diagnosed with bipolar disorder and admitted to an inpatient psychiatric unit. Which is the priority outcome for this client? A. The client will accomplish activities of daily living independently by discharge. B. The client will verbalize feelings during group sessions by discharge. C. The client will remain safe throughout hospitalization. D. The client will use problem solving to cope adequately after discharge.

C. The client will remain safe throughout the hospitalization.

Thought Blocking

Cessation of thought in the middle of a sentence; unable to continue train of thought; Often new thoughts come up unrelated to the topic.

Neologisms

Client makes up words with own meaning

A highly agitated client paces the unit and states, "I could buy and sell this place." The client's mood fluctuates from fits of laughter to outbursts of anger. Which is the most accurate documentation of this client's behavior? A. "Rates mood 8/10. Exhibiting looseness of association. Euphoric." B. "Mood euthymic. Exhibiting magical thinking. Restless." C. "Mood labile. Exhibiting delusions of reference. Hyperactive." D. "Agitated and pacing. Exhibiting grandiosity. Mood labile."

D. "Agitated and pacing. Exhibiting grandiosity. Mood labile."

A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder, who has taken lithium carbonate (Lithane) for 1 year, presents in an emergency department with severe diarrhea, blurred vision, and tinnitus. How should the nurse interpret these symptoms? A. Symptoms indicate consumption of foods high in tyramine. B. Symptoms indicate lithium carbonate discontinuation syndrome. C. Symptoms indicate the development of lithium carbonate tolerance. D. Symptoms indicate lithium carbonate toxicity.

D. Symptoms indicate lithium carbonate toxicity

Gustatory

Experiencing taste in absence of stimuli

Delusions:Grandeur

False belief that one is an important, powerful person

Jealousy

False belief that ones partner is going out with other persons

Confabulation

Filling a memory gap with detailed fantasy to maintain self esteem; seen in conditions such as Korsakoff's psychosis

Word Salad

Form of speech where words or phrases are connected meaninglessly.

Hallucinations: Auditory

Hearing voices that are not present

Looseness of association

Illogical and confused thinking, and interrupted connections in thought; seen mostly in schizophrenic disorders.

Flight of Ideas

Jumping rapidly from one topic to another; seen in manic states.

Neologism

Making words with own meaning

Word Salad

Mixture or words and phrases that have no meaning.

Verbigeration

Purposeless repetition of words or phrases

Echolalia

Repetition of words or phrases heard from another person

Language and Communication Disturbances: Clang associations

Repetition of words or phrases similar in sound but in no other way

Visual

Seeing things that aren't there

Olfactory

Smells that do not exist

Pressured Speech

Speaking as if words are forced out too quickly

Persecution

Thought that one is being singled out to be harmed by others.

Tactile

feeling touch sensations in absence of stimuli

Schizophrenia

group of mental disorders characterized by hallucinations and delusions, disordered thought process and disrupted interpersonal relationships