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All of these nursing actions are included in the plan of care for a client who has just been extubated. Which action should the RN delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? A. Keep the head of the bed elevated. B. Teach about incentive spirometer use. C. Monitor vital signs every 5 minutes. D. Adjust the nasal oxygen flow rate.

A

The medical-surgical unit nurse should call the Rapid Response Team to assess which of these clients? A. The client with a diagnosed pulmonary embolism who is receiving IV heparin and has bright red hemoptysis B. The client with deep vein thrombosis who is receiving low-molecular weight heparin and has ongoing calf pain C. The client with a right pneumothorax who is being treated with a chest tube and has a pulse oximetry of 94% D. The client who was extubated 3 days ago and has decreased breath sounds at the posterior bases of both lungs

A

The registered nurse is overseeing a nursing student who is administering medications to a group of clients with pulmonary disorders. Under which circumstance does the nurse correct the student? A. "You will receive enoxaparin (Lovenox) through the intravenous line for 3 days." B. "Therapy with warfarin (Coumadin) is effective when your INR is between 2 and 3." C. "Once the physician orders warfarin (Coumadin), we will discontinue the intravenous heparin." D. "If bleeding develops, we will give you aminocaproic acid to reverse the anticoagulant."

A

Which client has a higher risk for developing a pulmonary embolism (PE)? A. 25-year-old woman who frequently flies to different countries B. 67-year-old man who works on a farm C. 45-year-old man admitted for a heart attack D. 23-year-old woman with a bleeding disorder

A

Which intervention for the client in the intensive care unit will decrease the incidence of "ICU psychosis"? A. Decreasing nighttime disruptions B. Keeping the lights on to promote orientation C. Administering sedation D. Providing television or radio for stimulation

A

Which intervention will be most effective in reducing anxiety in the client with a pulmonary embolism (PE)? A. Remain with the client, and provide oxygen in a calm manner. B. Have the client breathe into a brown paper bag using pursed lips. C. Offer the client a mild sedative. Allow a family member to remain in the room

A

The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. For which symptoms should the nurse assess? Select all that apply. a. Chest discomfort or pain b. Tachycardia c. Expectorates thick, yellow sputum d. Sleeps on back without a pillow e. Shortness of breath with exertion

A, B, E: Decreased tissue perfusion may cause chest pain or discomfort. Tachycardia may occur as compensation for or as a result of decreased cardiac output. Dyspnea results as pulmonary venous congestion ensues. C - Incorrect: Thick, yellow sputum is indicative of infection; clients with acute heart failure have dry cough and, when severe, pink, frothy sputum. D - Incorrect: Orthopnea, the inability to lie flat, occurs in clients with heart failure.

What metabolic changes occur as a result of tissue ischemia during the compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock? Select all that apply. 1 Acidosis 2 Alkalosis 3 Hypokalemia 4 Hyperkalemia 5 Vasodilatation

1. Acidosis 4. Hyperkalemia Rationale: In the compensatory (nonprogressive) stage of shock, tissue hypoxia leads to acidosis because of changes in anaerobic metabolism. Hyperkalemia occurs as well from the changes in metabolism. The client is acidotic, not alkalotic. Hypovolemic shock is associated with vasoconstriction, not vasodilation.

Where are the baroreceptors that are responsible for detection of pressure changes within the arterial system located? 1 Aortic arch 2 Radial sinus 3 Brachial arch 4 Femoral sinus

1. Aortic arch Rationale: The baroreceptors responsible for detecting pressure changes in the arterial system are located in aortic arch and carotid sinus. There are no baroreceptors located in radial sinus, brachial arch, and femoral sinus.

A client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of early shock. What is important for the nurse to do to support the psychosocial integrity of the client? Select all that apply. 1 Ask family members to stay with the client. 2 Call the health care provider. 3 Increase IV and oxygen rates. 4 Remain with the client. 5 Reassure the client that everything is being done for him or her.

1. Ask family members to stay with the client. 4. Remain with the client. 5. Reassure the client that everything is being done for him or her. Rationale: Having a familiar person nearby may provide comfort to the client. The nurse should remain with the client who is demonstrating physiologic deterioration. Offering genuine reassurance supports the client who is anxious. The health care provider should be notified, and increasing IV and oxygen may be needed, but these actions do not support the client's psychosocial integrity.

After norepinephrine (Levophed) is administered to a client with hypovolemic shock, which assessment factor is used to verify the effectiveness of the treatment? 1 Blood pressure 2 Urinary output 3 Level of consciousness 4 Blood glucose

1. Blood pressure Rationale: Norepinephrine (Levophed) is a vasoconstrictor drug used in hypovolemic shock to increase perfusion and oxygenation. These drugs constrict the blood vessels and increase venous return. Urine production will not increase until blood pressure rises and perfuses the kidneys. Norepinephrine does not have any effect on a client's level of consciousness or blood glucose levels.

Which are cardiovascular manifestations of hypovolemic shock? Select all that apply. 1 Narrow pulse pressure 2 Postural hypotension 3 Decreased pulse rate 4 Decreased cardiac output 5 Bounding peripheral pulses

1. Narrow pulse pressure 2. Postural hypotension 4. Decreased cardiac output Rationale: In hypovolemic shock, total body fluid is reduced; therefore, the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure (pulse pressure) is decreased. Blood pressure in the body drops also causing postural hypotension. The decrease in blood volume causes a simultaneous decrease in cardiac output. There is a compensatory increase in pulse rate to restore cardiac output in shock. Peripheral pulses become weak in hypovolemic shock.

Which medications are often used to provide adrenal support for the client with severe sepsis? Select all that apply. 1 Penicillin 2 Levofloxacin (Levoquin) 3 Hydrocortisone (Solu-cortef) 4 Fludrocortisone (Florinef) 5 Vancomycin (Vancocin)

3. Hydrocortisone (Solu-cortef) 4. Fludrocortisone (Florinef) Rationale: During severe sepsis, the body's immune response can become self-destructive if not controlled. Drugs that provide adrenal support during severe sepsis are IV hydrocortisone and oral fludrocortisone. IV penicillin, levofloxacin, and vancomycin are antibiotics that help to kill the bacteria causing the sepsis.

Which problem places a client at highest risk for septic shock? 1 Kidney failure 2 Cirrhosis 3 Lung cancer 4 40% burn injury

4. 40% burn injury Rationale: The skin forms the first barrier to prevent entry of organisms into the body; this client is at very high risk for sepsis and death. Although the client with kidney failure has an increased risk for infection, his skin is intact, unlike the client with burn injury. Although the liver acts as a filter for pathogens, the client with cirrhosis has intact skin, unlike the burned client. The client with lung cancer may be at risk for increased secretions and infection, but risk is not as high as for a client with open skin.

The rehabilitation nurse is assisting a client with heart failure to increase activity tolerance. During ambulation of the client, identification of what symptom causes the nurse to stop the client's activity? a. Decrease in oxygen saturation from 98% to 95% b. Respiratory rate change from 22 to 28 breaths/min c. Systolic blood pressure change from 136 to 96 mm Hg d. Increase in heart rate from 86 to 100 beats/min

ANS: C A blood pressure change (increase or decrease) of greater than 20 mm Hg during or after activity indicates poor cardiac tolerance of the activity. A significant decrease (>20%) in blood pressure during or after activity is especially ominous, because it indicates an inability of the left ventricle to maintain sufficient cardiac output.

The nurse admits an older adult client who sustained a left hip fracture and is in considerable pain. The nurse anticipates that the client will be placed in which type of traction? A Balanced skin traction B Buck's traction C Overhead traction D Plaster traction

B Buck's traction Buck's traction may be applied before surgery to help decrease pain associated with muscle spasm. Balanced skin traction is indicated for fracture of the femur or pelvis. Overhead traction is indicated for fracture of the humerus with or without involvement of the shoulder and clavicle. Plaster traction is indicated for wrist fracture.

The nurse recognizes that which medication when given in heart failure may improve morbidity and mortality? a. Dobutamine (Dobutrex) b. Carvedilol (Coreg) c. Digoxin (Lanoxin) d. Bumetamide (Bumex)

B: Beta-adrenergic blockers reverse consequences of sympathetic stimulation and catecholamine release that worsen heart failure; they improve morbidity, mortality, and quality of life. Dobutamine and digoxin are inotropic agents used in acute heart failure; they do not improve mortality. Bumetamide is a high-ceiling diuretic that promotes fluid excretion; it does not improve morbidity and mortality.

An emergency department nurse is caring for a client who is homeless. Which action should the nurse take to gain the client's trust? a. Speak in a quiet and monotone voice. b. Avoid eye contact with the client. c. Listen to the client's concerns and needs. d. Ask security to store the client's belongings.

C To demonstrate behaviors that promote trust with homeless clients, the emergency room nurse should make eye contact (if culturally appropriate), speak calmly, avoid any prejudicial or stereotypical remarks, show genuine care and concern by listening, and follow through on promises. The nurse should also respect the client's belongings and personal space.

A client undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting asks why the surgeon has chosen to use the internal mammary artery for the surgery. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "This way you will not need to have a leg incision." b. "The surgeon prefers this approach because it is easier." c. "These arteries remain open longer." d. "The surgeon has chosen this approach because of your age."

c. "These arteries remain open longer." Mammary arteries remain patent much longer than other grafts. Although no leg incision will be made with this approach, veins from the legs do not remain patent as long as the mammary artery graft does. Long-term patency, not ease of the procedure, is the primary concern. Age is not a determining factor in selection of these grafts.

The nurse is instructing a client with heart failure about energy conservation. Which is the best instruction? a. "Walk until you become short of breath and then walk back home." b. "Gather everything you need for a chore before you begin." c. "Pull rather than push or carry items heavier than 5 pounds." d. "Take a walk after dinner every day to build up your strength."

ANS: B Gathering all supplies needed for a chore at one time decreases the amount of energy needed.

The client with heart failure has been prescribed intravenous nitroglycerin and furosemide (Lasix) for pulmonary edema. Which is the priority nursing intervention? a. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter. b. Monitor the client's blood pressure. c. Place the nitroglycerin under the client's tongue. d. Monitor the client's serum glucose level.

ANS: B Intravenous nitroglycerin and morphine will decrease the client's blood pressure, so it is important to monitor closely for hypotension. Intravenous medications are not administered under the tongue. Although the client may need an indwelling urinary catheter to monitor output, it is not the priority. The client's glucose levels should not be affected by these medications.

The nurse is assessing a client admitted to the cardiac unit. What statement made by the client alerts the nurse to the possibility of right-sided heart failure? a. "I sleep with four pillows at night." b. "My shoes fit really tight lately." c. "I wake up coughing every night." d. "I have trouble catching my breath."

ANS: B Signs of systemic congestion occur with right-sided heart failure. Fluid is retained, pressure builds in the venous system, and peripheral edema develops. Left-sided heart failure symptoms include respiratory symptoms. Orthopnea, coughing, and difficulty breathing all could be results of left-sided heart failure.

A client who has had a prosthetic valve replacement asks the nurse why he must take anticoagulants for the rest of his life. What is the nurse's best response? a. "The prosthetic valve places you at greater risk for a heart attack." b. "Blood clots form more easily in artificial replacement valves." c. "The vein taken from your leg reduces circulation in the leg." d. "The surgery left a lot of small clots in your heart and lungs."

ANS: B Synthetic valve prostheses and scar tissue provide surfaces on which platelets can aggregate easily and initiate the formation of blood clots.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with aortic stenosis. What assessment finding does the nurse expect in this client? a. Bounding arterial pulse b. Slow, faint arterial pulse c. Narrowed pulse pressure d. Elevated systolic pressure

ANS: C In aortic stenosis, the client presents with narrowed pulse pressure when blood pressure (BP) is assessed.

The nurse is starting a client on digoxin (Lanoxin) therapy. What intervention is essential to teach this client? a. "Avoid taking aspirin or aspirin-containing products." b. "Increase your intake of foods high in potassium." c. "Hold this medication if your pulse rate is below 80 beats/min." d. "Do not take this medication within 1 hour of taking an antacid."

ANS: D Gastrointestinal absorption of digoxin is erratic. Many medications, especially antacids, interfere with its absorption. Clients are taught to hold their digoxin for bradycardia; a heart rate of 80 is too high for this cutoff.

A client is taking triamterene-hydrochlorothiazide (Dyazide) and furosemide (Lasix). What assessment finding requires action by the nurse? a. Cough b. Headache c. Pulse of 62 beats/min d. Potassium of 2.9 mEq/L

ANS: D Hypokalemia is a side effect of both thiazide and loop diuretics. The client loses electrolytes with fluid. Coughing is not a typical side effect of this medication. Headache may occur with any medication and is not a serious side effect. Bradycardia is not likely to occur with this medication.

A client with end-stage heart failure is awaiting a transplant. The client appears depressed and states, "I know a transplant is my last chance, but I don't want to become a vegetable." What is the nurse's best response? a. "Would you like to speak with a priest or chaplain?" b. "I will consult a psychiatrist to speak with you." c. "Do you want to come off the transplant list?" d. "Would you like information about advance directives?"

ANS: D The client is verbalizing a real concern or fear about negative outcomes of the surgery. This anxiety itself can have a negative effect on the outcome of the surgery because of sympathetic stimulation. The best action is to allow the client to verbalize the concern and work toward a positive outcome without making the client feel as though he or she is crazy. The client needs to feel that he or she has some control over the future.

Which priority problems may be considered for the client with heart failure? Select all that apply. a. Decreased fluid volume related to compromised regulatory mechanism b. Impaired Physical Mobility related to limited cardiovascular endurance c. Impaired Gas Exchange related to ventilation-perfusion imbalance d. Potential for pulmonary edema e. Risk for Ineffective renal Perfusion related to hypervolemia

B, C, D, E: Owing to intra-alveolar edema and poor cardiac output, the client is fatigued, has limited endurance, and may develop hypoxemia. Owing to limited cardiac reserve, the client is at risk for pulmonary edema. The client with heart failure has poor cardiac output, reduced blood flow to the kidney, and accumulation of pulmonary and peripheral fluid.

2.ID: 4615491959 The nurse refers a client with an amputation and the client's family to which community resource? A. American Amputee Society (AAS) B. Amputee Coalition of America (ACA) C. Community Workers for Amputees (CWA) D. National Amputee of America Society (NAAS)

B. Amputee Coalition of America (ACA) The ACA is an available resource for clients with amputations and supports them and their families. The AAS, CWA, and NAAS do not exist.

The client begins therapy with lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril). What should the nurse consider at the start of therapy with this medication? a. The client's ability to understand medication teaching b. The risk for hypotension c. The potential for bradycardia d. Liver function tests (LFTs)

B: Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are associated with first-dose hypotension and orthostatic hypotension, which are more likely in those older than 75 years. Although desirable, understanding of medication teaching is not essential. ACE inhibitors are vasodilators; they do not affect heart rate. Renal function, not liver function, may be altered by ACE inhibitors.

A client with heart failure has furosemide (Lasix). Which finding would concern the nurse with this new prescription? a. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L b. Serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L c. Serum creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL d. Serum magnesium level of 1.9 mEq/L

B: Clients taking loop diuretics should be monitored for potassium deficiency from diuretic therapy.

Which of these clients is best to assign to an LPN/LVN working on the telemetry unit? a. A client with heart failure who is receiving dobutamine (Dobutrex) b. A client with restrictive cardiomyopathy who uses oxygen for exertional dyspnea c. A client with pericarditis who has a paradoxical pulse and distended jugular veins d. A client with rheumatic fever who has a new systolic murmur

B: This client, who needs oxygen only with exertion, is the most stable; administration of oxygen to a stable client is within the scope of LPN/LVN practice. Option A: This client is receiving an intravenous inotropic agent, which requires monitoring by the professional nurse. Option C: This client is displaying signs of cardiac tamponade and requires immediate life-saving intervention. Option D: A new-onset murmur requires assessment and notification of the provider, which is within the scope of practice of the professional nurse.

While triaging clients in a crowded emergency department, a nurse assesses a client who presents with symptoms of tuberculosis. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula. b. Administer intravenous 0.9% saline solution. c. Transfer the client to a negative-pressure room. d. Obtain a sputum culture and sensitivity.

C A client with signs and symptoms of tuberculosis or other airborne pathogens should be placed in a negative-pressure room to prevent contamination of staff, clients, and family members in the crowded emergency department.

An emergency room nurse assesses a client who has been raped. With which health care team member should the nurse collaborate when planning this client's care? a. Emergency medicine physician b. Case manager c. Forensic nurse examiner d. Psychiatric crisis nurse

C All other members of the health care team listed may be used in the management of this client's care. However, the forensic nurse examiner is educated to obtain client histories and collect evidence dealing with the assault, and can offer the counseling and follow-up needed when dealing with the victim of an assault.

A client has sustained a rotator cuff tear while playing baseball. The nurse anticipates that the client will receive which immediate conservative treatment? A Surgical repair of the rotator cuff B Prescribed exercises of the affected arm C Immobilizer for the affected arm D Patient-controlled analgesia with morphine

C Immobilizer for the affected arm The conservative treatment for this client is to place the injured arm in an immobilizer. Surgical intervention is not considered conservative treatment. Exercises are prohibited immediately after a rotator cuff injury. The client with a rotator cuff injury is treated primarily with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs to manage pain.

