NCLEX Review Pharmacology Quiz Saunder's Questions

856. In monitoring a client's response to disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs, which assessment findings would the nurse consider acceptable responses? Select all that apply. 1. Symptom control during periods of emotional stress 2. Normal white blood cell, platelet, and neutrophil counts 3. Radiological findings that show no progression of joint degeneration 4. An increased range of motion in the affected joints 3 months into therapy 5. Inflammation and irritation at the injection site 3 days after the injection is given 6. A low-grade temperature on rising in the morning that remains throughout the day

1, 2, 3, 4 Because emotional stress frequently exacerbates the symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis, the absence of symptoms is a positive finding. DMARDs are given to slow the progression of joint degeneration. In addition, an improvement in the range of motion after 3 months of therapy with normal blood work is a positive finding. Temperature elevation and inflammation and irritation at the medication injection site could indicate signs of infection.

606. The home health care nurse is visiting a client who was recently diagnosed with type 2 DM. The client is prescribed repaglinide and metformin and asks the nurse to explain these medications. The nurse should provide which instructions to the client? Select all that apply. 1. Diarrhea may occur secondary to the metformin 2. The repaglinide is not taken if a meal is skipped 3. The repaglinide is taken 30 minutes before eating 4. A simple sugar food item is carried and used to treat mild hypoglycemia episodes 5. Metformin increases hepatic glucose production to prevent hypoglycemia associated with repaglinide 6. Muscle pain is an expected effect of metformin and may be treated with acetaminophen

1, 2, 3, 4 Repaglinide, a rapid-acting oral hypoglycemic agent that stimulates pancreatic insulin secretion, should be taken before meals (approximately 30 minutes before meals) and should be withheld if the client does not eat. Hypoglycemia is a side effect of repaglinide and the client should always be prepared by carrying a simple sugar with her or him at all times. Metformin is an oral hypoglycemic given in combination with repaglinide and works by decreasing hepatic glucose production. A common side effect of metformin is diarrhea. Muscle pain may occur as an adverse effect from metformin but it might signify a more serious condition that warrants HCP notification, not the use of acetaminophen.

791. The nurse is preparing to administer eyedrops. Which interventions should the nurse take to administer the drops? Select all that apply. 1. Wash hands. 2. Put gloves on. 3. Place the drop in the conjunctival sac. 4. Pull the lower lid down against the cheek bone. 5. Instruct the client to squeeze the eyes shut after instilling the eyedrop. 6. Instruct the client to tilt the head forward, open the eyes, and look down.

1, 2, 3, 4 To administer eye medications, the nurse should wash hands and put gloves on. The client is instructed to tilt the head backward, open the eyes, and look up. The nurse pulls the lower lid down against the cheekbone and holds the bottle like a pencil with the tip downward. Holding the bottle, the nurse gently rests the wrist of the hand on the client's cheek and squeezes the bottle gently to allow the drop to fall into the conjunctival sac. The client is instructed to close the eyes gently and not to squeeze the eyes shut to prevent the loss of medication.

566. The nurse is monitoring the intravenous infusion of an antineoplastic medication. During the infusion, the client complains of pain at the insertion site. On inspection of the site, the nurse notes redness and swelling and that the infusion of the medication has slowed in rate. The nurse suspects extravasation and should take which actions? Select all that apply. 1, Stop the infusion 2, Notify the HCP 3. Prepare to apply ice or heat to the site 4. Restart the IV at a distal part of the same vein 5. Prepare to administer a prescribed antidote into the site 6. Increase the flow rate of the solution to flush the skin and subcutaneous tissue

1, 2, 3, 5 Redness and swelling and a slowed infusion idicate signs of extravasation. If the nurse suspects extravasation during the intravenous administration of an antineoplastic medication, the infusion is stopped and the HCP is notified. Ice or heat may be prescribed for application to the site and an antidote may be prescribed to be administered into the site. Increasing the flow rate can increase damage to the tissues. Restarting an IV in the same vein can increase damage to the site and veins.

609. The nurse is monitoring a client receiving levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. Which findings indicate the presence of a side effect associated with this medication? Select all that apply. 1. Insomnia 2. Weight loss 3. Bradycardia 4. Constipation 5. Mild heat intolerance

1, 2, 5 Insomnia, weight loss, and mild heat intolerance are side effects of levothyroxine. Bradycardia and constipation are not side effects associated with this medication and rather are associated with hypothyroidism, which is the disorder that this medication is prescribed to treat.

797. A client was just admitted to the hospital to rule out a gastrointestinal (GI) bleed. The client has brought several bottles of medications prescribed by different specialists. During the admission assessment, the client states, "Lately, I have been hearing some roaring sounds in my ears, especially when I am alone." Which medication would the nurse identify as the cause of the client's complaint? 1. Doxycycline 2. Acetylsalicylic acid 3. Atropine sulfate 4. Diltiazem hydrochloride

2 Aspirin is contraindicated for gastrointestinal bleeding and is potentially ototoxic. The client should be advised to notify the prescribing health care provider so the medication can be discontinued and/or a substitute that is less toxic to the ear can be taken instead. Options 1, 3, and 4 do not have effects that are potentially associated with hearing difficulties.

853. The nurse is preparing discharge instructions for a client receiving baclofen. Which instruction should be included in the teaching plan? 1. Restrict fluid intake. 2. Avoid the use of alcohol. 3. Stop the medication if diarrhea occurs. 4. Notify the health care provider (HCP) if fatigue occurs.

2 Baclofen is a skeletal muscle relaxant. The client should be cautioned against the use of alcohol and other central nervous system depressants because baclofen potentiates the depressant activity of these agents. Constipation rather than diarrhea is a side/adverse effect. Restriction of fluids is not necessary, but the client should be warned that urinary retention can occur. Fatigue is related to a central nervous system effect that is most intense during the early phase of therapy and diminishes with continued medication use. The client does not need to notify the HCP about fatigue.

761. Bethanechol chloride is prescribed for a client with urinary retention. Which disorder would be a contraindication to the administration of this medication? 1. Gastric atony 2. Urinary strictures 3. Neurogenic atony 4. Gastroesophageal reflux

2 Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) can be hazardous to clients with urinary tract obstruction or weakness of the bladder wall. The medication has the ability to contract the bladder and thereby increase pressure within the urinary tract. Elevation of pressure within the urinary tract could rupture the bladder in clients with these conditions.

956. The nurse is performing a follow-up teaching session with a client discharged 1 month ago. The client is taking fluoxetine. What information would be important for the nurse to obtain during this client visit regarding the side/adverse effects of the medication? 1. Cardiovascular symptoms 2. Gastrointestinal dysfunctions 3. Problems with mouth dryness 4. Problems with excessive sweating

2 Buspirone (Buspar) is not recommended for the treatment of paranoid thought disorders, drug or alcohol withdrawal, or schizophrenia. Buspirone (Buspar) most often is indicated for the treatment of anxiety.

957. A client who has been taking buspirone for 1 month returns to the clinic for a followup assessment. The nurse determines that the medication is effective if the absence of which manifestation has occurred? 1. Paranoid thought process 2. Rapid heartbeat or anxiety 3. Alcohol withdrawal symptoms 4. Thought broadcasting or delusions

2 Buspirone (Buspar) is not recommended for the treatment of paranoid thought disorders, drug or alcohol withdrawal, or schizophrenia. Buspirone (Buspar) most often is indicated for the treatment of anxiety.

851. Colchicine is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of gout. The nurse reviews the client's record, knowing that this medication would be used with caution in which disorder? 1. Myxedema 2. Kidney disease 3. Hypothyroidism 4. Diabetes mellitus

2 Colchicine is used with caution in older clients, debilitated clients, and clients with cardiac, kidney, or gastrointestinal disease. The disorders in options 1, 3, and 4 are not concerns with administration of this medication.

798. In preparation for cataract surgery, the nurse is to administer cyclopentolate eyedrops. The nurse understands that which characterizes the medication action? 1. Produces miosis of the operative eye 2. Dilates the pupil of the operative eye 3. Constricts the pupil of the operative eye 4. Provides lubrication to the operative eye

2 Cyclopentolate is a rapidly acting mydriatic and cycloplegic medication. Cyclopentolate is effective in 25 to 75 minutes, and accommodation returns in 6 to 24 hours. Cyclopentolate is used for preoperative mydriasis.

758. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client receiving sulfamethoxazole. Which instruction should be included in the list? 1. Restrict fluid intake. 2. Maintain a high fluid intake. 3. If the urine turns dark brown, call the health care provider (HCP) immediately. 4. Decrease the dosage when symptoms are improving to prevent an allergic response.

2 Each dose of sulfamethoxazole should be administered with a full glass of water, and the client should maintain a high fluid intake. The medication is more soluble in alkaline urine. The client should not be instructed to taper or discontinue the dose. Some forms of sulfamethoxazole cause urine to turn dark brown or red. This does not indicate the need to notify the HCP.

790. Betaxolol hydrochloride eyedrops have been prescribed for a client with glaucoma. Which nursing action is most appropriate related to monitoring for side/adverse effects of this medication? 1. Monitoring temperature 2. Monitoring blood pressure 3. Assessing peripheral pulses 4. Assessing blood glucose level

2 Hypotension, dizziness, nausea, diaphoresis, headache, fatigue, constipation, and diarrhea are side/adverse effects of the medication. Nursing interventions include monitoring the blood pressure for hypotension and assessing the pulse for strength, weakness, irregular rate, and bradycardia. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not specifically associated with this medication.

849. A client has been on treatment for rheumatoid arthritis for 3 weeks. During the administration of etanercept, which is most important for the nurse to assess? 1. The injection site for itching and edema 2. The white blood cell counts and platelet counts 3. Whether the client is experiencing fatigue and joint pain 4. Whether the client is experiencing a metallic taste in the mouth, and a loss of appetite

2 Infection and pancytopenia are side/adverse effects of etanercept. Laboratory studies are performed prior to and during medication treatment. The appearance of abnormal white blood cell counts and abnormal platelet counts can alert the nurse to a potentially life-threatening infection. Injection site itching is a common occurrence following administration. A metallic taste and loss of appetite are not common signs of side/adverse effects of this medication.

795. Which medication, if prescribed for the client with glaucoma, should the nurse question? 1. Betaxolol 2. Atropine sulfate 3. Pilocarpine hydrochloride 4. Pilocarpine

2 Options 1, 3, and 4 are miotic agents used to treat glaucoma. The correct option is a mydriatic and cycloplegic (also anticholinergic) medication, and its use is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma. Mydriatic medications dilate the pupil and can cause an increase in intraocular pressure in the eye.

951. The nurse is describing the medication side and adverse effects to a client who is taking oxazepam. What information should the nurse incorporate in the discussion? 1. Consume a low-fiber diet. 2. Increase fluids and bulk in the diet. 3. Rest if the heart begins to beat rapidly. 4. Take antidiarrheal agents if diarrhea occurs.

2 Oxazepam (Serax) causes constipation, and the client is instructed to increase fluid intake and bulk (high fiber) in the diet. If the heart begins to beat fast, the health care provider (HCP) is notified because this could indicate overdose. In addition, diarrhea could indicate an incomplete intestinal obstruction and, if this occurs, the HCP is notified.

960. A hospitalized client has begun taking bupropion as an antidepressant agent. The nurse understands that which is an adverse effect, indicating that the client is taking an excessive amount of medication? 1. Constipation 2. Seizure activity 3. Increased weight 4. Dizziness when getting upright

2 Seizure activity can occur in clients taking bupropion (Wellbutrin) dosages greater than 450 mg daily. Weight gain is an occasional side effect, whereas constipation is a common side effect of this medication. This medication does not cause significant orthostatic blood pressure changes.

948. A client's medication sheet contains a prescription for sertraline. To ensure safe administration of the medication, how should the nurse administer the dose? 1. On an empty stomach 2. At the same time each evening 3. Evenly spaced around the clock 4. As needed when the client complains of depression

2 Sertraline (Zoloft) is classified as an antidepressant. Sertraline (Zoloft) generally is administered once every 24 hours. It may be administered in the morning or evening, but evening administration may be preferable because drowsiness is a side effect. The medication may be administered without food or with food if gastrointestinal distress occurs. Sertraline (Zoloft) is not prescribed for use as needed.

