NU271 HESI Prep: Fundamentals - Issues in Nursing

A pharmacy technician arrives on the nursing unit to deliver opioids and, following hospital protocol, asks the nurse to receive the medications. The nurse is assisting a confused and unsteady client back to the client's room. How would the nurse respond to the technician? 1. "I can't receive them right now. Please wait a few minutes or come back." 2. "Please leave the medications and sign-out sheet in a location where I can see them." 3. "Please bring them to me, and I will be sure to put them away in a couple of minutes." 4. "I am busy right now. Please give them to the unlicensed health care worker."

1. "I can't receive them right now. Please wait a few minutes or come back." The transfer of controlled substances from one authorized person to another must occur according to protocol. In this situation the controlled substance must be returned to the pharmacy and delivered at a later time. The controlled substances cannot be left unattended. The nurse cannot delay the securing of controlled substances; if time is not available when the medications are delivered, they must be returned to the pharmacy. The unlicensed health care worker does not have the authority to receive controlled substances.

Which information is accurate regarding exemplary professional practice according to the revised magnet model? 1. "Strong professional practice is established, and accomplishments of the practice are demonstrated." 2. "A vision for the future and the systems and resources to achieve the vision are created by nursing leaders." 3. "Focus is on structure and processes and demonstration of positive clinical, work force, and client and organizational outcomes." 4. "Structures and processes provide an innovative environment in which staff are developed and empowered and professional practice flourishes."

1. "Strong professional practice is established, and accomplishments of the practice are demonstrated." Exemplary professional practice is evident when a strong professional practice is established, and accomplishments of the practice are demonstrated. The characteristic of transformational leadership is a vision for the future in which the systems and resources to achieve the vision are created by nursing leaders. The characteristic of empirical quality outcomes is that the focus is on structure and processes and demonstration of positive clinical, work force, and client and organizational outcomes. The characteristic of structural empowerment includes structures and processes to provide an innovative environment in which staff are developed and empowered and professional practice flourishes.

Which refers to the professional obligation of the nurse to assume responsibility for actions? 1. Accountability 2. Individuality 3. Responsibility 4. Bioethics

1. Accountability Nurses have an obligation to uphold the highest standards of practice, assume full responsibility for actions, and maintain quality in the knowledge base and skill of the profession; this is referred to as accountability.Individuality and responsibility are positive characteristics of the nurse but are not necessarily professional obligations. Bioethics is a field of study concerned with the ethics and philosophical implications of certain biological and medical procedures and treatments.

Which examples mentioned by the nursing student regarding quasi-intentional torts need correction? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1. Assault 2. Battery 3. Malpractice 4. Invasion of privacy 5. Defamation of character All willful acts that violate the rights of other people are called intentional torts. Assault and battery are intentional torts. Malpractice is an example of an unintentional tort. Invasion of privacy and defamation of character are example of quasi-intentional torts. These torts are characterized by acts of violation that directly cause harm to the clients.

1. Assault 2. Battery 3. Malpractice All willful acts that violate the rights of other people are called intentional torts. Assault and battery are intentional torts. Malpracticeis an example of an unintentional tort. Invasion of privacy and defamation of character are example of quasi-intentional torts. These torts are characterized by acts of violation that directly cause harm to the clients.

Which acts are classified as intentional torts in nursing practice? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1. Battery 2. Assault 3. Negligence 4. Malpractice 5. False imprisonment

1. Battery 2. Assault 5. False imprisonment Intentional torts include battery, assault, and false imprisonment. Unintentional torts include negligence and malpractice.

When caring for a transgender client, which would the nurse use to decide how to address the client? 1. Client's preference 2. Client's appearance 3. Client's clothing 4. Client's identity document (e.g., birth certificate)

1. Client's preference The nurse would ask the client during assessment how the client prefers to be addressed. This prevents any discomfort or embarrassment. The nurse would not make assumptions based on the client's appearance, which can be misleading. The nurse would also not address the client according to her or his identity documents, because they may contain the client's natal information, which might not be how the client self-identifies.