An emergency department nurse is caring for a client who has died from a suspected homicide. Which action should the nurse take? a. Remove all tubes and wires in preparation for the medical examiner. b. Limit the number of visitors to minimize the family's trauma. c. Consult the bereavement committee to follow up with the grieving family. d. Communicate the client's death to the family in a simple and concrete manner.

D When dealing with clients and families in crisis, communicate in a simple and concrete manner to minimize confusion. Tubes must remain in place for the medical examiner. Family should be allowed to view the body. Offering to call for additional family support during the crisis is suggested. The bereavement committee should be consulted, but this is not the priority at this time.

A client with a fracture asks the nurse about the difference between a compound fracture and a simple fracture. Which statement by the nurse is correct? A "Simple fracture involves a break in the bone, with skin contusions." B "Compound fracture does not extend through the skin." C "Simple fracture is accompanied by damage to the blood vessels." D "Compound fracture involves a break in the bone, with damage to the skin."

D "Compound fracture involves a break in the bone, with damage to the skin." A compound fracture involves a break in the bone with damage to the skin. A simple fracture does not extend through the skin. A compound fracture is accompanied by damage to blood vessels.

A nurse prepares to discharge an older adult client home from the emergency department (ED). Which actions should the nurse take to prevent future ED visits? (Select all that apply.) a. Provide medical supplies to the family. b. Consult a home health agency. c. Encourage participation in community activities. d. Screen for depression and suicide. e. Complete a functional assessment.

D,E Due to the high rate of suicide among older adults, a nurse should assess all older adults for depression and suicide. The nurse should also screen older adults for functional assessment, cognitive assessment, and risk for falls to prevent future ED visits.

A client is brought to the emergency department via ambulance after a motor vehicle crash. What condition does the nurse assess for first? A. Bleeding B. Head injury C. Pain D. Respiratory distress

D. Respiratory distress The client should first be assessed for respiratory distress, and any oxygen interventions instituted accordingly. Bleeding is the second assessment priority, head injury is the third assessment priority, and pain is the fourth assessment priority in this case.

The nurse is caring for a group of clients who have sustained myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse observes the client with which type of MI most carefully for the development of left ventricular heart failure? a. Inferior wall b. Anterior wall c. Lateral wall d. Posterior wall

b. Anterior wall Due to the large size of the anterior wall, the amount of tissue infarction may be large enough to decrease the force of contraction, leading to heart failure. The client with an inferior wall MI is more likely to develop right ventricular heart failure. Clients with obstruction of the circumflex artery may experience a lateral wall MI and sinus dysrhythmias or a posterior wall MI and sinus dysrhythmias.

The visiting nurse is seeing a client postoperative for coronary artery bypass graft. Which nursing action should be performed first? a. Assess coping skills. b. Assess for postoperative pain at the client's incision site. c. Monitor for dysrhythmias. d. Monitor mental status.

c. Monitor for dysrhythmias. Dysrhythmias are the leading cause of prehospital death; the nurse should monitor the client's heart rhythm. Assessing mental status, coping skills, or postoperative pain is not the priority for this client.

The nurse is caring for a client in phase 1 cardiac rehabilitation. Which activity does the nurse suggest? a. The need to increase activities slowly at home b. Planning and participating in a walking program c. Placing a chair in the shower for independent hygiene d. Consultation with social worker for disability planning

c. Placing a chair in the shower for independent hygiene Phase 1 begins with the acute illness and ends with discharge from the hospital; it focuses on promoting rest and allowing clients to improve their activities of daily living based on their abilities. Phase 2 begins after discharge and continues through convalescence at home, including consultation with a social worker for long-term planning; it consists of achieving and maintaining a vital and productive life while remaining within the limits of the heart's ability to respond to increases in activity and stress. Phase 3 refers to long-term conditioning, such as a walking program.

Which statement by a client scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) indicates a need for further preoperative teaching? a. "I will be awake during this procedure." b. "I will have a balloon in my artery to widen it." c. "I must lie still after the procedure." d. "My angina will be gone for good."

d. "My angina will be gone for good." Reocclusion is possible after PTCA. The client is typically awake, but drowsy, during this procedure. PTCA uses a balloon to widen the artery, and the client will have to lie still after the procedure because of the large-bore venous access. Time is necessary to allow the hole to heal and prevent hemorrhage.

During discharge planning after admission for a myocardial infarction, the client says, "I won't be able to increase my activity level. I live in an apartment, and there is no place to walk." What is the nurse's best response? a. "You are right. Work on your diet then." b. "You must find someplace to walk." c. "Walk around the edge of your apartment complex." d. "Where might you be able to walk?"

d. "Where might you be able to walk?" Asking the client where he or she might be able to walk calls for cooperation and participation from the client; increased activity is imperative for this client. Telling the client to work on diet is an inappropriate response. Telling the client to find someplace to walk is too demanding to be therapeutic. Telling the client to walk around the apartment complex is domineering and will not likely achieve cooperation from the client.

To validate that a client has had a myocardial infarction (MI), the nurse assesses for positive findings on which tests? a. Creatine kinase-MB fraction (CK-MB) and alkaline phosphatase b. Homocysteine and C-reactive protein c. Total cholesterol, low-density lipoprotein cholesterol, and high-density lipoprotein cholesterol d. CK-MB and troponin

d. CK-MB and troponin CK-MB and troponin are the cardiac markers used to determine whether MI has occurred. Alkaline phosphatase is often elevated in liver disease. Homocysteine and C-reactive protein are markers of inflammation, which may represent risk for MI, but they are not diagnostic for MI. Elevated cholesterol levels are risks for MI, but they do not validate that an MI has occurred.

A nurse is field-triaging clients after an industrial accident. Which client condition should the nurse triage with a red tag? a. Dislocated right hip and an open fracture of the right lower leg b. Large contusion to the forehead and a bloody nose c. Closed fracture of the right clavicle and arm numbness d. Multiple fractured ribs and shortness of breath

d. Multiple fractured ribs and shortness of breath Clients who have an immediate threat to life are given the highest priority, are placed in the emergent or class I category, and are given a red triage tag. The client with multiple rib fractures and shortness of breath most likely has developed a pneumothorax, which may be fatal if not treated immediately. The client with the hip and leg problem and the client with the clavicle fracture would be classified as class II; these major but stable injuries can wait 30 minutes to 2 hours for definitive care. The client with facial wounds would be considered the walking wounded and classified as nonurgent.

The nurse is caring for a client 36 hours after coronary artery bypass grafting, with a priority problem of intolerance for activity related to imbalance of myocardial oxygen supply and demand. Which finding causes the nurse to terminate an activity and return the client to bed? a. Pulse 60 beats/min and regular b. Urinary frequency c. Incisional discomfort d. Respiratory rate 28 breaths/min

d. Respiratory rate 28 breaths/min Tachypnea and tachycardia reflect activity intolerance; activity should be terminated. Pulse 60 beats/min and regular is a normal finding. Urinary frequency may indicate infection or diuretic use, but not activity intolerance. Pain with activity after surgery is anticipated; pain medication should be available.

A client who is hospitalized with burns after losing the family home in a fire becomes angry and screams at a nurse when dinner is served late. How should the nurse respond? a. Do you need something for pain right now? b. Please stop yelling. I brought dinner as soon as I could. c. I suggest that you get control of yourself. d. You seem upset. I have time to talk if youd like.

d. You seem upset. I have time to talk if youd like. Clients should be allowed to ventilate their feelings of anger and despair after a catastrophic event. The nurse establishes rapport through active listening and honest communication and by recognizing cues that the client wishes to talk. Asking whether the client is in pain as the first response closes the door to open communication and limits the clients options. Simply telling the client to stop yelling and to gain control does nothing to promote therapeutic communication.

Which are risk factors for hypovolemic shock? Select all that apply. 1 Hemophilia 2 Malnutrition 3 Diuretic therapy 4 Spinal cord injury 5 Myocardial infarction

1. Hemophilia 2. Malnutrition 3. Diuretic therapy Rationale: Specific risk factors for hypovolemic shock include hemophilia, malnutrition, and diuretic therapy. Hypovolemia can be caused by impaired clotting in clients with hemophilia and malnourishment. Excessive diuresis due to diuretic therapy can also cause reduction in blood volume. Clients with spinal cord injury have distributive shock in which the total blood volume is not reduced but fluid shifts from the central vascular space. In clients with myocardial infarction, cardiac function is impaired which causes cardiogenic shock.

The client in shock has the following vital signs: T 99.8° F, P 132, R 32, and BP 80/58. Calculate the pulse pressure and record as a whole number.

22 Rationale: Pulse pressure is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures. 80 (systolic) - 58 (diastolic) = 22 (pulse pressure)

The nurse is instructing a client about infection prevention strategies to reduce the risk of sepsis. Which client response suggests further self-management teaching is needed prior to discharge? 1 "I will avoid crowds and large gatherings until I am better." 2 "I'll make sure the dishwasher is set on hot to wash and dry my dishes." 3 "I won't need help anymore to care for my cats and change the litter box." 4 "I guess I won't work in the garden for a few more months."

3. "I won't need help anymore to care for my cats and change the litter box." Rationale: Protecting clients from infection and sepsis at home through education is an important nursing function. Clients need to understand the importance of good handwashing, balanced diet, rest and exercise, as well as staying away from large crowds and other sources of infection like dirt and animal litter boxes.

When caring for an obtunded client admitted with shock of unknown origin, which action does the nurse take first? 1 Obtain IV access and hang prescribed fluid infusions. 2 Apply the automatic blood pressure cuff. 3 Assess level of consciousness and pupil reaction to light. 4 Check the airway and respiratory status.

4. Check the airway and respiratory status. Rationale: When caring for any client, determining airway and respiratory status is the priority. The airway takes priority over obtaining IV access, applying the blood pressure cuff, and assessing for changes in the client's mental status.

A client with which problem or condition is at highest risk for septic shock? 1 Obese 2 Post-uncomplicated appendectomy 3 Post-myocardial infarction 4 On prednisone (Deltasone) therapy for rheumatoid arthritis

4. On prednisone (Deltasone) therapy for rheumatoid arthritis Rationale: Clients who do not have intact immune systems are at highest risk for sepsis and septic shock including those who have had organ transplants, with HIV/AIDS, kidney or liver disease, the very old, and those with invasive lines and procedures. Prednisone, taken for autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis, suppresses the immune system and prevents further damage to the joints. While obesity, surgery, and hospitalization for MI pose some risk for infection and sepsis, the use of corticosteroid medications is an actual risk for the development of sepsis and septic shock.

Emergency medical technicians arrive at the emergency department with an unresponsive client who has an oxygen mask in place. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assess that the client is breathing adequately. b. Insert a large-bore intravenous line. c. Place the client on a cardiac monitor. d. Assess for the best neurologic response.

A The highest-priority intervention in the primary survey is to establish that the client is breathing adequately. Even though this client has an oxygen mask on, he or she may not be breathing, or may be breathing inadequately with the device in place.

An emergency department (ED) nurse is preparing to transfer a client to the trauma intensive care unit. Which information should the nurse include in the nurse-to-nurse hand-off report? (Select all that apply.) a. Mechanism of injury b. Diagnostic test results c. Immunizations d. List of home medications e. Isolation precautions

A,B,E Hand-off communication should be comprehensive so that the receiving nurse can continue care for the client fluidly. Communication should be concise and should include only the most essential information for a safe transition in care. Hand-off communication should include the client's situation (reason for being in the ED), brief medical history, assessment and diagnostic findings, Transmission-Based Precautions needed, interventions provided, and response to those interventions.

A client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). What is the nurse's priority teaching for this client? a. "Avoid using salt substitutes." b. "Take your medication with food." c. "Avoid using aspirin-containing products." d. "Check your pulse daily."

ANS: A Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors inhibit the excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia can be a life-threatening side effect, and clients should be taught to limit potassium intake. Salt substitutes are composed of potassium chloride.

A client asks the nurse why it is important to be weighed every day if he has right-sided heart failure. What is the nurse's best response? a. "Weight is the best indication that you are gaining or losing fluid." b. "Daily weights will help us make sure that you're eating properly." c. "The hospital requires that all inpatients be weighed daily." d. "You need to lose weight to decrease the incidence of heart failure."

ANS: A Daily weights are needed to document fluid retention or fluid loss. One liter of fluid equals 2.2 pounds.

The nurse is caring for a client with severe heart failure. What is the best position in which to place this client? a. High Fowler's, pillows under arms b. Semi-Fowler's, with legs elevated c. High Fowler's, with legs elevated d. Semi-Fowler's, on the left side

ANS: A Placing the client in high Fowler's position, with pillows under the arms, allows for maximum chest expansion.

The nurse is providing care to a client with infective endocarditis. What infection control precautions does the nurse use? a. Standard Precautions b. Bleeding Precautions c. Reverse isolation d. Contact isolation

ANS: A The client with infective endocarditis does not pose any specific threat of transmitting the causative organism.

The nurse assesses a client and notes the presence of an S3 gallop. What is the nurse's best intervention? a. Assess for symptoms of left-sided heart failure. b. Document this as a normal finding. c. Call the health care provider immediately. d. Transfer the client to the intensive care unit.

ANS: A The presence of an S3 gallop is an early diastolic filling sound indicative of increasing left ventricular pressure and left ventricular failure. The other actions are not warranted.

What typical sign/symptom indicates the early stage of septic shock? 1 Pallor and cool skin 2 Blood pressure 84/50 mm Hg 3 Tachypnea and tachycardia 4 Respiratory acidosis

3. Tachypnea and tachycardia Rationale: Signs of systemic inflammatory response syndrome, which precede sepsis, include rapid respiratory rate, leukocytosis, and tachycardia. In the early stage of septic shock, the client is usually warm and febrile. Hypotension does not develop until later in septic shock due to compensatory mechanisms. Respiratory alkalosis occurs early in shock because of an increased respiratory rate.

Which type of shock is often caused by pulmonary embolism? 1 Hypovolemic shock 2 Cardiogenic shock 3 Distributive shock 4 Obstructive shock

4. Obstructive shock Rationale: Pulmonary embolism can cause obstructive shock by blocking the circulation of blood in the lungs and heart, thus reducing overall cardiac output. Total body fluid is not affected, but central volume is decreased. Hypovolemic shock is characterized by a marked reduction in total blood volume. Cardiogenic shock is caused by failure of the heart to pump blood. Distributive shock is caused by a shift of blood from the vascular spaces to interstitial spaces. Pulmonary embolism does not directly affect total blood volume, myocardial function, or fluid levels in vascular and interstitial spaces.

Which client needs immediate attention by the RN? A. 40-year-old who is receiving continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) and has intermittent wheezing B. 54-year-old who is mechanically ventilated and has tracheal deviation C. 57-year-old who was recently extubated and is reporting a sore throat D. 60-year-old who is receiving O2 by facemask and whose respiratory rate is 24

B

A client has a grade III compound fracture of the right tibia. To prevent infection, which intervention does the nurse implement? A. Apply bacitracin (Neosporin) ointment to the site daily with a sterile cotton swab. B. Use strict aseptic technique when cleaning the site. C. Leave the site open to the air to keep it dry. D. Assist the client to shower daily and pat the wound site dry.

B. Use strict aseptic technique when cleaning the site. Using aseptic technique is the best way to prevent infection. Chlorhexidine (Hibiclens), 2 mg/mL solution, is the better cleansing solution for pin site care, not Neosporin ointment. A wound of this type should be kept covered, not left open to the air. The wound site of a compound fracture must not be exposed to a shower; this practice violates maintaining aseptic technique.

In monitoring the diagnostic test of a client admitted with heart failure (HF), which finding is consistent with this diagnosis? a. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L b. Ejection fraction of 60% c. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) of 760 ng/dL d. Chest x-ray report showing right middle lobe consolidation

C: BNP is produced and released by the ventricles when the client has fluid overload as a result of HF; a normal value is less than 100 pg/mL. Hypokalemia may occur in response to diuretic therapy for heart failure but may also occur with other conditions; it is not specific to heart failure. Consolidation on chest x-ray may indicate pneumonia.

A nurse wants to become part of a Disaster Medical Assistance Team (DMAT) but is concerned about maintaining licensure in several different states. Which statement best addresses these concerns? a. Deployed DMAT providers are federal employees, so their licenses are good in all 50 states. b. The government has a program for quick licensure activation wherever you are deployed. c. During a time of crisis, licensure issues would not be the governments priority concern. d. If you are deployed, you will be issued a temporary license in the state in which you are working.

a. Deployed DMAT providers are federal employees, so their licenses are good in all 50 states. When deployed, DMAT health care providers are acting as agents of the federal government, and so are considered federal employees. Thus their licenses are valid in all 50 states. Licensure is an issue that the government would be concerned with, but no programs for temporary licensure or rapid activation are available.