955. The nurse notes that a client with schizophrenia and receiving an antipsychotic medication is moving her mouth, protruding her tongue, and grimacing as she watches television. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing which medication complication? 1. Parkinsonism 2. Tardive dyskinesia 3. Hypertensive crisis 4. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

2 Tardive dyskinesia is a reaction that can occur from antipsychotic medication. It is characterized by uncontrollable involuntary movements of the body and extremities, particularly the tongue. Parkinsonism is characterized by tremors, masklike facies, rigidity, and a shuffling gait. Hypertensive crisis can occur from the use of monoamine oxidase inhibitors and is characterized by hypertension, occipital headache radiating frontally, neck stiffness and soreness, nausea, and vomiting. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a potentially fatal syndrome that may occur at any time during therapy with neuroleptic (antipsychotic) medications. It is characterized by dyspnea or tachypnea, tachycardia or irregular pulse rate, fever, blood pressure changes, increased sweating, loss of bladder control, and skeletal muscle rigidity.

732. Intravenous heparin therapy is prescribed for a client. While implementing this prescription, the nurse ensures that which medication is available on the nursing unit? 1. Vitamin K 2. Protamine sulfate 3. Potassium chloride 4. Aminocaproic acid

2 The antidote to heparin is protamine sulfate; it should be readily available for use if excessive bleeding or hemorrhage should occur. Vitamin K is an antidote for warfarin sodium. Potassium chloride is administered for a potassium deficit. Aminocaproic acid is the antidote for thrombolytic therapy.

953. The nurse is teaching a client who is being started on imipramine about the medication. The nurse should inform the client to expect maximum desired effects at what time period following initiation of the medication? 1. In 2 months 2. In 2 to 3 weeks 3. During the first week 4. During the sixth week of administration

2 The maximum therapeutic effects of imipramine (Tofranil) may not occur for 2 to 3 weeks after antidepressant therapy has been initiated. Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect.

827. The nurse has given medication instructions to a client receiving phenytoin. Which statement indicates that the client has an adequate understanding of the instructions? 1. "Alcohol is not contraindicated while taking this medication." 2. "Good oral hygiene is needed, including brushing and flossing." 3. "The medication dose may be self-adjusted, depending on side effects." 4. "The morning dose of the medication should be taken before a serum drug level is drawn."

2 Typical anticonvulsant medication instructions include taking the prescribed daily dosage to keep the blood level of the drug constant and having a sample drawn for serum drug level determination before taking the morning dose. The client is taught not to stop the medication abruptly, to avoid alcohol, to check with a health care provider before taking over-the-counter medications, to avoid activities in which alertness and coordination are required until medication effects are known, to provide good oral hygiene, and to obtain regular dental care. The client should also wear a Medic-Alert bracelet.

826. The nurse is caring for a client with severe back pain. Codeine sulfate has been prescribed for the client. Specific to this medication, which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care while the client is taking this medication? 1. Monitor radial pulse. 2. Monitor bowel activity. 3. Monitor apical heart rate. 4. Monitor peripheral pulses.

2 While the client is taking codeine sulfate, the nurse would monitor vital signs and assess for hypotension. The nurse also should increase fluid intake, palpate the bladder for urinary retention, auscultate bowel sounds, and monitor the pattern of daily bowel activity and stool consistency because the medication causes constipation. The nurse should monitor respiratory status and initiate deep-breathing and coughing exercises. In addition, the nurse monitors the effectiveness of the pain medication.

874. The nurse caring for a client who is taking an aminoglycoside should monitor the client for which adverse effects of the medication? Select all that apply. 1. Seizures 2. Ototoxicity 3. Renal toxicity 4. Dysrhythmias 5. Hepatotoxicity

2, 3, 4 Aminoglycosides are administered to inhibit the growth of bacteria. Adverse effects of this medication include confusion, ototoxicity, renal toxicity, gastrointestinal irritation, palpitations (dysrhythmias), blood pressure changes, and hypersensitivity reactions. Therefore, the remaining options are incorrect.

822. Meperidine hydrochloride has been prescribed for a client to treat pain. Which are side/adverse effects of this medication? Select all that apply. 1. Diarrhea 2. Tremors 3. Drowsiness 4. Hypotension 5. Urinary frequency 6. Increased respiratory rate

2, 3, 4 Meperidine hydrochloride is an opioid analgesic. Side/adverse effects include respiratory depression, drowsiness, hypotension, constipation, urinary retention, nausea, vomiting, and tremors.

875. Ketoconazole is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of candidiasis. Which interventions should the nurse include when administering this medication? Select all that apply. 1. Restrict fluid intake. 2. Monitor liver function studies. 3. Instruct the client to avoid alcohol. 4. Administer the medication with an antacid. 5. Instruct the client to avoid exposure to the sun. 6. Administer the medication on an empty stomach.

2, 3, 5 Ketoconazole is an antifungal medication. There is no reason for the client to restrict fluid intake; in fact, this could be harmful to the client. The medication is hepatotoxic, and the nurse monitors liver function. It is administered with food (not on an empty stomach) and antacids are avoided for 2 hours after taking the medication to ensure absorption. The client is also instructed to avoid alcohol. In addition, the client is instructed to avoid exposure to the sun because the medication increases photosensitivity.

765. The nurse is providing dietary instructions to a client who has been prescribed cyclosporine. Which food item should the nurse instruct the client to exclude from the diet? 1. Red meats 2. Orange juice 3. Grapefruit juice 4. Green leafy vegetables

3 A compound present in grapefruit juice inhibits metabolism of cyclosporine. As a result, consumption of grapefruit juice can raise cyclosporine levels by 50% to 100%, thereby greatly increasing the risk of toxicity

879. Amikacin is prescribed for a client with a bacterial infection. The nurse instructs the client to contact the health care provider (HCP) immediately if which occurs? 1. Nausea 2. Lethargy 3. Hearing loss 4. Muscle aches

3 Amikacin (Amikin) is an aminoglycoside. Side/adverse effects of aminoglycosides include ototoxicity (hearing problems), confusion, disorientation, gastrointestinal irritation, palpitations, blood pressure changes, nephrotoxicity, and hypersensitivity. The nurse instructs the client to report hearing loss to the HCP immediately. Lethargy and muscle aches are not associated with the use of this medication. It is not necessary to contact the HCP immediately if nausea occurs. If nausea persists or results in vomiting, the HCP should be notified.

570. The nurse is monitoring the laboratory results of a client receiving an antineoplastic medication by the intravenous route. The nurse plans to initiate bleeding precautions if which laboratory result is noted? 1. A clotting time of 10 minutes 2. An ammonia level of 20 mg/dL 3. A platelet count of 50,000 cells/min 4. A white blood cell count of 5000 cells/mm3

3 Bleeding precautions need to be initiated when the platelet count decreases. The normal paltelet count is 150,000-450,000 cell/mm3. When the platelet count decreased, the client is at risk for bleeding. The normal white blood cell count is 4500-11,000 cellsm/mm3. When the white blood cell count drops, neutropenic precautions need to be implemented. The normal clotting time is 8-15 minutes. The normal ammonia value is 10-80 mcg/dL.

762. The nurse, who is administering bethanechol chloride, is monitoring for cholinergic overdose associated with the medication. The nurse should check the client for which sign of overdose? 1. Dry skin 2. Dry mouth 3. Bradycardia 4. Signs of dehydration

3 Cholinergic overdose of bethanechol chloride produces manifestations of excessive muscarinic stimulation such as salivation, sweating, involuntary urination and defecation, bradycardia, and severe hypotension. Treatment includes supportive measures and the administration of atropine sulfate subcutaneously or intravenously.

647. An older client recently has been taking cimetidine. The nurse monitors the client for which most frequent central nervous system side effect of this medication? 1. Tremors 2. Dizziness 3. Confusion 4. Hallucinations

3 Cimetidine (Tagamet) is a histamine H2-receptor antagonist. Older clients are especially susceptible to central nervous system side effects of cimetidine. The most frequent of these is confusion. Less common central nervous system side effects include headache, dizziness, drowsiness, and hallucinations.

614. A daily dose of prednisone is prescribed for a client. The nurse provides instructions to the client regarding administration of the medication and should instruct the client that which time is best to take this medication? 1. At noon 2. At bedtime 3. Early mornings 4. Any time at the same time, each day

3 Corticosteroids (glucocorticoids) should be administered before 9AM. Administration at this time helps minimize adrenal insufficiency and mimics the burst of glucocorticoids released naturally be the adrenal glands each morning. Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect.

961. A client receiving tricyclic antidepressants arrives at the mental health clinic. Which observation would indicate that the client is following the medication plan correctly? 1. Client reports not going to work for this past week. 2. Client complains of not being able to "do anything" anymore. 3. Client arrives at the clinic neat and appropriate in appearance. 4. Client reports sleeping 12 hours per night and 3 to 4 hours during the day.

3 Depressed individuals sleep for long periods, are unable to go to work, and feel as if they cannot "do anything." When these clients have had some therapeutic effect from their medication, they report resolution of many of these complaints and exhibit an improvement in their appearance. Options 1, 2, and 4 identify continued depression.

877. The nurse is reviewing the results of serum laboratory studies drawn on a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome who is receiving didanosine. The nurse interprets that the client may have the medication discontinued by the health care provider if which elevated result is noted? 1. Serum protein level 2. Blood glucose level 3. Serum amylase level 4. Serum creatinine level

3 Didanosine can cause pancreatitis. A serum amylase level that is increased to 1.5 to 2 times normal may signify pancreatitis in the client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome and is potentially fatal. The medication may have to be discontinued. The medication is also hepatotoxic and can result in liver failure.

854. The nurse is analyzing the laboratory studies on a client receiving dantrolene sodium. Which laboratory test would identify an adverse effect associated with the administration of this medication? 1. Platelet count 2. Creatinine level 3. Liver function tests 4. Blood urea nitrogen level

3 Dose-related liver damage is the most serious adverse effect of dantrolene. To reduce the risk of liver damage, liver function tests should be performed before treatment and throughout the treatment interval. Dantrolene is administered at the lowest effective dosage for the shortest time necessary.

878. The nurse is caring for a postrenal transplantation client taking cyclosporine. The nurse notes an increase in one of the client's vital signs and the client is complaining of a headache. What vital sign is most likely increased? 1. Pulse 2. Respirations 3. Blood pressure 4. Pulse oximetry

3 Hypertension can occur in a client taking cyclosporine (Sandimmune) and, because this client is also complaining of a headache, the blood pressure is the vital sign to be monitored most closely. Other adverse effects include infection, nephrotoxicity, and hirsutism. Options 1, 2, and 4 are unrelated to the use of this medication.

567. The nurse is analyzing the laboratory results of a client with leukemia who has received a regimen of chemotherapy. Which laboratory value would the nurse specifically note as a result of the massive cell destruction that occurred from the chemotherapy? 1. Anemia 2. decreased platelets 3. Increased uric acid level 4. Decreased leukocyte count

3 Hyperuremia is especially common following treatment of leukemias and lyphomas because chemotherapy results in massive cell kill. Although options 1, 2, and 4 also may be noted, an increased uric acid level is related specifically to cell destruction

829. A client with trigeminal neuralgia tells the nurse that acetaminophen is taken daily for the relief of generalized discomfort. Which laboratory value would indicate toxicity associated with the medication? 1. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L 2. Prothrombin time of 12 seconds 3. Direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL 4. Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm3

3 In adults, overdose of acetaminophen causes liver damage. The correct option is an indicator of liver function and is the only option that indicates an abnormal laboratory value. The normal direct bilirubin level is 0 to 0.3 mg/dL. The normal sodium level is 135 to 145 mEq/L. The normal prothrombin time is 10 to 13 seconds. The normal platelet count is 150,000 to 400,000 cells/mm3.

857. The nurse is administering an intravenous dose of methocarbamol to a client with multiple sclerosis. For which side/adverse effects should the nurse monitor? 1. Tachycardia 2. Rapid pulse 3. Bradycardia 4. Hypertension

3 Intravenous administration of methocarbamol can cause hypotension and bradycardia. The nurse needs to monitor for these side/adverse effects. Options 1, 2, and 4 are not effects with administration of this medication.

689. A client with tuberculosis is being started on antituberculosis therapy with isoniazid. Before giving the client the first dose, the nurse should ensure that which baseline study has been completed? 1. Electrolyte levels 2. Coagulation times 3. Liver enzyme levels 4. Serum creatinine level

3 Isoniazid therapy can cause an elevation of hepatic enzyme levels and hepatitis. Therefore, liver enzyme levels are monitored when therapy is initiated and during the first 3 months of therapy. They may be monitored longer in the client who is older than 50 or abuses alcohol. The laboratory tests in options 1, 2, and 4 are not necessary.