Which describes the purpose of the Nurse Practice Acts? 1. Describe and define the legal boundaries of nursing practice within each state 2. Reflect the knowledge and skills possessed by nurses practicing in their profession 3. Legal requirements that describe the minimum acceptable nursing care 4. Protect individuals from losing their health insurance when changing jobs by providing portability

1. Describe and define the legal boundaries of nursing practice within each state The Nurse Practice Acts describe and define the legal boundaries of nursing practice within each state. They help distinguish between nursing and medical practice and establish education and licensure requirements for nurses. Standards of care reflect the knowledge and skills possessed by nurses who are active practitioners in their profession. Standards of care are legal requirements that define the minimum acceptable nursing care. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) protects individuals from losing their health insurance when changing jobs by providing portability.

Which are the elements of discovery of a lawsuit? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1. Experts 2. Medical records 3. Proof of negligence 4. The depositions of witnesses 5. Petition-elements of the claim

1. Experts 2. Medical records 4. The depositions of witnesses Experts, medical records, and the depositions of witnesses are elements of discovery of a lawsuit. Proof of negligence is a part of a trial. Petition and elements of the claim are a part of the pleadings phase.

Under which health care services pyramid level would the nursing student include family planning? 1. Primary care 2. Continuing care 3. Restorative care 4. Secondary acute care

1. Primary care The nursing student would include family planning under primary care. Family planning is not a part of continuing care, restorative care, or secondary acute care services.

Which point listed about the United Network for Organ Sharing (UNOS) program is accurate? 1. The organization has a contract with the federal government. 2. The donor's estate is protected from liability for injury or damage. 3. Priority is given to international clients who need organs on an urgent basis. 4. Civil and criminal immunity is given to the hospital and the primary health care provider.

1. The organization has a contract with the federal government. The United Network for Organ Sharing (UNOS) has a contract with the federal government. The National Organ Transplant Act of 1984 protects the donor's estate from liability for injury or damage. The United Network for Organ Sharing gives priority to clients in their geographical area who need organs on an urgent basis. The National Organ Transplant Act of 1984 provides civil and criminal immunity to the hospital and the health care provider.

Which action would the nurse take to minimize ambiguity and confusion when entering a client's data in the electronic health record? 1. Use consistent, codified terminology. 2. Record the data in the client's presence. 3. Enter the data in the client's native language. 4. Upload scanned copies of the client's records.

1. Use consistent, codified terminology. An electronic health record is a client's official digital health record and is shared among multiple facilities and agencies. The nurse must use consistent, codified terminology to eliminate ambiguity and confusion. Recording the data in the presence of the client will not help another health care professional understand the data. Health care providers review electronic health records for continuing a client's treatment. The nurse would enter client data by using a clear codified scheme, not in the client's native language. The nurse would not upload scanned copies of client records because others may not understand the nurse's handwriting and may get confused.

Which does beneficence in health ethics refer to? 1. The agreement to keep promises 2. Taking positive actions to help others 3. The ability to answer for one's actions 4. Avoiding harming or hurting an individual

2. Taking positive actions to help others Beneficence refers to taking positive actions to help others. Fidelity refers to the agreement to keep promises. Accountability refers to the ability to answer for one's actions. Nonmaleficence refers to avoiding harm to an individual.

Which is appropriate for the nurse to include in the education of the ethical principal of nonmaleficence to a group of nursing students? 1. Treat all clients equitably and fairly. 2. Act in ways to prevent harm to clients. 3. Tell the client the truth about their health. 4. Help the clients make informed choices.

2. Act in ways to prevent harm to clients. Nonmaleficence means to act in ways that prevent client harm or even the risk of harm. Telling the truth to clients about their health refers to veracity. Helping clients make informed choices promotes autonomy. Justice involves treating all clients equitably and fairly.

