NREMT

A 27 year old man and his 4 year old nephew have been pulled from a river after being submerged for approximately 12 minutes. Rescue breathing for the man should include breaths at what rate? Rescue breathing for the child should include breaths at what rate? 1 breath every 5-6 seconds for the man / 1 breath every 3-5 seconds for the child 12-20 breaths per minute for the man / 10 breaths per minute for the child 10 breaths per minute for the man / 20-30 breaths per minute for all children 1 breath every 3-5 seconds for the man / 1 breath every 5-6 seconds for the child

1 breath every 5-6 seconds for the man / 1 breath every 3-5 seconds for the child Rationale: AHA CPR Guidelines specify that adults should get 10 breaths per minute (one breath every 5-6 seconds). Children should get between 12-20 breaths per minute (one breath every 3-5 seconds). Old guidelines said 20 bpm for all infants and children. The new wider range is to allow the rescuer to tailor rescue breathing to the needs of the patient.

A 2-year-old boy has one full leg burned and one full arm burned. What percentage of his body is considered burned? 18 percent 2 percent 22.5 percent 29 percent

22.5 percent Rationale: Acording to the rule of nines, a two year old child's leg is considered 13.5% to 14.5% depending on the text you use. The patient's arm is considered 9% for a total of 22.5% to 23.5%. The only answer that is in the range is 22.5. Remember to pick THE BEST answer and avoid looking for a specific number.

How much blood loss is considered serious in young children? 400ml 500cc 300cc 100ml

300cc Rationale: 300cc can be serious blood loss in a young child.

Dispatch has called you to a house fire where a 1 year old has one full leg burned as well as both arms. According to the rule of 9's, what percentage of this child's body is considered burned? 29.5 percent 28.5 percent 36.5 percent 31.5 percent

31.5 percent Rationale: A one year old child's leg is considered 13.5% to 14.5%, depending on the text you use. Each arm is considered 9% for a total of 31.5% to 32.5%. Remember to pick THE BEST answer and avoid looking for a specific number.

Which stage of labor is after the baby has been born? 1st stage 2nd stage 3rd stage 4th stage

3rd stage Rationale: The 1st stage is contractions and dilation of the cervix. 2nd stage is from the time the baby enters the birth canal until birth. The 3rd stage is when the placenta has been delivered.

What is the approximate weight of an adolescent between 13 and 16 years of age? 62-80kg 80-110kg 90-120kg 120-145kg

62-80kg Rationale: 62-80kg is the approximate weight of an adolescent between 13 and 16 years.

A patient is breathing at 20 breaths per minute and taking in about 400 ml of air each breath. What is this patient's minute volume? 2000 ml per minute 4000 ml per minute 6000 ml per minute 8000 ml per minute

8000 ml per minute Rationale: Minute volume is number of breaths per minute X volume of air in each breath.

You are assessing a 99 year old woman who was bungee jumping for her birthday. She had an altered LOC when they reeled her back up to the bridge. She is sitting quietly with her 79 year old daughter when you arrive. She is not answering your questions appropriately and seems confused. She follows you with her eyes and is looking at you while you ask her questions. But she will not wiggle her toes or raise her arms when you ask her. This woman has a GCS of what? 6 7 3 9

9 Rationale: 4 for confused verbal response, 1 for not responding to requests for movement of limb or toes, and 4 for good eye contact and movement, for a total of 9.

Using the Glasgow Coma Scale, which score would indicate a severe head injury? > 15 13-15 8-12 < 8

< 8 Rationale: Under the Glasgow Coma Scale, head injuries are classified by score: Mild - 13-15, moderate - 8-12, and severe <8. Fifteen is the highest possible score and indicates no neurologic disabilities.

Which of the following patients has adequate respirations? 55 year old woman with paradoxical chest expansion at 22 per minute A 31 year old man breathing at 20 per minute and slightly irregular A 6 month old child who is breathing at 22 per minute A 10 year old who is breathing with accessory muscles at 30 per minute

A 31 year old man breathing at 20 per minute and slightly irregular Rationale: Even though the 31 year old is breathing slightly irregular, they are within range and considered adequate. The 10 year old, although he may be just inside the top limit of respirations, is not breathing adequately because of the accessory muscle use.

The best definition of a full-thickness burn is: A burn that extends through all layers of the skin and may involve muscle, bone, and/or internal organs A burn that involves the epidermis and some portion of the dermis A burn that involves only the top layer of the skin A burn that involves more than 60% of the surface of the body

A burn that extends through all layers of the skin and may involve muscle, bone, and/or internal organs Rationale: A full-thickness (third degree) burn extends through all layers of the skin and may involve muscle, bone, and/or internal organs. The skin on a full-thickness burn can be dark brown, white, or charred and may feel hard when touched. A pure full-thickness burn is uncommon. These kinds of burns are most commonly a combination of superficial, partial-thickness, and full-thickness. A severly burned surface may have no feeling if nerve endings have been destroyed but surrounding, less seriously burned areas can be very painful.

What is the esophagus? A collapsible tube about 10 inches in length A rigid cartilage structure its full length The pathway to the lungs The upper extension of the trachea

A collapsible tube about 10 inches in length Rationale: The esophagus is a muscular tube that is collapsible and delivers the contents of the mouth to the stomach.

Which best describes a spiral fracture? A fracture in which the bone is broken at an angle across the bone A fracture in which the bone is broken into more than two pieces A fracture caused by a twisting force An incomplete fracture that passes only partway through the shaft of a bone

A fracture caused by a twisting force Rationale: A spiral fracture is caused by a twisting force which causes an oblique fracture. Spiral fractures are seen many times in child abuse cases. Fracture when a bone is broken at an angle across the bone is oblique. When the bone is broken into more than two pieces is comminuted. An incomplete fracture that passes only partway through the shaft is greenstick.

Which best describes a comminuted fracture? A fracture that occurs straight across the bone A fracture in which the bone is broken into more than two pieces A fracture caused by a twisting force An incomplete fracture that passes only partway through the shaft of a bone

A fracture in which the bone is broken into more than two pieces Rationale: A comminuted fracture is a fracture in which the bone is broken into more than two fragments, splinters, or is crushed into many different pieces. A fracture that occurs straight across the bone is transverse. Twisting force fracture is spiral. Greenstick is an incomplete fracture that passes only partway through the shaft of the bone.

A diabetic emergency where the patient had a headache would likely point to it being ___________. A hyperglycemic event A hypoglycemic event A hypotensive event A hyposucrose event

A hypoglycemic event Rationale: Hypoglycemic events can often be accompanied by a headache where hyperglycemic events are rarely seen with a headache.

The autonomic nervous system is _____________. Responsible for offload of oxygen An automatic subdivision of the central nervous system Responsible for voluntary functions A subdivision of the peripheral nervous system

A subdivision of the peripheral nervous system Rationale: A subdivision of the peripheral nervous system responsible for the automated functions of the body.

When planning your clothing for protection from cold weather, which list shows the correct way of dressing? A thin inner layer, a middle layer that resists wind and wetness, and a thermal outer layer. An inner layer that resists wind and wetness, a thin middle layer, and a thermal outer layer. A thin inner layer, a thermal middle layer, and an outer layer that resists wind and wetness. An inner thermal layer, a middle layer that resists wind and wetness, and a thin outer layer.

A thin inner layer, a thermal middle layer, and an outer layer that resists wind and wetness. Rationale: Clothing for cold weather protection consists of three layers; A thin inner layer to wick wetness away from the body, a thermal middle layer for insulation, and an outer layer that resists wind and wetness.

During secondary assessment of the mouth, where shouldn't attention be focused? Accessory muscle use Foreign bodies Pink and moist mucosa Loose dentures

Accessory muscle use Rationale: During secondary assessment of the mouth, attention should be focused on: Foreign bodies, loose dentures, and pink and moist mucosa. Accessory muscle use is not associated with assessment of the mouth.

Which statement best describes the types of kidney failure? Acute kidney failure is a progressive decrease in function; chronic kidney failure is a sudden decrease in function Acute kidney failure is a sudden decrease in function; chronic kidney failure is a progressive decrease in function Both acute and chronic kidney failure are sudden decreases in function Both acute and chronic kidney failure are progressive decreases in function

Acute kidney failure is a sudden decrease in function; chronic kidney failure is a progressive decrease in function Rationale:Acute kidney failure is a sudden decrease in function caused by sepsis, acute blood loss, or cases of drug overdose. For example: Chronic kidney failure is a progressive decrease in function caused by diabetes, uncontrolled hypertension, or long term/overdose of Tylenol or Ibuprofen.

Of the following, which does not complicate the accuracy of pulse oximetry? Adequate respirations Fingernail coverings Cold extremities Hypoperfusion

Adequate respirations Rationale: The accuracy of pulse oximetry is complicated by all of the following: Hypoperfusion, carbon monoxide poisoning, cold extremities, fingernail coverings, and others.

Management of a patient suspected of having plant poisoning includes all of the following except: Administer charcoal Take plant to emergency department Assess airway Prompt transportation

Administer charcoal Rationale: Management of a patient suspected of having plant poisoning includes: -Assess airway and vital signs, -notify regional poison center for identification of plant, -take plant to emergency department, and -prompt transportation.

Which of the following answers may interfere with cerebral blood flow? Thrombosis Arterial rupture Cerebral embolism All of the Above

All of the Above Rationale: All of the above may cause and interruption in the blood supply to the brain.

Which of the following helps regulate blood sugar levels? Epinephrine Glucagon Insulin All of the above

All of the above Rationale: All of the above. Epinephrine and glucagon raise sugar levels while insulin helps lower sugar levels.

Medical direction by a licensed physician is needed in order for an EMT to? Administer nitroglycerin Use a traction splinting device Give IV therapy All of the above

All of the above Rationale: Whether offline or online, an EMT needs medical direction to perform all interventions. Some may be standing orders or protocols but all are with medical direction.

