Neurology/A&P
C. Connecting the right and left cerebral hemispheres, the corpus callosum is composed of commissural fibers.
Tracts of white matter that connect the right and left cerebral hemispheres are composed of A. decussation fibers B. association fibers C. commissural fibers D. projection fibers
D. the fluid medium of perilymph surrounds the cochlear duct within the cochlea.
Transmission of sound waves through the inner ear occurs through A. nerve fibers B. gaseous medium C. auditory ossicles D. a fluid medium E. a solid medium
D. The superior colliculi function in eye-hand coordination.
Trauma to the superior colliculi would most likely affect A. speech B. auditory perception C. coordination and balance D. vision E. perception of pain
A. Consisting of the caudate nucleus, lentiform nucleus, and others, the basal nuclei influence motor control.
Two components of the basal nuclei are A. the caudate nucleus and lentiform nucleus B. the globus pallidus and infundibulum C. the hypothalamic nucleus and red nucleus D. the insula and putamen
Expressive aphasia
Type of aphasia that results from injury or insult to the motor speech area (Broca's area), which is located on the left inferior gyrus of the frontal lobe.
Beta waves
Type of brain wave that accompany visual and mental activity, their frequency is 13 to 25 Hz.
Alpha brain wave
Type of brain wave that is best recorded in a person who is awake and relaxed and eyes are closed.
Theta waves
Type of brain wave that is common in infants and newborns and have a frequency of 5 to 8 Hz. Detected in and adult may indicate severe emotional stress and may signal an impending nervous breakdown.
Association fibers
Type of fiber tract that are confined to a given hemisphere, where they conduct impulses between neurons in various lobes.
Commissural fibers
Type of fiber tract that connect the neurons and gyri of tone hemisphere with those of the other.
Projection fibers
Type of fiber tract that form descending tracts, which transmit impulses from the cerebrum to other parts of the brain and spinal cord, and ascending tracts, which transmit impulses from the spinal cord and other parts of the brain to the cerebrum.
Oligodendrocytes
Type of neuroglia that form myelin in CNS; guide development of neurons within the CNS.
Neurolemmocytes (Schwann cells)
Type of neuroglia that form myelin within PNS.
Astrocytes
Type of neuroglia that form structural support between capillaries and neurons within the CNS; contribute to blood-brain barrier.
Ependymal cells
Type of neuroglia that line ventricles and central canal within CNS where cerebrospinal fluid is circulated by ciliary motion.
Microglia
Type of neuroglia that phagocytize pathogens and cellular debris within CNS.
Ganglionic gliocytes (Satellite cells)
Type of neuroglia that support ganglia within PNS.
Generalized tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizure
Type of seizure that begins with a loud cry, precipitated by air rushing from the lungs through the vocal cords. The patient falls to the ground, losing consciousness. The body stiffens an then alternates between episodes of muscle spasm and relaxation (clonic phase). Tongue biting, incontinence, labored breathing, apnea, and subsequent cyanosis may also occur. The seizure stops in 2 to minutes, when abnormal electrical conduction of the neurons is completed.
Myoclonic seizures
Type of seizure that is marked by brief bilateral muscular jerks of the body extremities. They may occur in a rhythmic manner and may be accompanied by brief loss of consciousness.
Epidural space
Vascular area between the sheath and the vertebral canal. It contains loose fibrous and adipose connective tissues that form a protective pad around the spinal cord.
Subarachnoid space
Vascular area located between the arachnoid and the pia mater. Contains the cerebrospinal fluid.
myelography
Visualization of the subarachnoid space, spinal cord, and vertebrae after injection of radiopaque dye by LP.
The medulla oblongata is a relay station between sensory and motor impulses. It regulates our vital reflexes, such as heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood vessel diameter. It also controls our nonvital reflexes, such as swallowing, sneezing, coughing, hiccuping, and regurgitation.
What are the functions of the medulla oblongata?
Two main types: alpha receptors and beta receptors, each divided into two subtypes. Norepinephrine stimulates mainly alpha receptors: epinephrine stimulate both alpha and beta receptors approximately equally. Isoproterenol, a synthetic catecholamine, stimulates mainly beta receptors.
What are the types of norepinephrine receptors (adrenergic) in the ANS?
C. Myopia, or nearsightedness.
When the eyeball is too long and an image is focused in front of the retina, the condition is termed A. presbyopia B. hyperopia C. myopia D. astigmatism
B. The corpus callosum is a connection of nerve fibers between he two cerebral hemispheres.
Which brain structure-autonomic function pairing is incorrect? A. pons-respiration B. corpus callosum-blood pressure C. medulla oblongata-respiration D. thalamus-intense pain E. hypothalamus-body temperature
C. Adrenergic, or sympathetic, activation causes bronchial dilation via beta receptors.
Which class of drugs may be used to treat bronchial asthma? A. Cholinergic B. Anticholinesterase C. Adrenergic D. Adrenergic blockers
E. There is no such thing as a sphenoidal lobe in a cerebral hemisphere, but there is a frontal lobe.
Which is not a lobe of the cerebrum? A. parietal lobe B. insula C. occipital lobe D. temporal lobe E. sphenoidal lobe
E. Substance P mediates pain perception, the thalamus responds to intese pain, enkephalins dampen pain perception, and the posterior (dorsal) horns are composed of sensory neurons that transmit pain sensations.
Which is not involved in the transmission or perception of pain? A. substance P B. thalamus C. enkephalins D. posterior horns E. None of the above
D. Satellite cells are small, flattened cells that support neuron cell bodies within the ganglia of the PNS.
Which kind of neuroglial cells are not found in the central nervous system? A. astrocytes B. ependymal cells C. microglia D. satellite cells E. oligodendrocytes
A. The cerebral lobes function primarily in voluntary movement, higher intellectual processes, and personality (within the limbic system).
Which lobe function pairing is incorrect? A. frontal lobe-sensory interpretation B. parietal lobe-speech patterns C. occipital lobe- vision D. temporal lobe-memory E. parietal lobe- somatesthetic interpretation
B. The rhombencephalon differentiates into the myelencphalon and the metencephanon and the prosencephalon differentiates into the diencephalon and the telecephalon.
Which of the following are the three developmental regions of the brain? A. telencephalon, prosencephalon, rhombencephalon B. rhombencephalon, prosencephalon, mesencephalon C. metencephalon, myelencephalon, prosencephalon D. prosencephalon, diencepehalon, mesencephalon
E. The vestibulocochlear nerve is sensory only.
Which of the following cranial nerves is not a mixed nerve? A. the abducens nerve B. the glossopharyngeal C. the trigeminal nerve D. the vestibulocochlear nerve
D. Conscious control of motor activities.
Which of the following is not a function of the ANS? A. Innervation of all visceral organs B. Transmission of sensory and motor impulses C. Regulation and control of vital activities. D. Conscious control of motor activities.
C. The choroid plexus produces CSF.
Which of the following is not a plexus of the spinal nerves? A. the cervical plexus B. the sacral plexus C. the choroid plexus D. the brachial plexus E. the lumbar plexus
C. The pupil is not an anatomical structure. It is an opening within the lens for the passage of light rays.
Which of the following is not a refractive medium of the eye? A. lens B. vitreous humor C. pupil D. cornea E. aqueous humor
C. The basilar membrane is in the spiral organ within the cochlea of the ear.
Which of the following is not a structure of the eye> A. bulbular conjunctiva B. suspensory ligament C. basilar membrane D. macula lutea E. ciliary body
B. Vallate papillae are located at the back of the tongue, fungiform papillae are located on the tip and sides of the tongue, and filiform papillae are located on the anterior two thirds of the tongue.
Which of the following is not a type of lingual papilla? A. vallate papilla B. glossal papilla C. fungiform papilla D. filiform papilla
E. Several structures within the brain influence motor coordination and balance.
Which of the following is not involved with motor impulses or motor coordination? A. red nucleus B. cerebellum C. basal nuclei D. precentral gyrus E. none of the preceding
B. Incoming light rays that pass through the neural layer of the retina first activate the rods and cones, then the bipolar neurons, and finally the ganglion cells
Which of the following is the correct sequence for passage of sensory impulses through the cells of the retina? A. ganglion neurons, rods and cones, bipolar neurons B. rod and cones, bipolar neurons, ganglion neurons C. rods and cones, ganglion neurons, bipolar neurons D. ganglion neurons, bipolar neurons, rods and cones
D. Satellite cells support ganglia within the PNS.
Which of the following occur within the peripheral nervous system? A. oligodendrocytes B. ependymal cells C. microglia D. satellite cells
A. Poor drainage of aqueous humor through the scleral venus results in excessive intraocular pressure that may cause deterioration of the retina and /or the optic nerve.