Which basic health care ethic does the nurse follow when signing the client's consent form as a witness? 1. Justice 2. Autonomy 3. Beneficence 4. Nonmaleficence

2. Autonomy Autonomy refers to the commitment to include clients in decisions about all aspects of care as a way of acknowledging and protecting their independence. In the given situation, the nurse ensures that the client has thoroughly understood the new treatment plan before gaining written consent. This ensures that the client is involved in the decision-making process appropriately. Justicerefers to fairness. The given situation does not deal with fairness. Beneficence refers to taking positive actions to help others. This involves keeping the interests of the client before self-interest. Nonmaleficence is the avoidance of harm or hurt. Weighing the pros and cons of the new treatment plan would involve nonmaleficence.

The nurse who promotes freedom of choice for clients in decision-making best supports which principle? 1. Justice 2. Autonomy 3. Beneficence 4. Paternalism

2. Autonomy The principle of autonomy relates to the freedom of a person to form her or his own judgments and actions. The nurse promotes autonomy nonjudgmentally so as not to infringe on the decisions or actions of others. Justice means to be righteous, to be equitable, and to act or treat others fairly. Beneficence relates to the state or act of doing good and being kind and charitable. It also includes promotion of well-being and abstaining from injuring others. Paternalism encompasses the practice of governing people in a fatherly manner, especially by providing for their needs, without infringing on their rights or responsibilities.

The nurse is obtaining consent from an unemancipated minor to perform an abortion. When would the nurse consider the consent-giving process to be appropriately completed? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1. Consent has been obtained from the spouse. 2. Consent has been given specifically by a court. 3. Self-consent has been granted by a court order. 4. Consent has been given by a grandparent. 5. Consent has been obtained from at least one parent of the minor.

2. Consent has been given specifically by a court. 3. Self-consent has been granted by a court order. 5. Consent has been obtained from at least one parent of the minor. An unemancipated minor is allowed to consent to an abortion if one of three conditions is fulfilled. The minor may give consent if consent has been obtained from at least one parent. The minor may also give consent if consent has been given specifically by a court or self-consent has been granted by a court order. The spouse or grandparents of unemancipated minors are not allowed to give consent for abortions.

Which act protects a person who is HIV positive? 1. The National Organ Transplant Act 2. The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) 3. The Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) 4. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA)

2. The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) protects a person who is HIV positive. The National Organ Transplant Act protects the donor's estate from liability for injury or damage that results from the use of the organ. The Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) requires health care associations to provide written information to clients about their rights under state law to make decisions, including the right to refuse treatment and to formulate advance directives. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) protects individuals from losing their health insurance when changing jobs by providing portability.

Which statement indicates that the nurse is in the advanced beginner stage of Benner? 1. Learns about the profession through a specific set of rules and procedures 2. Identifies the basic principles of nursing care through careful observation 3. Understands the organization and specific care required by certain clients 4. Assesses the entire situation and transfers knowledge gained from multiple previous experiences

2. Identifies the basic principles of nursing care through careful observation According to the levels of proficiency set forth by Benner, the nurse in the advanced beginner stage is able to identify basic principles of nursing care through careful observation. The nurse in the novice stage learns about the profession through a specific set of rules and procedures. After reaching the competent stage, the nurse will be able to understand the organization and specific care required by certain clients. The nurse who has reached the proficient stage is able to assess an entire situation and transfer knowledge gained from multiple previous experiences.

Which is an appropriate action for the registered nurse regarding assisted suicide? 1. Nurses may have an open attitude toward the client's end of life. 2. Nurses' participation in assisted suicide violates the code of ethics. 3. Nurses may listen to the client's expressions of fear and attempt to control the client's pain. 4. Nurses can participate in assisted suicide only if the individual could make an oral and written request.