796. A miotic medication has been prescribed for the client with glaucoma and the client asks the nurse about the purpose of the medication. Which response should the nurse provide to the client? 1. "The medication will help dilate the eye to prevent pressure from occurring." 2. "The medication will relax the muscles of the eyes and prevent blurred vision." 3. "The medication causes the pupil to constrict and will lower the pressure in the eye." 4. "The medication will help block the responses that are sent to the muscles in the eye."

3 Miotics cause pupillary constriction and are used to treat glaucoma. They lower the intraocular pressure, thereby increasing blood flow to the retina and decreasing retinal damage and loss of vision. Miotics cause a contraction of the ciliary muscle and a widening of the trabecular meshwork. Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect.

768. The nurse receives a call from a client concerned about eliminating brown-colored urine after taking nitrofurantoin for a urinary tract infection. The nurse should make which appropriate response? 1. "Discontinue taking the medication and make an appointment for a urine culture." 2. "Decrease your medication to half the dose because your urine is too concentrated." 3. "Continue taking the medication because the urine is discolored from the medication." 4. "Take magnesium hydroxide (Maalox) with your medication to lighten the urine color."

3 Nitrofurantoin (Furadantin) imparts a harmless brown color to the urine and the medication should not be discontinued until the prescribed dose is completed. Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox) will not affect urine color. In addition, antacids should be avoided because they interfere with medication effectiveness.

610. The nurse provides instructions to a client who is taking levothyroxine. The nurse should tell the client to take the medication at which time? 1. With food 2. At lunch time 3. On an empty stomach 4. At bedtime with a snack

3 Oral doses of levothyroxine should be take on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Dosing should be done in the morning before breakfast.

356. The nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving oxytocin to induce labor. Which assessment finding would cause the nurse to immediately discontinue the oxytocin infusion? 1. Fatigue 2. Drowsiness 3. Uterine hyperstimulation 4. Early decelerations of the fetal heart rate

3 Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions and is a common pharmacological method to induce labor. High-dose protocols have been associated with more uterine hyperstimulation and more cesarean births related to fetal stress. Some health care providers prescribe the administration of oxytocin in 10-minute pulsed infusions rather than as a continuous infusion. This pulsed method, which is more like endogenous secretion of oxytocin, is reported to be effective for labor induction and requires significantly less oxytocin use. Adverse effects associated with administration of the medication are hyperstimulation of uterine contractions and nonreassuring fetal heart rate patterns. Oxytocin infusion must be stopped when any signs of uterine hyperstimulation are present. Drowsiness and fatigue may be caused by the labor experience. Early decelerations of the fetal heart rate are a reassuring sign and do not indicate fetal distress.

646. A client has begun medication therapy with pancrelipase. The nurse evaluates that the medication is having the optimal intended benefit if which effect is observed? 1. Weight loss 2. Relief of heartburn 3. Reduction of steatorrhea 4. Absence of abdominal pain

3 Pancrelipase (Pancrease, Creon) is a pancreatic enzyme used in clients with pancreatitis as a digestive aid. The medication should reduce the amount of fatty stools (steatorrhea). Another intended effect could be improved nutritional status. It is not used to treat abdominal pain or heartburn. Its use could result in weight gain but should not result in weight loss if it is aiding in digestion.

820. The home health nurse visits a client who is taking phenytoin for control of seizures. During the assessment, the nurse notes that the client is taking birth control pills. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching plan? 1. Pregnancy should be avoided while taking phenytoin. 2. The client may stop the medication if it is causing severe gastrointestinal effects. 3. There is the potential of decreased effectiveness of birth control pills while taking phenytoin. 4. There is the increased risk of thrombophlebitis while taking phenytoin and birth control pills together.

3 Phenytoin enhances the rate of estrogen metabolism, which can decrease the effectiveness of some birth control pills. Options 1, 2, and 4 are inappropriate instructions.

823. A client is taking the prescribed dose of phenytoin to control seizures. Results of a phenytoin blood level study reveal a level of 35 mcg/mL. Which finding would be expected as a result of this laboratory result? 1. Hypotension 2. Tachycardia 3. Slurred speech 4. No abnormal finding

3 The therapeutic phenytoin level is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. At a level higher than 20 mcg/mL, involuntary movements of the eyeballs (nystagmus) occur. At a level higher than 30 mcg/mL, ataxia and slurred speech occur.

684. Zafirlukast is prescribed for a client with bronchial asthma. Which laboratory test does the nurse expect to be prescribed before the administration of this medication? 1. Platelet count 2. Neutrophil count 3. Liver function tests 4. Complete blood count

3 Zafirlukast (Accolate) is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used in the prophylaxis and long-term treatment of bronchial asthma. Zafirlukast is used with caution in clients with impaired hepatic function. Liver function laboratory tests should be performed to obtain a baseline, and the levels should be monitored during administration of the medication.

876. The nurse is caring for a client who has been taking a sulfonamide and should monitor for signs/symptoms of which side/adverse effects of the medication? Select all that apply. 1. Ototoxicity 2. Palpitations 3. Nephrotoxicity 4. Bone marrow depression 5. Gastrointestinal (GI) effects 6. Increased white blood cell (WBC) count

3, 4, 5 Side/adverse effects include nephrotoxicity, bone marrow depression, GI effects, hepatotoxicity, dermatological effects, and some neurological symptoms including headache, dizziness, vertigo, ataxia, depression, and seizures. Options 1, 2, and 6 are unrelated to this medication.

954. A hospitalized client is started on phenelzine for the treatment of depression. The nurse should instruct the client that which foods are acceptable to consume while taking this medication? Select all that apply. 1. Figs 2. Yogurt 3. Crackers 4. Aged cheese 5. Tossed salad 6. Oatmeal raisin cookies

3, 5 Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). The client should avoid ingesting foods that are high in tyramine. Ingestion of these foods could trigger a potentially fatal hypertensive crisis. Foods to avoid include yogurt; aged cheeses; smoked or processed meats; red wines; and fruits such as avocados, raisins, or figs.

949. A client with schizophrenia has been started on medication therapy with clozapine. The nurse should assess the results of which laboratory study to monitor for adverse effects from this medication? 1. Platelet count 2. Blood glucose level 3. Liver function studies 4. White blood cell count

4 A client taking clozapine (Clozaril) may experience agranulocytosis, which is monitored by reviewing the results of the white blood cell count. Treatment is interrupted if the white blood cell count decreases to less than 3000 cells/mm3. Agranulocytosis could be fatal if undetected and untreated. The other laboratory studies are not related specifically to the use of this medication.

825. A client with trigeminal neuralgia is being treated with carbamazepine, 400 mg orally daily. Which value indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect to the medication? 1. Uric acid level, 5 mg/dL 2. Sodium level, 140 mEq/L 3. Blood urea nitrogen level, 15 mg/dL 4. White blood cell count, 3000 cells/mm3

4 Adverse effects of carbamazepine appear as blood dyscrasias, including aplastic anemia, agranulocytosis, thrombocytopenia, and leukopenia; cardiovascular disturbances including thrombophlebitis and dysrhythmias; and dermatological effects. The low white blood cell count reflects agranulocytosis. The laboratory values in options 1, 2, and 3 are normal values.

828. A client with myasthenia gravis has become increasingly weaker. The health care provider prepares to identify whether the client is reacting to an overdose of the medication (cholinergic crisis) or an increasing severity of the disease (myasthenic crisis). An injection of edrophonium is administered. Which finding would indicate that the client is in cholinergic crisis? 1. No change in the condition 2. Complaints of muscle spasms 3. An improvement of the weakness 4. A temporary worsening of the condition

4 An edrophonium injection makes the client in cholinergic crisis temporarily worse. An improvement in the weakness indicates myasthenia crisis. Muscle spasms are not associated with this test.

793. The nurse is providing instructions to a client who will be self-administering eyedrops. To minimize systemic absorption of the eyedrops, the nurse should instruct the client to take which action? 1. Eat before instilling the drops. 2. Swallow several times after instilling the drops. 3. Blink vigorously to encourage tearing after instilling the drops. 4. Occlude the nasolacrimal duct with a finger after instilling the drops.

4 Applying pressure on the nasolacrimal duct prevents systemic absorption of the medication. Options 1, 2, and 3 will not prevent systemic absorption.

959. A client gives the home health nurse a bottle of clomipramine. The nurse notes that the medication has not been taken by the client in 2 months. Which behavior observed in the client would validate noncompliance with this medication? 1. Complaints of insomnia 2. Complaints of hunger and fatigue 3. A pulse rate less than 60 beats/minute 4. Frequent hand-washing with hot soapy water

4 Clomipramine (Anafranil) is a tricyclic antidepressant used to treat obsessive-compulsive disorder. Sedation sometimes occurs. Insomnia seldom is a side effect. Weight gain and tachycardia are side/adverse effects of this medication.

819. Carbidopa-levodopa is prescribed for a client with Parkinson's disease. The nurse monitors the client for side/adverse effects to the medication. Which finding indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect? 1. Pruritus 2. Tachycardia 3. Hypertension 4. Impaired voluntary movements

4 Dyskinesia and impaired voluntary movement may occur with high levodopa dosages. Nausea, anorexia, dizziness, orthostatic hypotension, bradycardia, and akinesia are frequent side effects of the medication.

721. The nurse provides discharge instructions to a client who is taking warfarin sodium. Which statement, by the client, reflects the need for further teaching? 1. "I will avoid alcohol consumption." 2. "I will take my pills every day at the same time." 3. "I have already called my family to pick up a Medic-Alert bracelet." 4. "I will take enteric-coated aspirin for my headaches because it is coated."

4 Ecotrin is an aspirin-containing product and should be avoided. Alcohol consumption should be avoided by a client taking warfarin sodium. Taking prescribed medication at the same time each day increases client compliance. The Medic-Alert bracelet provides health care personnel emergency information.

880. The nurse is assigned to care for a client with cytomegalovirus retinitis and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome who is receiving foscarnet, an antiviral medication. The nurse should monitor the results of which laboratory study while the client is taking this medication? 1. CD4 cell count 2. Lymphocyte count 3. Serum albumin level 4. Serum creatinine level

4 Foscarnet is toxic to the kidneys. The serum creatinine level is monitored before therapy, two or three times per week during induction therapy, and at least weekly during maintenance therapy. Foscarnet also may cause decreased levels of calcium, magnesium, phosphorus, and potassium. Thus, these levels also are measured with the same frequency.

873. The client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome and Pneumocystis jiroveci infection has been receiving pentamidine. The client develops a temperature of 101° F. The nurse continues to assess the client, knowing that this sign most likely indicates which condition? 1. That the dose of the medication is too low 2. That the client is experiencing toxic effects of the medication 3. That the client has developed inadequacy of thermoregulation 4. That the client has developed another infection caused by leukopenic effects of the medication

4 Frequent side/adverse effects of this medication include leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and anemia. The client should be monitored routinely for signs and symptoms of infection. Options 1, 2, and 3 are inaccurate interpretations.

756. A client who has a cold is seen in the emergency department with an inability to void. Because the client has a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia, the nurse determines that the client should be questioned about the use of which medication? 1. Diuretics 2. Antibiotics 3. Antitussives 4. Decongestants

4 In the client with benign prostatic hyperplasia, episodes of urinary retention can be triggered by certain medications, such as decongestants, anticholinergics, and antidepressants. The client should be questioned about the use of these medications if the client has urinary retention. Retention also can be precipitated by other factors, such as alcoholic beverages, infection, bed rest, and becoming chilled.

365. Methylergonovine is prescribed for a client with postpartum hemorrhage. Before administering the medication, the nurse contacts the health care provider who prescribed the medication if which condition is documented in the client's medical history? 1. Hypotension 2. Hypothyroidism 3. Diabetes mellitus 4. Peripheral vascular disease

4 Methylergonovine is an ergot alkaloid used to treat postpartum hemorrhage. Ergot alkaloids are contraindicated in clients with significant cardiovascular disease, peripheral vascular disease, hypertension, preeclampsia, or eclampsia. These conditions are worsened by the vasoconstrictive effects of the ergot alkaloids. Options 1, 2, and 3 are not contraindications related to the use of ergot alkaloids.