How does a stroke happen? An artery in the brain is blocked A vein in the brain is weak An artery in the brain collapses None of the above

An artery in the brain is blocked Rationale: When a brain artery is blocked or damaged causing a rupture that cuts off oxygen supply, it is termed a stroke or cerebrovasular accident.

A three sided dressing would be used under what circumstances? If the patient had a flutter valve An open chest wound Abdominal injury Hematoma

An open chest wound Rationale: A 3 sided dressing allows air to escape on exhalation but seals the wound on inhalation, preventing additional air accumulation.

Signs and symptoms of rattlesnake bites include all of the following except: Anaphylaxis Weakness Changes in level of consciousness Vomiting

Anaphylaxis Rationale: Signs and symptoms of rattlesnake bites include: -Pain at site, -progressive weakness, -nausea and vomiting, -seizures, -vision problems, and -changes in level of consciousness. Anaphylaxis is seen when exposed to an allergen. A rattlesnake bite introduces venom into the body.

In many states, all of the following require mandatory reporting, except: Animal abuse Childbirth Child abuse Abuse of the elderly

Animal abuse Rationale: Most states have mandated reporting of child abuse, elderly abuse, childbirth, as well as injury sustained in the committing of a felony. While repugnant, animal abuse is not a mandatory reporting issue. However, animal bites are generally required to be reported.

If you were controlling an arterial bleed with pressure over the brachial artery, where would this bleed be located? Brachia Arm Neck Foot

Arm Rationale: The Brachial artery is the artery feeding the arm.

The prefix peri- means: Through Excessive Around After

Around Rationale: Peri- means around.

You arrive on scene with your partner Enrique to find a man who has suffered a spinal injury and is showing signs of shock. Shock as the result of a spinal cord injury is likely caused by ______________________? Too much spinal fluid leaking out of the spinal cavity The brain telling the heart to slow way down The brain's inability to make the heart contract The nervous system's inability to control the diameter of the vessels

The nervous system's inability to control the diameter of the vessels Rationale: Neurogenic shock can be seen in spinal cord injuries and is caused by the nervous system's inability to maintain vessel diameter.

__________ is the foundation of patient care. Caring Knowledge Assessment A Hospital

Assessment Rationale: Assessment is the foundation of patient care. Without a proper assessment of the patient, the mechanisms of injury or illness, and any other pertinent information, the EMT will not be able to formulate a proper plan for treatment. Caring and Knowledge both play a role in providing care, but are not the foundation. A hospital is only a destination. Patient Care begins with you in the field.

Your 94-year-old patient is complaining of pain in her pelvis after a fall down 2 stairs. Your assessment should include: Even left and right pelvic pressure Palpation of the exterior pelvic area only Assumption of a pelvic fracture Palpation of the pericardium

Assumption of a pelvic fracture Rationale: If a patient has a supporting mechanism of injury with an associated fall and pelvic pain, an assumption can be made that a pelvic injury has occurred and any palpation can exacerbate the injury.

The heart has a unique ability to contract without neural stimulation. This characteristic is termed? Autonetronic Contractility Automaticity Tonicity

Automaticity Rationale: Automaticity is the ability of the heart muscle to generate and utilize it's own electrical impulses to contract.

When working with an intoxicated patient special challenges may exist. Which of the following answer choices should not be a consideration for the EMT working with the intoxicated patient? Treat them with dignity Be alert for signs of depression Be calm and relaxed Avoid trapping them in a small area

Be alert for signs of depression Rationale: When working with an intoxicated patient special challenges may exist. The EMT should be cognizant of all of the following: Do not attempt to have the patient lower his/her voice or stop cursing, this may aggravate the patient. Avoid trapping them in small areas and treat them with dignity despite their intoxication. Stay calm and relaxed.

You are assessing an 83 year old woman who has COPD and CHF. She is sitting upright in her chair and appears to understand that you are an EMT here to help her. You should? Never break eye contact Call the patient something endearing like honey Be honest with the patient about her conditions Stand in front of her to facilitate communication

Be honest with the patient about her conditions Rationale: You want to make eye contact and address the person by Mr. or Mrs. Rather than terms of endearment like "honey" or "dear". You should try to be at eye level or slightly below for best communication.

Why does Nitroglycerin lower the blood pressure? Because it reduces the workload on the veins Because it dilates the vessels reducing the preload on the heart Because the veins are constricted reducing workload on the heart It doesn't, it raises it

Because it dilates the vessels reducing the preload on the heart Rationale: Nitro dilates the vessels and relieves the heart of some of the preload on the heart.

Your patient is in a diabetic coma because she did not take enough insulin to deal with the enormous amount of chocolate cake she ate this morning. Without enough insulin to break down the excess sugars, the body? Triggers the pancreas to create more insulin Begins to consume fat stores Begins to go into metabolic alkalosis Produces more fatty acids through anaerobic metabolism

Begins to consume fat stores Rationale: The body will consume the fat stores in the body producing lactic acid which will result in metabolic acidosis.

Bilateral would refer to which of the following? 1 side Both sides Neither side All sides

Both sides Rationale: Bi means two or both.

Dispatch has reported a possible heart attack and bystanders are doing CPR. A 46-year-old woman was out mowing her lawn when neighbors saw her fall to the ground. You arrive to find two people doing what appears to be effective CPR. According to the AHA, what should you do after taking BSI precautions? Attach AED to patient - Turn on the AED - Analyze rhythm Briefly question rescuers about arrest events - Turn on AED - Attach AED to patient Assess for pulse - Direct rescuers to stop CPR - Attach AED Briefly question rescuers about arrest events - Attach AED - Deliver shock

Briefly question rescuers about arrest events - Turn on AED - Attach AED to patient Rationale: According to the AHA: Answer 1 is incorrect because you should turn the AED on first, which will include the prompt to attach the pads. Answer 3 is incorrect because you would want to have the rescuers stop CPR prior to making a pulse check. Answer 4 is incorrect because it recommends shock regardless of analysis.

Which of the following is a route of drug administration that you would use for a person who is suffering from hypoglycemia and has a gag reflex? Transdermal Rectal Buccal Intramuscular

Buccal Rationale: Buccal refers to between the cheek and gum and is used in a conscious patient who is able to swallow.

In the management of a seizure patient, attention should be focused on all of the following except: Pulse oximetry Patient's airway Emotional support CPR

CPR Rationale: In the management of a seizure patient, attention should be focused on: Safety of patient/position, ABCs, consider NPA airway adjuncts, oxygen/suction, pulse oximetry, and emotional support. CPR isn't appropriate for a seizure.

You and your partner Meagan are the first to arrive on scene of a 3 vehicle collision on a busy section of a state highway. All three vehicles are blocking the east bound lane and a few of the patients have gotten out of their cars. Cars and semi trucks are continuing to pass the wreckage using the east bound lane. What are you going to do next? Check the cars for patients who are not able to get out Check the patients walking around for spinal injury Call for additional medical help and traffic control assistance Triage the patients and treat the most seriously injured first

Call for additional medical help and traffic control assistance Rationale: Scene safety is your first priority. The cars and trucks driving by the scene present a very real threat to everyone working on the scene, as well as the patients. You also do not have the resources to handle patients from 3 vehicles.

You are just ending your shift when you witness a multiple vehicle collision. 4 cars were involved and at least 8 or 9 patients. The accident is on a very dangerous and busy stretch of highway with limited visibility from weather. Two of the cars have ignited and traffic is continuing around the accident through an empty west bound lane. What should you do next? Begin systematic extrication on those patients in burning cars Call for law enforcement and help maintain traffic at a safe distance away Triage the most critically injured and then extricate them in order of severity Begin extrication of the patients while doing a rapid triage

Call for law enforcement and help maintain traffic at a safe distance away Rationale: Scene safety before all else. The best thing you can do for everybody is assist in keeping the accident from getting even larger with traffic and crowd control until the proper authorities get there and you can administer medical attention in a safe environment.

You are on scene of an ice skating accident where your patient has completely dislocated her knee. She has no distal pulses and her leg is pale. She is in extreme pain, so you should? Call medical control immediately for stabilization instructions Take traction on the foot until you hear a pop Splint the knee in place and transport code yellow Ask her to straighten her leg so you can splint it

Call medical control immediately for stabilization instructions Rationale: With no distal pulses you will need to contact medical control on how to proceed unless manipulation is within your local scope of practice. Splinting the extremity may be called for but transporting low priority would be inappropriate.

Arterioles connect to the ____________________ and then to the ______________. Capillaries / venuoles Veins / capillaries Venuoles / arteries Venuoles / capillaries

Capillaries / venuoles Rationale: Arteries connect to arterioles and then to capillaries and then to venuoles.

Hyperventilation lowers the levels of: Carbon Dioxide in the body Hemoglobin in the body Ketones in the body Oxygen in the body

Carbon Dioxide in the body Rationale: Breathing too fast blows off too much CO2, resulting in respiratory alkalosis.

Of the answer choices, which is not included within the specific limitations of pulse oximetry? Carbon dioxide Carbon monoxide Cold extremity Hypoperfusion

Carbon dioxide Rationale: Specific limitations of pulse oximetry include: -Hypoperfusion, -carbon monoxide, -cold extremity, and -time lag/delay in detection of respiratory insufficiency. The presence of carbon dioxide in the blood doesn't limit or inhibit pulse oximetry values.

After each dose of nitroglycerin you should ___________. Communicate with dispatch Increase oxygen flow Check BP Reduce oxygen flow

Check BP Rationale: Checking BP before every dose of nitro is necessary to verify that the patient's pressure is above 100.