2. Nurses' participation in assisted suicide violates the code of ethics. According to the American Nurses Association (ANA), the nurse's participation in assisted suicide would violate their code of ethics. According to the American Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN) and the International Council of Nurses, the nurse may have an open attitude toward the client's end of life. According to the AACN and the International Council of Nurses, nurses may listen to the client's expressions of fear and to attempt to control the client's pain. According to the Oregon Death with Dignity Act (1994), the primary health care provider in the state of Oregon can participate in assisted suicide only if an individual with terminal disease makes an oral and written request to end his or her life in a humane and dignified manner.

Which terminology system would the nurse use to enter nursing diagnoses, interventions, and outcomes in electronic health records? 1. Omaha system 2. Perioperative Nursing Data Set (PNDS) 3. Nursing Interventions Classification (NIC) 4. North American Nursing Diagnosis Association (NANDA) International The nurse would use a clear coding scheme while recording data in electronic health records because it helps prevent confusion and ambiguity. The PNDS provides codes for nursing diagnoses, interventions, and outcomes of treatment. The Omaha system provides codes for problem classification and intervention and a problem-rating scale for outcomes. NIC provides codes only for interventions. NANDA International provides codes only for nursing diagnoses.

2. Perioperative Nursing Data Set (PNDS) The nurse would use a clear coding scheme while recording data in electronic health records because it helps prevent confusion and ambiguity. The PNDS provides codes for nursing diagnoses, interventions, and outcomes of treatment. The Omaha system provides codes for problem classification and intervention and a problem-rating scale for outcomes. NIC provides codes only for interventions. NANDA International provides codes only for nursing diagnoses.

Which is the role of the nurse administrator in a health care setting? 1. Providing surgical anesthesia under the guidance and supervision of an anesthesiologist 2. Preparing the budget, staffing, strategic planning of programs and services, employee evaluations, and employee development 3. Providing comprehensive care by directly managing the medical care of clients who are healthy or who have chronic conditions 4. Educating staff about current nursing practices, trends, theories, and necessary skills in laboratories and clinical settings

2. Preparing the budget, staffing, strategic planning of programs and services, employee evaluations, and employee development The nurse administrator's function is to prepare the budget, staffing, strategic planning of programs and services, employee evaluations, and employee development. A certified registered nurse anesthetist provides surgical anesthesia under the guidance and supervision of an anesthesiologist. The nurse practitioner provides comprehensive care and directly manages the medical care of clients who are healthy or have chronic conditions. Nurse educators provide knowledge about current nursing practices, trends, theories, and necessary skills in laboratories and clinical settings.

Which act allows the client to donate his or her organs? 1. Mental Health Parity Act 2. Uniform Anatomical Gift Act 3. National Organ Transplant Act 4. Americans with Disabilities Act

2. Uniform Anatomical Gift Act The Uniform Anatomical Gift Act gives the right to donate organs to any person who is at least 18 years old. The Mental Health Parity Act forbids health plans from placing lifetime or annual limits on mental health coverage that are less generous than those placed on medical or surgical benefits. The National Organ Transplant Act forbids the purchase or sale of organs. The Americans with Disabilities Act protects people with physical or mental disabilities against discrimination and ensures that they get fair opportunities and services in the social and professional spheres.

Which statement demonstrates understanding of a computer-based client information system? 1. "More medication errors are made when this system is used." 2. "It is disappointing that nurses are not allowed to use this system." 3. "Client information is immediately available when this system is used." 4. "I will have less time to provide direct care to my clients with this system."

3. "Client information is immediately available when this system is used." The intent of these systems is to streamline documentation and recordkeeping for all appropriate health team members, including nurses. There is a reduction in medication errors with this type of system. Data are immediately available to appropriate health team members without the need to depend on record or chart availability. By streamlining documentation and recordkeeping, these systems increase opportunities for more direct client care by nurses.

