NS 102 Chapter 27 Lower Respiratory, Chapter 27 Evolve, Chapter 27: Lower Respiratory Problems

D. Less discomfort and faster return to normal activity. The VATS procedure uses minimally invasive incisions that cause less discomfort and allow faster healing and return to normal activity as well as lower morbidity risk and fewer complications. Many surgeries can be done for lung cancer, but pneumonectomy via thoracotomy is the most common surgery for lung cancer. The incision for a thoracotomy is commonly a medial sternotomy or a lateral approach. A chest tube will be needed postoperatively for VATS.

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c Acute rejection may occur as early as 5 to 10 days after surgery and is manifested by low-grade fever, fatigue, and oxygen desaturation with exertion. Complete remission of symptoms can be accomplished with high doses of IV corticosteroids followed by high doses of oral prednisone. Cytomegalovirus and other infections can be fatal but usually occur weeks after surgery and manifest with symptoms of pneumonia. Obliterative bronchiolitis is a late complication of lung transplantation, reflecting chronic rejection.

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7. a, 9. c, 10. a, 11. c, 12. a, 13. b, 14. b, c, e

7. you are caring for patients exposed to a chlorine leak from a local factory. The nurse would closely monitor these patients for a. pulmonary edema.b. anaphylactic shock.c. respiratory alkalosis. d. acute tubular necrosis. 9. The nurse identifies a flail chest in a trauma patient when a. multiple rib fractures are determined by x-ray. b. a tracheal deviation to the unaffected side is present .c. paradoxical chest movement occurs during respiration. d. there is decreased movement of the involved chest wall. 10. 10. The nurse notes tidaling of the water level in the water- seal chamber in a patient with closed chest tube drainage. The nurse should a. continue to monitor the patient. b. check all connections for a leak in the system. c. lower the drainage collector further from the chest. d. clamp the tubing at a distal point away from the patient. 11. After a pneumonectomy, an appropriate nursing intervention is a. monitoring chest tube drainage and functioning. b. positioning the patient on the unaffected side or back. c. doing range-of-motion exercises on the affected upper limb. d. auscultating frequently for lung sounds on the affected side. 12. A priority nursing intervention for a patient who has just undergone a chemical pleurodesis for recurrent pleural effusion is a. giving ordered analgesia. b. monitoring chest tube drainage .c. sending pleural fluid for laboratory analysis .d. monitoring the patient's level of consciousness. 13. When planning care for a patient at risk for pulmonary embolism, the nurse prioritizes a. maintaining the patient on bed rest. b. using intermittent pneumatic compression devices. c. encouraging the patient to cough and deep breathe. d. teaching the patient how to use the incentive spirometer.

A. Cover the chest wound with a nonporous dressing taped on three sides. The patient has a sucking chest wound (open pneumothorax). Air enters the pleural space through the chest wall during inspiration. Emergency treatment consists of covering the wound with an occlusive dressing that is secured on three sides. During inspiration, the dressing pulls against the wound, preventing air from entering the pleural space. During expiration, the dressing is pushed out and air escapes through the wound and from under the dressing.

A patient with a gunshot wound to the right side of the chest arrives in the emergency department exhibiting severe shortness of breath with decreased breath sounds on the right side of the chest. Which action should the nurse take immediately? A. Cover the chest wound with a nonporous dressing taped on three sides. B. Pack the chest wound with sterile saline soaked gauze and tape securely. C. Stabilize the chest wall with tape and initiate positive pressure ventilation. D. Apply a pressure dressing over the wound to prevent excessive loss of blood.

b Clear lung sounds indicate that the airways are clear. SpO2 of 95% to 100% indicates appropriate gas exchange. Tolerating walking in the hallway indicates appropriate gas exchange and activity tolerance, not improved airway clearance. Deep breaths are necessary to move mucus from distal airways, but this is not an outcome for this nursing diagnosis.