A nurse is triaging clients in the emergency department (ED). Which client should the nurse prioritize to receive care first? a. A 22-year-old with a painful and swollen right wrist b. A 45-year-old reporting chest pain and diaphoresis c. A 60-year-old reporting difficulty swallowing and nausea d. An 81-year-old with a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min and a temperature of 101° F

B A client experiencing chest pain and diaphoresis would be classified as emergent and would be triaged immediately to a treatment room in the ED. The other clients are more stable.

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving mechanical ventilation and hears the high-pressure alarm. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Check the ventilator alarm settings. B. Assess the set tidal volume. C. Listen to the client's breath sounds. D. Call the respiratory therapist

C

The nurse is caring for a group of clients. Which person does the nurse identify as having the highest risk for pulmonary embolism (PE)? A. A client with diabetes and cellulitis of the leg B. A client receiving IV fluids through a peripheral line C. A client returning from an open reduction and internal fixation of the tibia D. A client with hypokalemia receiving potassium supplements

C

A client with septic shock is to receive dopamine at 18 mcg/kg/min. The client's weight is 154 pounds. How many mcg/min does the nurse administer? Record your answer as a whole number with no punctuation. ___mcg/min

1,260 mcg/min Rationale: First convert pounds to kilograms: 154 lb ÷ 2.2 = 70 kg. Then, 70 kg × 18 mcg/kg/min = 1260 mcg/min

The nurse is administering continuous intravenous infusion of norepinephrine (Levophed) to a client in shock. Which finding causes the nurse to decrease the rate of infusion? 1 Blood pressure 170/96 mm Hg 2 Respiratory rate 22 breaths/min 3 Urine output of 70 mL/hr 4 Heart rate 98 beats/min

1. Blood pressure 170/96 mm Hg Rationale: Signs of excess vasoconstricting drugs include headache, hypertension, and decreased renal perfusion manifested by oliguria. While vasoconstricting medications and the shock state may cause tachycardia (heart rate greater than 100 beats/min), this client's heart rate is within normal range. Vasoconstricting drugs do not affect the respiratory rate; shock itself causes an increased respiratory rate in an effort to deliver more oxygen to the tissues.

A client is admitted to the hospital with two of the systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS) variables: temperature of 95° F (35° C) and high white blood cell count. Which intervention from the sepsis resuscitation bundle does the nurse initiate? 1 Broad-spectrum antibiotics 2 Blood transfusion 3 Cooling baths 4 Nothing by mouth (NPO) status

1. Broad-spectrum antibiotics Rationale: Broad-spectrum antibiotics must be initiated within 1 hour of establishing diagnosis. A blood transfusion is indicated for low red blood cell (RBC) count or low hemoglobin and hematocrit; transfusion is not part of the sepsis resuscitation bundle. Cooling baths are not indicated because the client is hypothermic, nor is this part of the sepsis resuscitation bundle. NPO status is not indicated for this client, nor is it part of the sepsis resuscitation bundle.

How is a client with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) differentiated from a client with sepsis? 1 Client with sepsis has hypotension. 2 Client with sepsis has a negative fluid balance. 3 Client with SIRS has hyperglycemia. 4 Client with SIRS has an elevated creatinine level.

1. Client with sepsis has hypotension. Rationale: The client with sepsis has two or more SIRS criteria and one of the following: hypotension, oliguria, positive fluid balance, decreased capillary refill, hyperglycemia, change in mental status, or increasing creatinine. The SIRS criteria include temperature of >100.4° F or < 96.8° F, pulse >90 beats/min, respiratory rate >20 breaths/min or a Paco2 <32 mm Hg, or white blood cell count of >12,000/mm3 or <4000/mm3.

The nursing assistant is concerned about a postoperative client with blood pressure (BP) of 90/60 mm Hg, heart rate of 80 beats/min, and respirations of 22/min. What does the supervising nurse do? 1 Compare these vital signs with the last several readings. 2 Request the surgeon see the client. 3 Increase the rate of intravenous fluids. 4 Reassess vital signs using different equipment.

1. Compare these vital signs with the last several readings. Rationale: Vital sign trends must be taken into consideration; a BP of 90/60 may be normal for this client. Calling the surgeon is not necessary at this point, and increasing IV fluids is not indicated. The same equipment should be used when vital signs are taken postoperatively.

Which assessment findings are consistent with the nonprogressive (compensatory) phase of shock? Select all that apply. 1 Cool skin 2 Bradycardia 3 Elevated liver function tests 4 Restlessness 5 Tachypnea 6 Anxiety

1. Cool skin 4. Restlessness 5. Tachypnea 6. Anxiety Rationale: Thirst, anxiety, restlessness, tachycardia, and increased respiratory rate (tachypnea) along with oliguria and narrowing pulse pressure appear in the nonprogressive (compensatory) stage of shock. Organ damage manifested by increased liver enzymes or kidney function occur in the progressive or intermediate phase of shock. Tachycardia, rather than bradycardia, occurs in shock states secondary to catecholamines released as compensatory mechanisms.

What are the actions of renin in the maintenance of blood pressure? Select all that apply. 1 Decrease urine output 2 Decrease sodium reabsorption 3 Constrict peripheral blood vessels 4 Stimulate cardiac pump activity 5 Increase blood potassium levels

1. Decrease urine output 3. Constrict peripheral blood vessels Rationale: Renin is produced in the body as a response to low blood pressure. This enzyme helps in maintaining blood pressure by decreasing urine output and constricting peripheral blood vessels. Renin also increases sodium reabsorption in the kidney which causes further retention of water. Renin does not directly affect cardiac function or potassium levels.

Which sign of hypovolemic shock does the nurse instruct the client who had an outpatient surgical procedure to report immediately? 1 Dizziness 2 Lack of appetite 3 Mild pain at the site of the procedure 4 1-cm clear yellow drainage from incision

1. Dizziness Rationale: Dizziness or lightheadedness may indicate hypotension and possible shock. Thirst, rather than anorexia, is a symptom of hypovolemic shock. Mild pain may occur after a surgical procedure, but increases in pain should be reported because this may indicate further bleeding with tissue compression. Obvious bleeding, rather than serous drainage, should be reported to the provider.

The client with which problem is at highest risk for hypovolemic shock? 1 Esophageal varices 2 Kidney failure 3 Arthritis and daily acetaminophen use 4 Kidney stone

1. Esophageal varices Rationale: Esophageal varices are caused by portal hypertension; the portal vessels are under high pressure and are prone to rupture, causing massive upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding and hypovolemic shock. As the kidneys fail, fluid is typically retained, causing fluid volume excess, not hypovolemia. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as naproxen and ibuprofen, not acetaminophen, predispose the client to GI bleeding and hypovolemia. Although a kidney stone may cause hematuria, there is not generally massive blood loss and hypovolemia.

A client has developed hypovolemic shock related to profound ascites and fluid shift. Which laboratory value does the nurse expect to see? 1 Hematocrit 54% 2 Paco2 45 mm Hg 3 Potassium 4.4 mEq/L 4 Lactic acid 2.2 mmol/L

1. Hematocrit 54% Rationale: Shock caused by dehydration or fluid shifts results in increased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels due to hemoconcentration. The Paco2, potassium, and lactic acid values given are within normal limits; they would be increased in the client who is in a shock state.

The client with which lab result is at risk for hemorrhagic shock? 1 International Normalized Ratio (INR) 7.9 2 Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) 12.5 seconds 3 Platelets 170,000/mm3 4 Hemoglobin 8.2 g/dL

1. International Normalized Ratio (INR) 7.9 Rationale: Prolonged INR indicates that blood takes longer than normal to clot; this client is at risk for bleeding. PTT of 12.5 and a platelet value of 170,000/mm3 are both normal and pose no risk for bleeding. Although a hemoglobin of 8.2 g/dL is low, the client could have severe iron deficiency or could have received medication affecting the bone marrow.

A client in hypovolemic shock presents with a normal hematocrit and hemoglobin. What type of fluid should the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider will prescribe to restore oncotic pressure? 1 Plasma 2 Whole blood 3 Ringer's lactate 4 Packed red cells

1. Plasma Rationale: The ideal intervention for restoring osmotic pressure in a client with normal hematocrit and hemoglobin is plasma. Plasma protein fractions and synthetic plasma expanders are used to increase fluid volume. Whole blood is suitable for replacing large blood losses in clients with a decrease in hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. Ringer's lactate does not restore oncotic pressure; it is a crystalloid that restores fluid volume and is used in instances where the client needs volume expansion and correction of acidosis. Packed red cells are chosen for moderate blood losses when the client needs red blood cells without added fluid volume.

A 70-year-old client is admitted after a spider bite to the finger 12 hours ago. Which of these assessment data suggest the client has sepsis? Select all that apply. RR 28/min, temp 101.5, HR 116, BP 92/60, lungs CTA, BG 142, WBC 14,500, Hgb 15g/dL, Na 140, K 4.1, AxO, anxious 1 Respiratory rate 2 Blood pressure 3 Breath sounds 4 Serum glucose 5 Anxiety 6 Serum potassium

1. Respiratory rate 2. Blood pressure 4. Serum glucose Rationale: Clients with sepsis present with a cluster of symptom manifestations in response to a systemic infection. Symptoms consistent with inflammation (tachycardia, tachypnea, temperature, white blood cell change) and additional clinical manifestations (hypotension, decreased urine output, positive fluid balance, decreased capillary refill, hyperglycemia, mental status change, increased serum creatinine) are seen in clients with sepsis.

Which conditions are identified as specific causes of distributive shock? Select all that apply. 1 Sepsis 2 Cardiac tamponade 3 Anaphylaxis 4 Capillary leak 5 Pericarditis

1. Sepsis 3 . Anaphylaxis 4 . Capillary leak Rationale:

A client recovering from an open reduction of the femur suddenly feels lightheaded, with increased anxiety and agitation. Which key vital sign differentiates a pulmonary embolism from early sepsis? 1 Temperature 2 Pulse 3 Respiration 4 Blood pressure

1. Temperature Rationale: A sign of early sepsis is low-grade fever. Both early sepsis and thrombus may cause tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension.

Which vital sign change in a client with hypovolemic shock indicates to the nurse that the fluid resuscitation therapy is effective? 1 Urine output increase from 5 to 35 mL/hr 2 Heart rate increase from 62 to 76 beats/min 3 Respiratory rate increase from 22 to 26 breaths/min 4 Core body temperature decrease from 98.8° F (37.1° C) to 98.2° F (36.8° C)

1. Urine output increase from 5 to 35 mL/hr Rationale: During shock, the kidneys and baroreceptors sense an ongoing decrease in mean arterial pressure and trigger the release of renin, antidiuretic hormone (ADH), aldosterone, epinephrine, and norepinephrine to start kidney compensation, which is very sensitive to changes in fluid volume. Renin, secreted by the kidney, causes decreased urine output. ADH increases water reabsorption in the kidney, further reducing urine output. These actions compensate for shock by attempting to prevent further fluid loss. This response is so sensitive that urine output is a very good indicator of fluid resuscitation adequacy. If the therapy is not effective, urine output does not increase. An increase in respiratory rate, increase in heart rate, and a decrease in core body temperature are not expected findings of successful fluid resuscitation.

A client experiencing shock asks the nurse, "What is going to happen to me?" Which response is best for the nurse to convey? 1 "You seem quite anxious. What do you think will happen?" 2 "We are doing everything appropriate for your condition, and I am monitoring you closely." 3 "The shock condition is taking the blood away from your brain. That is why you are anxious." 4 "Your blood pressure is quite low, which happens when you lose a lot of blood."

2. "We are doing everything appropriate for your condition, and I am monitoring you closely." Rationale: The client in shock should be reassured that appropriate treatment is being carried out. Reflecting the client's anxiety back to him or her at this time is not therapeutic, as the client has asked for information. Providing the physiologic rationale for the client's anxiety is not appropriate at this time, nor does it speak to the client's concerns. There is no indication that the client is losing blood, but in a shock state the blood pressure is low; however, this response does not answer the client's concern as to what will happen.

Which client does the nurse consider to be at highest risk for the development of sepsis? 1 75-year-old man with hypertension and early Alzheimer's disease 2 45-year-old woman 2 days postoperative from bowel surgery for treatment of cancer 3 80-year-old community-dwelling man with no other health problems undergoing cataract surgery 4 54-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus and severe degenerative joint disease of the right knee

2. 45-year-old woman 2 days postoperative from bowel surgery for treatment of cancer Rationale: The 45-year-old woman has several risk factors. First she has cancer which compromises immune function. Bowel surgery is the more significant risk factor for this client, as not only does major surgery further reduce the immune response, but the bowel cannot be "sterilized" for surgery. Therefore the usual bacteria of the bowel have the chance to escape the site and enter the bloodstream when the bowel is disrupted. The 75-year-old client with hypertension and Alzheimer's disease and the 80-year-old undergoing cataract surgery only have age as a risk factor for sepsis. The 54-year-old with type 2 diabetes and degenerative joint disease is at risk for sepsis due to the diabetes, but this client has no other risk factors.

A client with septic shock has been started on dopamine (Intropin) at 12 mcg/kg/min. Which response indicates a positive outcome? 1 Hourly urine output 10-12 mL/hr 2 Blood pressure 90/60 and mean arterial pressure (MAP) 70 3 Blood glucose 245 4 Serum creatinine 3.6 mg/d

2. Blood pressure 90/60 and mean arterial pressure (MAP) 70 Rationale: Dopamine improves blood flow by increasing peripheral resistance, which increases blood pressure—a positive response. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr or 0.5 mL/kg/hr and elevations in serum creatinine indicate poor tissue perfusion to the kidney and is a negative consequence of shock, not a positive response. Although a blood glucose of 245 is an abnormal finding, dopamine increases blood pressure and myocardial contractility, not glucose levels.

Which problem in the clients below best demonstrates the highest risk for hypovolemic shock? 1 Client receiving a blood transfusion 2 Client with severe ascites 3 Client with myocardial infarction 4 Client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion

2. Client with severe ascites Rationale: Fluid shifts from vascular to intraabdominal may cause decreased circulating blood volume and poor tissue perfusion. Volume depletion is only one reason why a person may require a blood transfusion; anemia is another. The client receiving a blood transfusion does not have as high a risk as the client with severe ascites. Myocardial infarction results in tissue necrosis in the heart muscle; no blood or fluid losses occur. Owing to excess ADH secretion, the client with SIADH will retain fluid and therefore is not at risk for hypovolemic shock.

A client admitted with a bleeding duodenal ulcer is NPO and has a nasogastric tube in place connected to low continuous suction. What assessment finding does the nurse report to the provider as a possible indicator of nonprogressive stage of shock? 1 Serum potassium level of 4.7 mEq/L 2 Decrease in mean arterial pressure (MAP) from 76 mm Hg to 62 mm Hg 3 Urine output of 30 mL/hour 4 Increased confusion

2. Decrease in mean arterial pressure (MAP) from 76 mm Hg to 62 mm Hg Rationale: When shock progresses from the initial stage to the nonprogressive stage, symptoms are subtle but present. Once the client enters the progressive and refractory stage of shock, manifestations are more obvious and may not be responsive to therapy. Recognizing early manifestations of shock are important to client outcomes. The nonprogressive stage of shock is present when the MAP decreases by 10-15 mm Hg from baseline, urine output decreases, and heart rate and respiratory rate increase. Confusion and moderate hyperkalemia is observed in the progressive stage of shock. The client's urine output is still within normal limits as may be seen in the initial stage of shock, but urine output will continue to decrease as the shock stages progress.

The nurse plans to administer an antibiotic to a client newly admitted with septic shock. What action does the nurse take first? 1 Administer the antibiotic immediately. 2 Ensure that blood cultures were drawn. 3 Obtain signature for informed consent. 4 Take the client's vital signs.

2. Ensure that blood cultures were drawn. Rationale: Cultures must be taken to identify the organism for more targeted antibiotic treatment before antibiotics are administered. Antibiotics are not administered until after all cultures are taken. A signed consent is not needed for medication administration. Monitoring the client's vital signs is important, but the antibiotic must be administered within 1-3 hours; timing is essential.

Which finding contributes to an acidotic state in a client with septic shock? 1 Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL 2 Lactate level of 9.2 mmol/L 3 Platelet count of 150,000 cells/mm3 4 Peripheral oxygen saturation of 95%

2. Lactate level of 9.2 mmol/L Rationale: Elevated lactate levels occur with anaerobic metabolism consistent with metabolic acidosis. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL is within normal range and does not reflect disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which may be found in clients with septic shock. Platelets are low, but may reflect DIC if they drop further, rather than metabolic acidosis. A pulse oximetry reading of 95% is a normal value and does not support hypoxemia or tissue hypoxia.

Which clinical symptoms in a postoperative client indicate early sepsis with an excellent recovery rate if treated? 1 Localized erythema and edema 2 Low-grade fever and mild hypotension 3 Low oxygen saturation rate and decreased cognition 4 Reduced urinary output and an increased respiratory rate

2. Low-grade fever and mild hypotension Rationale: Low-grade fever and mild hypotension indicate very early sepsis, but with treatment, the probability of recovery is high. Localized erythema and edema indicate local infection. A low oxygen saturation rate and decreased cognition indicate active (not early) sepsis. Reduced urinary output and an increased respiratory rate indicate severe sepsis.