Which describes a living will? 1. A legal document that allows registered nurses to offer special skills to the public 2. An order that directs primary health care providers to refrain from reviving clients 3. A written document that directs treatment according to the client's wishes, in case of a terminal illness or condition 4. A legal document that designates a person or persons chosen by a client to make health care decisions on his or her behalf

3. A written document that directs treatment according to the client's wishes, in case of a terminal illness or condition A living will is a written document that directs treatment on the basis of the client's wishes if he or she has a terminal illness or condition. A license allows registered nurses to offer special skills to the public. A do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order prevents primary health care providers from reviving clients or performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). A durable power of attorney is a legal document that designates a person or persons chosen by a client to make health care decisions on his or her behalf when the client is unable to do so.

How would the student nurse describe a quasi-intentional tort occurring during the practice of nursing? 1. A willful act violating a client's rights 2. A civil wrong made against a person or property 3. An act that lacks intent but involves volitional action 4. An unintentional act that includes negligence and malpractice

3. An act that lacks intent but involves volitional action A quasi-intentional tort lacks intent but involves volitional actions such as invasion of privacy and defamation of character. An intentional tort is a willful act that violates another's rights. This includes assault, battery, and false imprisonment. A tort is a civil wrong made against a person or property. An unintentional tort involves negligence and malpractice.

The nurse takes the blood pressure and pulse rate of the client and asks the client to rate the level of pain on the pain scale. Which standard of practice would the nurse perform? 1. Planning 2. Diagnosis 3. Assessment 4. Implementation

3. Assessment When the nurse collects comprehensive data relevant to the client's health or the situation, it is considered assessment. In the given scenario, the nurse is assessing the client to minimize pain. Planning refers to instances when the nurse develops a plan to attain expected outcomes. Diagnosis refers to instances when the nurse analyzes the assessment data to determine the diagnoses or issues. Implementation refers to instances when the nurse implements the identified plan.

Which describes the rationale for not discussing a client's condition with another individual not directly involved in the client's care? 1. Libel 2. Negligence 3. Breach of confidentiality 4. Defamation of character

3. Breach of confidentiality The release of information to an unauthorized person or gossiping about a client's activities constitutes a breach of confidentiality and an invasion of privacy. Libel occurs when a person writes false statements about another that may injure the individual's reputation. Negligence is a careless act of omission or commission that results in injury to another. Defamation of character is the publication of false statements that injure a person's reputation.

Which organization assists in establishing policies related to Medicare and Medicaid payment for meaningful use of electronic health records (EHRs)? 1. National Institutes of Health (NIH) 2. American Medical Informatics Association (AMIA) 3. Center for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) 4. Health Information Management Systems Society (HIMSS)

3. Center for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) CMS rules specify how health care facilities and providers make meaningful use of the EHRs and technologies to receive payment from Medicare and Medicaid. The NIH uses translational bioinformatics for medical research. The AMIA and the HIMSS have been involved in identifying nursing informatics competencies.

Which defines assessment? 1. Coordinating care delivery 2. Analyzing assessment data to determine diagnoses or issues 3. Collecting comprehensive data pertinent to the client's health and/or situation 4. Registered nurse provides consultation to influence an identified plan

3. Collecting comprehensive data pertinent to the client's health and/or situation Assessment is the process of collection of comprehensive data pertinent to the client's health and/or situation. Coordination of care refers to delivering care to the client. Diagnosis refers to analyzing the assessment data to determine the diagnoses or issues. Consultation is the process where a registered nurse discusses with other health care providers to influence the identified plan, enhance the abilities of other caregivers, and effect change.

The nurse working in a cardiac center is preparing to enter client data using health information technology. The nurse needs to refer to these data during subsequent follow-up client visits. Which type of record would the nurse use to enter the client's data? 1. Personal health record (PHR) 2. Electronic health record (EHR) 3. Electronic medical record (EMR) 4. Regional Health Information Organization (RHIO) health record

3. Electronic medical record (EMR) The EMR is a client's health record within a health care provider's facility. These records are not intended to be shared between multiple facilities and agencies. The PHR is self-recorded and maintained by the client. An EHR is an individual's official, digital health record; it is shared among multiple facilities and agencies. RHIO health records are client records that can be exchanged among providers and across geographic areas.