A patient with pneumonia is having difficulty clearing the airway because of pain, fatigue, and thick secretions. What is an expected outcome for this patient? a. SpO2 is 90% b. Lungs clear to auscultation c. Patient tolerates walking in hallway d. Patient takes 3 to 4 shallow breaths before coughing to minimize pain

c A spiral (helical) CT scan is the most frequently used test to diagnose pulmonary emboli (PE) because it allows illumination of all anatomic structures and produces a 3-dimensional picture. If a patient cannot have contrast media, a ventilation-perfusion scan is done. Although pulmonary angiography is most sensitive, it is invasive, expensive, and carries more risk for complications. D-dimer is neither specific nor sensitive for small PE, especially in this patient with deep vein thrombosis. Chest x-rays do not detect PE until necrosis or abscesses occur.

A pulmonary embolus is suspected in a patient with a deep vein thrombosis who develops dyspnea, tachycardia, and chest pain. Diagnostic testing is scheduled. Which test should the nurse plan to teach the patient about? a. D-dimer b. Chest x-ray c. Spiral (helical) CT scan d. Ventilation-perfusion lung scan

26. The nurse administers prescribed therapies for a patient with cor pulmonale and right-sided heart failure. Which assessment could be used to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapies? a. Observe for distended neck veins. b. Auscultate for crackles in the lungs. c. Palpate for heaves or thrills over the heart. d. Monitor for elevated white blood cell count.

ANS: A Cor pulmonale is right ventricular failure caused by pulmonary hypertension, so clinical manifestations of right ventricular failure such as peripheral edema, jugular venous distention, and right upper-quadrant abdominal tenderness would be expected. Crackles in the lungs are likely to be heard with left-sided heart failure. Findings in cor pulmonale include evidence of right ventricular hypertrophy on electrocardiography and an increase in intensity of the second heart sound. Heaves or thrills are not common with cor pulmonale. White blood count elevation might indicate infection but is not expected with cor pulmonale.

31. The nurse is caring for a patient who has just had a thoracentesis. Which assessment information obtained by the nurse is a priority to communicate to the health care provider? a. O2 saturation is 88%. b. Blood pressure is 155/90 mm Hg. c. Respiratory rate is 24 breaths/min when lying flat. d. Pain level is 5 (on 0 to 10 scale) with a deep breath.

ANS: A O2 saturation should improve after a thoracentesis. A saturation of 88% indicates that a complication such as pneumothorax may be occurring. The other assessment data also indicate a need for ongoing assessment or intervention, but the low O2 saturation is the priority.

42. A patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia reports a sharp pain of 7 (on 0 to 10 scale) "whenever I take a deep breath." Which action will the nurse take next? a. Auscultate for breath sounds. b. Administer as-needed morphine. c. Have the patient cough forcefully. d. Notify the patient's health care provider.

ANS: A The patient's statement indicates that pleurisy or a pleural effusion may have developed, and the nurse will need to listen for a pleural friction rub and decreased breath sounds. Assessment should occur before administration of pain medications. The patient is unlikely to be able to cough forcefully until pain medication has been administered. The nurse will want to obtain more assessment data before calling the health care provider.

1. Which finding by the nurse most specifically indicates that a patient is not able to effectively clear the airway? a. Weak cough effort b. Profuse green sputum c. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min d. Resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85%

ANS: A The weak cough effort indicates that the patient is unable to clear the airway effectively. The other data suggest problems with gas exchange and breathing pattern.

48. The nurse is caring for a patient who has a right-sided chest tube after a right lower lobectomy. Which nursing action can the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Document the amount of drainage every 8 hours. b. Obtain samples of drainage for culture from the system. c. Assess patient pain level associated with the chest tube. d. Check the water-seal chamber for the correct fluid level.

ANS: A UAP education includes documentation of intake and output. The other actions are within the scope of practice and education of licensed nursing personnel.

1. The nurse notes new onset confusion in an older patient who is normally alert and oriented. In which order should the nurse take the following actions? a. Obtain the O2 saturation. b. Check the patient's pulse rate. c. Document the change in status. d. Notify the health care provider.

ANS: A, B, D, C Assessment for physiologic causes of new onset confusion such as pneumonia, infection, or perfusion problems should be the first action by the nurse. Airway and oxygenation should be assessed first, then circulation. After assessing the patient, the nurse should notify the health care provider. Finally, documentation of the assessments and care should be done.