You and your partner are performing CPR on a 62 year old female who was found apneic and pulseless by neighbors. Your CPR will utilize: Chest compressions at 110 a minute with about 6 breaths a minute Compressions 2 inches deep with one breath every 3-5 seconds 10 to 12 breaths per minute with a tidal volume of 1200ml to 1500 ml None of the above are correct

Chest compressions at 110 a minute with about 6 breaths a minute Rationale: The first answer is correct with compressions of at least 100 per minute and a 30:2 ratio would provide about 6 breaths a minute.

All of the following are examples of poisonous absorbed substances except: Alkalis Acids Poison ivy Chlorine

Chlorine Rationale: Examples of poisonous absorbed substances include: -Acids, -alkalis, -petroleum products, -poison ivy, and -poison oak.

What is one of the most common causes of stroke in young people? Head injury Ecstasy Cocaine Methamphetamines

Cocaine Rationale: Cocaine has become an all too common cause of stroke in young people today. It is caused by the effects of cocaine on the blood vessels by causing them to constrict. This in turn causes a decrease of blow flow through the cerebral arteries in the brain.

Which of the following is not included in the airway? Larynx Trachea Oropharynx Cochlea

Cochlea Rationale: The airway is made up of the oropharynx, larynx, trachea, tongue, and the teeth. The Cochlea is part of the inner ear.

Rapid breathing is first seen in what stage of shock? Compensated Decompensated Irreversible Both A and B

Compensated Rationale: A person may breath rapidly in compensated and decompensated shock, but it is FIRST seen in compensated shock.

During which stage of shock would you expect your patient to display slight anxiety but relatively normal vital signs? Reversible Decompensated Compensated Postictal

Compensated Rationale: When the body is first dealing with shock it is referred to as compensated. When the body gets beyond it's ability to compensate, it becomes decompensated shock, and if not immediately corrected, irreversible shock.

You and your partner are called to a local lake to treat a man who was burned while at a campfire. You arrive to find the man with two friends neck deep in the lake. A bystander at the camp site tells you that the man fell asleep next to the fire and his jacket ignited. The patient, screaming in pain, exits the water when he sees you and your partner. It appears that the jacket has melted to his body in several places. His entire back has second degree burns as well as his buttocks. What complications are most likely to occur with this patient, and how would you treat him? What percentage of his body is burned? Complications may include pharyngeal edema. Treatment should include high flow O2 and removal of the jacket pieces that are stuck to his skin. Approximately 18-24 percent of his body is burned. Complications may include infection. Treatment should include covering the burned area with a sterile dressing and rapid transport. Approximately 18-20 percent of his body is burned Complications may include a drastic increase in blood pressure along with decrease in heart rate and respirations. High flow O2 via NRB and rapid transport. Approximately 18-30 percent of his body is burned Complications may include a severe drop in blood pressure. Treatment should include wrapping the patient in a burn blanket with cold packs applied to the areas not covered by pieces of jacket. Approximately 20-30 percent of his body is burned.

Complications may include infection. Treatment should include covering the burned area with a sterile dressing and rapid transport. Approximately 18-20 percent of his body is burned Rationale: Answer 1, while there is a possibility that the patient will develop pharyngeal edema, it is not the most likely given the burns are only to the back with no sign of inhalation problems. Additionally, removal of any pieces of clothing that have bonded to the tissue is best left to the hospital. Answer 3, while blood pressure changes can certainly happen, it is not likely that the heart rate and respirations will be decreased given the man is conscious and alert. These vitals are more likely to be rapid rather than slow. Answer 4, while local protocols may allow for the addition of sterile water to this man's burns, cold packs are not recommended. Additionally the percentage of his body burned is 18 percent for his back and a few additional percents for his buttocks.

Which of the following are issues that can impact the Fundamental Elements of the Life Support Chain? Effects of acid on cells and organs, Mechanics of patency Composition of ambient air, Transport of gases Blood volume, Neurogenic insufficiency Regulation of respiration, DNA retracing

Composition of ambient air, Transport of gases Rationale: There are many Issues that can impact the Fundamental Elements of the Life Support Chain. Mechanics of patency, Neurogenic insufficiency, and DNA retracing are not included.

You are on call at a volunteer ambulance unit in a very remote part of the state. You and a driver with little to no medical training have just been dispatched to a call of man down. You arrive at a farm house and find an elderly man lying in the driveway. His wife says he collapsed while walking to the mailbox. CPR for this patient should include? Compression to ventilation ratio of 30:2. Compressions just below the nipple line Compression to ventilation ratio of 15:2. Compressions just above the nipple line Compression to ventilation ratio of 30:2. Compressions at the nipple line Compression to ventilation ratio of 30:2. Compressions over the tip of the xiphoid process

Compression to ventilation ratio of 30:2. Compressions at the nipple line Rationale: AHA CPR Guidelines specify that for adult CPR a 30:2 ratio of compressions to breaths is to be used. Additionally, compressions should be done at the nipple line, avoiding the xiphoid process.

You and your partner Domonica are called to the scene of a single car MVA with two patients. The reporting party told dispatch that one of the patients is unconscious in the car and the other is out of the car and conscious, but bleeding badly from his face. You arrive to find that the man in the car is actually dead and the other man is standing up against a bystander's car. According to the NREMT Patient Assessment/Management - Trauma Skill Sheet what would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient? Verbalize general impression of the patient, Determine chief complaint/apparent life threats, Make a transport decision, and get a set of baseline vitals Determine chief complaint, do a secondary assessment, Treat ABC's, and then make a transport decision based on the vitals BSI, Treat any life threats, Do a detailed focused exam, Check vital signs and make a transport decision Consider stabilization of the spine, Perform a primary survey and make a transport decision, then do a secondary assessment

Consider stabilization of the spine, Perform a primary survey and make a transport decision, then do a secondary assessment Rationale: If you do not consider c-spine stabilization when appropriate you fail one of the critical criteria of this skill station. If you do a secondary assessment before assessing the ABC's you fail a critical criteria for this station as well. There is no such thing as a detailed focused exam.

Which answer choice would not be included in the management of shock? Position patient appropriately according to age Administer oxygen (high-flow/high-concentration) Cool patient as needed Comfort, calm, and reassure patient

Cool patient as needed Rationale: Management of shock includes: Manual in-line spinal stabilization as needed; comfort, calm, and reassure the patient while awaiting additional EMS resources; do not give food or drink; airway management as needed; oxygen administration (high-flow/high- concentration); assist ventilation as needed; attempt to control obvious uncontrolled external bleeding; position patient appropriately according to age; keep patient warm, attempt to maintain normal body temperature; begin transport at the earliest possible moment; and treat additional injuries that might be present.

What does the suffix -ectomy mean? Creation of an opening Cutting out Dealing with the eyes Opening to look

Cutting out Rationale: The suffix -ectomy means cutting out.

Layers of the skin include the _______________ and _____________. Dermis and epididymis Dermis and epidermis Epidermis and epididymis Epididymis and subdermis

Dermis and epidermis Rationale: Layers of the skin include epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis. The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin and creates our first line of defense. The dermis is located under the epidermis and contains connective tissue, hair follicles and sweat glands. The last layer is hypodermis and contains connective tissue and fat. The epididymis is part of the male reproductive system.

What is the purpose of disinfectant? Eliminate germs on the skin before setting an IV Destroy germs on non living objects Destroy germs in open wounds Clean door handles of the ambulance

Destroy germs on non living objects Rationale: Disinfectants are for killing germs on non living things. Antiseptics are for destroying or stopping the growth of germs on living tissue.

A 46-year-old woman was hiking in the woods near her home when she accidentally stepped into a hive of hornets and was stung multiple times. She contacted 911 via her cell phone and is going to rendezvous with you at her residence. When you arrive at the home you find her lying on the front lawn. After completing your scene size up, which would be the most appropriate treatment sequence according to the NREMT Patient Assessment/Management - Medical Skill Sheet? Form a general impression - Assist with epinephrine via auto injector - High flow O2 - and transport Administer high flow O2 via NRB - Get a set of vitals - and then do a SAMPLE Determine level of consciousness - Identify life threats - Assess airway - breathing - and circulation Assess ABC's - Make a transport decision and do a secondary assessment on the respiratory system. If she appears to be in anaphylactic shock assist her with her epinephrine auto injector.

Determine level of consciousness - Identify life threats - Assess airway - breathing - and circulation Rationale: On the first answer, you do not know what is wrong with this woman so you cannot assist her with epi after just a general impression. On the second answer, Giving O2 sounds like a good idea, but you missed the first three steps of the primary survey AND got vitals BEFORE doing a SAMPLE. On the fourth answer the first 3 steps of the primary survey were missed, and doing a secondary assessment is incorrect. Additionally, the injection of epi would have been administered during the ABC's if she were in anaphylaxis.

Which of the answer choices is not an aspect of examining the respiratory system during the secondary assessment? Examine chest shape and symmerty Respiratory effort Do not expose chest Auscultation

Do not expose chest Rationale: Aspects of examining the respiratory system during the secondary assessment include: Exposing the chest as appropriate for the environment, examining chest shape and symmetry, respiratory effort, and auscultation.

The anatomical planes of the human body are all of the following except: Coronal plane Sagittal plane Transverse plane Dorsal plane

Dorsal plane Rationale: The three anotomical planes are the Frontal (Coronal), Sagittal (lateral), and Transverse (axial) planes.