Which of the following structures would be directly involved in glaucoma? A. vitreous humor B. sclera C. lens D. scleral venous sinus E. nasolacrimal duct
E. Disperson is the opposite of refraction. Refraction is an important function of the eye because it converges the light rays onto a focal point.
Which of the following terms does not apply to how light rays are processed in the eyes? A. refraction B. accommodation C. inversion D. conversion E. dispersion
D. Profuse secretion of the salivary glands
Which of the following would not result from sympathetic stimulation? A. Glucogenolysis B. Contraction of the spleen C. Secretion of catecholamines from the adrenal medulla D. Profuse secretion of the salivary glands
A. Dilates/inhibits
Which pair of actions describes the effect of the sympathetic division of the ANS on the pupil of the eye and the gastrointestinal tract? A. dilates/inhibits B. dilates/stimulates C. constricts/inhibits D. constricts/stimulates
D. The abducens nerve innervates the eye but not facial muscles.
Which pairing of nerve and organ innervation is incorrect? A. Phrenic nerve-diaphragm B. Vagus nerve-abdominal viscera C. Glossopharyngeal nerve-taste buds D. Abducens nerve-facial muscles E. Sciatic nerve-lower extremity
D. High frequency sounds activate sensory receptors near the vestibular window, whereas low-frequency sound activates sensory receptors distant from the vestibular window. A gradation of sound frequencies is elicited in the area between.
Which portion of the cochlea response to low-frequency sound waves? A. the portion closest to the vestibular window B. the middle portion C. the portion closest to the cochlear nerve D. the end portion
B. The pons and medulla oblongata monitor respiratory gases and control respiratory rates.
Which property of blood is not monitored by the hypothalamus? A. osmotic concentration B. PCO2 content C. Fatty acid content D. blood glucose levels E. amino acid levels
B. The telencephalon is the supermost region of the brain. The cerebrum is located within the telencephalon.
Which region of the brain is farthest from the spinal cord? A. mesencephalon B. telencephalon C. myelencephalon D. metencephalon D. diencephalon
C. tympanic membrane
Which structure separates the external auditory canal from the middle ear chamber? A. auditory membrane B. vestibular membrane C. tympanic membrane D. acoustic membrane
C. Apneustic and pneumotaxic centers are located within the pons,and the rhythmicity area is located in the medulla oblongata.
Which two structures of the brain control respiration? A. pons and hypothalamus B. cerebrum and hypothalamus C. pons and medulla oblongata D. hypothalamus and pituitary gland
B. Only beta receptors are found in the heart.
Which type of receptor is found in heart? A. alpha B. beta C. nicotinic D. gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
A patient recently underwent cranial surgery develops syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The following symptoms should be anticipated: 1. Experience edema and weight gain 2. Produce excessive amounts of urine 3. Need vigorous fluid replacement therapy 4. Have a low urine specific gravity
1. SIADH is an abnormally high release of antiduretic hormone causing water retention, which leads to edema and weight gain. Urine output is low, fluid is restricted rather than replaced, and the urine specific gravity is high.
In some patients with multiple sclerosis (MS), plasmapheresis diminishes symptoms by removing: 1. Catecholamines 2. Antibodies 3. Plasma proteins 4. Lymphocytes
2. In plasmapheresis, antibodies are removed from a client's plasma. Antibodies attack the myelin sheath of the neuron causing MS symptoms. Plasmapheresis isn't for the purpose of removing catecholamines, plasma proteins, or lymphocytes.
A patient has dysphagia. Most likely, the patient has experienced damage to the: 1. Frontal lobe 2. Parietal lobe 3. Occipital lobe 4. Temporal lobe
4. The portion of the cerebrum that controls speech is the temporal lobe. Injury to the frontal lobe causes personality changes, difficulty speaking, and disturbances in memory, reasoning, and concentration.
Your patient undergoing a surgical clipping of a cerebral aneurysm. To prevent vasospasm, which medication should be administered? 1. Diuretics such as furosemide (lasix) 2. Blood products such as cryoprecipitate 3. The calcium channel blocker nifedipine (procardia) 4. Volume expanders such as crystalloids.
4. To prevent vasospasm following repair of a cerebral aneurysm, treatment focuses on increasing cerebral perfusion.
Cerebrospinal fluid
A clear, lymph-like fluid formed by active transport of substances from blood plasma in the choroid plexuses
Cataract
A cloudiness of fogginess in vision caused by a buildup of calcium within the lens or cornea of the eye. Can be caused by degeneration of aging, trauma, exposure to sunlight, and certain medications.
Myopia
A condition in which an individual can see objects that are close but cannot see objects that are far away clearly. Occurs when the eyeball has an elongated shape.
Hyperopia
A condition in which an individual can see objects that are far away but cannot see objects that are close clearly.
C. The trochlear nerve is one of three that function in eye movement.
A cranial nerve that affects eye movement is A. the optic nerve B. the trigeminal nerve C. the trochlear nerve D. the hypoglossal nerve
A. Multiple sclerosis refers to the multiple scar-like growths on neurologic tissues.
A disease of the nervous system in which the myelin sheaths of neurons are altered by the formation of plaques is A. multiple sclerosis B. epilepsy C. cerebral palsy D. Parkinson's disease E. neurosyphilis
Poliomyelitis
A disease that causes inflammation of the gray matter of the spinal cord. This inflammation destroys motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord. SS include paralysis, flaccid paralysis, muscle atrophy, respiratory failure, and infections of the digestive and respiratory system.
Meniere's disease (AKA endolymphatic hydrops)
A dysfunction of the labrynth (the part of the ear that produces balance) that produces severe vertigo, sensoineural hearing loss, and tinnitus. It usually affects adults, men slightly more often than women, between ages 30 to 60. After multiple attacks over several years, this disorder leads to residual tinnitus and hearing loss. It is caused by overproduction or decreased absorption of endolymph, which causes endolymphatic hydrops or endolymphatic hypertension, with consequent degeneration of the vestibular and cochlear hair cells.
Brain abcess
A free or encapulated collection of pus that usually occurs in the temporal lobe, cerebellum, or frontal lobes. It is a rare occurance. Although it can occur at any age, it's most common in people ages 10-35 and is rare in older adults. Untreated, it is usually fatal; with treatement, prognosis is only fair.
B. A ganglion is an aggregate of nerve cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system (PNS); an aggregate in the CNS is called a nucleus.
A ganglion is an aggregate of nerve cell bodies A. Inside the brain or spinal cord. B. Outside the brain and spinal cord. C. In the spinal cord only D. In the brain only.
Ganglion
A group of neuron cell bodies that form what looks like a swelling or lump within the nerve.
Huntington's disease
A hereditary disease in which degeneration in the cerebral cortex and basal ganglia causes chronic progressive chorea (involuntary and irregular movements) and cognitive deterioration, ending in dementia. Usually strikes people between ages 25 to 55 (average age is 35). Death usually results 10 to 15 years after onset from suicide, heart failure, or pneumonia. It is caused by an autosomal dominant trait (either sex can transmit and inherit the disease) Each child of a parent wit this disease has a 50% chance of inheriting it.
Thalamus
A large ovoid mass of gray matter. It is actually a paired organ, with each portion located immediately below the lateral ventricle of its respective cerebral cortex.
Otitis media
A middle ear infection that causes pain, inflammation, and fever. It is more common in children and occurs as a result of an upper respiratory infection that has spread up the eustachian tubes into the middle ear.
Cerebral palsy
A motor nerve disorder caused by a permanent brain defect or an injury at birth or soon after. Symptoms include paralysis, lack of coordination, and other dysfunctions of motor and sensory mechanism.
Effector
A muscle of gland that responds to a motor impulse by contracting or secreting, respectively.
Chorea
A nervous disorder characterized by abrupt, involuntary, yet highly coordinated movements. It may be hereditary or a result of disease such as rheumatic fever or destruction to portions of the basal nuclei.
Cerebral palsy
A nonprogressive disorder that affects the motor portion of the brain. This disease, although nonprogressive, is permanent. SS include impairment of motor function (speech, walking), muscle spasms, and spastic paralysis.
Partial seizures evolving to generalized tonic-clonic seizures
A partial seizure can be either a simple partial or a complex partial seizure that progresses to a generalized seizure. An aura may precede the progression. Loss of consciousness occurs immediately or within 1 to 2 minutes of the start of the progression.
E. All of these symptoms result from sympathetic stimulation.
A patient scheduled for surgery confides in his nurse the night before, that he is "terribly scared." Which of the following indicates increased sympathetic activity in this patient? A. Patient complains that his mouth feels dry B. Patient's gown is moist with perspiration C. Patient appears pale D. Patient's pupils are widely dilated E. All of the above
C. The cerebrum controls all skeletal muscle contraction, voluntary and involuntary.
A patient with symptoms of tremor, speech, and an irregular gait may have experienced trauma to A. the cerebrum B. the pons C. the cerebellum D the thalamus E. the hypothalamus
C.