A client who underwent a radical colon resection for metastatic cancer has developed septic shock and remains neurologically unresponsive, unable to breathe without mechanical ventilator support, requires dialysis for renal function, is not tolerating tube feedings, and is beginning to show signs of hepatic failure. What condition does the nurse suspect the client has developed based on these clinical manifestations? 1 Late stage of septic shock 2 Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) 3 Intercerebral hemorrhage 4 Adverse reaction to sedating agents

2. Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) Rationale: Shock that progresses to the refractory stage causes irreversible cell death and tissue damage, releasing toxic metabolites that cause organs to fail. Once the sequence of multiple organs begins to fail because of the buildup of metabolites and toxins, the client's condition is termed multiple organ dysfunction syndrome. MODS involves the presence of altered organ functions in two or more organ systems. In this client, four organs have "failed' with a fifth (the liver) imminent.

Which term best describes the symptoms that occur in the nonprogressive (compensatory) phase of shock? 1 Hypoxemia 2 Oliguria 3 Decreased tissue perfusion 4 Blood loss related to hemorrhage

2. Oliguria Rationale: Compensatory mechanisms in the nonprogressive stage of shock result from increased sympathetic nervous stimulation and release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH); vasoconstriction and water retention to maintain fluid volume occur with oliguria as a result. Problems such as reduction in mean arterial pressure and tissue perfusion, hypoxemia, and acid-base imbalances occur in the compensatory phase, but compensatory mechanisms keep the pulse oximetry reading within 2-5% of baseline. Blood loss may occur in hemorrhagic or hypovolemic shock; this question addresses the overall shock state.

A client in hypovolemic shock has been placed on an infusion of the vasopressor agent norepinephrine (Levophed). Which parameter indicates a desired client response to the therapy? 1 Heart rate change from 112 to 123 beats/min 2 Decreased peripheral pulses 3 Mean arterial pressure change from 66 to 78 mm Hg 4 Urine output remains at 30 mL/hour

3. Mean arterial pressure change from 66 to 78 mm Hg Rationale: If fluid therapy is not effective in increasing blood pressure, vasoconstricting drugs may be added to increase tissue perfusion. When vasoactive agents are administered, the nurse monitors for effectiveness by evaluating improvements in cardiac output and mean arterial pressure. An increase, not decrease, in urine output is a desired response. An increased heart rate is expected due to sympathetic nervous system stimulation of norepinephrine. Decreased peripheral pulses may occur due to vasoconstrictor effects, but it is not a desired response.

A client is scheduled for thoracotomy later today. Which entry noted on the medication reconciliation record poses a risk for perioperative hemorrhagic shock and causes the nurse to contact the provider immediately? 1 Captopril (Catapres) 2 Furosemide (Lasix) 3 Naproxen (Naprosyn) 4 Omeprazole (Prilosec)

3. Naproxen (Naprosyn) Rationale: Naproxen is a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agent that poses a risk for bleeding. Captopril (for hypertension), furosemide (for heart failure), or omeprazole (prevents gastroesophageal reflux disease and gastrointestinal bleeding from stomach ulcers) do not pose risks for bleeding. Anticoagulants, aspirin, and NSAIDs should be questioned.

Which problem places a client at highest risk for sepsis? 1 Pernicious anemia 2 Pericarditis 3 Post-kidney transplant 4 Client owns an iguana

3. Post-kidney transplant Rationale: The post-kidney transplant client will need to take lifelong immune suppressant therapy and is at risk for infection from internal and external organisms. Pernicious anemia is related to lack of vitamin B12, not to bone marrow failure (aplastic anemia), which would place the client at risk for infection. Inflammation of the pericardial sac is an inflammatory condition that does not pose a risk for septic shock. Although owning pets, especially cats and reptiles, poses a risk for infection, the immune-suppressed kidney-transplant client has a very high risk for infection, sepsis, and death.

Which assessment data suggest that antibiotic therapy may be effective in the treatment of a client with sepsis? 1 Serum creatinine increases from 1.2 to 1.8 mg/dL 2 White blood cell count decreases from 15,000 to 13,500/mm3 3 Procalcitonin level decreases from 2.3 to 1.3 µg/L 4 Serum glucose increases from 112 to 146 mg/dL

3. Procalcitonin level decreases from 2.3 to 1.3 µg/L Rationale: No single laboratory test confirms the presence of sepsis. The return of abnormal labs to normal and stabilization of the client's presentation are used to evaluate treatment effectiveness. Procalcitonin is a promising new biomarker used in the evaluation of sepsis treatment. As levels of blood procalcitonin decrease, blood bacterial levels are also decreasing and may suggest that antibiotics are effectively treating the bacterial infection. An increase in serum creatinine clearance does not indicate the effectiveness of treatment for sepsis. A decrease in serum glucose would be expected, not an increase. The slight decrease in white blood cells may not signify the effectiveness of antibiotic therapy.

A client is receiving antineoplastic chemotherapy. Which measure does the nurse teach that will help prevent infection and sepsis? 1 Drink only bottled water. 2 Use disposable dishes. 3 Wash the dishes in the dishwasher. 4 Avoid being in the same room as the family pet.

3. Wash the dishes in the dishwasher. Rationale: Dishes should be washed in hot, soapy water or in a dishwasher to thoroughly cleanse them; there is no need to use disposable tableware. Water that has been standing longer than 15 minutes should be discarded; however, bottled water is not necessary. The client may be in the same room as, as well as touch, the family pet (with the exception of changing a litterbox—this should not be done); however, the client should wash the hands thoroughly with an antimicrobial soap after touching pets.

A client admitted with pneumonia and possible sepsis has a blood pressure of 90/46 mm Hg, heart rate of 128 beats/min, respiratory rate of 28/min, temperature of 38.5° C, no urine output for 4 hours, and central venous pressure of 2 mm Hg. The client arouses to name but is not oriented. Which order does the nurse implement first? 1 Obtain blood cultures. 2 Insert an indwelling urinary catheter. 3 Apply a cooling blanket. 4 Administer 500 mL intravenous colloid bolus over 30 minutes.

4. Administer 500 mL intravenous colloid bolus over 30 minutes. Rationale: A resuscitation bundle is used for the treatment of sepsis. While several interventions are part of a bundle, the nurse prioritizes the interventions based on the assessment of the client. Establishing perfusion is a priority with this client, thus starting the IV fluid bolus should be the first priority in care. Obtaining blood cultures, especially prior to administering antibiotics, is also important along with placing an indwelling urinary catheter to monitor the client's response to fluid therapy. A cooling blanket is not part of the bundle and may not be an appropriate intervention.

A client in the progressive or intermediate stage of hypovolemic shock will exhibit which manifestation? 1 Polyuria 2 Metabolic alkalosis 3 Moist, warm skin 4 Feeling of impending doom

4. Feeling of impending doom Rationale: As shock progresses, tissue perfusion to the brain continues to be reduced, causing a sense of anxiety or that "something bad" is about to happen. Oliguria or anuria occurs in the nonprogressive stage rather than polyuria. A lack of perfusion to the skin results in cool, moist skin rather than warm skin. Due to decreased tissue perfusion, buildup of lactic or metabolic acid occurs; the arterial blood gases reflect metabolic acidosis at this time.

The nurse is preparing to administer a transfusion of packed red blood cells to a client with hemorrhagic shock. Which action is essential before initiating the transfusion? 1 Check the volume of blood in the bag. 2 Monitor the client for dark-colored urine. 3 Measure the client's blood pressure. 4 Initiate 0.9% saline solution infusion.

4. Initiate 0.9% saline solution infusion. Rationale: Isotonic solutions such as Ringer's lactate or normal saline may be used as volume expanders in hypovolemic shock. Red blood cells must be given with 0.9% saline to prevent clotting during infusion. While the volume of the blood in the bag is approximately 250 mL, it may vary; however, this is not essential to validate before initiating the transfusion. The nurse monitors for dark urine when an ABO transfusion reaction is suspected. Vital signs, especially a baseline temperature, are indicated prior to transfusion; a low blood pressure during shock states is expected.

In acute shock, which organ has the capacity to tolerate hypoxia and anoxia for 1 hour without sustaining permanent injury? 1 Liver 2 Heart 3 Brain 4 Kidney

4. Kidney Rationale: The kidney can tolerate hypoxia and anoxia for approximately 1hour without any permanent damage. The liver, heart, and brain use more oxygen and do not have the ability to function normally without adequate oxygen for more than a few minutes.

Which organ is responsible for releasing myocardial depressant factor that leads to heart damage as a result of multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? 1 Liver 2 Brain 3 Kidney 4 Pancreas

4. Pancreas Rationale: Myocardial depressant factor is secreted from the ischemic pancreas and is responsible for causing profound damage to the heart in MODS. The liver, brain, and kidneys, in addition to the heart, are severely damaged but they do not release myocardial depressant factors.

Which vasodilator drug is often helpful in managing hypovolemic shock? 1 Milrinone (Primacor) 2 Dobutamine (Dobutrex) 3 Phenylephrine HCl 4 Sodium nitroprusside (Nitropress)

4. Sodium nitroprusside (Nitropress) Rationale: Sodium nitroprusside dilates the coronary arteries, enhancing myocardial perfusion and improving hypovolemic shock. Milrinone and dobutamine are both inotropic agents that act by increasing the force of heart muscle contractions. Phenylephrine is vasoconstrictor, not a vasodilator.

The nurse is caring for postoperative clients at risk for hypovolemic shock. Which condition represents an early symptom of shock? 1 Hypotension 2 Bradypnea 3 Heart blocks 4 Tachycardia

4. Tachycardia Rationale: Heart and respiratory rates increased from the client's baseline level or a slight increase in diastolic blood pressure may be the only objective manifestation of this early stage of shock. Catecholamine release occurs early in shock as a compensation for fluid loss; blood pressure will be normal. Early in shock, the client displays rapid, not slow, respirations. Dysrhythmias are a late sign of shock; they are related to lack of oxygen to the heart.

Which nurse should be assigned to care for an intubated client who has septic shock as the result of a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection? 1 The LPN/LVN who has 20 years of experience 2 The new RN who recently finished orienting and is working independently with moderately complex clients 3 The RN who will also be caring for a client who had coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) 12 hours ago 4 The RN with 2 years of experience in intensive care

4. The RN with 2 years of experience in intensive care Rationale: The RN with current intensive care experience who is not caring for a postoperative client would be an appropriate assignment. Care of the unstable client with intubation and mechanical ventilation is not within the scope of practice for the LPN/LVN. The client who is experiencing septic shock is too complex for the new RN. Although the RN is experienced, this assignment will put the post-CABG client at risk for MRSA infection.

Why are the clinical signs and symptoms of most types of shock the same, regardless of what condition caused the shock to occur? 1 An increase in heart rate is always the first physiologic adjustment the body makes to all stress states. 2 Because blood loss occurs with all types of shock, the most common first clinical symptom is hypotension. 3 Every type of shock interferes with cellular oxygenation in the same sequence. 4 The sympathetic nervous system is triggered by any type of shock and initiates the stress response.

4. The sympathetic nervous system is triggered by any type of shock and initiates the stress response. Rationale: Most manifestations of shock are similar regardless of what starts the process or which tissues are affected first. These common manifestations result from physiologic adjustments (compensatory mechanisms) in an attempt to ensure continued oxygenation of vital organs. These adjustment actions are performed by the sympathetic nervous system triggering the stress response and activating the endocrine and cardiovascular systems.

A client has sustained a fracture of the left tibia. The extremity is immobilized using an external fixation device. Which postoperative instruction does the nurse include in this client's teaching plan? A "Use pain medication as prescribed to control pain." B "Clean the pin site when any drainage is noticed." C "Wear the same clothing that is normally worn." D "Apply bacitracin (Neosporin) if signs or symptoms of infection develop around pin sites."

A "Use pain medication as prescribed to control pain." The client should be taught the correct use of prescribed pain medication to control pain adequately. Pin sites must be cleaned at least every 8 hours and as needed to reduce the risk for infection, not when any drainage is noticed. The client will have to adjust the type of clothing worn while the fixation device is in place. If signs and symptoms of infection develop around the pin sites, the client must notify the health care provider immediately. Infection at the pin sites places the client at risk for osteomyelitis.

A rock climber has sustained an open fracture of the right tibia after a 20-foot fall. The nurse plans to assess the client for which potential complications? (Select all that apply.) A Acute compartment syndrome (ACS) B Fat embolism syndrome (FES) C Congestive heart failure D Urinary tract infection (UTI) E Osteomyelitis

A Acute compartment syndrome (ACS) B Fat embolism syndrome (FES) E Osteomyelitis ACS is a serious condition in which increased pressure within one or more compartments reduces circulation to the area. A fat embolus is a serious complication in which fat globules are released from yellow bone marrow into the bloodstream within 12 to 48 hours after the injury. FES usually results from long bone fracture or fracture repair, but is occasionally seen in clients who have received a total joint replacement. Bone infection, or osteomyelitis, is most common in open fractures. Congestive heart failure is not a potential complication for this client; pulmonary embolism is a potential complication of venous thromboembolism, which can occur with fracture. The client is at risk for wound infection resulting from orthopedic trauma, not a UTI.

A client's left arm is placed in a plaster cast. Which assessment does the nurse perform before the client is discharged? A Assess that the cast is dry. B Ensure that the client has 4 × 4 gauze to take home for placement between the cast and the skin. C Check the fit of the cast by inserting a tongue blade between the cast and the skin. D Ensure that the capillary refill of the left fingernail beds is longer than 3 seconds.

A Assess that the cast is dry. The cast must be dry and free of cracking and crumbling before the client is discharged. The client should not place anything between the cast and the skin. In assessing fit, one finger should easily fit between the cast and the skin. Capillary refill longer than 3 seconds indicates impairment of the circulation in the extremity and requires the health care provider's immediate attention.

A client with a compound fracture of the left femur is admitted to the emergency department after a motorcycle crash. Which action is most essential for the nurse to take first? A Check the dorsalis pedis pulses. B Immobilize the left leg with a splint. C Administer the prescribed analgesic. D Place a dressing on the affected area.

A Check the dorsalis pedis pulses. The first action should be to assess the circulatory status of the leg because the client is at risk for acute compartment syndrome, which can begin as early as 6 to 8 hours after an injury. Severe tissue damage can also occur if neurovascular status is compromised. Immobilization will be needed, but the nurse must assess the client's condition first. Administering an analgesic and placing a dressing on the affected area should both be done after the nurse has assessed the client.

A client has undergone an elective below-the-knee amputation of the right leg as a result of severe peripheral vascular disease. In postoperative care teaching, the nurse instructs the client to notify the health care provider if which change occurs? A Observation of a large amount of serosanguineous or bloody drainage B Mild to moderate pain controlled with prescribed analgesics C Absence of erythema and tenderness at the surgical site D Ability to flex and extend the right knee

A Observation of a large amount of serosanguineous or bloody drainage A large amount of serosanguineous or bloody drainage may indicate hemorrhage or, if an incision is present, that the incision has opened. This requires immediate attention. Mild to moderate pain controlled with prescribed analgesics would be a normal finding for this client. Absence of erythema and tenderness of the surgical site would also be normal findings for this client. The client should be able to flex and extend the right knee (limb) after surgery.

The nurse anticipates providing collaborative care for a client with a traumatic amputation of the right hand with which health care team members? (Select all that apply.) A Occupational therapist Correct B Physical therapist Correct C Psychologist Correct D Respiratory therapist E Speech therapist

A Occupational therapist B Physical therapist C Psychologist An occupational therapist and a physical therapist will help to enable the client to become more independent in performing activities of daily living. An amputation can be traumatic to the client; loss of a body part should not be underestimated because the client may experience an altered self-concept, so counseling support with a psychologist should be made available to the client. The client does not have a respiratory condition that warrants collaborative care with a respiratory therapist. A speech therapist is not indicated because the client does not have speech impairment.

Emergency medical services (EMS) brings a large number of clients to the emergency department following a mass casualty incident. The nurse identifies the clients with which injuries with yellow tags? (Select all that apply.) a. Partial-thickness burns covering both legs b. Open fractures of both legs with absent pedal pulses c. Neck injury and numbness of both legs d. Small pieces of shrapnel embedded in both eyes e. Head injury and difficult to arouse f. Bruising and pain in the right lower abdomen

A, C, D, F Clients with burns, spine injuries, eye injuries, and stable abdominal injuries should be treated within 30 minutes to 2 hours, and therefore should be identified with yellow tags. The client with the open fractures and the client with the head injury would be classified as urgent with red tags.