Your are called to a local river where a man has capsized his canoe. Search and rescue is just bringing him to shore and you are told he has been clinging to a rock for the last 30 minutes. He is conscious, but unable to walk unassisted. He does not appear to be oriented to person, place, or time. You are not able to understand anything that he is saying. Choose the most appropriate treatment for this patient from the following list of answers. Cut away his clothes and apply heat packs directly to his upper legs and arms. Administer O2 and give him small sips of warm tea or coffee. Transport Get him into a warm ambulance as quickly as possible. One person on each extremity should actively warm the arm or leg by rubbing it vigorously with both hands. Dry his body gently, apply blankets, and turn up the heat in the ambulance. Administer high flow O2 and transport carefully. Immediately do a warm water immersion or apply heat packs directly to his feet and hands. Apply high flow oxygen and transport immediately

Dry his body gently, apply blankets, and turn up the heat in the ambulance. Administer high flow O2 and transport carefully. Rationale: Answer 1 is not the best choice as you should not apply heat packs directly to the skin as it may cause burns. You would also NOT want to warm his legs and arms alone. Doing so can cause reflex vasodilation and lead to shock. Additionally, with this answer you would not want to give any type of stimulant drink or food. Answer 2 is incorrect because it recommends rubbing the patient vigorously which may cause dysrhythmias. Additionally, warming only the extremities can lead to vasodilation and shock. Answer 4 will not work because warm water immersions are not often if ever used in a prehospital setting. This answer also recommends warming the extremities only, which may cause vasoconstriction and shock.

The pathophysiology of submersion incidents include all of the following except: Duration under water does not effect outcome Age is a factor due to cardiovascular health Hypoxia from submersion is a major factor in death Submersion in cold water results in better survival than warm water

Duration under water does not effect outcome Rationale: The pathophysiology of submersion incidents include: Little difference in patient lungs regardless of what type of water submersion occurred; submersion in cold water results in better survival than warm water; age is a factor due to cardiovascular health; duration under water effects outcome; submersion in very cold water can produce cardiac disturbances; hypoxia from submersion is a major factor in death; diving in shallow water can cause spinal trauma; prolonged hypoxia causes death of brain tissue.

All of the following are common hallucinogens except: PCP Hashish Ecstasy Morning glory

Ecstasy Rationale: Common hallucinogens include: -Bufotenine, -dimethyltryptamine, -hashish, -jimson weed, -LSD, -marijuana, -mescaline, -morning glory, -mushrooms, -nutmeg, -PCP, and -psilocybin. Ecstasy, also known as MDMA is a synthetic stimulant.

You arrive at a restaurant to a call of a woman choking. You find her sitting in a chair, very pale, and sweating. She states in a very hush tone that she has a piece of steak caught in her throat. You should immediately? Give her the Heimlich and pop the chunk of steak out Tell her she should not take such big bites Wait until she passes out and then give her abdominal compressions on the ground Encourage her to cough as it is likely high enough in the airway to expel it

Encourage her to cough as it is likely high enough in the airway to expel it Rationale: Unless her airway is completely blocked you should not attempt Heimlich thrusts. If she can speak there is a chance she can work the obstruction out herself.

Liquid forms of medication can be divided into which two sub categories? Parenteral and suspension Suspension and solution Enteral and solution Enteral and Parenteral

Enteral and Parenteral Rationale: The sub categories of liquid forms of medication include Enteral.

When dealing with an agitated delirium patient, emergency medical care includes aspects of all of the following except: Establish your authority Restrain if necessary If overdose, bring medicine or drugs to medical center Scene size-up, personal safety

Establish your authority Rationale: When dealing with an agitated delirium patient, emergency medical care includes aspects of all of the following: Scene size-up, personal safety, establish rapport, patient assessment, calm the patient - do not leave the patient alone, unless unsafe situation; consider need for law enforcement, restrain if necessary, if overdose, bring medication or drugs found to medical facility.

General assessment of a sickle cell crisis includes all of the following except: Extremities Level of consciousness Skin Cardiorespiratory

Extremities Rationale: The general assessment of a sickle cell crisis includes: Level of consciousness, skin, visual disturbances, gastrointestinal, skeletal, cardiorespiratory, and genitourinary.

Signs and symptoms of separation of the placenta from the uterine wall include all of the following except: Vaginal bleeding Abdominal pain Fever Signs of pre-term labor

Fever Rationale: Signs and symptoms of separation of the placenta from the uterine wall include: -abdominal pain, -vaginal bleeding, -signs of pre-term labor including contractions, -anxiety, -light-headedness, -weakness and other signs of shock. A fever would most likely be a sign of an infection not of a separation of the placenta from the uterine wall.

Signs and symptoms of brain injury may include all of the following except: Failure of pupils to respond to light Irregular breathing pattern Fibromyalgia Decreased mentation

Fibromyalgia Rationale: Signs and symptoms of brain injury may include: -Decreased mentation, -irregular breathing pattern, -widening pulse pressure, -slow heart rate, -clear or pink CSF leakage from scalp wound or the nose or the ear, -failure of the pupils to respond to light, -unequal pupil size, -loss of sensation and/or motor function, -amnesia, -seizures, -numbness or tingling in the extremities, -irregular respirations, -dizziness, -visual complaints, -combative or other abnormal behavior, and -nausea or vomiting.

The major components of patient assessment include all of the following except: General impression Final assessment Baseline vital signs Standard precautions

Final assessment Rationale: The major components of patient assessment include: -Standard precautions, -scene size-up, -general impression, -initial assessment, -SAMPLE history, -baseline vital signs, -secondary assessment, and -continued assessment. An assessment is ongoing so therefore it is not "final".

Indicators of middle brain stem involved ICP include all of the following except: Pupils sluggish Widening pulse pressure Flaccid response to painful stimuli Bradycardia

Flaccid response to painful stimuli Rationale: ICP (Intracranial Pressure) is the pressure inside the skull and the brain tissue from increased cerebral spinal fluid, brain lesion, or swelling of the brain. Indicators of middle brain stem involved ICP include: -Wide pulse pressure and bradycardia, -nonreactive or sluggish pupils, -central neurogenic hyperventilation

The current health status of a patient that is pertinent to the medical event includes all of the following except: Focus on present status of health Consider environmental conditions Consider other individual factors Focus on patient's past health factors

Focus on patient's past health factors Rationale: Current health status of a patient that is pertinent to the medical event focuses on the present state of health, takes into consideration environmental conditions, and considers other individual factors.

Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to cause an alteration in a patient's behavior? Medical illnesses Drugs or alcohol Situational stresses Food allergies

Food allergies Rationale: Primary factors that may alter a patient's behavior include: -Situational stresses, -medical illnesses, -psychiatric problems, and -alcohol or drugs. Food allergies can lead to situational stresses or medical illness, but are not a primary cause of behavioral changes. People have mild food allergies that don't cause any changes.

When transporting a patient who is in cardiac arrest, the use of sirens and lights is? Advised by the DOT A necessity For moving quickly and safely through traffic Recommended for comfort

For moving quickly and safely through traffic Rationale: Using lights and sirens should have a purpose. Sometimes it is the last thing in the world you want. Using lights and sirens to safely and quickly expedite a patient is acceptable and expected. Remember that it may stress your patient and will often cause other drivers to act in ways you would not expect.

All of the following are functions of the skeletal system except: Protection of fragile organs Generation of heat Creation of blood cells Storage of calcium

Generation of heat Rationale: The skeletal system functions include: -Protection of fragile organs, -providing shape to the body, -allowing for movement, -storing calcium, and -helping create blood cells.

Medical control is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT: Overseeing patient care Making decisions about proper patient care Getting the patient to the hospital safely and quickly Ensuring use of common protocols

Getting the patient to the hospital safely and quickly Rationale: Medical control is rarely, if ever, on scene. It is your responsibility to ensure safe and rapid transport of the patient.

You and your partner Stella are called to the scene of an unknown injury/ illness. You arrive to find a man in his 40's sitting up against the wall of a tavern. He has vomit on his face and shirt and is mumbling something to himself. He obviously has an altered level of consciousness. You begin asking him questions, he responds with slurred answers. He says while waiting for lunch in the tavern, he started feeling sick, so he went outside to throw up. He has clammy skin and is sweating. This patient should...? Quit trying to fool you. You know drunk when you see it Have his glucose levels checked Not eat so much All of the Above

Have his glucose levels checked Rationale: Don't let the surroundings deceive you. He was waiting for lunch, which says he had not eaten, so his altered LOC is likely the result of low sugars. Checking them and possibly transporting would be the best answer.

Levine's sign is something that a person may do unconsciously when they are? Choking on a piece of chicken Giving birth Having a TIA Having an AMI

Having an AMI Rationale: Levine's sign is the clutching of a closed fist to the sternum and is a sign that a person may be having an AMI.

Your patient is a 2-year-old child. He is in respiratory distress and you have identified the need for oxygen therapy. Why have you chosen blow-by oxygen for this patient? The National Standards say to use blow-by oxygen for all children that are 2. It is possible the child is choking and you shouldn't place a mask over the face of a choking victim. He is probably frightened and will tolerate oxygen near him, but not a mask directly placed on his face. Blow-by oxygen provides the highest concentration of oxygen that you can deliver.

He is probably frightened and will tolerate oxygen near him, but not a mask directly placed on his face. Rationale: Because any illness or traumatic event can be stressful and frightening to a child, blow-by oxygen is the best way to deliver a high concentration of oxygen to a child. It doesn't provide as high a concentration as a non-rebreather mask, but is very effective.

Which of the following choices of organs would be the most sensitive to hypoperfusion? Heart and lungs Pancreas and gall bladder Urinary bladder and heart Lungs and spleen

Heart and lungs Rationale: The heart and lungs are the most sensitive to lack of oxygen.

Which is not a cause of Neurogenic shock? Brain injury Tumors Damage to spinal cord Hyperlipidemia

Hyperlipidemia Rationale: Neurogenic shock may be caused by: Damage to the spinal cord, brain injury, tumors, pressure on the spinal cord, and spina bifida. Hyperlipidemia is a high lipid count.

During an assessment of a 78 year old woman you find her skin to be cool, moist, and pale. What would you suspect? Hypoperfusion Hyperthermia Vasovagal Hyperglycemia

Hypoperfusion Rationale: Pale, Cool, skin suggests a lack of oxygen or hypoperfusion of the tissue.