A preganglionic fiber entering the sympathetic chain cannot A. Synapse with postganglion neurons at the first ganglion it meets B. Travel down the sympathetic chain before synapsing with postganglionic neurons C. End in the sympathetic chain without having synapsed D. Pass through the sympathetic chain without having synapsed.
Alzheimer's disease
A progressive degenerative disease that can occur in the cerebral cortex of the brain. The direct cause is unknown, although the lack of certain neurotransmitters, such as acetylcholine, somatostatin, and norepinephrine, may be a factor. Also, tangled fibers in the neurons, degeneration of neurons, trauma, family history, and genetic defects contribute to the development of this disease.
Multiple sclerosis
A progressive disease in which there is a demyelination of neurons in the brain and spinal cord. Plaquing can be seen int he area of demyelination. Causes are unknown, although genetic factors may be a factor, since a higher incidence in families have been observed. Also, an autoimmune component may play a role because of elevated IgF antibodies and T lymphocytes.
Tac-Sachs disease
A progressive genetic disease in which there is an accumulation of lipids (lipoidosis) around and within the myelin sheath. Presents with paralysis, blindness, and mental retardation, and death usually occurs by the age of four.
Huntington's chorea
A progressive, hereditary disorder in which signs and symptoms commonly begin between 35 and 50 years of age. This disorder will eventually lead to death. Before death, the individual becomes totally incapacitated, with severe choreiform movements.
Monosynaptic reflex
A reflex arc are without an association neuron.
Polysynaptic reflex
A reflex arc that involves more than one association neuron.
Limbic system
A roughly doughnut-shaped neuronal loop inside the brain, with the thalamic region in the "hole" and the cerebral cortex "outside."
Corneal abrasion
A scratch on the surface epithelium of the cornea, the dome-shaped transparent structure in front of the eye. This common type of eye injury is often caused by a foreign body, such as a cinder or piece of dirt or by improper use of a contact lens.
Guillian-Barre syndrome
A serious, potentially fatal immune disorder in which the body's immune system attacks peripheral nerves and causes inflammation and demyelination of these nerves. Can affect both men and women, commonly between the ages of 25 to 50, although it can occur at any age. Occurs in three phases: acute, plateau, recovery. Presents with muscle paresthesia, weakness, paralysis, myalgia, difficulty breathing, and abnormal heart rhythms.
Encephalitis
A severe inflammation and swelling of the brain, usually caused by a mosquito-borne or, in some areas, a tick-borne virus. Transmission also may occur through ingestion of infected goat's milk and accidental injection or inhalation of the virus. Intense lymphocytic infiltration of brain tissues and teh leptomeninges causes cerebral edema, degeneration of the brain's ganglion cells, and diffuse nerve cell destruction.
Sulcus
A shallow depression or groove between the gyri of the convoluted cerebral cortex.
Mesencephalon (midbrain)
A short section of the brainstem between the diencephalon and the pons. Contains the corpora quadrigemina, concerned with visual and auditory reflexes, and the cerebral peduncles, composed of fiber tracts.
Parkinson's disease
A slow, progressive degenerative disease that affects motor neurons. Tends to be more common in men between the ages of 40 and 65, although women and younger people can also have this disease. The cause is unknown, but cells of the substantia nigra portion of the midbrain fail to produce adequate amounts of the neurotransmitter dopamine.
Cerebral angiography
A technique used to reveal abnormalities of cerebral blood vessels, such as aneurysms, or brain tumors that displace blood vessels. A radiopaque substance is injected into the carotid arteries; then x-ray films are taken of the blood vessels of the brain.
Cerebral concussion
A transient state of unconsciousness following head injury and damage to the brainstem
B. acetylcholine
A transmitter substance released into the synaptic cleft is A. cholinesterase B. acetylcholine C. adenosine triphosphate D. RNA E. All the above
Epilepsy
Abnormal brain condition that causes seizures. Occurs as a result of an abnormal increase in electrical impulses of neurons in the brain. SS include nausea, visual disturbances, bad, abnormal, or unusual tastes and smalls, abnormal levels of loss of consciousness, muscle tremors or convulsions, and loss of sensation.
Cerebrospinal fluid analysis
Allows microscopic examinaiton of CSF for blood, white blood cells, immunoglobulins, bacteria, protein, glucose, and electrolytes.
A. The hypothalamus influences the production of ADH by the posterior pituitary.
An abnormal production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) could result from a dysfunction of A. the hypothalamus B. the choroid plexus C. the medulla oblongata D. the reticular activation system E. the pineal gland
Guillian-Barre Syndrome; Landry-Guillian-Barre Syndrome; Acute idiopathic polyneuritis
An acute, rapidly progressive, and potentially fatal form of polyneuritis (inflammation of several peripheral nerves at once) that causes muscle weakness and mild distal sensory loss. Recovery is sponaneous and complete in about 95% of patients, although mild motor or reflex deficits in the feet and legs may persist. The prognosis is best when symptoms clear between 15 and 20 days after onset.
Glaucoma
An increase in intraocular pressure. This a potentially dangerous disorder. If left untreated, it can result in damage to the optic nerves, and blindness can occur. Caused by an excessive buildup of aqueous humor in the anterior chamber of the eye. This buildup can be the result of an obstruction or trauma.
D. Most inhibitory neurotransmitters induce hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane by making the membrane more permeable to K, Cl, or both.
An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is mediated by A. an increase in permeability to all cations B. selective permeability to calcium, sodium, and potassium C. an increase in permeability to all anions D. selective permeability to potassium and chloride ions.
Epidural block
An injection of an anesthetic solution in the spinal nerves pass through the epidural space.
Myelin
An insulating cellular membrane consisting of a fatlike lipid substance known as sphingomyelin.
Presbycusis
An otologic effect of aging, results from loss of hair cells in the organ of Corti. This disorder causes progressive, symmetrical, bilateral sensoineural hearing loss, usually of high-frequency tones.
Cerebral aneurysm
An outpouching of a cerebral artery that results from weakness of the middle layer of an artery. It usually results from a congenital weakness in the structure of the artery and remains asymptomatic until it ruptures. Are classified by size or shape, such as saccular, berry, and dissecting.
Otosclerosis
An overgrowth of the ear's spongy bone around the oval window and stapes footplate. This overgrowth curtails movement of the stapes in the oval window, preventing sound from begin transmitted to the cochlea and resulting in conductive hearing loss.
B. Produced by the ciliary body, aqueous humor flows into the posterior chamber through the pupil and into the anterior chamber. From there, it drains out of the eye at the scleral venous sinus.
Aqueous humor is drained from the anterior cavity of the eye through A. the tarsal duct B. the scleral venous sinus C. the nasolacrimal duct D. the optic canal
A. the pupil
Aqueous humor produced by the ciliary body is secreted into the posterior chamber and enters the anterior changer through A. the pupil B. the scleral venous sinus C. the vitreous body D. the suspensory ligament E. the lens capsule
Decussation
Area in the CNS where projection fibers cross from one side of the CNS to the other.
Anterior spinocerebellar tract
Ascending pathway is responsible for the sensations associated with posture and coordination of fine skilled movement.
Posterior spinocerebellar tract
Ascending pathway that is responsible for the sensations associated with equilibrium, posture, unconscious proprioception
Auditory acuity test
Assesses hearing by assessing ability to hear a whispered phrase or ticking watch.
B.
At a synapse, impulse conduction normally A. occurs in both directions B. occurs in only one direction C. depends on acetylcholine D. depends on epinephrine
B. An increase in the resting heart rate
Atropine (which blocks muscarinic receptors) is liable to cause A. Weakness of cardiac muscles B. An increase in the rest heart rate C. An excessive flow of saliva D. Overactivity of the small intestine
B. Norepinephrine acts to inhibit its own further release.
Autoreceptors of the sympathetic nervous division of the ANS that are involved in negative feedback are A. the alpha 1 B. the alpha 2 C. the beta 1 D. the beta 2
Metencephalon (Cerebellum)
Balance and motor coordination.
C. Isoproterenol is a synthetic catecholamine that stimulates mainly beta receptors.
Beta receptors are stimulated by A. methoxamine B. acetylcholine C. isoproterenol D. atropine
B. Hydrocephalus is bulging of the brain due to inadequate drainage of CSF.
Blockage of the flow of CSF may result in A. meninges B. hydrocephalus C. paraplegia D. encephalitis E. all of the preceding
B. Although it is also produced elsewhere in the body, the serotonin produced int eh brain as the specific function of influencing body temperature, mediating sensory perception, and regulating sleep.