A nurse triages clients arriving at the hospital after a mass casualty. Which clients are correctly classified? (Select all that apply.) a. A 35-year-old female with severe chest pain: red tag b. A 42-year-old male with full-thickness body burns: green tag c. A 55-year-old female with a scalp laceration: black tag d. A 60-year-old male with an open fracture with distal pulses: yellow tag e. An 88-year-old male with shortness of breath and chest bruises: green tag

A, D Red-tagged clients need immediate care due to life-threatening injuries. A client with severe chest pain would receive a red tag. Yellow-tagged clients have major injuries that should be treated within 30 minutes to 2 hours. A client with an open fracture with distal pulses would receive a yellow tag. The client with fullthickness body burns would receive a black tag. The client with a scalp laceration would receive a green tag, and the client with shortness of breath would receive a red tag.

The nurse is caring for an 82-year-old client admitted for exacerbation of heart failure. The nurse questions the client about the use of which medication because it raises an index of suspicion as to the cause of heart failure? a. Ibuprofen (Motrin) b. Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) c. NPH Insulin d. Levothyroxine (Synthroid)

A: Long-term use of NSAIDs, such as ibuprofen (Motrin), causes fluid and sodium retention. A diuretic may be used in the treatment of heart failure and hypertension. Although diabetes may be a risk factor for cardiovascular disease, it does not directly cause heart failure. In proper doses, Synthroid replaces thyroid hormone for those with hypothyroidism; it does not cause heart failure.

The complex care provided during an emergency requires interdisciplinary collaboration. Which interdisciplinary team members are paired with the correct responsibilities? (Select all that apply.) a. Psychiatric crisis nurse - Interacts with clients and families when sudden illness, serious injury, or death of a loved one may cause a crisis b. Forensic nurse examiner - Performs rapid assessments to ensure clients with the highest acuity receive the quickest evaluation, treatment, and prioritization of resources c. Triage nurse - Provides basic life support interventions such as oxygen, basic wound care, splinting, spinal immobilization, and monitoring of vital signs d. Emergency medical technician - Obtains client histories, collects evidence, and offers counseling and follow-up care for victims of rape, child abuse, and domestic violence e. Paramedic - Provides prehospital advanced life support, including cardiac monitoring, advanced airway management, and medication administration

A,E The psychiatric crisis nurse evaluates clients with emotional behaviors or mental illness and facilitates follow-up treatment plans. The psychiatric crisis nurse also works with clients and families when experiencing a crisis. Paramedics are advanced life support providers who can perform advanced techniques that may include cardiac monitoring, advanced airway management and intubation, establishing IV access, and administering drugs en route to the emergency department. The forensic nurse examiner is trained to recognize evidence of abuse and to intervene on the client's behalf. The forensic nurse examiner will obtain client histories, collect evidence, and offer counseling and follow-up care for victims of rape, child abuse, and domestic violence. The triage nurse performs rapid assessments to ensure clients with the highest acuity receive the quickest evaluation, treatment, and prioritization of resources. The emergency medical technician is usually the first caregiver and provides basic life support and transportation to the emergency department.

An older adult client has had an open reduction and internal fixation of a fractured right hip. Which intervention does the nurse implement for this client? A. Keep the client's heels off the bed at all times. B. Re-position the client every 3 to 4 hours. C. Administer preventive pain medication before deep-breathing exercises. D. Prohibit the use of antiembolic stockings.

A. Keep the client's heels off the bed at all times. Because the client is an older adult and is more at risk for skin breakdown because of impaired circulation and sensation, the client's heels must be kept off the bed at all times to avoid constant pressure on this sensitive area. Re-positioning the older adult client must be done every 2 hours, not every 3 to 4 hours, to prevent skin breakdown and to inspect the skin for any signs of breakdown. Pain medication would not be administered for deep-breathing exercises because this client typically would not experience pain upon breathing. Antiembolic stockings are not contraindicated for older adults; rather, they help prevent deep vein thrombosis.

Which intervention does the nurse suggest to a client with a leg amputation to help cope with loss of the limb? A. Talking with an amputee close to the client's age who has had the same type of amputation B Drawing a picture of how the client sees him- or herself C Talking with a psychiatrist about the amputation D Engaging in diversional activities to avoid focusing on the amputation

A. Talking with an amputee close to the client's age who has had the same type of amputation Meeting with someone of a comparable age who has gone through a similar experience will help the client cope better with his or her own situation. Drawing a picture is not therapeutic and may cause more harm than good. Unless the client is having serious maladjustment problems or has a coexisting psychological disorder, meeting with a psychiatrist should not be necessary. Diversional activities do not help the client deal with loss of the limb.

The nurse is providing discharge teaching to the client with heart failure, focusing on when to seek medical attention. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I will call the provider if I have a cough lasting 3 or more days." b. "I will report to the provider weight loss of 2 to 3 pounds in a day." c. "I will try walking for 1 hour each day." d. "I should expect occasional chest pain."

A: Cough, a symptom of heart failure, is indicative of intra-alveolar edema; the provider should be notified. The client should call the provider for weight gain of 3 pounds in a week. The client should begin by walking 200 to 400 feet per day. Chest pain is indicative of myocardial ischemia and worsening of heart failure; the provider should be notified.

The nurse caring for a client discusses the importance of restricting sodium in the diet. Which statement made by the client indicates that he needs further teaching? a. "I should avoid grilling hamburgers." b. "I must cut out bacon and canned foods." c. "I shouldn't put the salt shaker on the table anymore." d. "I should avoid lunch meats but may cook my own turkey."

A: Cutting out beef or hamburgers made at home is not necessary; however, fast food hamburgers are to be avoided owing to higher sodium content. Bacon and canned foods are high in sodium, which promotes fluid retention; these are to be avoided. This client does not need further teaching. The client should avoid adding salt to food; he does not need further teaching. This client understands that all lunch meats and processed foods are high in sodium and are to be avoided.

A client with heart failure is due to receive enalapril (Vasotec) and has a blood pressure of 98/50 mm Hg. What is the nurse's best action? a. Administer the Vasotec. b. Recheck the blood pressure. c. Hold the Vasotec. d. Notify the health care provider.

ANS: A The nurse should administer the medication. Generally, the health care provider will maintain the client's blood pressure between 90 and 110 mm Hg.

After receiving change-of-shift report about these four clients, which client should the nurse assess first? a. The 46-year-old with aortic stenosis who takes digoxin (Lanoxin) and has new-onset, frequent premature ventricular complexes b. The 55-year-old admitted with pulmonary edema who received furosemide (Lasix) and whose current O2 saturation is 94% c. The 68-year-old with pericarditis who is reporting sharp, stabbing chest pain when taking deep breaths d. The 79-year-old admitted for possible rejection of a heart transplant who has sinus tachycardia, rate 104

A: This client's premature ventricular complexes may be indicative of digoxin toxicity. Further assessment for clinical manifestations of digoxin toxicity should be done and the physician notified about the dysrhythmia. Option B: This client is stable. Option C: This type of pain is expected in pericarditis. Option D: Tachycardia is expected in this client because rejection will cause signs of decreased cardiac output, including tachycardia.

The nurse is caring for a group of clients. Which clients should be monitored closely for respiratory failure? Select all that apply. A. Client with a brainstem tumor B. Client with acute pancreatitis C. Client with a T3 spinal cord injury D. Client using patient-controlled analgesia E. Client experiencing cocaine intoxication

ABD

The nurse is assessing a client with possible pulmonary embolism. For which symptoms should the nurse assess? Select all that apply. A. Dizziness and fainting B. Shortness of breath (SOB) worsening over the last 2 weeks C. Inspiratory chest pain D. Productive cough E. Pink, frothy sputum

AC

The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. What conditions does the nurse assess for? (Select all that apply.) a. Pulmonary crackles b. Confusion, restlessness c. Pulmonary hypertension d. Dependent edema e. S3/S4 summation gallop f. Cough worsens at night

ANS: A, B, E, F Left-sided failure occurs with a decrease in contractility of the heart or an increase in afterload. Most of the signs will be noted in the respiratory system. Right-sided failure occurs with problems from the pulmonary vasculature onward. Signs will be noted before the right atrium or ventricle.

The nurse is evaluating the laboratory results for a client with heart failure. What results does the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Hematocrit (Hct), 32.8% b. Serum sodium, 130 mEq/L c. Serum potassium, 4.0 mEq/L d. Serum creatinine, 1.0 mg/dL e. Proteinuria f. Microalbuminuria

ANS: A, B, E, F The hematocrit is low (should be 42.6%), indicating a dilutional ratio of red blood cells (RBCs) to fluid. The serum sodium is low because of hemodilution. Microalbuminuria and proteinuria are present, indicating a decrease in renal filtration. This is an early warning sign of decreased compliance of the heart.

The nurse is assessing clients on a cardiac unit. Which client does the nurse assess most carefully for developing left-sided heart failure? a. Middle-aged woman with aortic stenosis b. Middle-aged man with pulmonary hypertension c. Older woman who smokes cigarettes daily d. Older man who has had a myocardial infarction

ANS: A Although most people with heart failure will have failure that progresses from left to right, it is possible to have left-sided failure alone for a short period. It is also possible to have heart failure that progresses from right to left. Causes of left ventricular failure include mitral or aortic valve disease, coronary artery disease (CAD), and hypertension.

A client has been admitted to the acute care unit for an exacerbation of heart failure. Which is the nurse's priority intervention? a. Assess respiratory status. b. Monitor electrolyte levels. c. Administer intravenous fluids. d. Insert a Foley catheter.

ANS: A Assessment of respiratory and oxygenation status is the priority nursing intervention for the prevention of complications. Monitoring electrolytes and inserting a catheter are important but do not take priority over assessing respiratory status. The client needs IV access, but fluids may need to be administered judiciously.

An older adult client with heart failure states, "I don't know what to do. I don't want to be a burden to my daughter, but I can't do it alone. Maybe I should die." What is the nurse's best response? a. "Would you like to talk about this more?" b. "You're lucky to have such a devoted daughter." c. "You must feel as though you are a burden." d. "Would you like an antidepressant medication?"

ANS: A Depression can occur in clients with heart failure, especially older adults. Having the client talk about his or her feelings will help the nurse focus on the actual problem. Open-ended statements allow the client to respond safely and honestly.

An older adult client is admitted with fluid volume excess. Which diagnostic study does the nurse facilitate as a priority? a. Echocardiography b. Chest x-ray c. T4 and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) d. Arterial blood gas

ANS: A Echocardiography is considered the best tool for the diagnosis of heart failure. A chest x-ray probably will be done, and if the client has dyspnea, an arterial blood gas will be drawn, but the echocardiogram is the priority. T4 and TSH might be ordered to assess for a contributing cause of heart failure.

The nurse is concerned that an older adult client with heart failure is developing pulmonary edema. What manifestation alerts the nurse to further assess the client for this complication? a. Confusion b. Dysphagia c. Sacral edema d. Irregular heart rate

ANS: A Impending pulmonary edema is characterized by a change in mental status, disorientation, and confusion, along with dyspnea and increasing fluid levels in the lungs. Dysphagia, sacral edema, and an irregular heart rate are not related to pulmonary edema.

A client in severe heart failure has a heparin drip infusing. The health care provider prescribes nesiritide (Natrecor) to be given intravenously. Which intervention is essential before administration of this medication? a. Insert a separate IV access. b. Prepare a test bolus dose. c. Prepare the piggyback line. d. Administer furosemide (Lasix) first.

ANS: A Natrecor should be given through a separate IV access because it is incompatible with many medications, especially heparin. A test bolus is not needed, nor is Lasix. Because the medication should be given through a separate IV, it is not necessary to prepare a piggyback line.

A client with heart failure is experiencing acute shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority action? a. Place the client in a high Fowler's position. b. Perform nasotracheal suctioning of the client. c. Auscultate the client's heart and lung sounds. d. Place the client on a 1000 mL fluid restriction.

ANS: A Placing a client in a high Fowler's position, especially with pillows under each arm, can maximize chest expansion and improve oxygenation. The nurse next should auscultate the client's heart and lungs. The client may or may not need fluid restriction to help manage heart failure, and suctioning is not needed.

A client with a history of myocardial infarction calls the clinic to report the onset of a cough that is troublesome only at night. What direction does the nurse give to the client? a. "Please come into the clinic for an evaluation." b. "Increase your fluid intake during waking hours." c. "Use an over-the-counter cough suppressant." d. "Sleep on two pillows to facilitate postnasal drainage."

ANS: A The client with a history of myocardial infarction is at risk for developing heart failure. The onset of nocturnal cough is an early manifestation of heart failure, and the client needs to be evaluated as soon as possible.

The nurse is administering captopril (Capoten) to a client with heart failure. What is the priority intervention for this client? a. Administer this medication before meals to aid absorption. b. Instruct the client to ask for assistance when arising from bed. c. Give the medication with milk to prevent stomach upset. d. Monitor the potassium level and check for symptoms of hypokalemia.

ANS: B Administration of the first dose of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors is often associated with hypotension, usually termed first-dose effect. The nurse should instruct the client to seek assistance before arising from bed to prevent injury from postural hypotension.

The nurse is discharging a client home following mitral valve replacement. What statement indicates that the client requires further education? a. "I will be able to carry heavy loads after 6 months of rest." b. "I will have my teeth cleaned by the dentist in 2 weeks." c. "I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K, like spinach." d. "I will use an electric razor instead of a straight razor to shave."

ANS: B Clients who have defective or repaired valves are at high risk for endocarditis. The client who has had valve surgery should avoid dental procedures for 6 months because of the risk for endocarditis. When undergoing any invasive procedure, the client needs to be placed on prophylactic antibiotics.

The nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart failure. What priority question assists the nurse to assess the client's activity level? a. "Do you have trouble breathing or chest pain?" b. "Are you able to walk upstairs without fatigue?" c. "Do you awake with breathlessness during the night?" d. "Do you have new-onset heaviness in your legs?"

ANS: B Clients with a history of heart failure generally have negative findings, such as shortness of breath. The nurse needs to determine whether the client's activity is the same or worse, or whether the client identifies a decrease in activity level.

The nurse is caring for a client with mitral valve stenosis. What clinical manifestation alerts the nurse to the possibility that the client's stenosis has progressed? a. Oxygen saturation of 92% b. Dyspnea on exertion c. Muted systolic murmur d. Upper extremity weakness

ANS: B Dyspnea on exertion develops as the mitral valvular orifice narrows and pressure in the lungs increases.

A client with systolic dysfunction has an ejection fraction of 38%. The nurse assesses for which physiologic change? a. Increase in stroke volume b. Decrease in tissue perfusion c. Increase in oxygen saturation d. Decrease in arterial vasoconstriction

ANS: B In systolic dysfunction, the ventricle is unable to contract with enough force to eject blood effectively during systole. As the ejection fraction decreases (50% to 70% is normal), tissue perfusion decreases and the client develops activity intolerance. Stroke volume and oxygen saturation do not increase with a low ejection fraction.

The nurse notes that the client's apical pulse is displaced to the left. What conclusion can be drawn from this assessment? a. This is a normal finding. b. The heart is hypertrophied. c. The left ventricle is contracted. d. The client has pulsus alternans.

ANS: B The client with heart failure typically has an enlarged heart that displaces the apical pulse to the left.

A client with pericarditis is admitted to the cardiac unit. What assessment finding does the nurse expect in this client? a. Heart rate that speeds up and slows down b. Friction rub at the left lower sternal border c. Presence of a regularly gallop rhythm d. Coarse crackles in bilateral lung bases

ANS: B The client with pericarditis may present with a pericardial friction rub at the left lower sternal border. This sound is the result of friction from inflamed pericardial layers when they rub together. The other assessments are not relate

A client is being discharged home after a heart transplant with a prescription for cyclosporine (Sandimmune). What priority education does the nurse provide with the client's discharge instructions? a. "Use a soft-bristled toothbrush and avoid flossing." b. "Avoid large crowds and people who are sick." c. "Change positions slowly to avoid hypotension." d. "Check your heart rate before taking the medication."

ANS: B These agents cause immune suppression, leaving the client more vulnerable to infection.

The nurse reminds the client who has received a heart transplant to change positions slowly. Why is this instruction a priority? a. Rapid position changes can create shear and friction forces, which can tear out internal vascular sutures. b. The new vascular connections are more sensitive to position changes, leading to increased intravascular pressure. c. The new heart is denervated and is unable to respond to decreases in blood pressure caused by position changes. d. The recovering heart diverts blood flow away from the brain when the client stands, increasing the risk for stroke.

ANS: C Because the new heart is denervated, the baroreceptor and other mechanisms that compensate for blood pressure drops caused by position changes do not function. This allows orthostatic hypotension to persist in the postoperative period.

The nurse is assessing a client in an outpatient clinic. Which client statement alerts the nurse to possible left-sided heart failure? a. "I have been drinking more water than usual." b. "I have been awakened by the need to urinate at night." c. "I have to stop halfway up the stairs to catch my breath." d. "I have experienced blurred vision on several occasions."

ANS: C Clients with left-sided heart failure report weakness or fatigue while performing normal activities of daily living, as well as difficulty breathing, or "catching their breath." This occurs as fluid moves into the alveoli. Nocturia is often seen with right-sided heart failure. Thirst and blurred vision are not related to heart failure.