764. Following kidney transplantation, cyclosporine is prescribed for a client. Which laboratory result would indicate an adverse effect from the use of this medication? 1. Normal hemoglobin level 2. Decreased creatinine level 3. Decreased white blood cell count 4. Elevated blood urea nitrogen level

4 Nephrotoxicity can occur from the use of cyclosporine (Sandimmune). Nephrotoxicity is evaluated by monitoring for elevated blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine levels. Cyclosporine does not depress the bone marrow.

645. A client has a PRN prescription for ondansetron. For which condition should the nurse administer this medication to the postoperative client? 1. Paralytic ileus 2. Incisional pain 3. Urinary retention 4. Nausea and vomiting

4 Ondansetron (Zofran) is an antiemetic used to treat postoperative nausea and vomiting, as well as nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. The other options are incorrect.

950. A client is scheduled for discharge and will be taking phenobarbital sodium for an extended period. The nurse would place highest priority on teaching the client which point that directly relates to client safety? 1. Take the medication only with meals. 2. Take the medication at the same time each day. 3. Use a dose container to help prevent missed doses. 4. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.

4 Phenobarbital is an anticonvulsant and hypnotic agent. The client should avoid taking any other central nervous system depressants such as alcohol while taking this medication. The medication may be given without regard to meals. Taking the medication at the same time each day enhances compliance and maintains more stable blood levels of the medication. Using a dose container or "pillbox" may be helpful for some clients.

852. Alendronate is prescribed for a client with osteoporosis and the nurse is providing instructions on administration of the medication. Which instruction should the nurse provide? 1. Take the medication at bedtime. 2. Take the medication in the morning with breakfast. 3. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication. 4. Take the medication with a full glass of water after rising in the morning.

4 Precautions need to be taken with the administration of alendronate to prevent gastrointestinal side/adverse effects (especially esophageal irritation) and to increase absorption of the medication. The medication needs to be taken with a full glass of water after rising in the morning. The client should not eat or drink anything for 30 minutes following administration and should not lie down after taking the medication.

364. Rho(D) immune globulin is prescribed for a client after delivery and the nurse provides information to the client about the purpose of the medication. The nurse determines that the woman understands the purpose if the woman states that it will protect her next baby from which condition? 1. Having Rh-positive blood 2. Developing a rubella infection 3. Developing physiological jaundice 4. Being affected by Rh incompatibility

4 Rh incompatibility can occur when an Rh-negative mother becomes sensitized to the Rh antigen. Sensitization may develop when an Rh-negative woman becomes pregnant with a fetus who is Rh positive. During pregnancy and at delivery, some of the fetus's Rh-positive blood can enter the maternal circulation, causing the mother's immune system to form antibodies against Rhpositive blood. Administration of Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) prevents the mother from developing antibodies against Rhpositive blood by providing passive antibody protection against the Rh antigen.

952. The nurse is administering risperidone to a client who is scheduled to be discharged. Before discharge, which instruction should the nurse provide to the client? 1. Get adequate sunlight. 2. Continue driving as usual. 3. Avoid foods rich in potassium. 4. Get up slowly when changing positions.

4 Risperidone (Risperdal) can cause orthostatic hypotension. Sunlight should be avoided by the client taking this medication. With any psychotropic medication, caution needs to be taken (such as with driving or other activities requiring alertness) until the individual can determine whether his or her level of alertness is affected. Food interaction is not a concern.

821. The nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department who has been diagnosed with Bell's palsy. The client has been taking acetaminophen, and acetaminophen overdose is suspected. Which antidote should the nurse anticipate to be prescribed? 1. Pentostatin 2. Auranofin 3. Fludarabine 4. Acetylcysteine

4 The antidote for acetaminophen is acetylcysteine (Mucomyst). The normal therapeutic serum level of acetaminophen is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. A toxic level is higher than 50 mcg/mL, and levels higher than 200 mcg/mL could indicate hepatotoxicity. Auranofin (Ridaura) is a gold preparation used to treat rheumatoid arthritis. Pentostatin (Nipent) and fludarabine (Fludara) are antineoplastic agents.

760. Phenazopyridine is prescribed for a client for symptomatic relief of pain resulting from a lower urinary tract infection. The nurse should provide the client with which information regarding this medication? 1. Take the medication at bedtime. 2. Take the medication before meals. 3. Discontinue the medication if a headache occurs. 4. A reddish orange discoloration of the urine may occur.

4 The nurse should instruct the client that a reddish-orange discoloration of urine may occur. The nurse also should instruct the client that this discoloration can stain fabric. The medication should be taken after meals to reduce the possibility of gastrointestinal upset. A headache is an occasional side effect of the medication and does not warrant discontinuation of the medication.

763. Oxybutynin chloride is prescribed for a client with neurogenic bladder. Which sign would indicate a possible toxic effect related to this medication? 1. Pallor 2. Drowsiness 3. Bradycardia 4. Restlessness

4 Toxicity (overdosage) of oxybutynin produces central nervous system excitation, such as nervousness, restlessness, hallucinations, and irritability. Other signs of toxicity include hypotension or hypertension, confusion, tachycardia, flushed or red face, and signs of respiratory depression. Drowsiness is a frequent side effect of the medication but does not indicate overdosage.

767. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client receiving tacrolimus. Which laboratory result would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication? 1. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL 2. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L 3. Platelet count of 300,000 cells/mm3 4. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm3

1 A blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL is significantly elevated above the normal range of 70 to 110 mg/dL and suggests an adverse effect. Other adverse effects include neurotoxicity evidenced by headache, tremor, and insomnia; gastrointestinal effects such as diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting; hypertension; and hyperkalemia.

855. Cyclobenzaprine hydrochloride is prescribed for a client for muscle spasms and the nurse is reviewing the client's record. Which disorder, if noted in the record, would indicate a need to contact the health care provider about the administration of this medication? 1. Glaucoma 2. Emphysema 3. Hypothyroidism 4. Diabetes mellitus

1 Because cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) has anticholinergic effects, it should be used with caution in clients with a history of urinary retention, glaucoma, and increased intraocular pressure. Cyclobenzaprine should be used only for a short time (2 to 3 weeks). The conditions in options 2, 3, and 4 are not a concern with this medication.

792. The nurse prepares a client for an ear irrigation as prescribed by the health care provider. Which action should the nurse take when performing the procedure? 1. Warm the irrigating solution to 98.6° F. 2. Position the client with the affected side up following the irrigation. 3. Direct a slow steady stream of irrigation solution toward the eardrum. 4. Assist the client to turn his or her head so that the ear to be irrigated is facing upward.

1 Before ear irrigation, the nurse should inspect the tympanic membrane to ensure that it is intact. The irrigating solution should be warmed to 98.6 ° F because a solution temperature that is not close to the client's body temperature will cause ear injury, nausea, and vertigo. The affected side should be down following the irrigation to assist in drainage of the fluid. When irrigating, a direct and slow steady stream of irrigation solution is directed toward the wall of the canal, not toward the eardrum. The client is positioned sitting, facing forward with the head in a natural position; if the ear is faced upward, the nurse would not be able to visualize the canal.

770. A client with a urinary tract infection is receiving ciprofloxacin by the intravenous (IV) route. The nurse appropriately administers the medication by performing which action? 1. Infusing slowly over 60 minutes. 2. Infusing in a light-protective bag. 3. Infusing only through a central line. 4. Infusing rapidly as a direct intravenous push medication.

1 Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) is prescribed for treatment of mild, moderate, severe, and complicated infections of the urinary tract, lower respiratory tract, and skin and skin structure. A single dose is administered slowly over 60 minutes to minimize discomfort and vein irritation. Other solutions infusing at the same site need to be temporarily discontinued while the ciprofloxacin is infusing.

850. Allopurinol is prescribed for a client and the nurse provides medication instructions to the client. Which instruction should the nurse provide? 1. Drink 3000 mL of fluid a day. 2. Take the medication on an empty stomach. 3. The effect of the medication will occur immediately. 4. Any swelling of the lips is a normal expected response.

1 Clients taking allopurinol are encouraged to drink 3000 mL of fluid a day. A full therapeutic effect may take 1 week or longer. Allopurinol is to be given with, or immediately after, meals or milk. A client who develops a rash, irritation of the eyes, or swelling of the lips or mouth should contact the health care provider because this may indicate hypersensitivity.

769. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa. Which laboratory result would indicate a therapeutic effect of the medication? 1. Hematocrit of 32% 2. Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm3 3. Blood urea nitrogen level of 15 mg/dL 4. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm3

1 Epoetin alfa is used to reverse anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Therapeutic effect is seen when the hematocrit is between 30% and 33%. Options 2, 3, and 4 are not associated with the action of this medication.

958. A client taking lithium carbonate reports vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea, blurred vision, tinnitus, and tremors. The lithium level is 2.5 mEq/L. This level is indicative of which finding? 1. Toxic 2. Normal 3. Slightly above normal 4. Excessively below normal

1 Maintenance serum levels of lithium are 0.6 to 1.2 mEq/L. Symptoms of toxicity begin to appear at levels of 1.5 to 2 mEq/L. Lithium toxicity requires immediate medical attention with lavage and possible peritoneal dialysis or hemodialysis

824. The client arrives at the emergency department complaining of back spasms. The client states, "I have been taking two to three aspirin every 4 hours for the last week, and it hasn't helped my back." Since aspirin intoxication is suspected, the nurse should assess the client for which manifestation? 1. Tinnitus 2. Diarrhea 3. Constipation 4. Photosensitivity

1 Mild intoxication with acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) is called salicylism and is experienced commonly when the daily dosage is higher than 4 g. Tinnitus (ringing in the ears) is the most frequent effect noted with intoxication. Hyperventilation may occur because salicylate stimulates the respiratory center. Fever may result, because salicylate interferes with the metabolic pathways coupling oxygen consumption and heat production. Options 2, 3, and 4 are not associated specifically with toxicity.

881. A client who is human immunodeficiency virus seropositive has been taking stavudine. The nurse should monitor which most closely while the client is taking this medication? 1. Gait 2. Appetite 3. Level of consciousness 4. Gastrointestinal function

1 Stavudine is an antiretroviral used to manage human immunodeficiency virus infection in clients who do not respond to or who cannot tolerate conventional therapy. The medication can cause peripheral neuropathy, and the nurse should monitor the client's gait closely and ask the client about paresthesia. Options 2, 3, and 4 are unrelated to this medication.

766. Tacrolimus is prescribed for a client. Which disorder, if noted in the client's record, would indicate that the medication needs to be administered with caution? 1. Pancreatitis 2. Ulcerative colitis 3. Diabetes insipidus 4. Coronary artery disease

1 Tacrolimus (Prograf) is used with caution in immunosuppressed clients and in clients with renal, hepatic, or pancreatic function impairment. Tacrolimus is contraindicated in clients with hypersensitivity to this medication or hypersensitivity to cyclosporine.

794. A client is prescribed an eyedrop and an eye ointment for the right eye. How should the nurse best administer the medications? 1. Administer the eyedrop first, followed by the eye ointment. 2. Administer the eye ointment first, followed by the eyedrop. 3. Administer the eyedrop, wait 15 minutes, and administer the eye ointment. 4. Administer the eye ointment, wait 15 minutes, and administer the eyedrop.

1 When an eyedrop and an eye ointment are scheduled to be administered at the same time, the eyedrop is administered first. The instillation of two medications is separated by 3 to 5 minutes.

527. The clinic nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client and notes that the client is taking azelaic acid. Because of the medication prescription, the nurse would suspect that the client is being treated for which condition? 1. Acne 2. Eczema 3. Hair loss 4. Herpes simplex

Answer: 1 Azelaic acid is a topical medication used to treat mild to moderate acne. The acid appears to work by suppressing the growth of Propionibacterium acnes and by ddecreasing the proliferation of keratinocytes. Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect.

523. A burn client is receiving treatments of topical mafenide acetate to the site of injury. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which finding indicates that a systemic effect has occurred? 1. Hyperventilation 2. Local rash at the burn site 3. Elevated blood pressure 4. Local pain at the burn site

Answer: 1 Mafenide acetate is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and can suppress renal excretion of acid, thereby causing acidosis. Clients receiving this treatment should be monitored for signs of an acid base imbalance (hyperventilation). If this occurs, the medication will probably be discontinued for 1 to 2 days. Options 2 and 4 describe local rather than systemic effects. An elevated blood pressure may be expected from the pain that occurs with a burn injury.