Body temperature, sensory perception, and the onset of sleep are partially regulated by the neurotransmitter A. glycine B. serotonin C. acetylcholine D. dopamine E. enkephalin
E. Delta waves have a low frequency of 1 to 5 Hz and are normal during sleep.
Brain waves common to a healthy sleeping person and a brain-damaged awake person are called A. alpha waves B. beta waves C. gamma waves D. theta waves E. delta waves
Simple partial seizure
Can be present in several ways depending upon the focal point of the seizure in the brain: * Motor symptoms (jerking of the thumb or cheek) * Somatosensory symptoms (visual, vestibular, gustatory, olfactory, or auditory hallucinations or sensations) * Autonomic symptoms (such as tachycardia, sweating, and pupillary dilation) * Psychic symptoms (which rarely occur without some changes in consciousness such as feelings of deja-vu or dreamy states)
Occipital
Cerebral lobe where integration of movements in focusing the eye; correlation
Temporal
Cerebral lobe where interpretation of auditory sensations; auditory and visual memory.
Insular
Cerebral lobe where memory takes place; integration of other cerebral activities.
Parietal
Cerebral lobe where somatesthetic interpretation (cutaneous and muscular sensations); understand and utterance of speech.
Frontal
Cerebral lobe where voluntary motor control of skeletal muscles; personality (with limbic system); intellectual process; verbal communication.
D. All of the spaces, canals, and subarachnoid space of the CNS contain CSF.
Cerebrospinal fluid is found within A. the epidural space, subarachnoid space, and dural sinuses. B. the subarachnoid space, dural sinuses, and ventricles. C. the central canal, epidural space, and subarachnoid space D. the ventricles, central canal, and subarachnoid space E. the central canal, epidural space, and ventricles
D. cerumen
Ceruminous glands secrete A. lacrimal fluid B. mucus into the middle ear chamber C. aqueous humor D. cerumen E. endolymph
Extraocular eye muscle testing
Checks for parallel alignment of the eyes, muscle strength, and cranial nerve function.
D. Inhibition of the salivary glands causes the mouth to be dry.
Cholinergic blockers have as an unwanted side effect A. increased gastric secretion B. spasms in the GI tract C. diarrhea D. dry mouth
D. Clusters of neuron cell bodies in the CNS form nuclei, but in the PNS they form ganglia
Clusters of neuron cell bodies found in the CNS are termed A. nerve clusters B. ganglia C. axons D. nuclei
A. Nuclei are ares of gray matter within the white matter, where nerve impulses are processed.
Clusters of neuron cells embedded in the white matter of the brain are referred to as A. nuclei B. gyri C. sulci D. ganglia E. fasciculi
Mixed hearing loss
Combined dysfunction of conduction and sensorineural transmission.
Conjunctivitis
Commonly called "pink-eye" and occurs when the protective mucous membrane that covers the eyeball, the conjunctiva, is inflamed. Is very contagious and can be caused by bacterial infections or viral infections.
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Commonly known as Lou Gehrig's disease, is a progressive, degenerative disorder that leads to decreased motor function in the upper and lower motor neuron systems. Certain nerve cells degenerate, resulting in distorted or blocked nerve impulses. Nerve cells die and muscle fibers have atrophic changes resulting in progressive motor dysfunction. The disease affects males three times more often than females. Causes include: genetic predisposition, nutritional deficiency, slow-acting virus, and idiopathic reasons.
Amyotropic lateral sclerosis
Commonly known as Lou Gehrig's disease, is a progressive, degenerative disorder that leads to decreased motor function in the upper and lower motor neuron systems. In this disease, certain nerve cells degenerate, resulting in distorted or blocked nerve impulses. Nerve cells die and muscle fibers have atropic changes resulting in progressive motor dysfunction. The disease affects males three times more often than females.
Nyctalopia
Commonly referred to as night blindness. The individual is unable to see objects in the darkness of night. Can occur when there is a retinol or vitamin A deficiency or if there is a degeneration of the retina.
A. the outer and middle ear
Conduction deafness involves structures in A. the outer ear and middle ear B. the cochlea C. the inner ear D. the auditory pathway to the brain
One-way conduction
Conduction of impulses in one direction only because the neurotransmitter is usually present only on one side of the synapse.
Spina bifida cystica
Congenital defect of the spinal cord that presents with a sac or cyst-like protrusion at the level of L5-S1. There are two types.
Spina bifida cystica meningocele
Congenital defect of the spine where the meninges and cerebrospinal fluid protrude into the saclike protrusion.
Spina bifida cystica meningomyelocele
Congenital defect of the spine where the spinal cord or spinal nerves protrude into the sac-like protrusion. The most serious and presents with severe neurological dysfunction, which includes partial or complete paralysis and loss of bowl and urinary bladder control.
Complex partial seizure
Consciousness becomes impaired with a complex partial seizure. This type of seizure begins as a simple partial seizure in which the consciousness isn't impaired and evolves to an impairment of consciousness. The same symptoms that present during a simple partial seizure are still seen as the seizure develops into a complex partial seizure.
hypothalamus
Consists of several nuclei interconnected to other vital parts of the brain. Although most of its functions related to regulation of visceral activities, the hypothalamus also performs emotional and instinctual functions. It functions: cardiovascular regulation, body temperature regulation, regulation of water, electrolyte balance, Gi activity, sleeping and wakefulness, sexual response, emotions, and endocrine functions.
Basal ganglia
Controls emotion, memory, muscle tone, and learned reflexes, such as writing, tying shoes, or brushing teeth.
III Oculomotor nerve
Cranial nerve that extends from midbrain to four eye muscles; from ciliary body to midbrain. Functions to move eye and eyelid; focusing; change in pupil size; muscle sense.
IV Trochlear nerve
Cranial nerve that extends from midbrain to superior oblique muscle; form eye muscle to midbrain; function to move eye muscle.
V Trigeminal nerve
Cranial nerve that extends from pons to muscles of mastication; from cornea, facial skin, lips, tongue, and teeth to pons. Functions to chewing of food; sensations rom organs of the face.
I Olfactory nerve
Cranial nerve that extends from the olfactory epithelium to olfactory bulb and functions to smell.
II Optic nerve
Cranial nerve that extends from the retina of eye to thalamus and functions to sight.
Fissure
Deep groove between major structures of the cerebrum.
Synaptic delay
Delay of about 0.5 ms in the transmission of an impulse from the axon terminal of the presynaptic neuron to the postsynaptic neuron.
A. Dendrites transmit impulses toward the cell body of the neuron and axons transmit impulses away from the cell body.
Dendrites carry nerve impulses A. toward the cell body B. away from the cell body C. across the body of the nerve cell D. from one nerve cell to another
D. When the membrane of a neuron is stimulated, there is an increase in the permeability of the membrane to sodium at that point.
Depolarization of the membrane of a nerve cell occurs by the rapid influx of A. potassium ions B. chloride ions C. organic anions D. sodium ions
Corticobulbar tract
Descending pathway (direct route) that is responsible for conscious voluntary movement of muscles innervated by cranial nerves.
Anterior corticospinal tract
Descending pathway (direct route) that is responsible for conscious voluntary, coordinated movement of the axial skeleton.
Lateral corticospinal tract
Descending pathway (direct route) that is responsible for conscious voluntary, skilled movements of the hands and feet.
Medial reticulospinal tract
Descending pathway (indirect route) that extends the extensor muscle and inhibits the flexor muscles.
Lateral reticulospinal tract
Descending pathway (indirect route) which flexes the flexor muscles and inhibits the extensor muscles.
Trigeminal neuralgia
Disease of cranial nerves that are caused by degenerative changes or by a compression or impingement of the trigeminal nerve as a result of trauma to the nerve.
C. Potassium is positively charged; it rapidly moves from the interior surface to the exterior surface of the membrane during repolarization.
During repolarization of the neuronal membrane A. sodium ions rapidly move to the inside of the cell B. sodium ions rapidly move to the outside of the cell C. potassium ions rapidly move to the outside of the cell D. potassium ions rapidly move to the inside of the cell
C. Acetylcholine and norepinephrine are two important neurotransmitters
Examples of neurotransmitters are A. adenine and guanine B. thymine and cytosine C. acetylcholine and norepinephrine D. non of the preceding
Collateral branches
Extension from the axon that may also transmit impulses.
Cerebellar peduncles
Fiber tracts that extend into and support the cerebellum.
Neurofibrils
Filamentous strands of protein that support the cell body.
Longitudinal cerebral fissure
Fissure that separates the cerebrum into right and left cerebral hemispheres.
Lateral fissure
Fissure that separates the frontal lobe from the temporal lobe.
Parieto-occipital fissure
Fissure that separates the temporal lobe from the occipital lobe.
C. Astrocytes are specialized glial cells that help form the blood-brain barrier.
For substances within the blood to reach the neurons within the brain, they must first pass through a cellular membrane derived in part from A. neurolemmocytes B. microglia C. astrocytes D. ganglia E. nuclei
Cranial Nerve XII Hypoglossal
From medulla oblongata to muscles of the tongue; from tongue muscles to medulla. Speech and swallowing; muscle sense.