24. A patient who has a right-sided chest tube after a thoracotomy has continuous bubbling in the suction-control chamber of the collection device. Which action by the nurse is appropriate? a. Adjust the dial on the wall regulator. b. Continue to monitor the collection device. c. Document the presence of a large air leak. d. Notify the surgeon of a possible pneumothorax.

ANS: B Continuous bubbling is expected in the suction-control chamber and indicates that the suction-control chamber is connected to suction. An air leak would be detected in the water-seal chamber. There is no evidence of pneumothorax. Increasing or decreasing the vacuum source will not adjust the suction pressure. The amount of suction applied is regulated by the amount of water in this chamber and not by the amount of suction applied to the system.

37. The nurse receives change-of-shift report on the following four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A 77-yr-old patient with tuberculosis (TB) who has four medications due b. A 46-yr-old patient on bed rest who reports sudden onset of shortness of breath c. A 35-yr-old patient with pneumonia who has a temperature of 100.2° F (37.8° C) d. A 23-yr-old patient with cystic fibrosis who has pulmonary function testing scheduled

ANS: B Patients on bed rest who are immobile are at high risk for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sudden onset of shortness of breath in a patient with a DVT suggests a pulmonary embolism and requires immediate assessment and action such as O2 administration. The other patients should be assessed as soon as possible, but there is no indication that they may need immediate action to prevent clinical deterioration.

20. A patient with newly diagnosed lung cancer tells the nurse, "I don't think I'm going to live to see my next birthday." Which is the best initial response by the nurse? a. "Are you ready to talk with family members about dying?" b. "Can you tell me what makes you think you will die so soon?" c. "Do you think that an antidepressant medication would be helpful?" d. "Would you like to talk to the hospital chaplain about your feelings?"

ANS: B The nurse's initial response should be to collect more assessment data about the patient's statement. The answer beginning "Can you tell me what it is" is the most open-ended question and will offer the best opportunity for obtaining more data. The remaining answers offer interventions that may be helpful to the patient, but more assessment is needed to determine whether these interventions are appropriate.

19. An hour after a left thoracotomy, a patient reports incisional pain at a level 7 (based on 0 to 10 scale) and has decreased left-sided breath sounds. The pleural drainage system has 100 mL of bloody drainage and a large air leak. Which action should the nurse take? a. Clamp the chest tube in two places. b. Administer the prescribed morphine. c. Milk the chest tube to remove any clots. d. Assist the patient with incentive spirometry.

ANS: B Treat the pain. The patient is unlikely to take deep breaths or cough until the pain level is lower. A chest tube output of 100 mL is not unusual in the first hour after thoracotomy. Milking or stripping chest tubes is no longer recommended because these practices can dangerously increase intrapleural pressures and damage lung tissues. Position tubing so that drainage flows freely to negate need for milking or stripping. An air leak is expected in the initial postoperative period after thoracotomy. Clamping the chest tube is not indicated and may lead to dangerous development of a tension pneumothorax.

40. The nurse notes that a patient has incisional pain, a poor cough effort, and scattered coarse crackles after a thoracotomy. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assist the patient to sit upright in a chair. b. Splint the patient's chest during coughing. c. Medicate the patient with prescribed morphine. d. Observe the patient use the incentive spirometer.

ANS: C A major reason for atelectasis and poor airway clearance in patients after chest surgery is incisional pain (which increases with deep breathing and coughing). The first action by the nurse should be to medicate the patient to minimize incisional pain. The other actions are all appropriate ways to improve airway clearance but should be done after the morphine is given.

27. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the administered nifedipine (Procardia) was effective for a patient who has idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH)? a. Heart rate is between 60 and 100 beats/min. b. Patient's chest x-ray indicates clear lung fields. c. Patient reports a decrease in exertional dyspnea. d. Blood pressure (BP) is less than 140/90 mm Hg.

ANS: C Because a major symptom of IPAH is exertional dyspnea, an improvement in this symptom would indicate that the medication was effective. Nifedipine will affect BP and heart rate, but these parameters would not be used to monitor the effectiveness of therapy for a patient with IPAH. The chest x-ray will show clear lung fields even if the therapy is not effective.