652. A client has a new prescription for metoclopramide. On review of the chart, the nurse identifies that this medication can be safely administered with which condition? 1. Intestinal obstruction 2. Peptic ulcer with melena 3. Diverticulitis with perforation 4. Vomiting following cancer chemotherapy

4 Metoclopramide (Reglan) is a gastrointestinal stimulant and antiemetic. Because it is a GI stimulant, it is contraindicated with GI obstruction, hemorrhage, or perforation. It is used in the treatment of emesis after surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation.

600. The nurse is teaching a client how to mix regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe. Which action, if performed by the client, indicates the need for further teaching? 1. Withdraws the NPH insulin first 2. Withdraws the regular insulin first 3. Injects air into NPH insulin vial first 4. Injects an amount of air equal to the desired dose of insulin into each vial

1 When preparing a mixture of short-acting insulin suc as regular insulin with another insulin preparation, the short-acting insulin is drawn into the syringe first. This sequence will avoid contaminating the vial of short-acting insulin with insulin of another type. Options 2, 3 and 4 identify correct actions for preparing NPH and short-acting insulin

694. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of influenza who first began to experience symptoms yesterday. Antiviral therapy is prescribed and the nurse provides instructions to the client about the therapy. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions? 1. "I must take the medication exactly as prescribed." 2. "Once I start the medication, I will no longer be contagious." 3. "I will not get any colds or infections while taking this medication." 4. "This medication has minimal side effects and I can return to normal activities."

1 Antiviral medications for influenza must be taken exactly as prescribed. These medications do not prevent the spread of influenza and clients are usually contagious for up to 2 days after the initiation of antiviral medications. Secondary bacterial infections may occur despite antiviral treatment. Side effects occur with these medications and may necessitate change in activities, especially when driving or operating machinery if dizziness occurs.

562. The nurse is reviewing the history and physical examination of a client who will be receiving asparaginase, an antineuoplastic agent. The nurse contacts the HCP before administering the medication if which disorder is documented in the client's history? 1. Pancreatitis 2. Diabetes mellitus 3. Myocardial infarction 4. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

1 Asparaginase is contraindicated if hypersensitivity exists, in pancreatitis, or if the client has a history of pancreatitis. The medication impairs pancreatic function and pancreatic function tests should be performed before therapy begins and when a week or more has elapsed between dose administrations. The client needs to be monitored for signs of pancreatitis, which include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. The conditions noted in options 2, 3, and 4 are not contraindicated with this medication.

611. The nurse provides medication instructions to a client who is taking levothyroxine and should tell the client to notify the HCP if which problem occurs? 1. Fatigue 2. Tremors 3. Cold intolerance 4. Excessively dry skin

2 Excessive doses of levothyroxine can produce signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism. These include tachycardia, chest pain, tremors, nervousness, insomnia, hyperthermia, extreme heat intolerance, and sweating. The client should be instructed to notify the HCP if these occur. Options 1, 3, and 4 are signs of hypothyroidism.

653. A histamine (H2)-receptor antagonist will be prescribed for a client. The nurse understands that which medications are H2 receptor antagonists? Select all that apply. 1. Nizatidine 2. Ranitidine 3. Famotidine 4. Cimetidine 5. Esomeprazole 6. Lansoprazole

1, 2, 3, 4 H2-receptor antagonists suppress secretion of gastric acid, alleviate symptoms of heartburn, and assist in preventing complications of peptic ulcer disease. These medications also suppress gastric acid secretions and are used in active ulcer disease, erosive esophagitis, and pathological hypersecretory conditions. The other medications listed are proton pump inhibitors

691. Rifabutin is prescribed for a client with active Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) disease and tuberculosis. For which side/adverse effects of the medication should the nurse monitor? Select all that apply. 1. Signs of hepatitis 2. Flulike syndrome 3. Low neutrophil count 4. Vitamin B6 deficiency 5. Ocular pain or blurred vision 6. Tingling and numbness of the fingers

1, 2, 3, 5 Rifabutin (Mycobutin) may be prescribed for a client with active Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) disease and tuberculosis. It inhibits mycobacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and suppresses protein synthesis. Side/adverse effects include rash, gastrointestinal disturbances, neutropenia (low neutrophil count), red-orange-colored body secretions, uveitis (blurred vision and eye pain), myositis, arthralgia, hepatitis, chest pain with dyspnea, and flulike syndrome. Vitamin B6 deficiency and numbness and tingling in the extremities are associated with the use of isoniazid. Ethambutol (Myambutol) causes peripheral neuritis.

724. The nurse is monitoring a client who is taking propranolol. Which assessment data indicates a potential serious complication associated with this medication? 1. The development of complaints of insomnia 2. The development of audible expiratory wheezes 3. A baseline blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg followed by a blood pressure of 138/72 mm Hg after two doses of the medication 4. A baseline resting heart rate of 88 beats/minute followed by a resting heart rate of 72 beats/minute after two doses of the medication

2 Audible expiratory wheezes may indicate a serious adverse reaction, bronchospasm. β-Blockers may induce this reaction, particularly in clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or asthma. Normal decreases in blood pressure and heart rate are expected. Insomnia is a frequent mild side effect and should be monitored.

607. The community health nurse visits a client at home. Prednisone, 10 mg orally daily, has been prescribed for the client and the nurse teaches the client about the medication. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates that further teaching is necessary? 1. "I can take aspirin or my antihistamine if I need it" 2. "I need to take the medication every day at the same time" 3. "I need to avoid coffee, tea, cola, and chocolate in my diet" 4. "If I gain more than 5 pounds a week, I will call my health care provider"

1 Aspirin and other over the counter medications should not be taken unless the client consults with the HCP. The client needs to take the medication at the same time every day and should be instructed not to stop the medication. A slight weight gain as a result of an improved appetite is expected, but after the dosage is stabilized, a weight gain of 5 pounds or more weekly should be reported to the HCP. Caffeine-containing foods and fluids need to be avoided because they may contribute to steroid-ulcer development.

681. The nurse teaches a client about the effects of diphenhydramine, which has been prescribed as a cough suppressant. The nurse determines that the client needs further instruction if the client makes which statement? 1. "I will take the medication on an empty stomach." 2. "I won't drink alcohol while taking this medication." 3. "I will use sugarless gum, candy, or oral rinses to decrease dryness in my mouth." 4. "I won't do activities that require mental alertness while taking this medication."

1 Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) has several uses, including as an antihistamine, antitussive, antidyskinetic, and sedativehypnotic. Instructions for use include taking with food or milk to decrease gastrointestinal upset and using oral rinses or sugarless gum or hard candy to minimize dry mouth. Because the medication causes drowsiness, the client should avoid use of alcohol or central nervous system depressants, operating a car, or engaging in other activities requiring mental awareness during use.

604. The HCP prescribed exenatide for a client with type 1 DM who takes insulin. The nurse should plan to take which most appropriate intervention? 1. Withhold the medication and call the HCP, questioning the prescription for the client 2. Administer the medication within 60 minutes before the morning and evening meal 3. Monitor the client for GI side effects after administering the medication 4. Withdraw the insulin from the prefilled pen into an insulin syringe to prepare for administration

1 Exenatide (Byetta) is an incretin mimetic used for type 2 DM only. It is not recommended for clients taking insulin. Hence, the nurse should withhold the medication and question the HCP regarding this prescription. Although options 2 and 3 are correct statements about the medication, in this situation the medication should not be administered. The medication is packaged in prefilled pens ready for injection without the need for drawing it up into another syringe.

359. The nursing instructor asks a nursing student to describe the procedure for administering erythromycin ointment to the eyes of a newborn. Which student statement indicates that further teaching is needed? 1. "I will flush the eyes after instilling the ointment." 2. "I will clean the newborn's eyes before instilling ointment." 3. "I need to administer the eye ointment within 1 hour after delivery." 4. "I will instill the eye ointment into each of the newborn's conjunctival sacs."

1 Eye prophylaxis protects the newborn against Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis. The eyes are not flushed after instillation of the medication because the flush would wash away the administered medication. Options 2, 3, and 4 are correct statements regarding the procedure for administering eye medication to the newborn.

363. An opioid analgesic is administered to a client in labor. The nurse assigned to care for the client ensures that which medication is readily available if respiratory depression occurs? 1. Naloxone 2. Morphine sulfate 3. Betamethasone 4. Meperidine hydrochloride

1 Opioid analgesics may be prescribed to relieve moderate to severe pain associated with labor. Opioid toxicity can occur and cause respiratory depression. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist, which reverses the effects of opioids and is given for respiratory depression. Morphine sulfate and meperidine hydrochloride are opioid analgesics. Betamethasone is a corticosteroid administered to enhance fetal lung maturity.

616. A client with DM visits a health care clinic. The client's DM previously had been well controlled with glyburide daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose level has been 180 to 200 mg/dl. Which medication if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia? 1. Prednisone 2. Phenelzine 3. Atenolol 4. Allopurinol

1 Prednisone may decrease the effect of oral hypoglycemics, insulin, diuretics, and potassium supplements. Option 2, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor, and option 3, a beta-blocker, have their own intrinsic hypoglycemic activity. Option 4 decreases urinary excretion of sulfonylurea agents, causing increased levels of the oral agents, which can lead to hypoglycemia.

692. A client has begun therapy with theophylline. The nurse should plan to teach the client to limit the intake of which items while taking this medication? 1. Coffee, cola, and chocolate 2. Oysters, lobster, and shrimp 3. Melons, oranges, and pineapple 4. Cottage cheese, cream cheese, and dairy creamers

1 Theophylline (Theo-24) is a methylxanthine bronchodilator. The nurse teaches the client to limit the intake of xanthinecontaining foods while taking this medication. These foods include coffee, cola, and chocolate.

722. A client who is receiving digoxin daily has a serum potassium level of 3 mEq/L and is complaining of anorexia. The health care provider prescribes determination of the serum digoxin level to rule out digoxin toxicity. The nurse checks the results, knowing that which value is the therapeutic serum level (range) for digoxin? 1. 0.5 to 2 ng/mL 2. 1.2 to 2.8 ng/mL 3. 3.0 to 5.0 ng/mL 4. 3.5 to 5.5 ng/mL

1 Therapeutic levels for digoxin range from 0.5 to 2 ng/mL. The ranges in the remaining options are incorrect.

602. Glimepiride is prescribed for a client with DM. The nurse instructs the client to avoid consuming which food while taking this medication? 1. Alcohol 2. Organ meats 3. Whole-grain cereals 4. Carbonated beverages

1 When alcohol is combined with glimepiride, a disulfiram-like reaction may occur. This syndrome includes flushing, palpitations, and nausea. Alcohol can also potentiate the hypoglycemic effects of the medication. Clients need to be instructed to avoid alcohol consumption while taking this medication. The items in options 2, 3, and 4 do not need to be avoided.

605. A client is taking Humulin NPH insulin and regular insulin every morning. The nurse should provide which instructions to the client? Select all that apply. 1. Hypoglycemia may be experienced before dinnertime 2. The insulin dose should be decreased if illness occurs 3. The insulin should be administered at room temperature 4. The insulin vial needs to be shaken vigorously to break up the precipitates 5. The NPH insulin should be drawn into the syringe first, then the regular insulin

1, 3 Humulin NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin. The onset of action is 1.5 hours, it peaks in 4 to 12 hours, and its duration of action is 24 hours. Regular insulin is a short-acting insulin. Depending on the type, the onset of action is 0.5 hours, it peaks in 2 to 5.5 hours, and its duration is 5 to 8 hours. Hypoglycemic reactions most likely occur during peak time. Insulin should be at room temperature when administered. Clients may need their insulin dosages increased during times of illness. Insulin vials should never be shaken vigorously. Regular insulin is always drawn up before NPH.

608. A client with hyperthyroidism has been given methimazole. Which nursing considerations are associated with this medication? Select all that apply. 1. Administer methimazole with food 2. Place the client on a low-calorie, low-protein diet 3. Assess the client for unexplained bruising or bleeding 4. Instruct the client to report side/adverse effects such as sore throat, fever, or headaches 5. Use special radioactive precautions when handling the client's urine for the first 24 hours following initial administration

1, 3, 4 Common side effects of methimazole include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. To address these side effects, this medication should be taken with food. Because of the increase in metabolism that occurs in hyperthyroidism, the client should consume a high calorie diet. Antithyroid medications can cause agranulocytosis and the HCP should be notified immediately. Methimazole is not radioactive and should not be stopped abruptly, due to the risk of thyroid storm.