Cranial nerve IX Glossopharyngeal
From medulla oblongata to pharyngeal muscles; from pharyngeal muscles and taste buds to medulla oblongata. Swallowing, secretion of saliva; muscle sense; taste
Cranial nerve XI Accessory
From medulla oblongata to pharynx and neck muscles; from neck muscles to medulla. Swallowing and head movement; muscle sense.
Cranial nerve X Vagus
From medulla oblongata to viscera; from viscera to medulla. Functions to move viscera; visceral sensations.
Cranial nerve VIII Vestibulocochlear
From organs of hearing and balance to pons. Functions in hearing; balance and posture.
Cranial nerve VII Facial
From pons to facial muscles; from facial muscles and taste buds to pons; functions to move face; secretion of saliva and tears; muscle sense; taste.
Cranial nerve VI Abducens
From pons to lateral rectus muscle; from eye muscle to pons. Functions to move eye; muscle sense.
Trigeminal nerve Cranial nerve V
From pons to muscles of mastication,; from cornea, facial skin, lips, tongue, and teeth to pons. Functions to help chewing of food; sensations from organs of the face.
Increases the inflow of air by prolonging inhalation. The pneumotaxic center increases the a mouth of air that is exhaled.
Function of the pons.
Atonic seizures (drop attacks)
General loss of postural tone and a temporary loss of consciousness, an atonic seizure occurs in young children.
Red nucleus
Gray matter that connects the cerebral hemispheres and the cerebellum. Its reddish color is due to a rich blood supply. Functions in reflexes concerned with motor coordination and maintaining posture.
C. facial nerve-olfactory epithelium
Identify the organ/innervation mismatch: A. glossopharyngeal nerve-tongue B. optic nerve-eye C. facial nerve-olfactory epithelium D. cochlear nerve-spiral organ E. vestibular nerve-semicircular canals
Sensorineural hearing loss
Imparied cochlea or eighth cranial nerve dysfunction, causing failure of transmission of sound impulses within the inner ear or brain.
D. Damage to the facial nerve causes the entier side of the face to sag because muscle tonus is lost.
In a patient with a contusion over the parotid region, the facial muscles on one side of the face are paralyzed, one eye can't be shut, and the corner of the mouth droops. Which cranial nerve is damaged? A. The abducens nerve B. The facial nerve C. The glossopharyngeal nerve D. The accessory nerve E. The hypoglossal nerve
B. The exterior surface of a resting neuron is positively charged.
In a resting neuron, A. the membrane is electrically permeable B. the outside of the membrane is positively charged C. the outside is negatively charged D. the potential difference across the membrane is zero
D. Containing only cones, the fovea centralis is the region of the retina that provides the keenest vision.
In the central region of the retina there is a yellowish spot, the macula lutea, with a depression in its center that produces the sharpest vision. This depression is called A. the optic disc B. the rods and cones, C. the vitreous body D. the fovea centralis E. the ganglion cells
Bell's palsy
Inflammation of C.N. XII. This neuritis will cause temporary paralysis of one side of the face. Causes include trauma to the nerve and an infection caused by a virus or bacterium. SS include loss of function of facial muscles tearing of the eye on the affected side, and drooling from the side of the mouth on the affected side.
Neuritis
Inflammation of a nerve. Signs and symptoms are neuralgia and loss of sensation.
Encephalitis
Inflammation of the brain that can causes seizures, delirium, cephalgia, damage to the brain, coma, and death as a result of the degenerative changes that occur within the brain. It is caused by an infection-usually viral.
Conductive hearing loss
Interrupted passage of sound from the external ear to the junction of the stapes and oval window.
Cerebrum
Largest portion of the brain. It has left and right hemispheres that are divided by a longitudinal fissure.
Nissl bodies
Layers of rough endoplasmic recticulum, whose function is protein synthesis.
Cerebellum
Makes up the posterior portion of the brain located in the back of the cerebrum. It contains an outer cortex composed of gray matter and in inner portion of white matter called the arbor vitae. Responsible for equilibrium or balance, and our proprioception, or our sense of body's position in space.
Noise-induced hearing loss
May be transient or permanent, usually follows prolonged exposure to loud noises (85 to 90 dB) or brief exposure to extremely loud noises (greater than 90 dB).
Visual acuity test
Measures clarity of vision using a letter chart (Snellen's) placed 20' (6 m) from client. Acuity is expressed in a ratio that relates what a person with normal vision sees at 20' to what the client can see at 20'.
Tonometry
Measures intraocular fluid pressure using an applanation tonometer or an air-puff tonometer.
C. Both divisions
Most body organs are innervated by A. the parasympathetic division of the ANS B. The sympathetic division of the ANS C. Both divisions of the ANS D. The CNS
Meniere's disease
Most commonly occurs in males and affects the inner ear. The individual will experience dizziness (vertigo), a ringing sound in the ears (tinnitus), and nausea. This condition progresses to a loss of hearing. Occurs when the endolymph accumulates in the inner ear.
C. Because of its point of attachment on the sclera, the inferior oblique is the muscle that acts to turn the eye superolaterally.
Movement of the eye superolaterally is the function of which muscle? A. superior rectus B. lateral rectus C. inferior oblique D. superior oblique
Neuralgia
Nerve pain. Signs and symptoms are numbness and tingling, a hot or burning sensation, or shooting or radiating pain.
A.
Neural regulation differs from endocrine regulation in that the former A. is quick, precise, and localized B. is slower and more pervasive C. does not require conscious activity D. has longer lasting effects
Unipolar neurons
Neurons associated with general senses. These senses include crude touch, vibration, pain, cold/hot temperature, pressure, and soft touch.
Bipolar neurons
Neurons associated with special senses, which include sight, hearing, smelling, tasting, and equilibrium.
Multipolar neurons
Neurons located mostly in the brain and spinal cord.
A. Neuropeptides are protein molecules produced within the brain.
Neuropeptides are A. neurotransmitter chemicals B. neuroglia C. products of the choroid plexuses D. nutrients for brain tissue E. both a and c
Epinephrine, norepinephrine
Neurotransmitter that arouses the brain and maintains alertness.
Acetylcholine
Neurotransmitter that facilitates transmission of nerve impulses across synapses.
Glycine
Neurotransmitter that inhibits transmission along certain spinal cord tracts.
Dopamine
Neurotransmitter that regulates motor control.
Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Neurotransmitter that regulates motor coordination through inhibition of certain neurons.
Serotonin
Neurotransmitter that regulates temperature, sensory perception, onset of sleep.
Substance P
Neurotransmitters that aid in transmission of impulses from pain receptors.
Enkephalins, endorphins
Neurotransmitters that block transmission and perception of pain.
Excitatory neurotransmitters
Neurotransmitters that increase postsynaptic membrane's permeability to sodium ions. The membrane is said to be hyperpolarized.
Inhibitory neurotransmitters
Neurotransmitters that increase the postsynaptic membrane's permeability to potassium and chloride ions, resulting in a hyperpolarized membrane. While the membrane is hyperpolarized, the potential is farther below threshold; making it more difficult to generate an action potential.
Spina bifida occulta
Occulta presents with no protrusion; just a small impression or dimple may be present in the region of the defect. No symptoms are present.
Absence (petit mal) seizure
Occurs commonly in children, but it may also affect adults. It usually begins with a brief change in the level of consciousness, indicated by blinking or rolling of the eyes, or a blank stare, and slight mouth movements. Typically the seizure lasts 1 to 10 seconds. The impairment is so brief that the patient (or parent) is sometimes unaware of it. If not properly treated, these seizures can recur as often as 100 times per day and may result in learning difficulties.
Cataract
Occurs when the normally clear, transparent crystalline lens in the eye becomes opaque. With age, lens fibers become more densely packed, making the lens less transparent and giving the lens a yellowish cast. Usually results in vision loss. Normally develops first in one eye, but other eye will follow eventually.
D. The effects of the two divisions on the organs are usually antagonistic.
One reason for the division of the ANS is that A. sympathetic signals are transmitted from the spinal cord to the periphery through two successive neurons, in contrast to one neuron parasympathetic signals B. sympathetic fibers alone innervate organs in the abdominal cavity C. Sympathetic fibers alone arise from the spinal cord. D. The effects of the two divisions on the organs are usually antagonistic.
C. II, VII, IX, and X
Parasympathetic fibers arise from which set of cranial nerves? A. II, V, IIX, and X B. IV, V, IX, and X C. II, VII, IX, and X D. V, IX, X, and XII
B. Basal nuclei are important in muscle coordination during body movement.
Parkinson's disease and other motor disorders are attributed to dysfunction of or trauma to A. the pons B. the basal nuclei C. the parietal lobe D. the thalamus E. the corpus striatum
ANS is instrumental in maintaining homeostasis. Autonomic responses include regulating the following; the diameter of blood vessels, gastrointestinal secretion, the diameter of the pupils, micturition, sweating, the glomerular filtration rate in the kidneys, diameter of the bronchioles, erection of the penis, basal metabolism, liver glycogenolysis, body temperature, and adrenal medulla secretion.