A client is admitted with early-stage heart failure. Which assessment finding does the nurse expect? a. A decrease in blood pressure and urine output b. An increase in creatinine and extremity edema c. An increase in heart rate and respiratory rate d. A decrease in respirations and oxygen saturation

ANS: C In heart failure, stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system represents the most immediate response. Adrenergic receptor stimulation causes an increase in heart rate and respiratory rate. Blood pressure will remain the same or will elevate slightly. Changes in creatinine occur when kidney damage has occurred, which is a later manifestation. Other later manifestations may include edema, increased respiratory rate, and lowered oxygen saturation readings.

The nurse is providing discharge education to a client with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM). What priority instruction will the nurse include? a. "Take your digoxin at the same time every day." b. "You should begin an aerobic exercise program." c. "You should report episodes of dizziness or fainting." d. "You may have only two alcoholic drinks daily."

ANS: C The client with HCM is instructed to notify the health care provider if episodes of fainting, dizziness, or palpitations occur because these may signal the onset of deadly dysrhythmias. Clients with HCM are instructed to avoid strenuous exercise and alcohol. Cardiac glycosides are contraindicated in obstructive HCM.

A client with a history of heart failure is being discharged. Which priority instruction will assist the client in the prevention of complications associated with heart failure? a. "Avoid drinking more than 3 quarts of liquids each day." b. "Eat six small meals daily instead of three larger meals." c. "When you feel short of breath, take an additional diuretic." d. "Weigh yourself daily while wearing the same amount of clothing."

ANS: D Clients with heart failure are instructed to weigh themselves daily to detect worsening heart failure early, and thus avoid complications. Other signs of worsening heart failure include increasing dyspnea, exercise intolerance, cold symptoms, and nocturia.

A client has been admitted to the intensive care unit with worsening pulmonary manifestations of heart failure. What is the nurse's best action? a. Place the client in a high Fowler's position. b. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). c. Promote rest and minimize activities. d. Administer loop diuretics as prescribed.

ANS: D The client with worsening heart failure is most at risk for pulmonary edema as a consequence of fluid retention. Administering diuretics will decrease the fluid overload, thereby decreasing the incidence of pulmonary edema. High Fowler's position might help the client breathe easier but will not solve the problem. CPR is not warranted in this situation. Rest is important for clients with heart failure, but this is not the priority.

The nurse is obtaining the admission health history for a young adult who presents with fever, dyspnea, and a murmur. What priority data does the nurse inquire about? a. Family history of coronary artery disease b. Recent travel to Third World countries c. Pet ownership, especially cats with litter boxes d. History of a systemic infection within the past month

ANS: D The clinical manifestations suggest infective endocarditis, which can occur within 2 to 4 weeks after a systemic infection or bacteremia. Assessing for coronary artery disease, recent travel, or pet ownership is not related to endocarditis.

The client who just started taking isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil) reports a headache. What is the nurse's best action? a. Titrate oxygen to relieve headache. b. Hold the next dose of Isordil. c. Instruct the client to drink water. d. Administer PRN acetaminophen.

ANS: D The vasodilating effects of this drug frequently cause clients to have headaches during the initial period of therapy. Clients should be told about this side effect and encouraged to take the medication with food. Some clients obtain relief with mild analgesics, such as acetaminophen.

The client has been admitted for a pulmonary embolism and is receiving heparin infusion. What safety priority does the nurse include in the plan of care? A. Teach the client to avoid using dental floss. B. Monitor the platelet count daily. C. Ensure adequate staffing for the unit. D. Notify radiology of an impending scan.

B

The nurse is assessing a client who is receiving mechanical ventilation with positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). Which findings would cause the nurse to suspect a left-sided tension pneumothorax? A. Chest caves in on inspiration and "puffs out" on expiration. B. Trachea is deviated to the right side and cyanosis is present. C. The left lung field is dull to percussion with crackles present on auscultation. D. Client has bloody sputum and wheezes.

B

The nurse is caring for a client with impending respiratory failure who refuses intubation and mechanical ventilation. Which method provides an alternative to mechanical ventilation? A. Oropharyngeal airway B. Bi-level positive airway pressure (BiPAP) C. Non-rebreathing mask with 100% oxygen D. Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)

B

The nurse is caring for a group of clients. The client with which condition is in greatest need of immediate intubation? A. Difficulty swallowing oral secretions B. Hypoventilation and decreased breath sounds C. O2 saturation of 90% D. Thick, purulent secretions and crackles

B

The ventilated client in the intensive care unit begins to pick at the bedcovers. Which action should the nurse take next? A. Increase the sedation, B. Assess for adequate oxygenation, C. Explain to the client that he has a tube in his throat to help him breathe, D. Request that the family leave to decrease the client's agitation,

B

When caring for a client with pulmonary embolism, which blood gas result does the nurse anticipate early in the course of the disease? A. pH 7.24, PCO2 55, HCO 26, PO2 56 B. pH 7.46, PCO2 30, HCO 26, PO2 68 C. pH 7.35, PCO2 45, HCO 24, PO2 80 D. pH 7.47, PCO2 35, HCO 30, PO2 75

B

The emergency department team is performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation on a client when the client's spouse arrives at the emergency department. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Request that the client's spouse sit in the waiting room. b. Ask the spouse if he wishes to be present during the resuscitation. c. Suggest that the spouse begin to pray for the client. d. Refer the client's spouse to the hospital's crisis team.

B If resuscitation efforts are still under way when the family arrives, one or two family members may be given the opportunity to be present during lifesaving procedures. The other options do not give the spouse the opportunity to be present for the client or to begin to have closure.

A nurse is evaluating levels and functions of trauma centers. Which function is appropriately paired with the level of the trauma center? a. Level I - Located within remote areas and provides advanced life support within resource capabilities b. Level II - Located within community hospitals and provides care to most injured clients c. Level III - Located in rural communities and provides only basic care to clients d. Level IV - Located in large teaching hospitals and provides a full continuum of trauma care for all clients

B Level I trauma centers are usually located in large teaching hospital systems and provide a full continuum of trauma care for all clients. Both Level II and Level III facilities are usually located in community hospitals. These trauma centers provide care for most clients and transport to Level I centers when client needs exceed resource capabilities. Level IV trauma centers are usually located in rural and remote areas. These centers provide basic care, stabilization, and advanced life support while transfer arrangements to higher-level trauma centers are made.

A trauma client with multiple open wounds is brought to the emergency department in cardiac arrest. Which action should the nurse take prior to providing advanced cardiac life support? a. Contact the on-call orthopedic surgeon. b. Don personal protective equipment. c. Notify the Rapid Response Team. d. Obtain a complete history from the paramedic.

B Nurses must recognize and plan for a high risk of contamination with blood and body fluids when engaging in trauma resuscitation. Standard Precautions should be taken in all resuscitation situations and at other times when exposure to blood and body fluids is likely. Proper attire consists of an impervious cover gown, gloves, eye protection, a facemask, a surgical cap, and shoe covers.

Which statement indicates to the nursing instructor that the nursing student understands the normal healing process of bone after a fracture? A "A callus is quickly deposited and transformed into bone." B "A hematoma forms at the site of the fracture." C "Calcium and vascular proliferation surround the fracture site." D "Granulation tissue reabsorbs the hematoma and deposits new bone."

B "A hematoma forms at the site of the fracture." In stage 1, within 24 to 72 hours after a fracture, a hematoma forms at the site of the fracture because bone is extremely vascular. This then prompts the formation of fibrocartilage, providing the foundation for bone healing. Stage 2 of bone healing occurs within 3 days to 2 weeks after the fracture, when granulation tissue begins to invade the hematoma. Stage 3 of bone healing occurs as a result of vascular and cellular proliferation. In stage 4 of a healing fracture, callus is gradually reabsorbed and transformed into bone.

The client has sustained a traumatic amputation of the left arm after a machine accident. In what order should the following nursing actions be taken? 1. Apply direct pressure to the amputated site. 2. Elevate the extremity above the client's heart. 3. Assess the client for breathing problems. 4. Examine the amputation site. A 2, 4, 3, 1 B 3, 4, 1, 2 C 1, 4, 3, 2 D 4, 1, 2, 3

B 3, 4, 1, 2 First, the airway must be assessed for breathing problems. Second, the nurse should examine the amputation site. Third, the nurse should apply direct pressure to the amputated site. Finally, the extremity should be elevated above the client's heart to decrease bleeding.

Which information about a client who was admitted with pelvic and bilateral femoral fractures after being crushed by a tractor is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? A Thighs have multiple oozing abrasions. B Serum potassium level is 7 mEq/L. C The client is describing pain as level 4 (0-to-10 scale). D Hemoglobin level is 12.0 g/dL.

B Serum potassium level is 7 mEq/L. The elevated potassium level may indicate that the client has rhabdomyolysis and acute tubular necrosis caused by the crush injury. Further assessment and treatment are needed immediately to prevent further kidney damage or cardiac dysrhythmias. Thighs having multiple oozing abrasions with a pain level of 4 are not unusual for a client with this type of injury. A hemoglobin level of 12.0 g/dL is a normal finding.

The nurse caring for the client with heart failure is concerned that digoxin toxicity has developed. For which signs and symptoms of digoxin toxicity does the nurse notify the provider? Select all that apply. a. Hypokalemia b. Sinus bradycardia c. Fatigue d. Serum digoxin level of 1.5 e. Anorexia

B, C, E: Digoxin toxicity may be manifested by bradycardia, fatigue, and/or anorexia. A - Incorrect: Hypokalemia causes increased sensitivity to the drug and toxicity, but it is not a symptom of toxicity. D - Incorrect: This represents a therapeutic value that is between 0.8 and 2.0.

A hospital prepares for a mass casualty event. Which functions are correctly paired with the personnel role? (Select all that apply.) a. Paramedic Decides the number, acuity, and resource needs of clients b. Hospital incident commander Assumes overall leadership for implementing the emergency plan c. Public information officer Provides advanced life support during transportation to the hospital d. Triage officer Rapidly evaluates each client to determine priorities for treatment e. Medical command physician Serves as a liaison between the health care facility and the media

B, D The hospital incident commander assumes overall leadership for implementing the emergency plan. The triage officer rapidly evaluates each client to determine priorities for treatment. The paramedic provides advanced life support during transportation to the hospital. The public information officer serves as a liaison between the health care facility and the media. The medical command physician decides the number, acuity, and resource needs of clients.

A hospital prepares to receive large numbers of casualties from a community disaster. Which clients should the nurse identify as appropriate for discharge or transfer to another facility? (Select all that apply.) a. Older adult in the medical decision unit for evaluation of chest pain b. Client who had open reduction and internal fixation of a femur fracture 3 days ago c. Client admitted last night with community-acquired pneumonia d. Infant who has a fever of unknown origin e. Client on the medical unit for wound care

B, E The client with the femur fracture could be transferred to a rehabilitation facility, and the client on the medical unit for wound care should be transferred home with home health or to a long-term care facility for ongoing wound care. The client in the medical decision unit should be identified for dismissal if diagnostic testing reveals a noncardiac source of chest pain. The newly admitted client with pneumonia would not be a good choice because culture results are not yet available and antibiotics have not been administered long enough. The infant does not have a definitive diagnosis.

A nurse is caring for clients in a busy emergency department. Which actions should the nurse take to ensure client and staff safety? (Select all that apply.) a. Leave the stretcher in the lowest position with rails down so that the client can access the bathroom. b. Use two identifiers before each intervention and before mediation administration. c. Attempt de-escalation strategies for clients who demonstrate aggressive behaviors. d. Search the belongings of clients with altered mental status to gain essential medical information. e. Isolate clients who have immune suppression disorders to prevent hospital-acquired infections.

B,C,D To ensure client and staff safety, nurses should use two identifiers per The Joint Commission's National Patient Safety Goals; follow the hospital's security plan, including de-escalation strategies for people who demonstrate aggressive or violent tendencies; and search belongings to identify essential medical information. Nurses should also use standard fall prevention interventions, including leaving stretchers in the lowest position with rails up, and isolating clients who present with signs and symptoms of contagious infectious disorders.

An emergency room nurse is caring for a trauma client. Which interventions should the nurse perform during the primary survey? (Select all that apply.) a. Foley catheterization b. Needle decompression c. Initiating IV fluids d. Splinting open fractures e. Endotracheal intubation f. Removing wet clothing g. Laceration repair

B,C,E,F The primary survey for a trauma client organizes the approach to the client so that life-threatening injuries are rapidly identified and managed. The primary survey is based on the standard mnemonic ABC, with an added D and E: Airway and cervical spine control; Breathing; Circulation; Disability; and Exposure. After the completion of primary diagnostic and laboratory studies, and the insertion of gastric and urinary tubes, the secondary survey (a complete head-to-toe assessment) can be carried out.

The home health nurse visits a client with heart failure who has gained 5 pounds in the past 3 days. The client states, "I feel so tired and short of breath." Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assess the client for peripheral edema. b. Listen to the client's posterior breath sounds. c. Notify the physician about the client's weight gain. d. Remind the client about dietary sodium restrictions.

B: Because the client is at risk for pulmonary edema and hypoxemia, the first action should be to assess breath sounds. Assessment of edema may be delayed while the nurse focuses on breathing and breath sounds. After a full assessment, the nurse should notify the physician. Defer this action until physiologic stability is attained; then ask the client about behaviors that may have caused the weight gain, such as increased sodium intake or changes in medications.

How does the nurse in the cardiac clinic recognize that the client with heart failure has demonstrated a positive outcome related to the addition of metoprolol (Lopressor) to the medication regimen? a. Ejection fraction is 25%. b. Client states that she is able to sleep on one pillow. c. Client was hospitalized five times last year with pulmonary edema. d. Client reports that she experiences palpitations.

B: Improvement in activity tolerance, less orthopnea, and improved symptoms represent a positive response to beta blockers. An ejection fraction of 25% is well below the normal ejection fraction of 50% to 70% and indicates poor cardiac output. Repeated hospitalization for acute exacerbation of left-sided heart failure does not demonstrate a positive outcome. Although metoprolol decreases the heart rate, palpitations are defined as the feeling of the heart beating fast in the chest; this is not a positive outcome.

The client who has been admitted for the third time this year for cardiac failure says, "This isn't worth it anymore. I just want it all to end." What is the nurse's best response? a. Calls the family to lift the client's spirits b. Considers further assessment for depression c. Sedates the client to decrease myocardial oxygen demand d. Tells the client that things will get better

B: This client is at risk for depression because of the diagnosis of heart failure, and further assessment should be done. Calling the family to help distract the client does not address the core issue. Sedation is inappropriate in this situation because it ignores the client's feelings. Telling the client that things will get better may give the client false hope and ignores his feelings.

The nurse coming on shift prepares to perform an initial assessment of the sedated ventilated client. Which are priorities for the nurse to carry out? Select all that apply. A. Ask visitors to leave. B. Assess the client's color and respirations. C. Confirm alarms and ventilator settings. D. Ensure that the tube cuff is inflated and is in the proper position. E. Listen for bilateral chest sounds. F. Provide routine tracheotomy and endotracheotomy and mouth care.

BCDE

The client, a college athlete who has collapsed during soccer practice, has been diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. The client says, "This can't be. I am in great shape. I eat right and exercise." What is the nurse's best response? a. "How does this make you feel?" b. "This can be caused by taking performance-enhancing drugs." c. "This may be caused by a genetic trait." d. "Just imagine how bad it would be if you weren't in good shape."

C: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is often transmitted as a single-gene autosomal dominant trait.

The nurse is caring for a group of critically ill clients. Which client has the greatest risk for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? A. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) B. A client with atrial fibrillation C. A client with aspiration pneumonia D. A client with acute renal failure

C

The nurse is developing the plan of care for the client with pulmonary embolism (PE). Which client problem does the nurse establish as the priority? A. Inadequate nutrition related to food-drug interactions and anticoagulant therapy B. Potential for infection related to leukocytosis C. Hypoxemia related to ventilation-perfusion mismatch Insufficient knowledge related to the cause of pulmonary

C

The nurse is teaching the family of a client who is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which statement reflects appropriate information that the nurse should communicate? A. Sedation is needed so your loved one does not rip the breathing tube out. B. Suctioning is important to remove organisms from the lower airway. C. Paralysis and sedatives help decrease the demand for oxygen. D. We are encouraging oral and intravenous fluids to keep your loved one hydrated.

C

A nurse is triaging clients in the emergency department. Which client should the nurse classify as "nonurgent?" a. A 44-year-old with chest pain and diaphoresis b. A 50-year-old with chest trauma and absent breath sounds c. A 62-year-old with a simple fracture of the left arm d. A 79-year-old with a temperature of 104° F

C A client in a nonurgent category can tolerate waiting several hours for health care services without a significant risk of clinical deterioration. The client with a simple arm fracture and palpable radial pulses is currently stable, is not at significant risk of clinical deterioration, and would be considered nonurgent. The client with chest pain and diaphoresis and the client with chest trauma are emergent owing to the potential for clinical deterioration and would be seen immediately. The client with a high fever may be stable now but also has a risk of deterioration.