358. The nurse is monitoring a client in preterm labor who is receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate. The nurse should monitor for which adverse effects of this medication? Select all that apply. 1. Flushing 2. Hypertension 3. Increased urine output 4. Depressed respirations 5. Extreme muscle weakness 6. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes

1, 4, 5 Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant and relaxes smooth muscle, including the uterus. It is used to halt preterm labor contractions and is used for preeclamptic clients to prevent seizures. Adverse effects include flushing, depressed respirations, depressed deep tendon reflexes, hypotension, extreme muscle weakness, decreased urine output, pulmonary edema, and elevated serum magnesium levels.

360. A client in preterm labor (31 weeks) who is dilated to 4 cm has been started on magnesium sulfate and contractions have stopped. If the client's labor can be inhibited for the next 48 hours, the nurse anticipates a prescription for which medication? 1. Nalbuphine 2. Betamethasone 3. Rho(D) immune globulin 4. Dinoprostone

2 Betamethasone, a glucocorticoid, is given to increase the production of surfactant to stimulate fetal lung maturation. It is administered to clients in preterm labor at 28 to 32 weeks of gestation if the labor can be inhibited for 48 hours. Nalbuphine (Nubain) is an opioid analgesic. Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) is given to Rh-negative clients to prevent sensitization. Dinoprostone (Cervidil vaginal insert) is a prostaglandin given to ripen and soften the cervix and to stimulate uterine contractions.

558. A client with acute myelocytic leukemia us being treated with busulfan. Which laboratory value would the nurse specifically monitor during treatment with this medication? 1. Clotting time 2. uric acid level 3. potassium level 4. blood glucose level

2 Busulfan (Myleran, Busulfex) can cause an increase in the uric acid level. Hyperuricemia can produce uric acid nephropathy, renal stones, and acute kidney injury. Option 1, 3, and 4 are not specifically related to this medication

720. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving a continuous heparin infusion at 1000 units/hour. The nurse determines that the client is receiving the therapeutic effect based on which results? 1. Prothrombin time of 12.5 seconds 2. Activated partial thromboplastin time of 60 seconds 3. Activated partial thromboplastin time of 28 seconds 4. Activated partial thromboplastin time longer than 120 seconds

2 Common laboratory ranges for activated partial thromboplastin time are 20 to 36 seconds. Because the activated partial thromboplastin time should be 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value, the client's activated partial thromboplastin time would be considered therapeutic if it was 60 seconds.

568. The nurse is providing medication instructions to a client with breast cancer who is receiving cyclophosphamide. The nurse should tell the client to take which actions? 1. Take the medication with food 2. Increase fluid intake to 2000-3000 mL/day 3. Decrease sodium intake while taking the medication 4. Increase potassium intake while taking the medication

2 Hemorrhagic cystitis is an adverse effect that can occur with the use of cyclophosphamide. The client needs to be instructed to drink copious amounts of fluid during the administration of this medication. Clients also should monitor urine output for hematuria. The medication should be taken on an empty stomach, unless GI upset occurs. Hyperkalemia can result from the use of medications; therefore, the client would not be told to increase potassium intake. The client would not be instructed to alter sodium intake.

601. The home care nurse visits a client recently diagnosed with DM who is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily. The client asks the nurse how to store the unopened vials of insulin. The nurse should tell the client to take which action? 1. Freeze the insulin 2. Refrigerate the insulin 3. Store the insulin in a dark, dry place 4. Keep the insulin at room temperature

2 Insulin in unopened vials should be stored under refrigeration until needed. Vials should not be frozen. When stored unopened under refrigeration, insulin can be used up to the expiration date on the vial. Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect.

685. A client has been taking isoniazid for 11⁄2 months. The client complains to the nurse about numbness, paresthesias, and tingling in the extremities. The nurse interprets that the client is experiencing which problem? 1. Hypercalcemia 2. Peripheral neuritis 3. Small blood vessel spasm 4. Impaired peripheral circulation

2 Isoniazid is an antitubercular medication. A common side effect of isoniazid is peripheral neuritis, manifested by numbness, tingling, and paresthesias in the extremities. This can be minimized with pyridoxine (vitamin B6) intake. Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect.

686. A client is to begin a 6-month course of therapy with isoniazid. The nurse should plan to teach the client to take which action? 1. Use alcohol in small amounts only. 2. Report yellow eyes or skin immediately. 3. Increase intake of Swiss or aged cheeses. 4. Avoid vitamin supplements during therapy.

2 Isoniazid is hepatotoxic, and therefore the client is taught to report signs and symptoms of hepatitis immediately, which include yellow skin and sclera. For the same reason, alcohol should be avoided during therapy. The client should avoid intake of Swiss cheese, fish such as tuna, and foods containing tyramine because they may cause a reaction characterized by redness and itching of the skin, flushing, sweating, tachycardia, headache, or lightheadedness. The client can avoid developing peripheral neuritis by increasing the intake of pyridoxine (vitamin B6) during the course of isoniazid therapy.

357. A pregnant client is receiving magnesium sulfate for the management of preeclampsia. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing toxicity from the medication if which finding is noted on assessment? 1. Proteinuria of 3 + 2. Respirations of 10 breaths/minute 3. Presence of deep tendon reflexes 4. Serum magnesium level of 6 mEq/L

2 Magnesium toxicity can occur from magnesium sulfate therapy. Signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity relate to the central nervous system depressant effects of the medication and include respiratory depression, loss of deep tendon reflexes, and a sudden decline in fetal heart rate and maternal heart rate and blood pressure. Therapeutic serum levels of magnesium are 4 to 7.5 mEq/L. Proteinuria of 3 + is an expected finding in a client with preeclampsia.

361. Methylergonovine is prescribed for a woman to treat postpartum hemorrhage. Before administration of methylergonovine, what is the priority nursing assessment? 1. Uterine tone 2. Blood pressure 3. Amount of lochia 4. Deep tendon reflexes

2 Methylergonovine, an ergot alkaloid, is used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage by contracting the uterus. Methylergonovine causes continuous uterine contractions and may elevate the blood pressure. A priority assessment before the administration of the medication is to check the blood pressure. The health care provider should be notified if hypertension is present. Although options 1, 3, and 4 may be components of the postpartum assessment, the correct option, blood pressure, is related specifically to the administration of this medication.

650. A client has been taking omeprazole for 4 weeks. The ambulatory care nurse evaluates that the client is receiving the optimal intended effect of the medication if the client reports the absence of which symptom? 1. Diarrhea 2. Heartburn 3. Flatulence 4. Constipation

2 Omeprazole (Prilosec) is a proton pump inhibitor classified as an antiulcer agent. The intended effect of the medication is relief of pain from gastric irritation, often called heartburn by clients. Omeprazole is not used to treat the conditions identified in options 1, 3, and 4.

612. The nurse performs an admission assessment on a client who visits a health care clinic for the first time. The client tells the nurse that propylthiouracil is taken daily. The nurse continues to collect data from the client, suspecting that the client has a history of which condition? 1. Myxedema 2. Graves' disease 3. Addison's disease 4. Cushing's syndrome

2 Propylthiouracil (PTU) inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis and is used to treat hyperthyroidism, or Graves' disease. Myxedema indicates hypothyroidism. Cushing's syndrome and Addison's disease are disorders related to adrenal function.

362. The nurse is preparing to administer beractant to a premature infant who has respiratory distress syndrome. The nurse plans to administer the medication by which route? 1. Intradermal 2. Intratracheal 3. Subcutaneous 4. Intramuscular

2 Respiratory distress syndrome is a serious lung disorder caused by immaturity and the inability to produce surfactant, resulting in hypoxia and acidosis. It is common in premature infants and may be due to lung immaturity as a result of surfactant deficiency. The mainstay of treatment is the administration of exogenous surfactant, which is administered by the intratracheal route. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not routes of administration for this medication.

690. The nurse has a prescription to give a client salmeterol, two puffs, and beclomethasone dipropionate, two puffs, by metered-dose inhaler. The nurse should administer the medication using which procedure? 1. Beclomethasone first and then the salmeterol 2. Salmeterol first and then the beclomethasone 3. Alternating a single puff of each, beginning with the salmeterol 4. Alternating a single puff of each, beginning with the beclomethasone

2 Salmeterol (Serevent Diskus) is an adrenergic type of bronchodilator and beclomethasone dipropionate (Qvar) is a glucocorticoid. Bronchodilators are always administered before glucocorticoids when both are to be given on the same time schedule. This allows for widening of the air passages by the bronchodilator, which then makes the glucocorticoid more effective.

564. A client with metastatic breast cancer is receiving tamoxifen. The nurse specifically monitors which laboratory value while the client is taking this medication? 1. glucose level 2. calcium level 3. potassium level 4. prothrombin time

2 Tamoxifen may increase calcium, cholesterol, and triglyceride levels. Before the initiation of therapy, a complete blood count, platelet count, and serum calcium level should be assessed. These blood levels, along with cholesterol and triglyceride levels should be monitored periodically during therapy. The nurse should assess for hypercalcemia while the client is taking this medication. signs of hypercalcemia include increased urine volume, excessive thirst, nausea, vomiting, constipation, hypotonicity of muscles, and deep bone and flank pain.

649. A client who chronically uses NSAIDs has been taking misoprostol. The nurse determines that the medication is having the intended therapeutic effect if which finding is noted? 1. Resolved diarrhea 2. Relief of epigastric pain 3. Decreased platelet count 4. Decreased white blood cell count

2 The client who chronically uses NSAIDs is prone to gastric mucosal injury. Misoprostol (Cytotec) is a gastric protectant and is given specifically to prevent this occurrence. Diarrhea can be a side effect of this medication but is not an intended effect. Options 3 and 4 are incorrect.

643. A client with Crohn's disease is scheduled to receive an infusion of infliximab. What intervention by the nurse will determine the effectiveness of treatment? 1. Monitoring the leukocyte count for 2 days after the infusion 2. Checking the frequency and consistency of bowel movements 3. Checking serum liver enzyme levels before and after the infusion 4. Carrying out a Hematest on gastric fluids after the infusion is completed

2 The principle manifestations of Crohn's disease are diarrhea and abdominal pain. Infliximab (Remicade) is an immunomodulator that reduces the degree of inflammation in the colon, thereby reducing the diarrhea. Options 1, 3, and 4 are unrelated to this medication.

560. A clinic nurse prepares a teaching plan for a client receiving an antineoplastic medication. When implementing the plan, the nurse should make which statement to the client? 1. "You can take aspirin as needed for headache" 2. "You can drink beverages containing alcohol in moderate amounts each evening" 3. "You need to consult with the HCP before receiving immunizations" 4. "It is fine to recive a flu cavvine at the local health fair without HCP approval because the flu is so contagious"

3 Because antineoplastic medications lower the resistance of the body, client must be informed not to receive immunizations without an HCP's approval. Clients also need to avoid contact with individual who have recently received a live virus vaccine. Clients need to avoid aspirin and aspirin-containing products to minimize the risk of bleeding, and they need to avoid alcohol to minimize the risk of toxicity and side/adverse effects.

725. A client with atrial fibrillation secondary to mitral stenosis is receiving a heparin sodium infusion at 1000 units/hour and warfarin sodium 7.5 mg at 5:00 PM daily. The morning laboratory results are as follows: activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) = 32 seconds; internationalized normalized ratio (INR) = 1.3. The nurse should plan to take which action based on the client's laboratory results? 1. Collaborate with the health care provider (HCP) to discontinue the heparin infusion and administer the warfarin sodium as prescribed. 2. Collaborate with the HCP to obtain a prescription to increase the heparin infusion and administer the warfarin sodium as prescribed. 3. Collaborate with the HCP to withhold the warfarin sodium since the client is receiving a heparin infusion and the aPTT is within the therapeutic range. 4. Collaborate with the HCP to continue the heparin infusion at the same rate and to discuss use of dabigatran etexilate in place of warfarin sodium.

2 When a client is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) for clot prevention due to atrial fibrillation, an INR of 2 to 3 is appropriate for most clients. Until the INR has achieved a therapeutic range the client should be maintained on a continuous heparin infusion with the aPTT ranging between 60 and 80 seconds. Therefore, the nurse should collaborate with the health care provider to obtain a prescription to increase the heparin infusion and to administer the warfarin as prescribed.