Physiological activities regulated by the ANS.
Substantia nigra
Pigmented nucleus that is inferior to the red nucleus and is thought to inhibit involuntary movement.
Synaptic fatigue
Progressive decline in synaptic transmission due to depletion of the store of neurotransmitter in the axon terminal.
Reflex arc
Provides the fast automatic response possible to avoid more serous trauma or physical threats to the body.
Choreiform movements
Rapid contortions and rigidity of muscles.
Nicotinic receptors
Receptors located at the ganglia in both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.
Muscarinic receptors
Receptors located on effector cells innervated by postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic division and on those effector cells innervated by postganglionic cholinergic neurons of the sympathetic division.
D. CSF drains from the CNS through the arachnoid villi in of the venous return from the head.
Regarding CSF, which of the following is a false statement A. It has a specific gravity of 1.007 and buoys the brain B. It maintains a volume of 140 to 200 ml and a fluid pressure of 10 mm Hg C. It moves metabolic wastes away from the cells of nervous tissue D. It is produced in the choroid plexuses and drains into the cerebral arterial circle
B. There are five paired lobes within the cerebrum.
Regarding the cerebrum, which of the following is a false statement? A. It accounts for about 80% of the brain's mass. B. It consists of four paired lobes C. It contains a thin superficial layer of convoluted gray matter D. It is located within the telencephalonic region of the brain.
B. The medulla oblongata is located within the myelencephalon
Regarding the medulla oblongata, which of the following is a false statement? A. It is the site of decussation of many sensory and motor fibers. B. It is located within the mesencephalon C. It contains specialized nuclei for certain cranial nerves D. It functions as cardiac, vasomotor, and respiratory centers
Mesencephalon (cerebral peduncles)
Region of the brain coordinating reflexes; contain many motor fibers.
Mesencephalon (inferior colliculus)
Region of the brain responsible for auditory reflexes.
Mesencephalon (superior colliculus)
Region of the brain responsible for visual reflexes.
Diencephalon (Thalamus)
Region of the brain that acts as the relay center: all impulses (except olfactory) going into cerebrum synapse here.
Telencephalon (Cerebrum)
Region of the brain that controls most of sensory and motor activities; reasoning, memory, intelligence, etc.; instinctual and limbic functions.
Mesencephalon (pituitary gland)
Region of the brain that regulates other endocrine glands.
Diencephalon (Hypothalamus)
Region of the brain that regulates urine formation, body temperature, hunger, heartbeat, etc.; control of secretory activity in anterior pituitary; instinctual and limbic functions.
Myelencephalon (Medulla oblongata)
Relay center; contains many nuclei; visceral autonomic center.
Metencephalon (Pons)
Relay center; contains respiratory nuclei.
Midbrain
Responsible for the visual and auditory reflexes. It contains the superior colliculi, inferior colliculi, and substantia nigra.
Spinal cord injury
Result from traumatic force on the vertebral column. Necrosis and scar tissue form in the area of the traumatized cord. Damage to the spinal cord results in sensory and motor deficits. Signs and symptoms include: absence of reflexes below the level of the injury, flaccid muscle, loss of bowel and bladder control, neck pain, numbness and tingling, paralysis below the injury, parasthesia below the level of the injury, respiratory distress.
Hearing loss
Results from a mechanical or nervous impediment to the transmission of sound waves. Hearing loss may be partial or total. There are three major forms of hearing loss: 1) Conductive loss 2) Sensorineural loss 3) Mixed Loss
Stroke
Results from a sudden impairment of cerebral circulation in one or more of the blood vessels supplying the brain. A stroke interrupts or diminishes oxygen supply and commonly causes serious damage or necrosis in brain tissues. Symptoms include: sudden numbness or weakness of the arm or leg on one side of the body, sudden change in mental status; difficulty speaking or understanding, sudden vision disturbances, sudden difficulty walking, maintaining balance, or dizziness, and severe headache.
Acute head injury
Results from trauma to the head, leading to brain injury or bleeding within the brain. Effects of injury may include edema and hypoxia. Manifestations of the injury can vary greatly from a mild cognitive defect to severe functional deficits.
Anterior spinothalamic tract
Sensory pathway responsible for the sensation of crude touch, itch, tickle, pressure, and light touch.
Lateral spinothalamic tract
Sensory pathway responsible for the sensation of temperature and pain.
Fasciculus gracilis
Sensory tract responsible for fine touch, vibration, two-point discrimination, weight discrimination, proprioception, and stereognosis sensations from the lower portion of the body.
Fasciculus cuneatus
Sensory tract responsible for the find touch, vibration, two-point discrimination, weight discrimination, proprioception, and stereognosis sensations form the upper portion of the body.
Axon terminals
Slight enlargements at the ends of the branched axon.
basal nuclei
Special group of related neuron bodies located deep within the white matter of the cerebrum.
Neuroglia
Specialized cells of the nervous system physically and physiologically support neurons by assisting in the transfer of nutrients and wastes to and from the neurons. They mitotically divide and are estimated to be about five times more abundant than neurons.
Synapse
Specialized junction through which impulses pass from one neuron to another.
aphasias
Speech or language disorders.
Spinal dura mater
Structure that forms a toughened sheath around the brain and spinal cord.
A. Over 10 autonomic functions are performed by the hypothalamus in maintaining homeostasis.
Symptoms of fluctuating body temperature, intense thirst, and insomnia might indicate that a person has a dysfunction of A. the hypothalamus B. the pons C. the medulla oblongata D. the pituitary gland E. the cerebellum
True
T or F. A dysfunction of the facial (seventh cranial nerve) would inhibit a person's ability to detect sweet taste.
True
T or F. A nerve impulse can travel along an axon for an indefinite distance without distortion or loss of strength.
True
T or F. A polarized nerve fiber has an abundance of sodium ions on the outside of the axon membrane.
False; by definition, an EPSP is subthreshold
T or F. A single excitatory postsynaptic potential is sufficient to cause an action potential.
True
T or F. All reflex arcs involve the CNS.
True
T or F. All spinal nerves are mixed nerves.
False; many synapses are excitatory.
T or F. All synapses are inhibitory.
False; both the third and fourth ventricles are paired.
T or F. All ventricles of the brain are paired, except for the fourth.
True
T or F. An alpha brain wave pattern is a healthy sign in a person who is awake but relaxed, and a beta brain waves and pattern is a healthy sign in a person who is wake and mentally alert.
True
T or F. An awareness of the position of the head as it relates to gravity is due to stimulation of hair cells in the utricle.
False; the accessory nerves regulate muscles that move the shoulders.
T or F. An inability to shrug the shoulders may indicate a dysfunction of the facial nerves.
True
T or F. Association fibers are confined to a single hemisphere and serve to relay impulses to the various cerebral lobes.
True
T or F. Bell's palsy is a temporary functional disorder of the facial nerve.
False; vasoconstriction and vasodilation to maintain blood pressure are functions of the medulla oblongata.
T or F. Both the hypothalamus and the medulla oblongata mediate vasoconstriction and vasodilation in regulating blood pressure.
True
T or F. CSF is produced in the choroid plexuses; flows through the cavities, spaces, and canals of the CNS; and drains through the arachnoid villi into the venous blood raining the head.
True
T or F. Chemical synapses operate in only one direction.
True
T or F. Compression of the brachial plexus could result in paralysis of the hand.
True
T or F. Contraction of the lateral rectus muscle rotates the eye laterally, away from the midline.
False; the vagus nerves innervate thoracic and abdominal viscera.
T or F. Cranial nerves innervate only structures of the head and neck.
False; dendrites are usually shorter than axons, although some dendrites are as long as axons.
T or F. Dendrites are usually longer than axons.
True
T or F. Erection of the penis is primarily a parasympathetic response.
False; there may be many synaptic junctions on the surface of a single dendrite.
T or F. Every postsynaptic neuron has only one synaptic junction on the surface of its dendrites.
True
T or F. Foramina within the cribiform plate are associated with olfaction.
True
T or F. Glial cells sustain the CNS neurons metabolically, support them physically, and regulate ionic concentrations in the extracellular space.
False; an EPSP produces hyperpolarization.
T or F. Hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane by an excitatory synapse produces an EPSP.
True
T or F. Included in the peripheral nervous system are 12 pairs of cranial nerves, 31 pairs of spinal nerves, and 4 plexuses of the spinal column.
False; lacrima fluid contains lysozyme
T or F. Lacrimal fluid (tears) contains the enzyme amylase.