Which possible legal complication might the nurse face in a situation in which intravenous (IV) therapy was administered to the wrong client? 1. Assault 2. Battery 3. Malpractice 4. False imprisonment

3. Malpractice If the nurse administers IV therapy to a wrong client, the nurse may face the charge of malpractice. Assault is any action that places the client or the nurse in fear of harmful or offensive contact without consent. Battery is any intentional touching without consent. False imprisonment occurs with unjustified restraint of a person without legal warrant.

Which variable is an example of an external variable? 1. Spiritual factors 2. Developmental issues 3. Socioeconomic factors 4. Perception of functioning Socioeconomic factors are considered to be external variables. Spiritual factors, developmental issues, and the perception of functioning are internal variables.

3. Socioeconomic factors Socioeconomic factors are considered to be external variables. Spiritual factors, developmental issues, and the perception of functioning are internal variables.

The nurse finds the orders from the primary health care provider inappropriate. Clarification from the health care provider does not resolve the nurse's doubts. Whom would the nurse contact and inform next? 1. Risk manager 2. Nursing student 3. Supervising nurse 4. Nurse administrator

3. Supervising nurse The nurse would go to the supervising nurse or follow the established chain of command if he or she finds any discrepancies in the primary health care provider's orders. All nurses must act as risk managers, depending upon the situation. The nurse in question would follow the established chain of command to address his or her doubts. A nursing student is still a novice and is too inexperienced to handle such matters. The nurse administrator manages client care and the delivery of specific nursing services within a health care agency; the nurse administrator is not the appropriate person to ask for help in solving the problem at hand.

Which definition of battery would the nurse include when teaching staff about legal terminology used in child abuse? 1. Maligning a person's character while threatening to do bodily harm 2. A legal wrong committed by one person against property of another 3. The application of force to another person without lawful justification 4. Behaving in a way that a reasonable person with the same education would not

3. The application of force to another person without lawful justification Battery means touching in an offensive manner or actually injuring another person. Battery refers to actual bodily harm rather than threats of physical or psychological harm. Battery refers to harm against persons, not property. Behaving in a way that a reasonable person with the same education would not is the definition of negligence.

Which statement made by the nurse requires correction when discussing registered nurse licensure in the United States with peers? 1. "Candidates must pass the NCLEX-RN® examination to become licensed in their state." 2. "The scope of practice for registered nurses is found in each state's Nurse Practice Act." 3. "The examination for RN licensure is exactly the same in every state in the United States." 4. "Passing the NCLEX-RN® examination indicates maximal knowledge base for safe nursing practice."

4. "Passing the NCLEX-RN® examination indicates maximal knowledge base for safe nursing practice." The nurse requires correction when stating, "Passing the NCLEX-RN examination indicates maximal knowledge base for safe nursing practice." Passing the NCLEX-RN examination means the candidate possesses the minimum knowledge base for nurses to practice safely. Candidates must pass the NCLEX-RN examination to become licensed in their state. The scope of practice for registered nurses is found in each state's Nurse Practice Act. The examination for RN licensure is exactly the same in every state in the United States regardless of educational preparation (i.e., diploma nurse program, associate's degree in nursing program, baccalaureate degree in nursing program)

Which is the most independently functioning nurse? 1. Nurse educator 2. Nurse researcher 3. Nurse administrator 4. Advanced practice registered nurse

4. Advanced practice registered nurse The advanced practice registered nurse is the most independently functioning nurse. The nurse educator, nurse researcher, and nurse administrator all must be associated with an organization to pursue their professional prospects.