A nurse is triaging clients in the emergency department. Which client should be considered "urgent"? a. A 20-year-old female with a chest stab wound and tachycardia b. A 45-year-old homeless man with a skin rash and sore throat c. A 75-year-old female with a cough and a temperature of 102° F d. A 50-year-old male with new-onset confusion and slurred speech

C A client with a cough and a temperature of 102° F is urgent. This client is at risk for deterioration and needs to be seen quickly, but is not in an immediately life-threatening situation. The client with a chest stab wound and tachycardia and the client with new-onset confusion and slurred speech should be triaged as emergent. The client with a skin rash and a sore throat is not at risk for deterioration and would be triaged as nonurgent.

An emergency department (ED) case manager is consulted for a client who is homeless. Which intervention should the case manager provide? a. Communicate client needs and restrictions to support staff. b. Prescribe low-cost antibiotics to treat community-acquired infection. c. Provide referrals to subsidized community-based health clinics. d. Offer counseling for substance abuse and mental health disorders.

C Case management interventions include facilitating referrals to primary care providers who are accepting new clients or to subsidized community-based health clinics for clients or families in need of routine services. The ED nurse is accountable for communicating pertinent staff considerations, client needs, and restrictions to support staff (e.g., physical limitations, isolation precautions) to ensure that ongoing client and staff safety issues are addressed. The ED physician prescribes medications and treatments. The psychiatric nurse team evaluates clients with emotional behaviors or mental illness and facilitates the follow-up treatment plan, including possible admission to an appropriate psychiatric facility.

An emergency room nurse is triaging victims of a multi-casualty event. Which client should receive care first? a. A 30-year-old distraught mother holding her crying child b. A 65-year-old conscious male with a head laceration c. A 26-year-old male who has pale, cool, clammy skin d. A 48-year-old with a simple fracture of the lower leg

C The client with pale, cool, clammy skin is in shock and needs immediate medical attention. The mother does not have injuries and so would be the lowest priority. The other two people need medical attention soon, but not at the expense of a person in shock.

A client is in skeletal traction. Which nursing intervention ensures proper care of this client? A Ensure that weights are attached to the bed frame or placed on the floor. B Ensure that pins are not loose, and tighten as needed. C Inspect the skin at least every 8 hours. D Remove the traction weights only for bathing.

C Inspect the skin at least every 8 hours. The client's skin should be inspected every 8 hours for signs of irritation, inflammation, or actual skin breakdown. Weights are not allowed to be placed on the floor; weights should hang freely at all times. Pin sites should be checked for signs and symptoms of infection and for security in their position to the fixation and the client's extremity. However, the nurse does not adjust the pins. Any loose pin site or alteration must be reported to the health care provider. Weights must never be removed without a request from the health care provider.

The nurse is instructing a local community group about ways to reduce the risk for musculoskeletal injury. What information does the nurse include in the teaching plan? A. "Avoid contact sports." B. "Avoid rigorous exercise." C. "Wear helmets when riding a motorcycle." D. "Avoid driving in inclement weather."

C. "Wear helmets when riding a motorcycle." Those who ride motorcycles or bicycles should wear helmets to prevent head injury. Telling the general public to avoid contact sports or to avoid driving in inclement weather is not realistic. Telling the general public to avoid rigorous exercise is not only unrealistic, it is also opposed to what many health care professionals recommend to maintain health.

Which of these nursing actions should the nurse delegate to a nursing assistant working on the medical unit? a. Determine the usual alcohol intake for a client with cardiomyopathy. b. Monitor the pain level for a client with acute pericarditis. c. Obtain daily weights for several clients with class IV heart failure. d. Check for peripheral edema in a client with endocarditis.

C: Daily weight assessment is included in the role of the nursing assistant, who will report the weights to the RN. The role of the professional nurse is to perform assessments; do not delegate this activity.

Which intervention will best assist the client with acute pulmonary edema in reducing anxiety and dyspnea? a. Monitor pulse oximetry and cardiac rate and rhythm. b. Reassure the client that his distress can be relieved with proper intervention. c. Place the client in high Fowler's position with the legs down. d. Ask a family member to remain with the client.

C: High Fowler's position and placing the legs in a dependent position will decrease venous return to the heart, thus decreasing pulmonary venous congestion. Monitoring of vital signs will detect abnormalities but will not prevent them. Option B may help to alleviate anxiety, but dyspnea and anxiety result from hypoxemia secondary to intra-alveolar edema, which must be relieved. Option D may help to alleviate anxiety, but dyspnea and anxiety result from hypoxemia secondary to intra-alveolar edema, which must be relieved.

Which nursing intervention for a client admitted today with heart failure will assist the client to conserve energy? a. Client ambulates around the nursing unit with a walker. b. The nurse monitors the client's pulse and blood pressure frequently. c. The nurse obtains a bedside commode before administering furosemide. d. The nurse returns the client to bed when he becomes tachycardic.

C: Limiting the need for ambulation on the first day of admission to sitting in a chair or performing basic leg exercises promotes physical rest and reduced oxygen demand. On the day of admission, the client is experiencing dyspnea, fatigue, and weakness; this activity will increase oxygen demand. Monitoring of vital signs will alert the nurse to increased energy expenditures but will not prevent them. Waiting until tachycardia occurs permits increased oxygen demand; the nurse should prevent this situation.

When caring for a client who has undergone a partial left ventriculectomy, which of these new-onset clinical manifestations indicates the need for immediate action by the nurse? a. Chest pain with movement b. Fatigue after ambulation c. Muffled heart sounds d. Bi-basilar fine crackles

C: Muffled heart sounds may be a clinical manifestation of bleeding into the pericardial space; the nurse should assess the client for possible decreased cardiac output and should notify the surgeon. Surgery will result in pain with mobility; pain should be treated but not until physiologic stability is ensured. This procedure was performed for heart failure; this client has had surgery as well and will need some time to recover his energy. Although the nurse should strive to prevent atelectasis or dependent crackles, this common after chest surgery. This client should be gotten out of bed and shown how to use an incentive spirometer.

The nurse is assessing the client with a cardiac infection. Which symptoms support the diagnosis of infective endocarditis instead of pericarditis or rheumatic carditis? a. Friction rub auscultated at the left lower sternal border b. Pain aggravated by breathing, coughing, and swallowing c. Splinter hemorrhages d. Thickening of the endocardium

C: Splinter hemorrhages are indicative of infective endocarditis. Friction rub in the left lower sternal border is a sign of chronic constrictive pericarditis. Pain aggravated by breathing, coughing, and swallowing is indicative of signs and symptoms of chronic constrictive pericarditis. Thickening of the endocardium is indicative of rheumatic carditis.

The nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client with acute heart failure who is experiencing severe dyspnea, pink, frothy sputum, and crackles throughout the lung fields. Which prescription should the nurse carry out first? a. Enalapril b. Heparin c. Furosemide d. I & O

C: The client is displaying typical signs of acute pulmonary edema, secondary to fluid-filled alveoli and pulmonary congestion; a diuretic will promote fluid loss. Although enalapril will promote vasodilation and decrease cardiac workload, the client is demonstrating signs of acute pulmonary edema secondary to intra-alveolar fluid. Heparin will prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) secondary to immobility but will not reduce fluid excess. Although all clients with congestive heart failure (CHF) should have I & O maintained, this is not a priority; removing fluid volume and treating dyspnea are matters of priority.

When following up in the clinic with a client with heart failure, how does the nurse recognize that the client has been compliant with fluid restrictions? a. Auscultation of crackles b. Pedal edema c. Weight loss of 6 pounds since the last visit d. Reports sucking on ice chips all day for dry mouth

C: Weight loss in this client indicates effective fluid restriction and diuretic drug therapy. Lung crackles indicate intra-alveolar edema and fluid excess. Pedal edema indicates fluid excess. This indicates noncompliance with fluid restrictions; alternative methods of treating dry mouth should be explored.

The nurse is caring for a client who was discharged 3 weeks ago after a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE). He is currently admitted with gastrointestinal bleeding and an international normalized ratio (INR) of 6.9. For which of the following should the nurse assess this client? A. Consumption of green leafy vegetables B. Prolonged exhalation C. Client has massaged his calves. D. Use of aspirin or salicylates

D

The nurse prepares to perform a neurovascular assessment on a client with closed multiple fractures of the right humerus. Which technique does the nurse use? A Inspect the abdomen for tenderness and bowel sounds. B Auscultate lung sounds. C Assess the level of consciousness and ability to follow commands. D Assess sensation of the right upper extremity.

D Assess sensation of the right upper extremity. Assessing sensation of the right upper extremity is part of a focused neurovascular assessment for the client with multiple fractures of the right humerus. Inspecting the abdomen and auscultating lung sounds of the client with multiple fractures are not part of a focused neurovascular assessment. Because the client does not have a head injury, assessing the client's level of consciousness and ability to follow commands is not part of a focused neurovascular assessment.

An older adult client has multiple tibia and fibula fractures of the left lower extremity after a motor vehicle crash. Which pain medication does the nurse anticipate will be requested for this client? A Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) B Ibuprofen (Advil) C Meperidine (Demerol) D Patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) with morphine

D Patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) with morphine Morphine is an opioid narcotic analgesic; given through PCA, it is the most appropriate mode of pain management for this type of acute pain associated with multiple injuries. Muscle relaxants such as cyclobenzaprine are effective for treating pain related to muscle spasms, but they are not adequate for this type of acute pain. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that is used to treat mild to moderate pain; bone pain is very acute, so ibuprofen would not be sufficient. Meperidine should never be used for older adults because it has toxic metabolites that can cause seizures.

A client is recovering from an above-the-knee amputation resulting from peripheral vascular disease. Which statement indicates that the client is coping well after the procedure? A. "My spouse will be the only person to change my dressing." B. "I can't believe that this has happened to me. I can't stand to look at it." C. "I do not want any visitors while I'm in the hospital." D. "It will take me some time to get used to this.

D. "It will take me some time to get used to this. Acknowledging that it will take time to get used to the amputation indicates that the client is expressing acceptance and effective coping. Stating that the spouse will change the dressing indicates the client does not want to participate in self-care. Expressing disbelief and disgust over the amputation indicates the client is unwilling to address what has happened. The client who does not want to receive visitors is having difficulty coping with the change in body image.

1.ID: 4615491966 Which nursing action does the nurse on the orthopedic unit plan to delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? A. Remove the wound drain for a client who had an open reduction of a hip fracture 3 days ago. B. Assess for bruising on a client who is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to prevent deep vein thrombosis. C. Teach a client with a right ankle fracture how to use crutches when transferring and ambulating. D. Check the vital signs for a client who was admitted after a total knee replacement 3 hours ago.

D. Check the vital signs for a client who was admitted after a total knee replacement 3 hours ago. Correct Vital sign assessment is a skill that is within the role of the UAP. Removing a wound drain, assessment, and client teaching are nursing actions that require broader education and are within the scope of practice of licensed nursing staff.

Although the client with cardiac failure is asymptomatic, the nurse suspects noncompliance with prescribed home therapy. Which laboratory test confirms the nurse's suspicions? a. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) 90 pg/mL b. Serum electrolytes c. Hemoglobin and hematocrit d. Digoxin level of 0.2 ng/dL

D: A therapeutic digoxin level is 0.8 to 2.0 ng/dL. A level of 0.2 ng/dL indicates that the client has not been taking his digoxin as prescribed. A BNP test is a cardiac failure diagnostic tool but is not the best indicator of decreased compliance. Electrolytes are not an early indicator of decreased cardiac compliance. Hemoglobin and hematocrit are not early indicators of decreased cardiac compliance.

The nurse prepares to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure and notes the following information: Temperature: 99.8 Pulse: 48 and irregular Respirations: 20 Potassium level: 3.2 mEq/L What action does the nurse take? a. Give digoxin; reassess the heart rate in 30 minutes. b. Give the digoxin; document assessment findings in the medical record. c. Hold the digoxin, and obtain a prescription for an additional dose of furosemide. d. Hold the digoxin, and obtain a prescription for a potassium supplement.

D: Digoxin causes bradycardia; hypokalemia potentiates digitalis. The nurse seeks to correct this situation through collaboration with the provider. Digoxin causes bradycardia, so should be held. Digoxin is given to treat heart failure and atrial fibrillation, an irregular heart rate. Regardless of mental status, the drug should be held. Hypokalemia potentiates digitalis toxicity. Lasix decreases circulating blood volume and depletes potassium; no indication suggests that the client has fluid excess at this time.

The nurse is caring for the client with congestive heart failure (CHF) in the coronary care unit (CCU). The client is now exhibiting signs of air hunger and anxiety. Which nursing intervention does the nurse perform first for this client? a. Determines the client's physical limitations b. Encourages alternate rest and activity periods c. Monitors and documents heart rate, rhythm, and pulses d. Positions the client to alleviate dyspnea

D: Positioning the client to alleviate dyspnea will help ease air hunger and anxiety. Determining the client's physical limitations and encouraging alternate rest and activity periods are not priorities in this situation. Monitoring of heart rate, rhythm, and pulses is important but is not the priority for this client.

A client admitted for heart failure has a priority problem of Excess Fluid Volume related to compromised regulatory mechanisms. Which of these assessment data obtained the day after admission is the best indicator that the treatment has been effective? a. The client has a diuresis of 400 mL in 24 hours. b. The client's blood pressure is 122/84 mm Hg. c. The client has an apical pulse of 82 beats/min. d. The client's weight decreases by 2.5 kg.

D: The best indicator of fluid volume loss is daily weight; because each kilogram represents approximately 1 L, this client has lost approximately 2500 mL of fluid. Option A: This volume of urine represents oliguria, not the needed response of diuresis. Option B: Although this is a normal finding, alone it is not significant for relief of fluid volume excess. Option C: Although this is a normal finding, alone it is not significant to determine whether fluid excess is relieved.

A client has just returned from coronary artery bypass graft surgery. For which finding does the nurse contact the surgeon? a. Temperature 98.2° F b. Chest tube drainage 175 mL last hour c. Serum potassium 3.9 mEq/L d. Incisional pain 6 on a scale of 0 to 10

b. Chest tube drainage 175 mL last hour Some bleeding is expected after surgery; however, the nurse should report chest drainage over 150 mL/hr to the surgeon. Although hypothermia is a common problem after surgery, a temperature of 98.2° F is a normal finding. Serum potassium of 3.9 mEq/L is a normal finding. Incisional pain of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10 is expected immediately after major surgery; the nurse should administer prescribed analgesics.

A client with unstable angina has received education about acute coronary syndrome. Which statement indicates that the client has understood the teaching? a. "This is a big warning; I must modify my lifestyle or risk having a heart attack in the next year." b. "Angina is just a temporary interruption of blood flow to my heart." c. "I need to tell my wife I've had a heart attack." d. "Because this was temporary, I will not need to take any medications for my heart."

a. "This is a big warning; I must modify my lifestyle or risk having a heart attack in the next year." Among people who have unstable angina, 10% to 30% have a myocardial infarction within 1 year. Although anginal pain is temporary, it reflects underlying coronary artery disease (CAD), which requires attention, including lifestyle modifications. Unstable angina reflects tissue ischemia, but infarction represents tissue necrosis. Clients with underlying CAD may need medications such as aspirin, lipid-lowering agents, anti-anginals, or antihypertensives.

When planning care for a client in the emergency department, which interventions are needed in the acute phase of myocardial infarction? (Select all that apply.) a. Morphine sulfate b. Oxygen c. Nitroglycerin d. Naloxone e. Acetaminophen f. Verapamil (Calan, Isoptin)

a. Morphine sulfate b. Oxygen c. Nitroglycerin Morphine is needed to reduce oxygen demand, preload, pain, and anxiety, and nitroglycerin is used to reduce preload and chest pain. Administering oxygen will increase available oxygen for the ischemic myocardium. Naloxone is a narcotic antagonist that is used for overdosage of opiates, not for MI. Acetaminophen may be used for headache related to nitroglycerin. Because of negative inotropic action, calcium channel blockers such as verapamil are used for angina, not for MI.

A family in the emergency department is overwhelmed at the loss of several family members due to a shooting incident in the community. Which intervention should the nurse complete first? a. Provide a calm location for the family to cope and discuss needs. b. Call the hospital chaplain to stay with the family and pray for the deceased. c. Do not allow visiting of the victims until the bodies are prepared. d. Provide privacy for law enforcement to interview the family.

a. Provide a calm location for the family to cope and discuss needs. The nurse should first provide emotional support by encouraging relaxation, listening to the familys needs, and offering choices when appropriate and possible to give some personal control back to individuals. The family may or may not want the assistance of religious personnel; the nurse should assess for this before calling anyone. Visiting procedures should take into account the needs of the family. The family may want to see the victim immediately and do not want to wait until the body can be prepared. The nurse should assess the familys needs before assuming the body needs to be prepared first. The family may appreciate privacy, but this is not as important as assessing the familys needs.