43. A patient has acute bronchitis with a nonproductive cough and wheezes. Which topic should the nurse plan to include in the teaching plan? a. Purpose of antibiotic therapy b. Ways to limit oral fluid intake c. Appropriate use of cough suppressants d. Safety concerns with home O2 therapy

ANS: C Cough suppressants are frequently prescribed for acute bronchitis. Because most acute bronchitis is viral in origin, antibiotics are not prescribed unless there are systemic symptoms. Fluid intake is encouraged. Home O2 is not prescribed for acute bronchitis, although it may be used for chronic bronchitis.

25. The nurse provides preoperative instruction for a patient scheduled for a left pneumonectomy. Which information should the nurse include about the patient's postoperative care? a. Bed rest for the first 24 hours b. Positioning only on the right side c. Frequent use of an incentive spirometer d. Chest tube placement to continuous suction

ANS: C Frequent deep breathing and coughing are needed after chest surgery to prevent atelectasis. To promote gas exchange, patients after pneumonectomy are positioned on the surgical side. Early mobilization decreases the risk for postoperative complications such as pneumonia and deep vein thrombosis. In a pneumonectomy, chest tubes may or may not be placed in the space from which the lung was removed. If a chest tube is used, it is clamped and only released by the surgeon to adjust the volume of serosanguineous fluid that will fill the space vacated by the lung. If the cavity overfills, it could compress the remaining lung and compromise the cardiovascular and pulmonary function. Daily chest x-rays can be used to assess the volume and space.

22. A patient has a chest wall contusion as a result of being struck in the chest with a baseball bat. Which initial assessment finding is of most concern to the emergency department nurse? a. Report of chest wall pain b. Heart rate of 110 beats/min c. Paradoxical chest movement d. Large bruised area on the chest

ANS: C Paradoxical chest movement indicates that the patient may have flail chest, which can severely compromise gas exchange and can rapidly lead to hypoxemia. Chest wall pain, a slightly elevated pulse rate, and chest bruising all require further assessment or intervention, but the priority concern is poor gas exchange.

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ANS: C The increased rate of pertussis in adults is thought to be caused by decreasing immunity after childhood immunization. Immunization is the most effective method of protecting communities from infectious diseases. Hand washing should be taught, but pertussis is spread by droplets and contact with secretions. Supportive care does not shorten the course of the disease or the risk for transmission. Taking antibiotics as prescribed does assist with decreased transmission, but patients are likely to have already transmitted the disease by the time the diagnosis is made.

21. The nurse monitors a patient in the emergency department after chest tube placement for a hemopneumothorax. Which assessment finding is of most concern? a. A large air leak in the water-seal chamber b. Report of pain with each deep inspiration c. 400 mL of blood in the collection chamber d. Subcutaneous emphysema at the insertion site

ANS: C The large amount of blood may indicate that the patient is in danger of developing hypovolemic shock. An air leak would be expected after chest tube placement for a pneumothorax. Initially, brisk bubbling of air occurs in this chamber when a pneumothorax is evacuated. The pain should be treated but is not as urgent a concern as the possibility of continued hemorrhage. Subcutaneous emphysema should be monitored but is not unusual in a patient with pneumothorax. A small amount of subcutaneous air is harmless and will be reabsorbed.

17. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A 40-yr-old with a pleural effusion who reports severe stabbing chest pain b. A 72-yr-old with cor pulmonale who has 4+ bilateral edema in his legs and feet c. A 64-yr-old with lung cancer and tracheal deviation after subclavian catheter insertion d. A 28-yr-old with a history of a lung transplant 1 month ago and a fever of 101° F (38.3° C)

ANS: C The patient's history and symptoms suggest possible tension pneumothorax, a medical emergency. The other patients also require assessment as soon as possible, but tension pneumothorax will require immediate treatment to avoid death from inadequate cardiac output or hypoxemia.

28. Which action should the nurse take to prepare a patient with a pleural effusion for a thoracentesis? a. Remind the patient not to eat or drink 6 hours. b. Start a peripheral IV line to administer sedation. c. Position the patient sitting up on the side of the bed. d. Obtain a collection device to hold 3 liters of pleural fluid.