Long-term effects of alcoholism include all of the following except: Impotence Hypotension Increased risk of colorectal cancer Erosive gastritis

Hypotension Rationale: Long-term effects of alcoholism include: -liver damage, -hepatitis, -hypertension, -cirrhosis, -pancreatitis, -erosive gastritis, -increased risk of breast and colorectal cancer, -atrophy of the cerebrum, -impotence, and -sterility. Patients may appear jaundiced from liver damage, experience Wernicke encephalopathy due to thiamine deficiency, and have GI bleeding.

General assessment of orthopedic trauma includes all of the following except: Guarding or self-splinting Mechanism of injury (MOI) Immobilization Standard precautions

Immobilization Rationale: General assessment of orthopedic trauma includes: -Scene safety, -standard precautions, -mechanism of injury (MOI), -determine life threat, -six P's of assessment (pain, pressure, paralysis, -paresthesia, pallor, and pulselessness), -physical exam, -bleeding, -guarding/self-splinting, and -associated injuries.

Alcohol abuse may present in all of the following ways except: Sedation Nausea Respiratory depression Increased resistance to infection

Increased resistance to infection Rationale: The ways that alcohol abuse may present include: CNS changes, agitation, sedation, altered level of consciousness, respiratory depression, nausea, vomiting, and lack of coordination. Other pathologies can cause similar signs and symptoms including diabetes and head trauma. Perform a thorough interview and exam with each patient to narrow your impression.

Assessment findings and symptoms for alcohol abuse may include all of the following except: Slow reflexes Dull sense of awareness Increased stamina Aggressive behavior

Increased stamina Rationale: Assessment findings and symptoms for alcohol abuse include: dull sense of awareness, slow reflexes, reduced reaction time, aggressive behavior, and lack of coordination. Alcohol is a CNS depressant and at high levels causes profound sedation. Be prepared to support the airway and expect a decreased level of consciousness. Alcohol and trauma are often seen together, be diligent in your physical exam to uncover any trauma the patient can't remember or appreciate due to the intoxicant.

The femoral artery is located where in relation to the carotid artery? Distal Inferior Anterior Posterior

Inferior Rationale: The femoral artery is in the leg which is below the carotid artery in the neck. Below something is referred to as inferior.

The most common route of exposure for a hazardous materials incident is? Inhalation Ingestion Absorption Injection

Inhalation Rationale: During a hazardous materials release, a gaseous substance is most often released. Most of these incidents occur at fixed facilities.

You are called to the scene of a cardiac arrest and are met at the door of the home by the patient's son. He presents you with a valid looking DNR for his mother. You enter the home to find the victim's daughter performing CPR. She says that the DNR is not valid and that her mother had it cancelled. What is your best choice of action? Checking the DNR for a cancellation stamp Initiating CPR Calling medical control for advice Loading the patient into the ambulance and transporting

Initiating CPR Rationale: The safest choice would be to provide care unless you are absolutely certain that the DNR is valid and represents the patient's and/or doctor's intentions.

You and your partner Bob have just arrived at a residence for a "slip and fall". When you enter the home a panicked father tells you that his 3 year old son has fallen down a flight of approximately 20 stairs and onto the basement floor. He has the child in his arms and hands him to you. The boy is unconscious with a slow, irregular breathing pattern and a pulse of 98 beats per minute. You and Bob gently place the child on the floor with manual c-spine stabilization and then: Insert an oropharyngeal airway and assist ventilations with a BVM while transporting rapidly. Give 2 short rescue breaths and then begin administration of high flow O2 via non rebreather mask if the child's airway is patent. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisting ventilations at 15-30 breaths per minute with rapid transport. Begin CPR at 100 compressions per minute while delivering approximately 5-6 breaths per minute. Utilize 15:2 ratio with 2 EMTs.

Insert an oropharyngeal airway and assist ventilations with a BVM while transporting rapidly. Rationale: Possible head trauma is a contraindication for using a nasopharyngeal airway as it may increase intracranial pressure or cause additional trauma.

Which of the following lowers blood sugar levels? Glucagon Epinephrine Insulin Glucose

Insulin Rationale: Insulin lowers sugar levels. Epinephrine and glucagon raise sugar levels.

You arrive on scene to find your patient unconscious on the couch. Their breath smells fruity and they are breathing at a rate of 38 a minute accompanied by sighs. Their pulse is 120 and weak and you find an empty container of chocolates next to the couch. You suspect this person _________________. Has eaten too much chocolate and needs some glucose Has too much insulin in their body Is in a diabetic coma Is in insulin shock

Is in a diabetic coma Rationale: The respirations along with the scene size up (chocolates, and fruity odor on breath) and pulse should lead you to suspect hyperglycemia or diabetic coma

When dealing with an agitated delirium patient, assessment of a patient's language include all of the following except: Is language accented Is language garbled Speech content Speech patterns

Is language accented Rationale: When dealing with an agitated delirium patient, assessment of a patient's language includes: -speech pattern and content, and -garbled or unintelligible speech. Remember their speech alone cannot be enough to form your impression of an excited delirium patient; many other pathologies can influence speech.

Significant Mechanism of Injury (MOI) may include all of the following except: Falls from heights Pedestrian verses vehicle collision Isolated trauma to a body part Vehicle crashes with significant intrusion

Isolated trauma to a body part Rationale: Significant Mechanism of Injury may include: -Multiple body systems injured, -vehicle crashes with significant intrusion, -falls from heights with loss of consciousness, -pedestrian versus vehicle collision, -motorcycle crashes, and -death of a vehicle occupant in the same vehicle.

All of the following are disadvantages of a manually triggered ventilation device except: It is difficult to maintain adequate ventilation without assistance It is typically used on adult patients only High ventilation pressures may damage lung tissue It increases fatigue during extended transport times

It increases fatigue during extended transport times Rationale: The disadvantages of using a manually triggered ventilation device include: -It is difficult to maintain adequate ventilation without assistance, -typically used on adult patients only, -requires special unit and additional training for use in pediatric patients, -the rescuer is unable to easily assess lung compliance, and high ventilation pressure may damage lung tissue

When would you remove an object that is impaled in the cheek? It is only through one cheek It is not against religious customs It puts the airway at risk It is protruding into the jaw

It puts the airway at risk Rationale: If the object is putting the airway at risk, then it should be removed from the cheek.

Skin assessment findings for anaphylaxis include all of the following except: Cyanotic Red Pale Jaundice

Jaundice Rationale: Skin assessment findings for anaphylaxis include: Appearing pale from the hypotension, red or flushed from leaky vasculature, or cyanotic from lack of oxygen to the tissues. A jaundiced appearance is usually caused from poor liver function or diseases that attack the liver.

Which best describes Peritoneal Dialysis? Large amount of specially formulated dialysis fluid is infused into and out of the blood system. Large amounts of specially formulated dialysis fluid is infused into and back out of the abdominal cavity. The patient's blood is circulated through a dialysis machine. The patient's abdominal fluid is circulated through a dialysis machine.

Large amounts of specially formulated dialysis fluid is infused into and back out of the abdominal cavity. Rationale: Peritoneal dialysis is the process where a specially formulated dialysis fluid is infused into and then removed or drained out of the abdominal cavity.

You are assessing an 84 year old man. Upon auscultation of the lungs you discover crackles or rale sounds. He is complaining of chest pain and congestion. These signs and symptoms can indicate? An embolism Collapse of the vena cava Right ventricular failure Left ventricular failure

Left ventricular failure Rationale: These are signs and symptoms of a possible failure of the left ventricle. The pump portion of the heart is unable to pump efficiently and fluid begins to back up into the lungs.

Signs and symptoms of kidney stones may include all of the following except: Nausea Restlessness Agitation Lethargy

Lethargy Rationale: Signs and symptoms of kidney stones may include: vague discomfort in the flank, agitation, restlessness, nausea, and vomiting.

General assessment of burn injuries include all of the following except: Standard precautions Lung sounds Airway patency Respiratory distress

Lung sounds Rationale: General assessment of burn injuries include: Scene safety/standard precautions, make sure that the reason for the burn injury is no longer threatening to you and your crew. Airway patency, assess for adequate breathing, provide high flow oxygen if needed. Respiratory distress, if your patient answers questions with a raspy voice or they have singed facial hair, or frequent coughing, they may have a respiratory burn. Classification of burn depth, include the source and depth. Percentage of body surface area burned, use rule of nines. Severity of burn, is it superficial, partial, or full-thickness?

You are securing a traction splint to a 65 year old patient with a potentially fractured femur. Which of the following would you do first? Align the leg to its normal position Manually stabilize the fracture Check PMS Measure the device

Manually stabilize the fracture Rationale: Manually stabilizing the fracture is the first thing you should do and then check PMS.

When securing a traction splinting device to a femur fracture, which of the following comes first? Check PMS Manually stabilize the fracture SAMPLE Measure the device

Manually stabilize the fracture Rationale: Manually stabilizing the fracture is the first thing you should do. Then check PMS.

The unique circulation signs and symptoms of submersion incidents include all of the following except: Skin may be cold Skin may be cyanotic May be in cardiac arrest May be coughing

May be coughing Rationale: The unique circulation signs and symptoms of submersion incidents include: May be in cardiac arrest, skin may be cyanotic, and skin may be cold.

You are assessing a patient and have arrived at the SAMPLE history. The M question relates to? Method of illness Marital status Medical direction Medications

Medications Rationale: Medications that the patient may be taking is an important detail to know for all patients.

Inflammation of the lining that surrounds the brain is called ________________. Meningitis Encephalitis Cerebral homeostasis Brain abscess

Meningitis Rationale: Inflammation of the lining of the brain is called meningitis, which can be bacterial or viral in nature.

Which of the following is not an enteral route of drug administration? PO OG SL Nasal

Nasal Rationale: Enteral routes of administration include oral (PO), orogastric (OG), nasogastric (NG), sublingual (SL), buccal, and rectal.