A client with renal failure wants to go back home, but the family members want the client to undergo a kidney transplant. The nurse gives details about the possible threats and benefits of the surgery to the family and informs them that the client wants to stay home. Which role does the nurse play here? 1. Educator 2. Manager 3. Caregiver 4. Advocate

4. Advocate The nurse in the given scenario plays the role of an advocate by protecting the client's human and legal rights and by providing assistance in asserting these rights. As an educator, the nurse explains concepts and facts about health and the reason for routine care activities, demonstrates procedures, and evaluates the client's progress in learning. As a caregiver, the nurse helps clients maintain and regain health, manage diseases and symptoms, and attain a maximal level of function and independence through the healing process. As a manager, the nurse coordinates the activities of members of the nursing staff in delivering nursing care and has responsibility for personnel, policy, and budgetary issues for a specific nursing unit or agency.

Why would organizations promote transparency in health care? 1. Creates effective insurance policies 2. Helps determine whether medications are being diverted 3. Facilitates recruitment of competent team members 4. Allows continuous feedback for improving client outcomes

4. Allows continuous feedback for improving client outcomes Transparency means to be clear and unambiguous in the daily operations of a health care organization. Transparency allows continuous feedback for the consumers, which helps improve the clinical outcomes of the clients. Transparency is not related to the diversion of medications for a nontherapeutic purpose. Transparency may not contribute to better recruitment in the organization. Transparency in a health care organization is unrelated to insurance policies.

Which legal complication might the nurse face for using a restraint without a legal warrant on a client? 1. Libel 2. Negligence 3. Malpractice 4. False imprisonment

4. False imprisonment If the nurse uses restraints without a legal warrant on a client, he/she may be charged with false imprisonment. Libel is the written defamation of character. Negligence is any conduct that falls below the standard of care. Malpractice is a type of negligence that is regarded as professional negligence.

Which explanation regarding the term "just culture" is accurate? 1. Agreement to keep promises 2. Taking positive actions to help others 3. Ability to answer for one's actions 4. Promoting open discussion whenever error occurs without fear of recrimination

4. Promoting open discussion whenever error occurs without fear of recrimination The term just culture refers to the promotion of open discussion whenever errors occur without fear of recrimination. Fidelity refers to the agreement to keep promises. Beneficence refers to taking positive actions to help others. Accountabilityrefers to the ability to answer for one's actions.

Which accurately describes hospice care? 1. A resident's temporary or permanent home, where the surroundings have been made as homelike as possible 2. Offers an attractive long-term care setting with an environment akin to the client's home, which offers the client greater autonomy 3. Service that provides short-term relief for people providing home care to an ill, disabled, or frail older adult 4. System of family-centered care that allows clients to remain at home in comfort while easing the pains of terminal illness

4. System of family-centered care that allows clients to remain at home in comfort while easing the pains of terminal illness Hospice care is a system of family-centered care that allows clients to remain at home in comfort while easing the pain of terminal illness. A nursing center is a resident's temporary or permanent home, where the surroundings are made as homelike as possible. Assisted living offers an attractive long-term care setting with an environment that is like the client's home and offers the client greater autonomy. Respite care is a service that provides short-term relief for people providing home care to an ill, disabled, or frail older adult.

According to Avedis Donabedian, which is the most important validator of quality and effectiveness of health care in a hospital? 1. The number of clients admitted in a hospital 2. The values and goals presented by the hospital 3. The number of health care workers in the hospital 4. The client outcomes achieved by the care provided

4. The client outcomes achieved by the care provided Avedis Donabedian was a physician and founder of the Donabedian model of care. According to him, the client outcomes obtained by health care delivery determine the quality and effectiveness of the health care. The number of clients admitted to a hospital does not indicate the quality of the health care delivered in the hospital. The values and goals presented by the hospital define the quality of the medical system. Similarly, the number of health care workers in the hospital does not determine the quality or effectiveness of the health care system.