ANS: C When the patient is sitting up, fluid accumulates in the pleural space at the lung bases and can more easily be located and removed. The patient does not usually require sedation for the procedure, and there are no restrictions on oral intake because the patient is not sedated or unconscious. Usually only 1000 to 1200 mL of pleural fluid is removed at one time. Rapid removal of a large volume can result in hypotension, hypoxemia, or pulmonary edema.

34. A patient with pneumonia has a fever of 101.4° F (38.6° C), a nonproductive cough, and an O2 saturation of 88%. The patient is weak and needs assistance to get out of bed. Which patient problem should the nurse assign as the priority? a. Fatigue b. Hyperthermia c. Impaired mobility d. Impaired gas exchange

ANS: D All these problems are appropriate for the patient, but the patient's O2 saturation indicates that all body tissues are at risk for hypoxia unless the gas exchange is improved.

29. The nurse completes discharge teaching for a patient who has had a lung transplant. Which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "I will make an appointment to see the doctor every year." b. "I will stop taking the prednisone if I experience a dry cough." c. "I will not worry if I feel a little short of breath with exercise." d. "I will call the health care provider right away if I develop a fever."

ANS: D Low-grade fever may indicate infection or acute rejection, so the patient should notify the health care provider immediately if the temperature is elevated. Patients require frequent follow-up visits with the transplant team. Annual health care provider visits would not be sufficient. Home O2 use is not an expectation after lung transplant. Shortness of breath should be reported. Low-grade fever, fatigue, dyspnea, dry cough, and O2 desaturation are signs of rejection. Immunosuppressive therapy, including prednisone, needs to be continued to prevent rejection.

35. The nurse supervises unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) providing care for a patient who has right lower lobe pneumonia. Which action by the UAP requires the nurse to intervene? a. UAP assists the patient to ambulate to the bathroom. b. UAP helps splint the patient's chest during coughing. c. UAP transfers the patient to a bedside chair for meals. d. UAP lowers the head of the patient's bed to 15 degrees.

ANS: D Positioning the patient with the head of the bed lowered will decrease ventilation. The other actions are appropriate for a patient with pneumonia.

47. The nurse provides discharge teaching for a patient who has two fractured ribs from an automobile accident. Which patient statement indicates that teaching has been effective? a. "I am going to buy a rib binder to wear during the day." b. "I can take shallow breaths to prevent my chest from hurting." c. "I should plan on taking the pain pills only at bedtime so I can sleep." d. "I will use the incentive spirometer every hour or two during the day."

ANS: D Prevention of the complications of atelectasis and pneumonia is a priority after rib fracture. This can be ensured by deep breathing and coughing. Use of a rib binder, shallow breathing, and taking pain medications only at night are likely to result in atelectasis.

39. A patient is admitted to the emergency department with an open stab wound to the left chest. What action should the nurse take? a. Keep the head of the patient's bed positioned flat. b. Cover the wound tightly with an occlusive dressing. c. Position the patient so that the left chest is dependent. d. Tape a nonporous dressing on three sides over the wound.

ANS: D The dressing taped on three sides will allow air to escape when intrapleural pressure increases during expiration, but it will prevent air from moving into the pleural space during inspiration. Placing the patient on the left side or covering the chest wound with an occlusive dressing will allow trapped air in the pleural space and cause tension pneumothorax. The head of the bed should be elevated to 30 to 45 degrees to facilitate breathing.

36. A patient with a possible pulmonary embolism reports chest pain and difficulty breathing. The nurse finds a heart rate of 142 beats/min, blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, and respirations of 42 breaths/min. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Administer anticoagulant drug therapy. b. Notify the patient's health care provider. c. Prepare patient for a spiral computed tomography (CT). d. Elevate the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position.

ANS: D The patient has symptoms consistent with a pulmonary embolism (PE). Elevating the head of the bed will improve ventilation and gas exchange. The other actions can be performed after the head is elevated and O2 is started. The health care provider may order a spiral CT to identify PE. Anticoagulants may be ordered after confirmation of the diagnosis of PE.