729. The nurse is monitoring a client who is taking digoxin for adverse effects. Which findings are characteristic of digoxin toxicity? Select all that apply. 1. Tremors 2. Diarrhea 3. Irritability 4. Blurred vision 5. Nausea and vomiting

2, 4, 5 Digoxin (Lanoxin) is a cardiac glycoside. The risk of toxicity can occur with the use of this medication. Toxicity can lead to life-threatening events and the nurse needs to monitor the client closely for signs of toxicity. Early signs of toxicity include gastrointestinal manifestations such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Subsequent manifestations include headache; visual disturbances such as diplopia, blurred vision, yellow-green halos, and photophobia; drowsiness; fatigue; and weakness. Cardiac rhythm abnormalities can also occur. The nurse also monitors the digoxin level. Therapeutic levels for digoxin range from 0.5 to 2 ng/mL.

654. The nurse has given instructions to a client who has just been prescribed cholestyramine. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instructions? 1. "I will continue taking vitamin supplements" 2. "This medication will help lower my cholesterol" 3. "This medication should only be taken with water" 4. "A high-fiber diet is important while taking this medication"

3 Cholestyramine (Questran) is a bile acid sequestrant used to lower the cholesterol level, and client compliance is a problem because of its taste and palatability. The use of flavored products or fruit juices can improve the taste. Some side effects of bile acid sequestrants include constipation and decreased vitamin absorption.

613. The nurse is instructing a client regarding intranasal desmopressin. The nurse should tell the client that which occurrence is a side effect of the medication? 1. Headache 2. Vulval pain 3. Runny nose 4. Flushed skin

3 Desmopressin administered by the intranasal route can cause a runny nose. Options 1, 2, and 4 are side effects if the medication is administered by the intravenous route.

615. Prednisone is prescribed for a client with DM who is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily. Which prescription change does the nurse anticipate during therapy with the prednisone? 1. An additional dose of prednisone daily 2. A decreased amount of daily Humulin NPH insulin 3. An increased amount of daily Humulin NPH insulin 4. The addition of an oral hypoglycemic medication daily

3 Glucocorticoids can elevate blood glucose levels. Clients with DM may need their dosages of insulin or oral hypoglycemic medications increased during glucocorticoid therapy. Therefore, options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect.

679. A client has a prescription to take guaifenesin. The nurse determines that the client understands the proper administration of this medication if the client states that he or she will perform which action? 1. Take an extra dose if fever develops 2. Take the medication with meals only 3. Take the tablet with a full glass of water 4. Decrease the amount of daily fluid intake

3 Guaifenesin (Mucinex) is an expectorant and should be taken with a full glass of water to decrease the viscosity of secretions. Extra doses should not be taken. The client should contact the health care provider if the cough lasts longer than 1 week or is accompanied by fever, rash, sore throat, or persistent headache. Fluids are needed to decrease the viscosity of secretions. The medication does not have to be taken with meals.

644. A client has a PRN prescription for loperamide hydrochloride. For which condition should the nurse administer this medication? 1. Constipation 2. Abdominal pain 3. An episode of diarrhea 4. Hematest-positive nasogastric tube drainage

3 Loperamide (Imodium) is an antidiarrheal agent. It is used to manage acute and chronic diarrhea in conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease. Loperamide also can be used to reduce the volume of drainage from an ileostomy. It is not used for the conditions in options 1, 2, and 4.

565. Megestrol acetate, an antineoplastic medication, is prescribed for a client with metastatic endometrial carcinoma. The nurse reviews the clients history and should contact the health care provider if which diagnosis is documented in the client's history? 1. Gout 2. Asthma 3. Thrombophlebitis 4. Myocardial infarction

3 Megestrol acetate (Megace) suppresses the release of luteinizing hormone from the anterior pituitary by inhibiting pituitary function and regressing tumor size. Megestrol is used with caution if the client has a history of thrombophlebitis. Options 1, 2, and 4 are not contraindications for the medication

687. A client has been started on long-term therapy with rifampin. The nurse should provide which information to the client about the medication? 1. Should always be taken with food or antacids 2. Should be double-dosed if one dose is forgotten 3. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces 4. May be discontinued independently if symptoms are gone in 3 months

3 Rifampin (Rifadin) should be taken exactly as directed. Doses should not be doubled or skipped. The client should not stop therapy until directed to do so by a health care provider. The medication should be administered on an empty stomach unless it causes gastrointestinal upset, and then it may be taken with food. Antacids, if prescribed, should be taken at least 1 hour before the medication. Rifampin causes orange-red discoloration of body secretions and will stain soft contact lenses permanently.

603. Sildenafil is prescribed to treat a client with erectile dysfunction. The nurse reviews the client's medical record and should question the prescription if which data is noted in the client's history? 1. Insomnia 2. Neuralgia 3. Use of nitroglycerin 4. Use of multivitamins

3 Sildenafil (Viagra) enhances the vasodilating effects of nitric oxide in the corpus cavernosum of the penis, thus sustaining an erection. Because of the effect of the medication, it is contraindicated with concurrent use of organic nitrates and nitroglycerin. Sildenafil is not contraindicated with the use of vitamins. Insomnia and neuralgia are side effects of the medication.

683. Terbutaline is prescribed for a client with bronchitis. The nurse understands that this medication should be used with caution if which medical condition is present in the client? 1. Osteoarthritis 2. Hypothyroidism 3. Diabetes mellitus 4. Polycystic disease

3 Terbutaline is a bronchodilator and is contraindicated in clients with hypersensitivity to sympathomimetics. It should be used with caution in clients with impaired cardiac function, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, or a history of seizures. The medication may increase blood glucose levels.

733. A client receiving thrombolytic therapy with a continuous infusion of alteplase suddenly becomes extremely anxious and complains of itching. The nurse hears stridor and notes generalized urticaria and hypotension. Which nursing action is the priority? 1. Administer oxygen and protamine sulfate. 2. Cut the infusion rate in half and sit the client up in bed. 3. Stop the infusion and call the health care provider (HCP). 4. Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) and continue the infusion.

3 The client is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction. Therefore, the priority action is to stop the infusion and notify the HCP. The client may be treated with epinephrine, antihistamines, and corticosteroids as prescribed.

680. The nurse is preparing to administer a dose of naloxone hydrochloride intravenously to a client with an intravenous opioid overdose. Which supportive medical equipment should the nurse plan to have at the client's bedside if needed? 1. Nasogastric tube 2. Paracentesis tray 3. Resuscitation equipment 4. Central line insertion tray

3 The nurse administering naloxone for suspected opioid overdose should have resuscitation equipment readily available to support naloxone therapy if it is needed. Other adjuncts that may be needed include oxygen, mechanical ventilator, and vasopressors.

727. The nurse is planning to administer hydrochlorothiazide to a client. The nurse understands that which is a concern related to the administration of this medication? 1. Hypouricemia, hyperkalemia 2. Increased risk of osteoporosis 3. Hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, sulfa allergy 4. Hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, penicillin allergy

3 Thiazide diuretics such as hydrochlorothiazide are sulfa-based medications, and a client with a sulfa allergy is at risk for an allergic reaction. Also, clients are at risk for hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, hypercalcemia, hyperlipidemia, and hyperuricemia.

734. The nurse should report which assessment finding to the health care provider (HCP) before initiating thrombolytic therapy in a client with pulmonary embolism? 1. Adventitious breath sounds 2. Temperature of 99.4 ° F orally 3. Blood pressure of 198/110 mm Hg 4. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute

3 Thrombolytic therapy is contraindicated in a number of preexisting conditions in which there is a risk of uncontrolled bleeding, similar to the case in anticoagulant therapy. Thrombolytic therapy also is contraindicated in severe uncontrolled hypertension because of the risk of cerebral hemorrhage. Therefore the nurse would report the results of the blood pressure to the HCP before initiating therapy.

726. A client is diagnosed with an ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) and is receiving tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase. Which action is a priority nursing intervention? 1. Monitor for kidney failure. 2. Monitor psychosocial status. 3. Monitor for signs of bleeding. 4. Have heparin sodium available.

3 Tissue plasminogen activator is a thrombolytic. Hemorrhage is a complication of any type of thrombolytic medication. The client is monitored for bleeding. Monitoring for renal failure and monitoring the client's psychosocial status are important but are not the most critical interventions. Heparin may be administered after thrombolytic therapy, but the question is not asking about follow-up medications.

651. A client with a peptic ulcer is diagnosed with a Helicobacter pylori infection. The nurse is teaching the client about the medications prescribed, including clarithromycin, esomeprazole, and moxicillin. Which statement by the client indicates the best understanding of the medication regimen? 1. "My ulcer will heal because these medications will kill the bacteria" 2. "These medications are only taken when I have pain from my ulcer" 3. "The medication will kill the bacteria and stop the acid production" 4. "These medications will coat the ulcer and decrease the acid production in my stomach"

3 Triple therapy for Helicobacter pylori infection usually includes two antibacterial medications and a proton pump inhibitor. Clarithromycin (Biaxin) and amoxicillin (Amoxil) are antibacterials. Esomeprazole (Nexium) is a proton pump inhibitor. These medications will kill the bacteria and decrease acid production.

559. A client with small cell lung cancer is being treated with etoposide. The nurse monitors the client during administration, knowing that which adverse effect is specifically associated with this medication? 1. Alopecia 2. Chest pain 3. Pulmonary fibrosis 4. Orthostatic hypotension

4 An adverse effect specific to etoposife is orthostatic hypotension. Etoposide should be administered slowly over 30-60 minutes to avoid hypotension. The client's blood pressure is monitored during the infusion. Hair loss occurs with nearly all the antineoplastic medications. Chest pain and pulmonary fibrosis are unrelated to this medication

561. A client with ovarian cancer is being treated with vincristine (Vincasar). The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which manifestation indicates an adverse effect specific to this medication? 1. Diarrhea 2. Hair loss 3. Chest pain 4. Peripheral neutropathy

4 An adverse effect specific to vincristine is peripheral neuropathy, which occurs in almost every client. Peripheral neuropathy can be manifested as numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes. Depression of the Achilles tendon reflex may be the first clinical sign indicating peripheral neuropathy. Constipation rather than diarrhea is most likely to occyr with this medication, although diarrhea may occur occasionally. Hair loss occurs with nearly all the antineoplastic medications. Chest pain is unrelated to this medication

730. Prior to administering a client's daily dose of digoxin, the nurse reviews the client's laboratory data and notes the following results: serum calcium, 9.8 mg/dL; serum magnesium, 1.2 mg/dL; serum potassium, 4.1 mEq/L; serum creatinine, 0.9 mg/dL. Which result should alert the nurse that the client is at risk for digoxin toxicity? 1. Serum calcium level 2. Serum potassium level 3. Serum creatinine level 4. Serum magnesium level

4 An increased risk of toxicity exists in clients with hypercalcemia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypothyroidism, and impaired renal function. The calcium, creatinine, and potassium levels are all within normal limits. The normal range for magnesium is 1.6 to 2.6 mg/dL and the results in the correct option are reflective of hypomagnesemia.

557. A client with squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx is receiving bleomycin intravenously. The nurse caring for the client anticipates that which diagnostic study will be prescribed? 1. Echocardiography 2. Elecctrocardiography 3. Cervical radiography 4. Pulmonary function studies

4 Bleomycin is an antineoplastic medication that can cause interstitial pneumonia, which can progress to pulmonary fibrosis. Pulmonary function studies along with hematological, hepatic, and renal fucntion tests need to be monitored. The nurse needs to monitor lung sounds for dyspnea and crackles which indicate pulmonary toxicity. The medication need to be discontinued immediately if pulmonary toxicity occurs. Options 1, 2, and 3 are unrelated to the specific use of this medication.

731. A client being treated for heart failure is administered intravenous bumetanide. Which outcome indicates the medication has achieved the expected effect? 1. Cough becomes productive of frothy pink sputum 2. The serum potassium level changes from 3.8 to 3.1 mEq/L 3. B-natriuretic peptide (BNP) factor increases from 200 to 262 pg/mL 4. Urine output increases from 10 mL/hour to greater than 50 mL hourly

4 Bumetanide is a diuretic and expected outcomes include increased urine output, decreased crackles, and decreased weight. Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect.