All of the following are transport considerations with brain trauma patients except: Patients with abnormal vital signs, or a decreased level of consciousness may need rapid extrication Patients may deteriorate rapidly and may need air medical transport Nasopharyngeal airways should be used in patients with facial trauma Adequate airway, ventilation and oxygenation are critical to the outcome of patient

Nasopharyngeal airways should be used in patients with facial trauma Rationale: Transport considerations with brain trauma include: Head trauma with impaired airway or ventilation, open wounds, abnormal vital signs, or patients who do not respond to painful stimuli may need rapid extrication; head trauma patients must be transported to appropriate trauma centers; head trauma patients may deteriorate rapidly and may need air medical transport; adequate airway, ventilation, and oxygenation are critical to the outcome of head trauma patients; head trauma patients frequently vomit - keep suction available; head trauma patients frequently have seizures. Nasopharyngeal airways should not be used in patients with facial trauma.

Which best describes white matter? Nerve pathways that conduct messages of the brain Composed of nerve cells Coverings of the brain Center for involuntary functions

Nerve pathways that conduct messages of the brain Rationale: White matter is fiber nerve pathways that conduct messages of the brain.

You are the driver of the ambulance responding to a call of a cardiac arrest. While driving, you should always..? Use sirens and lights Drive offensively Obey traffic laws and drive with due regard for others Drive without lights and sirens to avoid confusing other drivers

Obey traffic laws and drive with due regard for others Rationale: Driving with caution is a major part of operating an emergency vehicle. People do the strangest things when they see an ambulance, so be prepared and drive defensively.

A closed fracture is: One that occurs at the end of a long bone One that does not go all the way through the bone One that cannot be visually identified without an x-ray One that does not break the skin

One that does not break the skin Rationale: Closed fractures do not break the skin but may involve swelling and deformity. Open or compound fractures break through the skin.

What would a baby that had a cephalic presentation during birth be considered? An emergency A reason for a c section Unlikely to be healthy Optimal for delivery

Optimal for delivery Rationale: Head first presentation is considered optimal for delivery of a baby through the vaginal opening.

You are called to a boat launch at Lake Santa Cruz for a 36-year-old female who has fallen and injured her leg. You arrive to find a female patient with extreme pain in the left thigh. She is lying on the dock screaming while several people who are drinking beer offer their advice. You direct your team to apply a traction splint because you find: External rotation of the injured extremity Deformity proximal to the knee of the injured extremity Palpable deformity mid-shaft in the injured femur The patient is in need of pain relief

Palpable deformity mid-shaft in the injured femur Rationale: Traction splints are used primarily to secure fractures of the shaft of the femur, which are usually identified by pain, swelling, and deformity of the mid-thigh or mid-shaft area of the femur.

Which of the following assessment considerations should not be included for facial and eye injuries? Inspection Eye examination Palpation of facial bones Palpation of cranial bones

Palpation of cranial bones Rationale: Assessment considerations for facial and eye injuries include: -Inspection, -palpation of facial bones, and -eye examination.

Management considerations when dealing with facial and eye injuries include all of the following except: Control simple nose bleeds by pinching nostrils Patch injured eye only Stabilize impaled objects in cheeks May need frequent suctioning

Patch injured eye only Rationale: Management considerations when dealing with facial and eye injuries include: Maintain patent airway, may need frequent suctioning, bring broken teeth to the hospital with patient, flush contaminated eye with copious amounts of water, control simple nose bleeds by pinching nostrils, eye injuries require patching of both eyes, stabilize impaled objects in cheeks, objects may be removed if bleeding obstructs the airway, position patients sitting up if there is no risk of spinal injury.

While driving to a chest pain call, you arrive on scene of a single vehicle MVC involving a moose. The driver was driving about 50 MPH when he hit the moose. After completing your scene size up, to which of the following would you proceed? Baseline vitals Perform a rapid trauma assessment Search for more victims thrown from the car SAMPLE history with focused physical examination

Perform a rapid trauma assessment Rationale: Rapid trauma should be used first with a significant method of injury suspected. Hitting a moose at 50 MPH is significant. Searching for victims should be part of your initial size up.

Common barbiturates, sedatives, and hypnotic substances include all of the following except: Phentermine Ethyl alcohol Diazepam Butabarbital

Phentermine Rationale: Common barbiturates, sedatives, and hypnotic substances include: -Amobarbital, -butabarbital, -pentobarbital, -alprazolam, -diazepam, -oxazepam, -carisoprodol, -ethchlorvynol, and -ethyl alcohol.

A 26 year old woman has called the ambulance because she has begun delivery of her baby. Dispatch says the mother stated the baby's foot was sticking out of the vaginal opening. You should be prepared to? High flow 02 on the mother, rapid transport, and gently maneuver the baby's foot back into the vagina Place patient into a knee to chest position and rapid transport Ask the mother to push and assist with the rest of the delivery Gently pull the rest of the baby out by the foot sticking out

Place patient into a knee to chest position and rapid transport Rationale: Allow gravity to assist you in keeping the child in the canal until definitive care.

The three types of blood cells include all of the following except: White blood cells Platelets Plasma Red blood cells

Plasma Rationale: The three types of blood cells include: Red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.

All of the following are vascular structures that support respiration except: Pleura Pulmonary capillary structures Heart Tissue/cellular beds

Pleura Rationale: Vascular structures that support respiration include: pulmonary capillary structures, heart, tissue/cellular beds, and arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins.

All of the following may be involved in a sprain except: Injury to ligaments Tearing of stabilizing connective tissue Produced by abnormal contraction Injury to articular capsule

Produced by abnormal contraction Rationale: A sprain may involve: Tearing of stabilizing connective tissue, injuries to ligaments and/or articular capsule, synovial membrane and tendons crossing joints.

The epiglottis serves which function? Protects the airway of an unconscious patient during swallowing Protects the airway of a conscious patient during swallowing Protects the upper airway Forms the first ring of the trachea

Protects the airway of a conscious patient during swallowing Rationale: The epiglottis protects the airway of a conscious patient during swallowing.

What would you do if you were Administering nitroglycerin sublingually? Insert the needle into the sublingual tissue Insert the needle below the lingual layer Put it between the cheek and gum Put it under the tongue

Put it under the tongue Rationale: Between the cheek and gum is buccal .You should not be administering nitro with a needle in the mouth.

Of the possible answers, where shouldn't attention be focused during secondary assessment of the neck? Accessory muscle use Pain Stoma Range of motion

Range of motion Rationale: During secondary assessment of the neck, attention should be focused on: Pain, accessory muscle use, jugular vein distention, medical jewelry, and stoma. Range of motion is an inappropriate answer.

The majority of cardiac medical emergencies are the result of what? Embolism and thrombosis Reduced blood supply to the myocardium Poor diet Old age

Reduced blood supply to the myocardium Rationale: Lack of oxygen to the heart muscle is what most cardiac emergencies are based on.

You arrive on scene with your partner Mike to a report of a fall. The patient is a 59-year-old female who slipped and fell while running in from a rainstorm. Her clothes are soaked as she could not get out of the storm fast enough. She is conscious and complaining only of pain in her right shoulder. She is lying supine on the kitchen floor shivering and holding her arm. The proper course of action would be...? O2, traction splinting, and transport Load her on a backboard with c spine precautions, O2, and transport Put a blanket on her, O2, and traction splinting Remove the wet clothing, high flow O2, check PMS

Remove the wet clothing, high flow O2, check PMS Rationale: Getting the wet clothes off her to help prevent shock, along with High flow O2, and checking the pulse/sensory motor function of the affected limb would be the best choice. The other answers never checked PMS which is very necessary.

During secondary assessment of the abdomen, attention should be focused on all of the following except: Rigidity Retractions Distention Medical devices

Retractions Rationale: During secondary assessment of the abdomen, attention should be focused on: -Pain, -rigidity, -distention, -scars, and -medical devices.

Patients with tracheal stomas may necessitate different ventilation techniques than those without tracheostomies. Which of the following statements is true with regard to these ventilation techniques? A specialized tracheostomy adapter can be fitted into the stoma or attached to the tracheostomy tube. A bag valve mask can then be used to provide artificial ventilations with 100% oxygen attached to the BVM port. The head tilt chin lift maneuver is effective in helping maintain a patent airway in patients being ventilated through a tracheal stoma. A rolled up towel placed under the neck can facilitate tracheal alignment Sealing the mouth and nose of a patient while delivering a ventilation through a stoma and then unsealing the mouth and nose during passive exhalation can be an effective assisted ventilatory technique Inserting an OPA before beginning BVM to stoma ventilations will assist in maintaining a patent airway when the patient has been vomiting. If large portions of vomitus exist, then suctioning to the level of the stoma through the oropharynx is acceptable

Sealing the mouth and nose of a patient while delivering a ventilation through a stoma and then unsealing the mouth and nose during passive exhalation can be an effective assisted ventilatory technique Rationale: Tracheostomies/stomas are a permanent opening in the midline/base of the trachea. When ventilating through a stoma, there is no benefit from the head tilt or jaw thrust maneuver, as this only lifts the tongue off the pharynx which is above the tracheostomy opening. There is no specialized tracheostomy adapter. It is the same adapter that comes on a BVM. Additionally, it cannot be attached directly to the stoma (use a child or infant mask to form a seal when no tube exists). An OPA is not going to do much for the tracheostomy ventilated patient. It should be removed if they are vomiting and only suctioned to the base of the tongue.

You arrive on scene to find a semiconscious adult female who is not able to maintain her own airway. You determine that her gag reflex is intact. What is the first step when inserting a nasopharyngeal airway? Select the proper size airway by measuring from the center of her mouth to the earlobe. Select the proper size airway by measuring from the corner of her mouth to the earlobe. Select the proper size airway by matching the diameter of the airway with the patient's small finger. Select the proper size airway by measuring from the tip of her nose to the earlobe.