23. The emergency department nurse notes tachycardia and absent breath sounds over the right thorax of a patient who has just arrived after an automobile accident. For which intervention will the nurse prepare the patient? a. Emergency pericardiocentesis b. Stabilization of the chest wall c. Bronchodilator administration d. Chest tube connected to suction

ANS: D The patient's history and absent breath sounds suggest a right-sided pneumothorax or hemothorax, which will require treatment with a chest tube and drainage to suction. The other therapies would be appropriate for an acute asthma attack, flail chest, or cardiac tamponade, but the patient's clinical manifestations are not consistent with these problems.

d A thoracotomy incision is large and involves cutting into muscle, cartilage, and possibly the sternum, resulting in significant postoperative pain, interfering with deep-breathing and coughing. The patient should be provided analgesics before attempting these activities. Water intake is important to liquefy secretions but is not indicated in this case, nor should a patient with chest trauma or surgery be placed in Trendelenburg position, because it increases intrathoracic pressure. Auscultating before and after coughing evaluates effectiveness of airway clearance but does not facilitate it.

After a thoracotomy, the patient is having difficulty coughing because of pain and positioning. What is the best nursing intervention for this patient? a. Have the patient drink 16 oz of water before attempting to deep breathe. b. Auscultate the lungs before and after deep-breathing and coughing regimens. c. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position for 30 minutes before the coughing exercises. d. Medicate the patient with analgesics 20 to 30 minutes before assisting to cough and deep breathe.

d Flail chest may occur when 2 or more ribs are fractured, causing an unstable segment. The chest wall cannot provide the support for ventilation, and the injured segment will move paradoxically to the stable portion of the chest (in on expiration; out on inspiration). Hypotension occurs with a number of conditions that impair cardiac function, and chest pain occurs with a single fractured rib and will be important with flail chest. Absent breath sounds occur following pneumothorax or hemothorax.

Following a motor vehicle accident, the nurse assesses the driver for which distinctive sign of flail chest? a. Severe hypotension b. Chest pain over ribs c. Absence of breath sounds d. Paradoxical chest movement

d During video-assisted thoracic surgery (VATS), a video scope is inserted into the thorax to assess, diagnose, and treat intrathoracic injuries. A pneumonectomy is the removal of an entire lung. A wedge resection is the removal of a lung segment with localized lesions. Lung volume reduction surgery is the removal of lung tissue by excising multiple wedges.

How should the nurse explain to the patient and family what the purpose of video-assisted thoracic surgery (VATS) is? a. Removal of a lung b. Removal of 1 or more lung segments c. Removal of lung tissue by multiple wedge excisions d. Inspection, diagnosis, and management of intrathoracic injuries

a. Suction control chamber or dry suction regulator; b. water-seal chamber; c. air leak monitor; d, collection chamber; e. suction monitor bellows

Identify the a, b, c, d, and e labels on the chest drainage devices pictured below (note that only Figure B has an e label). - Separate the following

C. Chest tube with a loose-fitting dressing If the dressing at the CT insertion site is loose, an air leak will occur and will need to be sealed. The water-seal chamber usually has 2 cm of water, but having more water will not contribute to an air leak, and it should not be drained from the CDS. No new drainage does not indicate an air leak but may indicate the CT is no longer needed. If there is a pneumothorax, the chest tube should remove the air.

One week after a thoracotomy, a patient with chest tubes (CTs) to water-seal drainage has an air leak into the closed chest drainage system (CDS). Which patient assessment warrants follow-up nursing actions? A. Water-seal chamber has 5 cm of water. B. No new drainage in collection chamber C. Chest tube with a loose-fitting dressing D. Small pneumothorax at CT insertion site

c If chest tubes are to be milked or stripped, this procedure should be done only by the professional nurse. This procedure is no longer recommended, as it may dangerously increase pleural pressure, but there is no indication to milk the tubes when there is no bloody drainage, as in a pneumothorax. The UAP can loop the chest tubing on the bed to promote drainage and secure the drainage container in an upright position. A UAP can remind patients to cough and deep breathe at least every 2 hours to aid in lung reexpansion. Harding, Mariann M.; Bowman-Woodall, Collin; Kwong, Jeffrey; Roberts, Dottie; Hagler, Debra; Reinisch, Courtney. Study Guide for Lewis' Medical-Surgical Nursing - E-Book (p. 95). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

Priority Decision: An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is taking care of a patient with a chest tube. The nurse should intervene when she observes the UAP a. looping the drainage tubing on the bed. b. securing the drainage container in an upright position. c. stripping or milking the chest tube to promote drainage. d. reminding the patient to cough and deep breathe every 2 hours.