569. A client with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is receiving daunrubicin. Which finding would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect related to the medication? 1. Fever 2. Sores in the mouth and throat 3. Complaints of nausea and vomiting 4. Crackles o auscultation of the lungs

4 Cardiotoxicity noted by abnormal electrocardipgraphic findings or cardiomyopathy manifested as heart failure (lung crackles) is an adverse effect of daunorubicin. Bone marrow depression is also an adverse effect. Fever is a freuqnt side effect and sores in the mouth and throat can occur occasionally. Nausea and comiting is a frequent side effect associated with the medication that beings a few hours after administration and last 24-48 hrs. Option 1, 2, and 3 are not adverse effects.

759. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is prescribed for a client. The nurse should instruct the client to report which symptom if it develops during the course of this medication therapy? 1. Nausea 2. Diarrhea 3. Headache 4. Sore throat

4 Clients taking trimethoprim (TMP)-sulfamethoxazole (SMZ) should be informed about early signs/symptoms of blood disorders that can occur from this medication. These include sore throat, fever, and pallor, and the client should be instructed to notify the health care provider (HCP) if these occur. The other options do not require HCP notification.

682. A cromolyn sodium inhaler is prescribed for a client with allergic asthma. The nurse provides instructions regarding the side and adverse effects of this medication and should tell the client that which undesirable effect is associated with this medication? 1. Insomnia 2. Constipation 3. Hypotension 4. Bronchospasm

4 Cromolyn sodium is an inhaled nonsteroidal antiallergy agent and a mast cell stabilizer. Undesirable effects associated with inhalation therapy of cromolyn sodium are bronchospasm, cough, nasal congestion, throat irritation, and wheezing. Clients receiving this medication orally may experience pruritus, nausea, diarrhea, and myalgia.

688. The nurse has given a client taking ethambutol information about the medication. The nurse determines that the client understands the instructions if the client states he or she will immediately report which finding? 1. Impaired sense of hearing 2. Gastrointestinal side effects 3. Orange-red discoloration of body secretions 4. Difficulty in discriminating the color red from green

4 Ethambutol (Myambutol) causes optic neuritis, which decreases visual acuity and the ability to discriminate between the colors red and green. This poses a potential safety hazard when a client is driving a motor vehicle. The client is taught to report this symptom immediately. The client also is taught to take the medication with food if gastrointestinal upset occurs. Impaired hearing results from antitubercular therapy with streptomycin. Orange-red discoloration of secretions occurs with rifampin (Rifadin).

735. A client is prescribed nicotinic acid (niacin) for hyperlipidemia and the nurse provides instructions to the client about the medication. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions? 1. "It is not necessary to avoid the use of alcohol." 2. "The medication should be taken with meals to decrease flushing." 3. "Clay-colored stools are a common side effect and should not be of concern." 4. "Ibuprofen (Motrin) taken 30 minutes before the nicotinic acid should decrease the flushing."

4 Flushing is a side effect of this medication. Aspirin or a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug can be taken 30 minutes prior to taking the medication to decrease flushing. Alcohol consumption needs to be avoided because it will enhance this side effect. The medication should be taken with meals to decrease gastrointestinal upset; however, taking the medication with meals has no effect on the flushing. Clay-colored stools are a sign of hepatic dysfunction and should be immediately reported to the health care provider (HCP).

728. The home health care nurse is visiting a client with elevated triglyceride levels and a serum cholesterol level of 398 mg/dL. The client is taking cholestyramine (Questran). Which statement, by the client, indicates the need for further education? 1. "Constipation and bloating might be a problem." 2. "I'll continue to watch my diet and reduce my fats." 3. "Walking a mile each day will help the whole process." 4. "I'll continue my nicotinic acid from the health food store."

4 Nicotinic acid, even an over-the-counter form, should be avoided because it may lead to liver abnormalities. All lipid lowering medications also can cause liver abnormalities, so a combination of nicotinic acid and cholestyramine resin needs to be avoided. Constipation and bloating are the two most common side effects. Walking and the reduction of fats in the diet are therapeutic measures to reduce cholesterol and triglyceride levels.

757. Nitrofurantoin is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. The client contacts the nurse and reports a cough, chills, fever, and difficulty breathing. The nurse should make which interpretation about the client's complaints? 1. The client may have contracted the flu. 2. The client is experiencing anaphylaxis. 3. The client is experiencing expected effects of the medication. 4. The client is experiencing a pulmonary reaction requiring cessation of the medication.

4 Nitrofurantoin can induce two kinds of pulmonary reactions: acute and subacute. Acute reactions, which are most common, manifest with dyspnea, chest pain, chills, fever, cough, and alveolar infiltrates. These symptoms resolve 2 to 4 days after discontinuing the medication. Acute pulmonary responses are thought to be hypersensitivity reactions. Subacute reactions are rare and occur during prolonged treatment. Symptoms (e.g., dyspnea, cough, malaise) usually regress over weeks to months following nitrofurantoin withdrawal. However, in some clients, permanent lung damage may occur. The remaining options are incorrect interpretations.

693. The nurse has just administered the first dose of omalizumab to a client. Which statement by the client would alert the nurse that the client may be experiencing a lifethreatening effect? 1. "I have a severe headache." 2. "My feet are quite swollen." 3. "I am nauseated and may vomit." 4. "My lips and tongue are swollen."

4 Omalizumab (Xolair) is an antiinflammatory used for long-term control of asthma. Anaphylactic reactions can occur with the administration of omalizumab. The nurse administering the medication should monitor for adverse reactions of the medication. Swelling of the lips and tongue are an indication of an adverse reaction. The client statements in options 1, 2, and 3 are not indicative of an adverse reaction.

723. A client is being treated with procainamide for a cardiac dysrhythmia. Following intravenous administration of the medication, the client complains of dizziness. What intervention should the nurse take first? 1. Measure the heart rate on the rhythm strip. 2. Administer prescribed nitroglycerin tablets. 3. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram immediately. 4. Auscultate the client's apical pulse and obtain a blood pressure.

4 Signs of toxicity from procainamide include confusion, dizziness, drowsiness, decreased urination, nausea, vomiting, and tachydysrhythmias. If the client complains of dizziness, the nurse should assess the vital signs first. Although measuring the heart rate on the rhythm strip and obtaining a 12-lead EKG may be interventions, these would be done after the vital signs are taken. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator and will lower the blood pressure.

648. A client with a gastric ulcer has a prescription for sucralfate 1 g by mouth four times daily. The nurse should schedule the medication for which times? 1. With meals and at bedtime 2. Every 6 hours around the clock 3. One hour after meals and at bedtime 4. One hour before meals and at bedtime

4 Sucralfate (Carafate) is a gastric protectant. The medication should be scheduled for administration 1 hour before meals and at bedtime. The medication is timed to allow it to form a protective coating over the ulcer before food intake stimulates gastric acid production and mechanical irritation. The other options are incorrect.

563. Tamoxifen citrate is prescribed for a client with metastatic breast carcinoma. The nurse administering the medication understands that which is the primary action of this medication? 1. It increased DNA and RNA synthesis 2. It promotes the biosynthesis of nucleic acids 3. It increases estrogen concentration and estrogen response 4. It competitively binds to estrogen receptors on tumors and other tissue targets

4 Tamoxifen is an antineoplastic medication tha competes with estradiol for binding to estrogen in tissues containing high concentrations of receptors. Uamoxifen is used to treat metastatic breast carcinoma in women and men. Tamoxifen is also effective in delaying the recurrence of cancer following mastectomy. Tamoxifen reduces DNA synthesis and estrogen response.

556. Chemotherapy dosage is frequently based on total body surface area; so it is important for the nurse to perform which assessment before administering chemotherapy? 1. Measure the client's abdominal girth 2. Calculate the client's body mass index 3. Ask the client about his or her weight and height 4. Measure the client's current weight and height

4 To ensure that the client receives optimal doses of chemotherapy, dosing is usually based on the total body surface area, which requires a current accurate height and weight for BSA calculations (before each administration). Asking the client about his or her height and weight may lead to inaccuracies in determining a true BSA and dosage. Calculating body mass index and abdominal girth will not provide the data needed.

525. A client with severe acne is seen in the clinic and the health care provider prescribes isotretinoin. The nurse reviews the client's medication record and would contact the HCP if the client is taking which medication? 1. Vitamin A 2. Digoxin 3. Furosemide 4. Phenytoin

Answer: 1 Isotretinoin is a metabolite of vitamin A and can produce generalized intensification of isotretinoin toxicity. Because of the potential for increased toxicity, vitamin A supplements should be discontinued before isotretinoin therapy. Options 2, 3, and 4 are not contraindicated with the use of isotretinoin.

520. Salicyclic acid is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of psoriasis. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which finding indicates the presence of systemic toxicity from this medication? 1. Tinnitus 2. Diarrhea 3. Constipation 4. Decreased respirations

Answer: 1 Salicyclic acid is absorbed readily through the skin and systemic toxicity (salicylism) can result. Symptoms include tinnitus, dizziness, hyperpnea, and psychological disturbances. Constipation and diarrhea are not associated with salicylism.

524. Isotretinoin is prescribed for a client with severe acne. Before the administration of this medication, the nurse anticipates that which laboratory test will be prescribed? 1. Platelet count 2. Triglyceride level 3. Complete blood count 4. White blood cell count

Answer: 2 Isotretinoin can elevate triglyceride levels. Blood triglyceride levels hould be measured before treatment and periodically thereafter until the effect on the triglycerides has been evaluated. Options 1, 3, and 4 do not need to be monitored specifically during this treatment.

526. The nurse is applying a topical corticosteroid to a client with eczema. The nurse should monitor for the potential for increased systemic absorption if the medication were being applied to which body area? 1. Back 2. Axilla 3. Soles of the feet 4. Palms of the hands

Answer: 2 Topical corticosteroids can be absorbed into the systemic circulation. Absorption is higher from regions where the skin is especially permeable (scalp, axilla, face, eyelids, neck, perineum, genitalia), and lower from regions where permeability is poor (back, palms, soles).

521. The health education nurse provides instructions to a group of clients regarding measures that will assist in preventing skin cancer. Which instructions should the nurse provide? Select all that apply. 1. Sunscreen should be applied every 8 hours. 2. Use sunscreen when participating in outdoor activities 3. Wear a hat, opaque clothing, and sunglasses when in the sun 4. Avoid sun exposure in the late afternoon and early evening hours 5. Examine your body monthly for any lesions that may be suspicious

Answer: 2, 3, 5 The client should be instructed to avoid sun exposure between the hours of 10 am and 4 pm. Sunscreen, a hat, opaque clothing, and sunglasses should be worn for outdoor activities. The client should be instructed to examine the body monthly for the appearance of any possible cancerous or any precancerous lesions. Sunscreen should be reapplied every 2 to 3 hours and after swimming or sweating otherwise, the duration of protection is reduced.

522. Mafenide acetate is prescribed for a client with a burn injury. When applying the medication, the client complains of local discomfort and burning. The nurse should take which most appropriate action? 1. Discontinue the medication 2. Notify the health care provider 3. Inform the client that this is expected 4. Apply a thinner film than prescribed to the burn site

Answer: 3 Mafenide acetate is bacteriostatic for gram-negative and gram-positive organisms and is used to treat burns to reduce bacteria present in avascular tissues. The client should be informed that the medication will cause local discomfort and burning and that this is a normal reaction. Therefore, options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect.

528. Silver sulfadiazine is prescribed for a client with a partial thickness burn and the nurse provides teaching about the medication. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching about the treatments? 1. "The medication is an antibacterial" 2. "The medication will help heal the burn" 3. "The medication will permanently stain my skin" 4. "The medication should be applied directly to the wound"

Answer: 3 Silver sulfadiazine is an antibacterial that has a broad spectrum of activity against gram-negative bacteria, gram-positive bacteria, and yeast. It is applied directly to the wound to assist in healing. It does not stain the skin.

529. The camp nurse asks the children preparing to swim in the lake if they have applied sunscreen. The nurse reminds the children that chemical sunscreens are most effective when applied at which times? 1. Immediately before swimming 2. 5 minutes before exposure to the sun 3. Immediately before exposure to the sun 4. At least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun

Answer: 4 Sunscreens are most effective when applied at least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun so that they can penetrate the skin. All sunscreens should be reapplied after swimming or sweating.