The waiting area of a health care facility displays a pink triangle. Which does this signify? 1. The waiting area is for female clients. 2. The waiting area is for pediatric clients. 3. The health care facility welcomes transwomen. 4. The health care facility welcomes LGBTQ clients.

4. The health care facility welcomes LGBTQ clients. A waiting room in a health care facility marked with a pink triangle indicates that the health care facility is a safe place for LGBTQ clients, and they can expect respectful and knowledgeable quality care. Other symbols might be used to represent areas that are meant for female and pediatric clients. There are no widely used symbols to designate transwomen-specific health care facilities.

Which is the goal of Healthy People 2020? 1. To ensure the well-being of clients cared for in a hospital setting 2. To encourage the nurse to do good for the client 3. To have the nurse act as an advocate for clients who are not capable of self-determination 4. To eliminate health disparities related to race, ethnicity, and socioeconomic status

4. To eliminate health disparities related to race, ethnicity, and socioeconomic status The primary goal of Healthy People 2020 is to eliminate health disparities related to race, ethnicity, and socioeconomic status. This helps increase the quality of health care and help people live longer. Nonmaleficence is the ethical concept that emphasizes the importance of preventing harm and ensuring the client's well-being. Beneficence is the ethical concept that encourages the nurse to do good for the client. According to the American Nurses Association (ANA) Code of Ethics for Nurses(2010), if the client is not capable of self-determination, the nurse is ethically obligated to protect the client as an advocate within the professional scope of nursing practice.

Which would the nurse understand by the quality improvement competency, according to Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN)? 1. Using information and technology to communicate, manage knowledge, mitigate errors, and support decision-making 2. Integrating best current evidence with clinical expertise along with client and family preferences and values for the delivery of quality health care 3. Functioning effectively within nursing and interprofessional teams by fostering open communication, mutual respect, and shared decision-making to achieve quality client care 4. Using data to monitor the outcomes of care processes and use improvement methods to design and test changes to continuously improve the quality and safety of health care systems

4. Using data to monitor the outcomes of care processes and use improvement methods to design and test changes to continuously improve the quality and safety of health care systems The quality improvement competency states that the nurse would use data to monitor the outcomes of health care processes and use improvement methods to design and test changes to continuously improve the quality and safety of health care systems. According to the competency called informatics, the nurse would use information and technology to communicate, manage knowledge, mitigate errors, and support decision-making. As per the competency called evidence-based practice, the nurse would integrate best current evidence with clinical expertise and client and family preferences and values for the delivery of quality health care. According to the competency called teamwork and collaboration, the nurse would function effectively within nursing and interprofessional teams by fostering open communication, mutual respect, and shared decision-making to achieve quality client care.

Which is the definition of a tort? 1. The application of force to the body of another by a reasonable individual 2. An illegality committed by one person against the property or person of another 3. Doing something that a reasonable person under ordinary circumstances would not do 4. An illegality committed against the public and punishable by the law through the courts

An individual is held legally responsible for actions committed against another individual or an individual's property. The application of force to the body of another is battery, which involves physical harm. Doing something that a reasonable person under ordinary circumstances would not do is the definition of negligence. An illegality committed against the public and punishable by the law through the courts is the definition of a crime.

The nurse notes that a client has mild hypothermia based on which body temperature? 1. 29°C 2. 30°C 3. 33°C 4. 35°C

Hypothermia occurs when the body temperature falls below 36.2°C. Based on the severity, it is classified as mild, moderate, and severe. Mild hypothermia refers to a body temperature of 34°C to 36°C (93.2°F-96.8°F). In this case, the client's body temperature is 35°C, which indicates mild hypothermia. Moderate hypothermia refers to a body temperature of 30°C to 34°C (86°F-93°F), and severe hypothermia refers to a body temperature below 30°C (86°F). The client does not have severe hypothermia; therefore, the client does not have a body temperature of 29°C. The client does not have moderate hypothermia; therefore, the client does not have a body temperature of 30°C or 33°C.