35. a. All of the activities are correct, but the first thing to do is to raise the head of the bed to facilitate breathing in the patient who is dyspneic. The HCP would not be called until the nurse has assessment data relating to vital signs, pulse oximetry, and any other patient complaints.

Priority Decision: Two days after undergoing pelvic surgery, a patient develops marked dyspnea and anxiety. What is the first action that the nurse should take? a. Raise the head of the bed. b. Notify the health care provider. c. Take the patient's pulse and blood pressure. d. Determine the patient's SpO2 with an oximeter.

a The water-seal chamber should bubble intermittently as air leaves the lung with exhalation in a spontaneously breathing patient. Continuous bubbling indicates a leak. The water in the suction control chamber will bubble continuously and the fluid in the water-seal chamber fluctuates (tidaling) with the patient's breathing. Water in the suction control chamber, and perhaps in the water-seal chamber, evaporates and may have to be replaced periodically.

Priority Decision: When should the nurse check for leaks in the chest tube and pleural drainage system? a. There is continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber. b. There is constant bubbling of water in the suction control chamber. c. Fluid in the water-seal chamber fluctuates with the patient's breathing. d. The water levels in the water-seal and suction control chambers are decreased.

A. Obesity C. Malignancy D. Cigarette smoking E. Prolonged air travel An increased risk of pulmonary embolism is associated with obesity, malignancy, heavy cigarette smoking, and prolonged air travel with reduced mobility. Other risk factors include deep vein thrombosis, immobilization, and surgery within the previous 3 months, oral contraceptives and hormone therapy, heart failure, pregnancy, and clotting disorders.

The nurse is admitting a patient with a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. What risk factors is a priority for the nurse to assess (select all that apply.)? A. Obesity B. Pneumonia C. Malignancy D. Cigarette smoking E. Prolonged air travel

C. A 26-yr-old patient with continuous enteral tube feedings through a nasogastric tube Conditions that increase the risk of aspiration include decreased level of consciousness, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), and nasogastric intubation with or without tube feeding. With loss of consciousness, the gag and cough reflexes are depressed, and aspiration is more likely to occur. Dysphasia is difficulty with speech. Absent bowel sounds and coarse crackles do not increase the risk for aspiration.

The nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which patient is at risk of aspiration? A. A 58-yr-old patient with absent bowel sounds 12 hours after abdominal surgery B. A 67-yr-old patient who had a cerebrovascular accident with expressive dysphasia C. A 26-yr-old patient with continuous enteral tube feedings through a nasogastric tube D. A 92-yr-old patient with viral pneumonia and coarse crackles throughout the lung fields

A. Maintain adequate fluid intake. C. Splint the chest when coughing. E. Instruct patient to cough at end of exhalation. Maintaining adequate fluid intake liquefies secretions, allowing easier expectoration. The nurse should instruct the patient to splint the chest while coughing. This will reduce discomfort and allow for a more effective cough. Coughing at the end of exhalation promotes a more effective cough. The patient should be positioned in an upright sitting position (high Fowler's) with head slightly flexed.

The nurse is caring for a patient with an alteration in airway clearance. What nursing actions would be a priority to promote airway clearance (select all that apply.)? A. Maintain adequate fluid intake. B. Maintain a 30-degree elevation. C. Splint the chest when coughing. D. Maintain a semi-Fowler's position. E. Instruct patient to cough at end of exhalation.