A hospital responds to a local mass casualty event. Which action should the nurse supervisor take to prevent staff post-traumatic stress disorder during a mass casualty event? a. Provide water and healthy snacks for energy throughout the event. b. Schedule 16-hour shifts to allow for greater rest between shifts. c. Encourage counseling upon deactivation of the emergency response plan. d. Assign staff to different roles and units within the medical facility.

a. Provide water and healthy snacks for energy throughout the event. To prevent staff post-traumatic stress disorder during a mass casualty event, the nurses should use available counseling, encourage and support co-workers, monitor each others stress level and performance, take breaks when needed, talk about feelings with staff and managers, and drink plenty of water and eat healthy snacks for energy. Nurses should also keep in touch with family, friends, and significant others, and not work for more than 12 hours per day. Encouraging counseling upon deactivation of the plan, or after the emergency response is over, does not prevent stress during the casualty event. Assigning staff to unfamiliar roles or units may increase situational stress and is not an approach to prevent post-traumatic stress disorder.

A nurse wants to become involved in community disaster preparedness and is interested in helping set up and staff first aid stations or community acute care centers in the event of a disaster. Which organization is the best fit for this nurses interests? a. The Medical Reserve Corps b. The National Guard c. The health department d. A Disaster Medical Assistance Team

a. The Medical Reserve Corps The Medical Reserve Corps (MRC) consists of volunteer medical and public health care professionals who support the community during times of need. They may help staff hospitals, establish first aid stations or special needs shelters, or set up acute care centers in the community. The National Guard often performs search and rescue operations and law enforcement. The health department focuses on communicable disease tracking, treatment, and prevention. A Disaster Medical Assistance Team is deployed to a disaster area for up to 72 hours, providing many types of relief services.

After receiving change-of-shift report in the coronary care unit, which client does the nurse assess first? a. The client with acute coronary syndrome who has a 3-pound weight gain and dyspnea b. The client with percutaneous coronary angioplasty who has a dose of heparin scheduled c. The client who had bradycardia after a myocardial infarction and now has a paced heart rate of 64 beats/min d. A client who has first-degree heart block, rate 68 beats/min, after having an inferior myocardial infarction

a. The client with acute coronary syndrome who has a 3-pound weight gain and dyspnea Dyspnea and weight gain are symptoms of left ventricular failure and pulmonary edema; this client needs prompt intervention. A scheduled heparin dose does not take priority over dyspnea; it can be administered after the client with dyspnea is taken care of. The client with a pacemaker and a normal heart rate is not in danger. First-degree heart block is rarely symptomatic, and the client has a normal heart rate; the client with dyspnea should be seen first.

The nurse is preparing to teach a client that metabolic syndrome can increase the risk for myocardial infarction (MI). Which signs of metabolic syndrome should the nurse include in the discussion? (Select all that apply.) a. Truncal obesity b. Hypercholesterolemia c. Elevated homocysteine levels d. Glucose intolerance e. Client taking losartan (Cozaar)

a. Truncal obesity b. Hypercholesterolemia d. Glucose intolerance e. Client taking losartan (Cozaar) A large waist size (excessive abdominal fat causing central obesity)—40 inches (102 cm) or greater for men, 35 inches (88 cm) or greater for women—is a sign of metabolic syndrome. Decreased high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C) (usually with high low-density lipoprotein cholesterol)—HDL-C less than 40 mg/dL for men or less than 50 mg/dL for women—or taking an anticholesterol drug is a sign of metabolic syndrome. Increased fasting blood glucose (caused by diabetes, glucose intolerance, or insulin resistance) is included in the constellation of metabolic syndrome. Blood pressure greater than 130/85 mm Hg or taking antihypertensive medication indicates metabolic syndrome. Although elevated homocysteine levels may predispose to atherosclerosis, they are not part of metabolic syndrome.

The hospital administration arranges for critical incident stress debriefing for the staff after a mass casualty incident. Which statement by the debriefing team leader is most appropriate for this situation? a. You are free to express your feelings; whatever is said here stays here. b. Lets evaluate what went wrong and develop policies for future incidents. c. This session is only for nursing and medical staff, not for ancillary personnel. d. Lets pass around the written policy compliance form for everyone.

a. You are free to express your feelings; whatever is said here stays here. Strict confidentiality during stress debriefing is essential so that staff members can feel comfortable sharing their feelings, which should be accepted unconditionally. Brainstorming improvements and discussing policies would occur during an administrative review. Any employee present during a mass casualty situation is eligible for critical incident stress management services.

The nurse in the coronary care unit is caring for a group of clients who have had myocardial infarction. Which client does the nurse see first? a. Client with dyspnea on exertion when ambulating to the bathroom b. Client with third-degree heart block on the monitor c. Client with normal sinus rhythm and PR interval of 0.28 second d. Client who refuses to take heparin or nitroglycerin

b. Client with third-degree heart block on the monitor Third-degree heart block is a serious complication that indicates that a large portion of the left ventricle and conduction system are involved, so the client with the third-degree heart block should be seen first. Third-degree heart block usually requires pacemaker insertion. A normal rhythm with prolonged PR interval indicates first-degree heart block, which usually does not require treatment. The client with dyspnea on exertion when ambulating to the bathroom is not at immediate risk. The client's uncooperative behavior when refusing to take heparin or nitroglycerin may indicate fear or denial; he should be seen after emergency situations have been handled.

The nurse is concerned that a client who had myocardial infarction (MI) has developed cardiogenic shock. Which findings indicate shock? (Select all that apply.) a. Bradycardia b. Cool, diaphoretic skin c. Crackles in the lung fields d. Respiratory rate of 12 breaths/min e. Anxiety and restlessness f. Temperature of 100.4° F

b. Cool, diaphoretic skin c. Crackles in the lung fields e. Anxiety and restlessness The client with shock has cool, moist skin. Because of extensive tissue necrosis, the left ventricle cannot forward blood adequately, resulting in pulmonary congestion and crackles. Because of poor tissue perfusion, a change in mental status, anxiety, and restlessness are expected. All types of shock (except neurogenic) present with tachycardia, not bradycardia. Due to pulmonary congestion, a client with cardiogenic shock typically has tachypnea. Cardiogenic shock does not present with low-grade fever; this would be more likely to occur in pericarditis.

The client in the cardiac care unit has had a large myocardial infarction. How does the nurse recognize onset of left ventricular failure? a. Urine output of 1500 mL on the preceding day b. Crackles in the lung fields c. Pedal edema d. Expectoration of yellow sputum

b. Crackles in the lung fields Manifestations of left ventricular failure and pulmonary edema are noted by listening for crackles and identifying their locations in the lung fields. A urine output of 1500 mL is normal. Edema is a sign of right ventricular heart failure. Yellow sputum indicates the presence of white blood cells and possible infection.

After a hospitals emergency department (ED) has efficiently triaged, treated, and transferred clients from a community disaster to appropriate units, the hospital incident command officer wants to stand down from the emergency plan. Which question should the nursing supervisor ask at this time? a. Are you sure no more victims are coming into the ED? b. Do all areas of the hospital have the supplies and personnel they need? c. Have all ED staff had the chance to eat and rest recently? d. Does the Chief Medical Officer agree this disaster is under control?

b. Do all areas of the hospital have the supplies and personnel they need? Before standing down, the incident command officer ensures that the needs of the other hospital departments have been taken care of because they may still be stressed and may need continued support to keep functioning. Many more walking wounded victims may present to the ED; that number may not be predictable. Giving staff the chance to eat and rest is important, but all areas of the facility need that too. Although the Chief Medical Officer (CMO) may be involved in the incident, the CMO does not determine when the hospital can stand down.

Which atypical symptoms may be present in a female client experiencing myocardial infarction (MI)? (Select all that apply.) a. Sharp, inspiratory chest pain b. Dyspnea c. Dizziness d. Extreme fatigue e. Anorexia

b. Dyspnea c. Dizziness d. Extreme fatigue Many women who experience an MI present with dyspnea, light-headedness, and fatigue. Sharp, pleuritic pain is more consistent with pericarditis or pulmonary embolism. Anorexia is neither a typical nor an atypical sign of MI.

After thrombolytic therapy, the nurse working in the cardiac catheterization laboratory would be alarmed to notice which sign? a. A 1-inch backup of blood in the IV tubing b. Facial drooping c. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) 68 seconds d. Report of chest pressure during dye injection

b. Facial drooping During and after thrombolytic administration, the nurse observes for any indications of bleeding, including changes in neurologic status, which may indicate intracranial bleeding. A 1-inch backup of blood in the IV tubing may be related to IV positioning. If heparin is used, PTT reflects a therapeutic value. Reports of chest pressure during dye injection or stent deployment are considered an expected result of the procedure.

Which characteristics place women at high risk for myocardial infarction (MI)? (Select all that apply.) a. Premenopausal b. Increasing age c. Family history d. Abdominal obesity e. Breast cancer

b. Increasing age c. Family history d. Abdominal obesity Increasing age is a risk factor, especially after 70 years. Family history is a significant risk factor in both men and women. A large waist size and/or abdominal obesity are risk factors for both metabolic syndrome and MI. Premenopausal women are not at higher risk for MI, and breast cancer is not a risk factor for MI.

A client comes to the emergency department with chest discomfort. Which action does the nurse perform first? a. Administers oxygen therapy b. Obtains the client's description of the chest discomfort c. Provides pain relief medication d. Remains calm and stays with the client

b. Obtains the client's description of the chest discomfort A description of the chest discomfort must be obtained first, before further action can be taken. Neither oxygen therapy nor pain medication is the first priority in this situation; an assessment is needed first. Remaining calm and staying with the client are important, but are not matters of highest priority.

Prompt pain management with myocardial infarction is essential for which reason? a. The discomfort will increase client anxiety and reduce coping. b. Pain relief improves oxygen supply and decreases oxygen demand. c. Relief of pain indicates that the MI is resolving. d. Pain medication should not be used until a definitive diagnosis has been established.

b. Pain relief improves oxygen supply and decreases oxygen demand. The focus of pain relief is on reducing myocardial oxygen demand. Chest discomfort will increase anxiety, but it may not affect coping. Relief of pain is secondary to the use of opiates or indicates that the tissue infarction is complete. Although it used to be true that pain medication was not to be used for undiagnosed abdominal pain, this does not relate to MI.

An LPN/LVN is scheduled to work on the inpatient "stepdown" cardiac unit. Which client does the charge nurse assign to the LPN/LVN? a. A 60-year-old who was admitted today for pacemaker insertion because of third-degree heart block and who is now reporting chest pain b. A 62-year-old who underwent open heart surgery 4 days ago for mitral valve replacement and who has a temperature of 38.2° C c. A 66-year-old who has a prescription for a nitroglycerin (Nitro-Dur) patch and is scheduled for discharge to a group home later today d. A 69-year-old who had a stent placed 2 hours ago in the left anterior descending artery and who has bursts of ventricular tachycardia

c. A 66-year-old who has a prescription for a nitroglycerin (Nitro-Dur) patch and is scheduled for discharge to a group home later today The LPN/LVN scope of practice includes administration of medications to stable clients. Third-degree heart block is characterized by a very low heart rate and usually by required pacemaker insertion; the skills of the RN are needed to care for this client. Fever after surgery requires collaboration with the health care provider, which is more consistent with the role of the RN. The client with a recent stent placement and having bursts of ventricular tachycardia is unstable and is showing ventricular irritability; he will need medications and monitoring beyond the scope of practice of the LPN/LVN.

An emergency department charge nurse notes an increase in sick calls and bickering among the staff after a week with multiple trauma incidents. Which action should the nurse take? a. Organize a pizza party for each shift. b. Remind the staff of the facilitys sick-leave policy. c. Arrange for critical incident stress debriefing. d. Talk individually with staff members.

c. Arrange for critical incident stress debriefing. The staff may be suffering from critical incident stress and needs to have a debriefing by the critical incident stress management team to prevent the consequences of long-term, unabated stress. Speaking with staff members individually does not provide the same level of support as a group debriefing. Organizing a party and revisiting the sick-leave policy may be helpful, but are not as important and beneficial as a debriefing.

An older adult client, 4 hours after coronary artery bypass graft (CABG), has a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg. What action does the nurse take? a. No action is required; low blood pressure is normal for older adults. b. No action is required for postsurgical CABG clients. c. Assess pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP). d. Give ordered loop diuretics.

c. Assess pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP). Decreased preload as exhibited by decreased PAWP could indicate hypovolemia secondary to hemorrhage or vasodilation; hypotension could cause the graft to collapse. Low blood pressure is not normal in older adults or postoperative clients. The cause of hypotension must be found and treated; further action is needed to determine additional interventions. Hypotension could be caused by hypovolemia; giving loop diuretics increases hypovolemia.

The nurse is teaching a group of teens about prevention of heart disease. Which point should the nurse emphasize? a. Reduce abdominal fat. b. Avoid stress. c. Do not smoke or chew tobacco. d. Avoid alcoholic beverages.

c. Do not smoke or chew tobacco. Tobacco exposure, including secondhand smoke, reduces coronary blood flow; causes vasoconstriction, endothelial dysfunction, and thickening of the vessel walls; increases carbon monoxide; and decreases oxygen. Because it is highly addicting, beginning smoking in the teen years may lead to decades of exposure. Teens are not likely to experience metabolic syndrome from obesity, but are very likely to use tobacco. Avoiding stress is a less modifiable risk factor, which is less likely to cause heart disease in teens. The risk of smoking outweighs the risk of alcohol use. Tobacco exposure, including secondhand smoke, reduces coronary blood flow; causes vasoconstriction, endothelial dysfunction, and thickening of the vessel walls; increases carbon monoxide; and decreases oxygen. Because it is highly addicting, beginning smoking in the teen years may lead to decades of exposure. Teens are not likely to experience metabolic syndrome from obesity, but are very likely to use tobacco. Avoiding stress is a less modifiable risk factor, which is less likely to cause heart disease in teens. The risk of smoking outweighs the risk of alcohol use.

A nurse cares for clients during a community-wide disaster drill. Once of the clients asks, Why are the individuals with black tags not receiving any care? How should the nurse respond? a. To do the greatest good for the greatest number of people, it is necessary to sacrifice some. b. Not everyone will survive a disaster, so it is best to identify those people early and move on. c. In a disaster, extensive resources are not used for one person at the expense of many others. d. With black tags, volunteers can identify those who are dying and can give them comfort care.

c. In a disaster, extensive resources are not used for one person at the expense of many others. In a disaster, military-style triage is used; this approach identifies the dead or expectant dead with black tags. This practice helps to maintain the goal of triage, which is doing the most good for the most people. Precious resources are not used for those with overwhelming critical injury or illness, so that they can be allocated to others who have a reasonable expectation of survival. Clients are not sacrificed. Telling students to move on after identifying the expectant dead belittles their feelings and does not provide an adequate explanation. Clients are not black-tagged to allow volunteers to give comfort care.

A nurse is caring for a client whose wife died in a recent mass casualty accident. The client says, I cant believe that my wife is gone and I am left to raise my children all by myself. How should the nurse respond? a. Please accept my sympathies for your loss. b. I can call the hospital chaplain if you wish. c. You sound anxious about being a single parent. d. At least your children still have you in their lives.

c. You sound anxious about being a single parent. Therapeutic communication includes active listening and honesty. This statement demonstrates that the nurse recognizes the clients distress and has provided an opening for discussion. Extending sympathy and offering to call the chaplain do not give the client the opportunity to discuss feelings. Stating that the children still have one parent discounts the clients feelings and situation.

An emergency department (ED) charge nurse prepares to receive clients from a mass casualty within the community. What is the role of this nurse during the event? a. Ask ED staff to discharge clients from the medical-surgical units in order to make room for critically injured victims. b. Call additional medical-surgical and critical care nursing staff to come to the hospital to assist when victims are brought in. c. Inform the incident commander at the mass casualty scene about how many victims may be handled by the ED. d. Direct medical-surgical and critical care nurses to assist with clients currently in the ED while emergency staff prepare to receive the mass casualty victims.

d. Direct medical-surgical and critical care nurses to assist with clients currently in the ED while emergency staff prepare to receive the mass casualty victims. The ED charge nurse should direct additional nursing staff to help care for current ED clients while the ED staff prepares to receive mass casualty victims; however, they should not be assigned to the most critically ill or injured clients. The house supervisor and unit directors would collaborate to discharge stable clients. The hospital incident commander is responsible for mobilizing resources and would have the responsibility for calling in staff. The medical command physician would be the person best able to communicate with on-scene personnel regarding the ability to take more clients.

The nurse is assessing a client with chest pain to evaluate whether the client is suffering from angina or myocardial infarction (MI). Which symptom is indicative of an MI? a. Chest pain brought on by exertion or stress b. Substernal chest discomfort occurring at rest c. Substernal chest discomfort relieved by nitroglycerin or rest d. Substernal chest pressure relieved only by opioids

d. Substernal chest pressure relieved only by opioids Substernal chest pressure relieved only by opioids is typically indicative of MI. Substernal chest discomfort that occurs at rest is not necessarily indicative of MI; it could be a sign of unstable angina. Both chest pain brought on by exertion or stress and substernal chest discomfort relieved by nitroglycerin or rest are indicative of angina.