Select the proper size airway by measuring from the tip of her nose to the earlobe. Rationale: The first step for inserting a nasopharyngeal airway is to select the proper size by measureing from the tip of the nose to the earlobe. There may be other methods as well, however none of the other options listed are considered appropriate measuring techniques for adult patients.

Injuries to hollow organs that go undiagnosed for an extended period of time may lead to wound infection or ____________________. The contents of the organ spilling into the peritoneal space may cause__________________. Separation / pericardium Pleurisy / diverticulitis Sepsis / peritonitis Uneven healing / a hemothorax

Sepsis / peritonitis Rationale: Sepsis is an infection. When a hollow organ has a puncture it may spill it's contents, which could cause inflammation of the peritoneal lining or peritonitis.

You and your partner Mick have responded to a report of a 7 year old girl that is having problems breathing. The girl's parents tell you that she has never had any problems like this before. The mother says the child has had the flu for a few days, but woke up this morning complaining of difficulty breathing for the first time. Upon visual inspection you see the girl is utilizing accessory muscles to breath and her nostrils are flaring. She is breathing at 20 respirations per minute and her skin is warm and dry. What is she most likely suffering from and what would be your best treatment option? She likely has an upper airway obstruction and should be transported with a nasal canula at 2 LPM She likely has epiglottitis and should be transported with an NRB at 15 LPM She likely has asthma and should be given positive pressure ventilations to prevent hypoxia She likely has a pulmonary evisceration and should be transported in a position of comfort

She likely has epiglottitis and should be transported with an NRB at 15 LPM Rationale: Epiglottitis is known to strike children in this age group. Transporting with airway support via an NRB is the best answer. Given the assessment, she does not need positive pressure ventilations at this point

You and your partner Demetri arrive on scene of a bike wreck. As you approach the patient, you see he has a severly deformed knee. The knee is a..? Subjective finding Sublexation Symptom Sign

Sign Rationale: A symptom is subjective as it is based upon the patient's perception, like feeling nauseous. A sign is objective because it is based upon factual findings, like a rash or a deformed arm.

S in the SAMPLE history stands for? Significant Signs Severity Superficial

Signs Rationale: Signs or symptoms is correct.

The entrance wound of a gunshot is usually? Deeper than the exit wound Larger than the exit wound Smaller than the exit wound Easier to see than an exit wound

Smaller than the exit wound Rationale: Entrance wounds are generally smaller than exit wounds and show signs of burning at close range.

Why should you depress the talk button on your portable radio for a moment before speaking? Every transmission should be proceeded by an "Ok" Because it is in the OSHA rules and regulations To give the radio appropriate time to power up So your transmission is not cut off

So your transmission is not cut off Rationale: It allows time for signal reception so you will not have your first words cut off.

Which of the following should not be taken into consideration when assessing the past medical history pertinent to the medical event? Pre-existing medical conditions Spouse's history Allergies Travel history

Spouse's history Rationale: When assessing past medical history (pertinent to the medical event), the following should be taken into consideration: Pre-existing medical conditions or surgeries, medications, allergies, family history, social history, and travel history.

Cellular respiration and cellular metabolism are best described as: The exchange of respiratory gases between the systemic capillaries and the surrounding tissue beds The use of oxygen and carbohydrates to produce energy and the creation of carbon dioxide and water by-products The exchange of respiratory gases between the alveoli and the pulmonary capillary bed The use of oxygen to create hemoglobin in the blood stream

The use of oxygen and carbohydrates to produce energy and the creation of carbon dioxide and water by-products Rationale: Cellular respiration and cellular metabolism is the use of oxygen and carbohydrates to produce energy and the creation of carbon dioxide and water by-products.

Which list includes only abnormal breath sounds? Retractions, nasal flare, abdominal breathing, and diaphoresis Abdominal breathing, stridor, retractions, and silent chest Wheezing, nasal flare, crackles, and diaphoresis Stridor, wheezing, crackles, and silent chest

Stridor, wheezing, crackles, and silent chest Rationale: Abnormal breath sounds include: -stridor, -wheezing, -crackles, -silent chest, and -unequal breath sounds. Any of these conditions would be cause for concern and would require a further evaluation of your patient.

If your patient has a burn involving only the epidermis, it would most likely be considered? Superficial Tertiary Epidural Sufritic

Superficial Rationale: Superficial is just the epidermis, secondary or partial thickness is epidermis and dermis.

The larynx is ______________ to the trachea. Inferior Superior Lateral Dorsal

Superior Rationale: The larynx sits above the trachea.

Assessment findings for Pelvic Inflammatory Disease include all of the following except: Syncope Fever Nausea Vomiting

Syncope Rationale: Assessment findings for Pelvic -Inflammatory Disease include: -generalized lower abdominal pain, -abnormal vaginal discharge, -foul-smelling vaginal discharge, -increased pain with intercourse, -fever, -general malaise, -nausea, and -vomiting.

Of the answer choices, which would not be an assessment consideration for inspection of facial and eye injuries? Bone deformity Tendon deformity Swelling Open wounds

Tendon deformity Rationale: Assessment considerations of facial and eye injuries include inspection for: -Open wounds, -swelling, -deformity of bones, -eye clarity without foreign objects, -eye symmetry, and -bone alignment in anatomical position.

You are ordered by Medical Control to assist a patient with an MDI inhaler. Before helping the patient with the inhaler what would you want to check for? That it is the patient's current medication That there is enough medication left to be effective That the patient is not choking That you have more of the medication in your med kit

That it is the patient's current medication Rationale: You need to make sure it is the patient's prescription and that it is not expired.

You are transporting a pregnant patient to the hospital. She tells you she is having horrible back labor. You know that back labor is caused by the fetus pressing against? The Kidneys The Spine The Pancreas The Liver

The Spine Rationale: A fetus sitting posterior in the uterus may put pressure on the spine of the mother causing her to have what is known as 'back labor.'

A motor vehicle accident has occurred right in front of your ambulance and requires the patients to be extricated. Your first choice of location to accomplish the rapid extrication should be the? Cut off roof Broken window Open broken windshield The door

The door Rationale: Always check all of the doors before cutting through the car with the Jaws of Life. One will often be able to extricate the patient through a door that can be opened.

In Prehospital emergency medicine the term lumen refers to? How much light is in the ambulance The inside diameter of a tube The diameter of the outer cranium The rapid loss of water

The inside diameter of a tube Rationale: Lumen, in reference to EMS, would refer to the inside diameter of a tube, such as an ET tube or a needle or a nasopharyngeal. It also refers to a vessel's diameter.

Diabetes affects the entire body, but some systems deteriorate at a more noticeable rate than others. These systems are? Central nervous system and sympathetic system The small arteries, skin disorders, and digestion Ears, appendix, and urinary tract The kidneys, eyes, and peripheral nerves

The kidneys, eyes, and peripheral nerves Rationale: Diabetes is capable of deteriorating any of the body's tissues, but those hit especially hard are the kidneys, eyes, and peripheral nerves.

Which statement best describes the function of red blood cells in the body? They transport oxygen throughout the body They transport carbon dioxide to the lungs for disposal They are the main factor in forming blood clots They clean the blood of infection and dead cells

They transport oxygen throughout the body Rationale: Red blood cells transport oxygen (bound to hemoglobin) throughout the body.

Upon inhalation, air enters the mouth and then proceeds: Through the pharynx and then the larynx into the trachea branching at the carina into the bronchi Through the larynx and then through the trachea passing the bronchi and into the carina Through the oropharynx and into the vocal cords passing the bronchi then the trachea into the alveoli None of the above choices contains an answer that could be correct

Through the pharynx and then the larynx into the trachea branching at the carina into the bronchi Rationale: The first answer contains an order of airway structures that is correct. There are additional landmarks that could be added, but the overall order is correct where the other answers are blatantly wrong.

Which answer would not be included in a neurological/circulatory examination in orthopedic trauma? Motor/sensory Capillary refill Distal pulses Tidal volume

Tidal volume Rationale: Neurological/circulatory examination in orthopedic trauma includes: -motor/sensory, -distal pulses, -capillary refill, -color, and -temperature.

The body's first physiological response to a deep laceration is ____________________. To stop it by chemical means and vasoconstriction (hemostasis) To stop it by means of slowing the heart and respirations Psychogenic shock Decorticate posturing

To stop it by chemical means and vasoconstriction (hemostasis) Rationale: Localized constriction of the vessels, formation of a platelet plug, and coagulation are the initial steps the body takes to stop the bleeding.

You and your partner Wendy have just arrived on scene to a report of a woman having a seizure. When you enter the room you witness the patient's muscles tensing down where they remain rigid. This period of the seizure is called? Postictal Clonic Monic Tonic

Tonic Rationale: The tonic phase of a tonic clonic seizure is when the patient's muscles become rigid. Postictal is the last phase where they are lethargic and appear to be waking up.

You arrive on scene with your partner Kareem in response to a call of a child being sick. What should you do to determine the child's level of responsiveness if their eyes are closed? Shake the child by the shoulder Give them a sternal rub Touch them on the shoulder and speak loudly Flick their neck with the back of your finger

Touch them on the shoulder and speak loudly Rationale: Never shake a person as they may have a spinal injury. A sternal rub or "neck flick" is a little too rough. A louder than normal voice and shoulder tap would be the most appropriate.

Injury and rupture to which of the following organs would most likely cause an infection? Spleen Liver Transverse colon Pancreas

Transverse colon Rationale: Damage and rupture to any of the hollow organs may spill their contents and cause an infection. Spleen, liver, and pancreas are solid organs.