D. Increase fluid intake to 3 L/day if tolerated. Although several interventions may help the patient expectorate mucus, the highest priority should be on increasing fluid intake, which will liquefy the secretions so that the patient can expectorate them more easily. Humidifying the oxygen is also helpful but is not the primary intervention. Teaching the patient to splint the affected area may also be helpful in decreasing discomfort but does not assist in expectoration of thick secretions.

The nurse is caring for a patient with ineffective airway clearance. What is the priority nursing action to assist this patient expectorate thick lung secretions? A. Humidify the oxygen as able. B. Administer cough suppressant q4hr. C. Teach patient to splint the affected area. D. Increase fluid intake to 3 L/day if tolerated.

D. Sit the patient up in bed as tolerated and apply oxygen. The patient's clinical picture is most likely pulmonary embolus, and the first action the nurse takes should be to assist with the patient's respirations. For this reason, the nurse should sit the patient up as tolerated and apply oxygen before notifying the physician. The nitroglycerin tablet would not be helpful, and the oxygenation status is a bigger problem than the slight chest pain at this time.

The nurse is caring for an older adult patient who underwent a left total knee arthroplasty. On the third postoperative day, the patient reports shortness of breath, slight chest pain, and that "something is wrong." Temperature is 98.4°F, blood pressure is 130/88 mm Hg, respirations are 36 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation is 91% on room air. What is the priority nursing action? A. Notify the health care provider. B. Administer a nitroglycerin tablet sublingually. C. Conduct a thorough assessment of the chest pain. D. Sit the patient up in bed as tolerated and apply oxygen.

A. Basilar crackles The presence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that there is accumulation of secretions in the lower airways. This would be consistent with a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance because the patient is retaining secretions. The rapid respiratory rate, low oxygen saturation, and presence of greenish sputum may occur with a lower respiratory problem but do not definitely support the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance.

The nurse is performing a respiratory assessment. Which finding best supports the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance? A. Basilar crackles B. Oxygen saturation of 85% C. Presence of greenish sputum D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min

b A tension pneumothorax causes many of the same manifestations as other types of pneumothoraxes, but severe respiratory distress from collapse of the entire lung with movement of the mediastinal structures and trachea to the unaffected side is present in a tension pneumothorax. Percussion dullness on the injured site indicates the presence of blood or fluid, and decreased movement and diminished breath sounds are characteristic of a pneumothorax. Muffled and distant heart sounds indicate a cardiac tamponade.

What assessment finding would indicate the presence of a tension pneumothorax in a patient with chest trauma? a. Dull percussion sounds on the injured side b. Severe respiratory distress and tracheal deviation c. Muffled and distant heart sounds with decreasing BP d. Decreased movement and diminished breath sounds on the affected side

b Decortication is the stripping of a thick fibrous membrane. A lobectomy is the removal of 1 lung lobe. A thoracotomy is the incision into the thorax. A wedge resection is used to remove a small localized lesion.

Which chest surgery is used for the stripping of a fibrous membrane? a. Lobectomy b. Decortication c. Thoracotomy d. Wedge resection

a Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) causes pulmonary capillary and alveolar damage increasing pressure, as does scleroderma. Sarcoidosis is a granulomatous disease, pulmonary fibrosis stiffens the pulmonary vasculature, and PE obstructs pulmonary blood flow, but alone, these would not cause secondary pulmonary arterial hypertension.

Which condition contributes to secondary pulmonary arterial hypertension by causing pulmonary capillary and alveolar damage? a. COPD b. Sarcoidosis c. Pulmonary fibrosis d. Pulmonary embolism

b High pressure in the pulmonary arteries increases the workload of the right ventricle and eventually causes right ventricular hypertrophy, known as cor pulmonale, and eventual heart failure. Eventually, decreased left ventricular output may occur because of decreased return to the left atrium, but it is not the primary effect of pulmonary hypertension. Alveolar interstitial edema is pulmonary edema associated with left ventricular failure. Pulmonary hypertension does not cause systemic hypertension.

While caring for a patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH), the nurse observes that the patient has exertional dyspnea and chest pain in addition to fatigue. To what are these symptoms related? a. Decreased left ventricular output b. Right ventricular hypertrophy and failure c. Increased systemic arterial blood pressure d. Development of alveolar interstitial edema