False; motor transmission is from the CNS to the periphery.
T or F. Motor neurons convey information from receptors in the periphery to the CNS.
False; neuroglia function to support nerve fibers, not to transmit impulses.
T or F. Neuroglia have an action potential response.
True
T or F. Only EPSPs show temporal and spatial summation.
True
T or F. Somatic motor nerves innervate skeletal muscle, and autonomic nerves innervate smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands.
True
T or F. Taste buds occur on the surface of the tongue, but they are also found in smaller number in the mucosa of the palate and pharynx.
False; the anterior chamber is filled with aqueous humor.
T or F. The anterior chamber is located between the cornea and the iris and is filled with vitreous humor.
True
T or F. The auditory canal equalizes the pressure on the inside of the tympanic membrane to that on the outside of the membrane.
False; the axon conducts impulses away from the cell body.
T or F. The axon is the cytoplasmic neuronal extension that conducts impulses toward the cell body.
False; the limbic system generates emotions; the reticular activating system stimulates (alerts) the brain.
T or F. The cerebral arterial circle constitutes the blood-brain barrier, which selectively determines which components of the blood can enter the CNS.
True; impulses travel not only between the lobes of a cerebral hemisphere, but also between the right and left cerebral hemispheres and to other regions of the brain.
T or F. The cerebral hemispheres communicate one with the other by nerve impulses passing through fiber tracts.
True
T or F. The cerebral longitudinal fissure separates the two cerebral hemispheres, and the central sulcus separates the precentral gyrus from the post-central gyrus.
False; nuclei are clusters of gray matter located within the white matter.
T or F. The convoluted cerebral cortex and the convoluted surface of the cerebellum are the only parts of the brain that contain gray matter.
True
T or F. The extrinsic ocular muscles are innervated by three different cranial nerves.
False; gyri and sulci form convolutions of gray matter.
T or F. The gyri and sulci form the convolutions of the cerebral cortex that greatly increase the surface area of the white matter.
True
T or F. The hypothalamus is a component of the limbic system that helps determine one's emotions.
False; the malleus is attached to the tympanic membrane, and the stapes is attached to he vestibular window.
T or F. The malleus is the bone in the middle ear that is attached to the vestibular window.
True
T or F. The motor speech (Broca's) area of the brain is generally within the left cerebral hemisphere.
False; the myelin sheath generally surrounds axons; some dendrites are myelinated.
T or F. The myelin sheath surrounds the dendrites.
True
T or F. The nerve impulse is all or nothing.
True
T or F. The olfactory, optic, and vestibulocochlear nerves are the only cranial nerves that are purely sensory.
False; the abducens, oculomotor, and trochlear cranial nerves innervate muscles that move the eye.
T or F. The optic nerve controls movement of the eye.
False; the sympathetic division functions under stressful conditions.
T or F. The parasympathetic division of the ANS functions in meeting stressful and emergency conditions.
False; the membrane's permeability to sodium increases during depolarization.
T or F. The permeability of the neuron's cell membrane to sodium decreases as the membrane is depolarized.
False; cones respond to color, and rods respond to black and white.
T or F. The photoreceptive rods and cones are sensitive to color and to black and white, respectively.
True
T or F. The pineal gland, the hypothalamus, and the pituitary gland all have neuroendocrine functions.
True
T or F. The pith of a sound is directly related to the wave frequency.
False; the posterior horns contain sensory neurons only.
T or F. The posterior horns of the spinal cord contain motor neurons only.
True
T or F. The posterior root of a spinal nerve consists of sensory neurons only.
False; potassium is in greater concentration on the inside of the cell.
T or F. The resting potential in a nerve cell is caused by the high concentration of potassium outside the cell.
False; the limbic system generates emotions; the reticular activation system stimulates (alerts) the brain.
T or F. The reticular activating system of the brain generates emotions.
False; the saccule, utricle, and semicircular canals constitute the vestibular organs.
T or F. The saccule, semicircular canals, and cochlea constitue the vestibular organs.
False; the sodium pump operates by active transport and thus requires energy (ATP).
T or F. The sodium pump operates by diffusion, and thus requires no ATP for its operation.
True
T or F. The special senses are localized in complex receptor organs and have extensive neural pathways.
False; the sympathetic division of the ANS is thoracolumbar in its origin.
T or F. The sympathetic division of the ANS is craniosacral in its origin.
True
T or F. The thalamus is an important relay center in that all sensory impulses (except olfaction) going to the cerebrum synapse there.
True
T or F. The vitreous humor is a permanent refractive medium in the posterior cavity of the eye, and the aqueous humor is a constant humor is a constantly replaced refractive medium in the anterior cavity of the eye.
False; there are neurons and at least six types of neuroglia.
T or F. There are basically only two different types of cells in the nervous system.
True
T or F. There are seven cervical vertebrae and eight cervical nerves.
False; transmission across a synapse is the diffusion of neurotransmitter.
T or F. Transmission across the synaptic junction is diffusion of sodium.
True
T or F. Two transmitter substances in the nervous system are dopamine and acetylcholine.
True
T or F. Vibrations of the vestibular window set up compressional waves int eh perilymph if the cochlea.
C. Both the facial and the glossopharyngeal nerves provide sensory innervation to the tongue.
Taste sensation is mediated by which cranial nerves A. Trigeminal and facial B. Trochlear and abducens C. Facial and glossopharyngeal D. Trigeminal and glossopharyngeal
Astigmatism
The abnormal bending of light that enters the eye. It is caused by an abnormal curve in the lens of the eye. This causes the light entering the eye to bend irregularly.
Dermatome
The area of skin innervated by ll the cutaneous neuron of a given spinal or cranial nerve.
D. In spatial summation, several presynaptic neurons simultaneously release neurotransmitters to a single postsynaptic neuron.
The arrival on a given neuron of a series of impulses from a series of terminal axons, thereupon producing an action potential is an example of A. temporal summation B. divergence C. generation potential D. spatial summation
C. The autonomic nervous system has both sensory and motor components.
The autonomic nervous system is responsible for which functions? A. Motor B. Sensory C. Motor and sensory D. None of the above
D. The infundibulum is a component of the stalk of the pituitary gland.
The basal nuclei form all of the following except A. the putamen B. the caudate nucleus C. the globus pallidus D. the infundibulum
C. the spiral organ
The basic functional unit of hearing is A. the utricle B. the auricle C. the spiral organ D. the semicircular canals
C. The neuron, or nerve fiber, is the basic unit of the nervous system because it is at the neuron level that the activities of the system are carried out.
The basic unit of the nervous system is A. the axon B. the dendrite C. the neuron D. the cell body E. the synapse
A. lipids cannot traverse the blood-brain barrier.
The blood brain barrier restricts passage of A. lipids B. Na C. Cl D. H2O E. lipid-soluble compounds
A. Choroid plexuses are masses of capillary networks that produce cerebrospinal fluid.
The capillary network that develops in the roof of the third and fourth ventricles is called A. the choroid plexus B. the sulcus limitans C. the hyperthalamic plexus D. the cerebral plexus E. the cerebral arterial circle
C. The cell bodies of the preganglionic neurons in the sympathetic division originate int eh lateral horns of the spinal cord gray matter in the thoracolumbar region.
The cell bodies of the preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic division are located within A. the cervical and sacral regions of the spinal cord. B. the white matter of the spinal cord C. the lateral horns of the spinal cord gray matter D. the brain and sacral region.
A. Norepinephrine
The chemical transmitter between sympathetic postganglionic fibers and the effector organs is A. norepinephrine B. acetylcholine C. adrenaline D. epinephrine
B. The mesencephalon, or midbrain, is primarily concerned with hearing (inferior colliculi) and seeing (superior colliculi).
The corpora quadrigemina, composed of the superior and inferior colliculi, is located in A. the telencephalon B. the mesencephalon C. the diencephalon D. the metencephalon E. the constellation Aries
B. The vagus nerve innervates effector organs in the thoracic and abdominal cavities.
The cranial nerve with the greatest distribution is A. the trigeminal nerve B. the vagus nerve C. the abducens nerve D. the accessory nerve
Strabismus
The deviation of one or more eyes. This deviation can be medial or lateral, and can converge or diverge. When one eye deviates medially, it is called convergent. When one eye deviates laterally, it is called divergent. Can be caused by a traumatic injury to the eye and or brain, or it can be inherited.