Management of a patient that has taken a hallucinogen include all of the following except: Attend continually Provide emotional support Calm professional manner Use restraints

Use restraints Rationale: Management of a patient that has taken a hallucinogen include: -use a calm professional manner, -provide emotional support, -do not use restraints unless you or patient is in danger of injury, and -never leave a patient unattended or unmonitored. If the patient does need restrained, law enforcement should be requested to assist in transport.

Management of a patient that has taken a hallucinogen include all of the following except: Attend continually Provide emotional support Calm professional manner Use restraints

Use restraints Rationale: Management of a patient that has taken a hallucinogen include: use a calm professional manner, provide emotional support, do not use restraints unless you or patient is in danger of injury, and never leave a patient unattended or unmonitored. If the patient does need restrained, law enforcement should be requested to assist in transport.

Your male patient is the victim of a moderate speed MVA. The patient is unconscious and not breathing. You attempt to open his airway with a jaw thrust maneuver and are unsuccessful. What should you do next? Use the head tilt chin lift maneuver Use the jaw thrust maneuver again Move the patient to a supine position and again attempt to open his airway with the jaw thrust maneuver Put in an OPA and prepare to suction

Use the head tilt chin lift maneuver Rationale: AHA Guidelines state that after an unsuccessful attempt at opening the patient's airway with the jaw thrust maneuver, you should use the head tilt chin lift maneuver. Recognize this may be potentially damaging to the spine, however, opening the airway is priority.

You and your partner Wanda arrive on scene to find a male patient complaining of dyspnea. The caretaker attending the man verifies he has COPD and is currently on oxygen at 4 lpm by nasal canula. Upon assessing respirations, you note the man is breathing at a rate of 30 breaths per minute and his tidal volume is very shallow. What should you do? Ask the man if he is having trouble breathing Coach him to decrease his breathing rate Ventilate via BVM with attached O2 at a tidal volume around 500 mL per breath Apply a non rebreather mask with high flow O2 at 15 lpm

Ventilate via BVM with attached O2 at a tidal volume around 500 mL per breath Rationale: A patient who is only breathing with a tidal volume of 150 mL (very shallow) is ineffective at oxygenating the tissues at any rate. The reason is that approximately 150 mL of air resides in the dead space of the airway and never reaches the alveoli. If the patient is only taking in 150 mL, the oxygen is never reaching the alveoli. This is conversely true with carbon dioxide being expelled from the lungs.

A complete neurological exam of a brain trauma patient as part of the general assessment should include all of the following except: Ventilation and respiration Appearance and behavior Posture and motor behavior Facial expression

Ventilation and respiration Rationale: A complete neurological exam of a brain trauma patient should include: Appearance and behavior, observe posture and motor behavior, facial expression, speech and language, thoughts and perceptions, memory and attention, pupils and vital signs.

The V in AVPU stands for? Vaseline Veins Visceral Verbal

Verbal Rationale: Alert - Verbal - pain - and Unconscious (unresponsive).

What type of lung sounds would you expect to hear in a patient that is healthy? Moist lung sounds Bronchovesicular lung sounds Bronchial lung sounds Vesicular lung sounds

Vesicular lung sounds Rationale: Normal breath sounds are vesicular when heard over the lungs. Auscultation over the anterior sternum will produce bronchial breath sounds in normal conditions but they are not normal over the lungs.

Signs and symptoms of Anaphylactic shock include all of the following except: Vascular dilation Mild itching Vomiting Burning skin

Vomiting Rationale: Signs and symptoms of Anaphylactic shock include: -rapid onset, -mild itching or rash, -burning skin, -vascular dilation, -generalized edema, -coma, -rapid death.

Hemiparesis is? Incontinent actions Blood in the urine Weakness on one side of the body All of the Above

Weakness on one side of the body Rationale: Hemiparesis is general weakness on one side of the body only, and may be exhibited during a stroke.

In the assessment for suicide risk all of the following questions need to be addressed except: Are there interventions in place? What are the patient's issues? Does the patient have suicidal tendencies? Is there a medical problem?

What are the patient's issues? Rationale: In the assessment for suicide risk, the following questions need to be addressed: How does the patient feel? Does the patient have suicidal tendencies? Is the patient a threat to self or others? Is there a medical problem? Is there trauma involved? Are there interventions in place? The patients "issues" are irrelevant to our treatment and assessment. The term "issues" is also inappropriate.

Your patient is a 78 year old male who is complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. Which of the following assessment questions would be the most appropriate to ask him? When was your last oral intake? Does the pain feel sharp or does it feel dull? What does the pain feel like? Do you feel pressure in your chest?

What does the pain feel like? Rationale: Open ended assessment questions will reveal more information than closed ended. This means that descriptive answers received from open ended questions will likely be better than closed ended "yes or no" questions or questions that make a patient choose between 2 or more choices.

During the focused history of the current illness you would use the mnemonic OPQRST to assess their illness. What question does the letter O represent? Have you had Operations? Off set When did it start? Does it feel Ordinary?

When did it start? Rationale: Onset, when did it start? Was it slow or rapid?

When is the scene size up completed? When you finish your assessment When you finish the run When you call for ALS All of the above

When you finish the run Rationale: It is not done until you have completed the call. You can continually process information regarding the scene to help aid in patient care.

Which of the following is not a type of splint? Formable Long spine board Short spine board Wide spine board

Wide spine board Rationale: Types of splints include: Rigid, formable, traction, air, vacuum, pillow/blanket, short spine board, and long spine board.

You arrive on scene with your partner Rico to aid with a mass casualty. Rico has begun tending c-spine to a patient in a crushed vehicle while you begin to manage the airway of the unconscious patient. While you are getting an oral airway out of your bag you see that one of the other cars in the crash is that of your cousin. You go to the car and find him in respiratory distress with shallow respirations and he can barely talk. You put him on high flow O2 and put a collar on him telling him to stay put until you get back. What just happened? You applied proper triage knowledge to a mass casualty You abandoned your first patient You made a judgment call You were making the best decision

You abandoned your first patient Rationale: Abandonment is that action of leaving a patient without an equal or more advanced level of care to replace you.

You and your partner Wilson arrive on scene to a fire that is under control. You are treating a patient with full thickness burns to the arm. During transport to the helicopter Wilson says, "Hey, what zone of the burn is the part that will recover?" You respond, "The ____________. Zone of coagulation Zone of hemoptysis Zone of stasis Zone of hyperemia

Zone of hyperemia Rationale: Zone of coagulation is the central part of the burn. Zone of stasis has partial viable tissue out from that. Then there is the zone of hyperemia which is the part that will most likely recover from the injury.

Pneumonia is __________________ caused by ____________________. relatively harmless / either a virus or a bacteria a slow onset inflammation of the lungs / a bacteria a group of infections / mild cold exposure during periods of deficiency in the immune system an acute respiratory inflammation / a virus

an acute respiratory inflammation / a virus Rationale: Pneumonia is the 5th leading cause of death in the United States. It has a rapid or short duration onset and can be caused by both viruses and bacteria.

During secondary assessment, all of the following are aspects of monitoring the pulse that should be addressed except: rate auscultation rhythm strength

auscultation Rationale: During secondary assessment, all of the following are aspects of monitoring the pulse that should be addressed: -Rate, -rhythm, -regularity (adjust timing for irregularity), -strength, and -location.

Within the vascular system, central pulses include ___________ and ___________. brachial pulse; carotid pulse radial pulse; brachial pulse femoral pulse; carotid pulse femoral pulse; radial pulse

femoral pulse; carotid pulse Rationale: Within the Vascular system, central pulses include: carotid pulse and femoral pulse.

In the cell environment, Aerobic Metabolism produces ______________ and _________________; while Anaerobic Metabolism produces __________________ and ________________. high ATP and lactic acid; low ATP, water and carbon dioxide high ATP and carbon monoxide; low ATP and lactic acid high ATP, water and carbon dioxide; low ATP and bacilic acid high ATP, water and carbon dioxide; low ATP and lactic acid

high ATP, water and carbon dioxide; low ATP and lactic acid Rationale: In the cell environemt Aerobic Metablosim produce high ATP, water and carbon dioxide; while Anareobic Metabolism produces low ATP and lactic acid.

Risk factors, signs, or symptoms for suicide may include all of the following except: mild mood swings dramatic mood changes alcohol and substance abuse relational or social loss

mild mood swings Rationale: Risk factors, signs, or symptoms for suicide may include: Alcohol and substance abuse; purposelessness; anxiety, agitation, unable to sleep or sleeping all the time; feeling trapped, no way out; hopelessness; withdrawal from friends, family and society; anger and/or aggressive tendencies; recklessness or engaging in risky activities; dramatic mood changes; history of trauma or abuse; some major illness (cancer, CHF, etc.); previous suicide attempt; job or financial loss; easy access to lethal means; lack of social support and sense of isolation; and certain cultural and religious beliefs.

The venom of the black widow spider is a _________________ . cardio toxin hematoxin cytotoxin neurotoxin

neurotoxin Rationale: The venom of the black widow is a neurotoxin.

The speed in which the immune system responds to an allergen include _________________________________ and ______________________________. slow (more than 15 minutes) and immediate (less than 15 minutes) slow (more than 30 minutes) and immediate (less than 30 minutes) slow (more than 60 minutes) and immediate (less than 60 minutes) slow (more than 90 minutes) and immediate (less than 90 minutes)

slow (more than 30 minutes) and immediate (less than 30 minutes) Rationale: The speed in which the immune system responds to an allergen include slow (more than 30 minutes) and immediate (less than 30 minutes) The National Emergency Medical Service Education Standards define the response to allergens as, 'before or after the 30 minute benchmark.'

Acute abdomen refers to ______________________________. the slow onset of abdominal pain the sudden onset of abdominal pain the sudden onset of abdominal distention the slow onset of abdominal distention

the sudden onset of abdominal pain Rationale: Acute abdomen refers to the sudden onset of abdominal pain, often associated with severe, progressive problems that require medical attention.