C. Cholinesterase, or acetylcholinesterase, is the enzyme that chemically breaks down acetylcholine.
The enzyme that destroys acetylcholine is A. adenosine triphosphate B. epinephrine C. cholinesterase D. lipase E. acetylcholinase
A. the membranous bulbular conjunctiva is a thin protective covering over the anterior surface of the eye.
The first structure of the eye contacted by incoming light rays is A. the bulbular conjunctiva B. the cornea C. the anterior chamber D. the iris E. the pupil
A. the auricle
The fleshy outer portion of the ear is referred to as A. the auricle B. the external auditory canal C. the acoustic apparatus D. the otic fold
D. Hyperpolarized membrane is said to be facilitated.
The general depolarization toward threshold of a cell membrane when excitatory synaptic activities predominate is known as A. facultation B. differentiation C. inhibition D. facilitation
D. Nerve cell bodies have a a grayish appearance, whereas myelin sheaths are white.
The gray matter of the brain consists mainly of neuron cell A. axons B. dendrites C. secretions D. bodies
A. the basilar membrane
The hair cells in the spiral organ are supported by A. the basilar membrane B. the vestibule C. the tectorial membrane D. the utricle E. the cochlear plate
D. The thalamus is an autonomic nervous center that responds to intense pain.
The inability of a patient to perceive pain might be due to a tumor or trauma of A. the insular lobe B. the hypothalamus C. the red nucleus D. the thalamus E. the pons
A.
The inability to walk a straight line may indicate damage to which cranial nerve? A. the vestibulocochlear nerve B. the trochlear nerve C. the facial nerve D. the hypoglossal nerve E. the accessory nerve
Meningitis
The inflammation of the protective covering of the brain and spinal cord. Can be caused by either a virus or bacterium, such as Staphyloccocus aureus, Streptococcus pneumoniae, or Neisseria meningitides. SS include fever, sleepiness, HA, neck ache and stiffness, confusion, and vomiting.
A. Negatively charged and contains less sodium.
The interior surface of the membrane of a nonconducting neuron differs from the exterior surface in that the former is A. negatively charged and contains less sodium B. positively charged and contains less sodium C. negatively charged and contains more sodium D. positively charged and contains more sodium
A. neurofibril nodes are the spaces between neurolemmocytes.
The interruption occurring at regular intervals along a myelin-coated axon are A. neurofibril nodes B. synapses C. synaptic clefts D. gaps junctions
lumbar puncture
The introduction of a needle into the lumbar subarachnoid space to collect CSF for analysis, measure CSF pressure, or inject radiopaque dye for a myelogram.
C. The synapse is the junction between two neurons.
The junction between two neurons is called A. a neurospace B. an axon C. a synapse D. a neural junction
C. The reflex center is within the gray matter of the spinal cord.
The knee-jerk reflex in response to a mallet tap over the patellar ligament A. Is a conditioned reflex B. Is a polysynaptic reflex C. Has its reflex center in the spinal cord D. Is mediated by a three-neuron reflex arc.
C. The opthalmic nerve
The lacrimal gland is innervated by A. the facial cranial nerve B. the optic cranial nerve C. the opthalmic nerve D. the oculomotor cranial nerve E. the maxillary nerve
A. The pia mater adheres to the surface of the CNS, actually following the contours of the sulci and gyri.
The meninx in contact with the brain and spinal cord is A. the pia mater B. the dura mater C. the perineural mater D. the arachnoid
C. The mesencephalic aqueduct traverses the midbrain (mesencephalon) connecting the unpaired third and fourth ventricles.
The mesencephalic (cerebral) aqueduct links A. the lateral ventricle B. the lateral ventricle sand the third ventricle C. the third and fourth ventricles D. the lateral ventricle and the fourth ventricle E. the first and second ventricles
A. sweet
The modality of taste that is sensed over the tip of the tongue is A. sweet B. sour C. bitter D. salty
Brain stem
The most inferior portion of the brain and is attached to the spinal cord: 1. Medulla oblongata 2. Pons 3. Midbrain 4. Red nucleus
C. Microglia
The neuroglia that have functions similar to white blood cells are A. oligodendrocytes B. astrocytes C. microglia D. ependymal cells E. lymphocytes
B. Because of the high lipid content of the myelin sheath, it is white in color.
The presence of myelin gives a nerve fiber its A. gray color and degenerative abilities B. white color and increased rate of impulse transmission C. white color and decreased rate of impulse transmission D. gray color and increased rate of impulse transmission
D. The presence of theta waves may even presage a nervous breakdown.
The presence of theta waves in an adult is an indication of A. visual activity B. dreaming C. brain damage D. severe emotional stress E. none of the above
C. Nicotinic receptors are at the ganglia in both ANS divisions.
The receptors for acetylcholine at the ganglia of both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions are A. muscarinic receptors B. blocked by atropine C. nicotinic receptors D. stimulated by isoproterenol
B.
The rectus eye muscle capable of causing the eyeball to turn laterally in a horizontal plane is innervated by which cranial nerve? A. the optic nerve B. the abducens nerve C. the facial nerve D. the oculomotor nerve E. the trochlear nerve
D. The length of the nerve fiber has no bearing on the speed of impulse conduction.
The speed of the nerve impulse is independent of A. the diameter of the nerve fiber B. the physiological condition of the nerve C. the presence of myelin D. The length of the nerve fiber E. the presence of neurolemmocytes
B. Because the spinal cord ends at L1, a spinal tap can be performed below this level without risk of spinal cord puncture.
The spinal cord ends at the level of A. the coccyx B. the first lumbar vertebra C. the sacrum D. the sciatic nerve
C. The order through which sound waves pass through the auditory ossicles in the middle ear chamber , these bones are the malleus (contacting the tympanic membrane), incus (in the middle, and stapes (contacting the vestibular window).
The structure that is in direct contact with the tympanic membrane is A. the stapes B. the incus C. the malleus D. the semicircular canals
A. the degree of tension in the suspensory ligament extending from the ciliary body to the lends capsule determines the shape of the lens.
The suspensory ligament extends from A. the ciliary body to the lens capsule B. the fovea centralis to the optic disc C. the retina to the vitreous humor D. the conjunctiva to the inner surfaces of the eyelids E. the orbit of the sclera of the eye
C. Stimulate bile secretion from the gallbladder.
The sympathetic division of the ANS does not A. Arise from thoracolumbar levels B. Summon energy during an emergency C. Stimulate bile secretion from the gallbladder D. Dilate the bronchial tubes.
B. The conus medullaris is the point of spinal cord termination at the level of L1.
The terminal portion of the spinal cord is known as A. the cordis terminale B. the conus medullaris C. the cauda equina D. the bulbis caudis E. The filum terminale
C. The thalamus, epithalamus, hypothalamus, and pituitary gland are autonomic nervous system centers within the diencephalon.
The thalamus is located in A. the telencephalon B. the mesencephalon C. the diencephalon D. the metencephalon E. the myelencephalon
D. The third and fourth ventricles are unpaired along the midline within the midbrain and hindbrain, respectively.
The third ventricle is located in A. the cerebrum B. the forebrain C. the hindbrain D. the midbrain E. the cerebellum
A. Neurolemmocytes form the myelin sheath in the PNS.
The tightly packed coil of the neurolemmocyte membrane that encircles certain kinds of axons is called A. a myelin sheath B. a neurolemma C. a node D. gray matter
B. Synaptic vesicles located in axon terminals contain neurotransmitter chemicals that include, for example, acetylcholine, norepinephrine, and glycine.
The transmitter substance in the presynaptic neuron is contained in A. the synaptic cleft B. the neuron vesicle C. the synaptic gutter D. the mitochondria
C. The white matter of the CNS consists of tracts that convey sensations from one structure ore region to another.
The white matter of the CNS is always A. deep to the gray matter B. unmyelinated C. arranged into tracts, D. composed of sensory fibers only
B. The white ramus is a branch between a spinal nerve and a chain ganglion.
The white ramus of each spinal nerve has attached to it A. A prevertebral ganglion B. A chain ganglion C. A posterior root ganglion D. The celiac ganglion
Cholinergic receptor stimulants
These include acetylcholine and its mimics-methacholine, carbachol, and bethanecol. Prescribed to stimulate GI tract and urinary bladder postoperatively, lower intraocular pressure in glaucoma, dilate peripheral blood vessels, terminate curarization, treat myasthenia gravis.
Cholinergic receptor antagonist
These include atropine, scopolamine, and dicyclomine (antimuscarinic agents). Prescribed to treat Parkinson's disease, dilate pupil, control motion sickness, treat peptic ulcers and hypermobility of the GI tract, decrease salivary and bronchial secretion (preoperative use of atropine).
Adrenergic receptor stimulants
These include epinephrine, norepinephrine, isoproterenol, ephedrine, and amphetamine. Prescribed to dilate bronchial tubes, treat cardiac arrest, dilate pupils, delay absorption of local anesthetics, and elevate mood of patient.
Adrenergic receptor antagonists
These include phentolamine, phenoxybenzamine, prazosin (alpha blockers); propranolol, timolo, nadolol (beta blockers); lower blood pressure, reduce frequency of anginal episodes, treat heart arrythmias, reduce intraocular pressure in cases of glaucoma (beta blockers).
