NUR 425 - Exam 3

A client with a C5 spinal cord injury has tetraplegia. After being moved out of the ICU, the client reports a severe throbbing headache. What should the nurse do first? A. Check the client's indwelling urinary catheter for kinks to ensure patency. B. Lower the HOB to improve perfusion. C. Administer PRN analgesia as prescribed. D. Reassure the client that headaches are expected during recovery from spinal cord injuries.

A A severe throbbing headache is a common symptom of autonomic dysreflexia, which occurs after injuries to the spinal cord above T6. The syndrome is usually brought on by sympathetic stimulation, such as bowel and bladder distention. Lowering the HOB can increase ICP. Before administering analgesia, the nurse should check the client's catheter, record vital signs, and perform an abdominal assessment. A severe throbbing headache is a dangerous symptom in this client and is not expected.

A client is admitted to the neurologic intensive care unit (ICU) with a suspected diffuse axonal injury. Which primary neuroimaging diagnostic tool would be used on this client to evaluate the brain structure? A. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) B. Positron emission tomography (PET) scan C. X-ray of the head D. Ultrasound of the head

A Computed tomography (CT) and MRI scans are the primary neuroimaging diagnostic tools, and are both useful and sensitive in evaluating the brain structure for this particular injury. Diffuse axonal injury (DAI) results from widespread shearing and rotational forces that produce damage throughout the brain—to axons in the cerebral hemispheres, corpus callosum, and brain stem. Ultrasound or x-rays of the skull can show structure, ventricles, blood vessels, and fractures, but are not the preferred method of diagnosing this condition. PET scan can help reveal the metabolic or biochemical function of tissues and organs and is utilized at some trauma centers, but is not the standard choice to diagnose this condition.

The nurse is caring for a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) caused by a traumatic brain injury. Which of the following clinical manifestations would suggest that the client may be experiencing increased brain compression causing brain stem damage? A. Hyperthermia B. Tachycardia C. Hypertension D. Bradypnea

A Signs of increasing ICP include slowing of the heart rate (bradycardia), increasing systolic BP, and widening pulse pressure. As brain compression increases, respirations become rapid, BP may decrease, and the pulse slows further. A rapid rise in body temperature is regarded as unfavorable. Hyperthermia increases the metabolic demands of the brain and may indicate brain stem damage.

A nurse has a client with a spinal cord injury and is tailoring their care plan to prevent the major causes of death for this client. The nurse's care plan includes assisted coughing techniques, a sequential compression device, and prevention of pressure injuries. Which are the most likely possible causes of death for this client? A. Pneumonia, pulmonary embolism, and sepsis B. Cardiac tamponade, hypoxia, and malnutrition C. Oxygen toxicity in paralytic ileus and electrolyte imbalances D. Seizures, osteomyelitis, and urinary tract infections

A The nurse is assisting the client with assisted coughing to prevent pneumonia. Pulmonary infections are managed and prevented by frequent coughing, turning, and deep breathing exercises and chest physiotherapy; aggressive respiratory care and suctioning of the airway if a tracheostomy is present; assisted coughing as needed; and adequate hydration. Low-dose anticoagulation therapy usually is initiated to prevent DVT (deep vein thrombosis) and PE (pulmonary embolism), along with the use of anti-embolism stockings or sequential pneumatic compression devices (SCDs). Pressure injuries have the potential complication of sepsis, osteomyelitis, and fistulas. All of the other listed causes may occur in clients with SCI but are not the main causes of death. The interventions discussed above directly assist in the prevention of pneumonia, pulmonary embolism osteomyelitis and sepsis.

An 82-year-old client is admitted for observation after a fall. Due to the client's age, the nurse knows that the client is at increased risk for what complication of his injury? A. Hematoma B. Skull fracture C. Embolus D. Stroke

A Two major factors place older adults at increased risk for hematomas. First, the dura becomes more adherent to the skull with increasing age. Second, many older adults take aspirin and anticoagulants as part of routine management of chronic conditions. Because of these factors, the client's risk of a hematoma is likely greater than that of stroke, embolism, or skull fracture. Strokes are more common among older adults, but not typically as a complication of falls.

The emergency room (ER) nurse is caring for a client who has been brought in by ambulance after sustaining a fall at home. What physical assessment finding(s) are suggestive of a basilar skull fracture? Select all that apply A. Epistaxis B. Swelling of the tongue and lips C. Bruising over the mastoid D. Unilateral facial numbness E. Severe back pain

A, C Rationale: Fractures of the base of the skull tend to traverse the paranasal sinus of the frontal bone or the middle ear located in the temporal bone. Therefore, they frequently produce hemorrhage from the nose (epistaxis), pharynx, or ears, and blood may appear under the conjunctiva. An area of ecchymosis (bruising) may be seen over the mastoid (Battle sign). Pain is usually localized to the area of injury and swelling of the tongue and lips may have been the result of direct impact of the face due to the fall or an anaphylactic reaction of some type. Numbness on one side of the face is not a typical finding in basilar skull fractures.

A 35-year-old client is being admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) for increased observation with a brain injury and is awake, alert, and disoriented to time and situation. The client sustained a fall from a roof, and x-rays are pending. The nurse would anticipate which supportive priority measures for this client? A. Seizure prophylaxis and prevention B. Cervical and spinal immobilization C. Fluid and electrolyte maintenance, D. Intubation and mechanical ventilation

B Any client with a head injury is presumed to have a cervical spine injury until proven otherwise. The client is transported from the scene of the injury on a board with the head and neck maintained in alignment with the axis of the body. A cervical collar should be applied and maintained until cervical spine x-rays have been obtained and the absence of cervical SCI (spinal cord injury) documented. This client's x-rays were pending so spinal precautions should be maintained and are the priority. Primary injury to the brain is defined as the consequence of direct contact to the head/brain during the instant of initial injury, causing extracranial focal injuries. The greatest opportunity for decreasing TBI (traumatic brain injury) is the implementation of prevention strategies. Treatment for clients with suspected increased intracranial pressure (ICP) also includes ventilator support, seizure prevention, fluid and electrolyte maintenance, nutritional support, and management of pain and anxiety. Clients who are comatose are intubated and mechanically ventilated to ensure adequate oxygenation and to protect their airway. No information was provided on current ICP. The client was not fully orientated so he/she was transferred to the ICU for closer monitoring.

A nurse is caring for a critically ill client with autonomic dysreflexia. What clinical manifestations would the nurse expect in this client? A. Respiratory distress and projectile vomiting B. Bradycardia and hypertension C. Tachycardia and agitation D. Third-spacing and hyperthermia

B Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by a pounding headache, profuse sweating, nasal congestion, piloerection ("goose bumps"), bradycardia, and hypertension. It occurs in cord lesions above T6 after spinal shock has resolved; it does not result in vomiting, tachycardia, or third-spacing.

A client is brought to the trauma center by ambulance after sustaining a high cervical spinal cord injury 11/2 hours ago. Endotracheal intubation has been deemed necessary and the nurse is preparing to assist. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse associate with this procedure? A. Risk for impaired skin integrity B. Risk for injury C. Risk for autonomic dysreflexia D. Risk for suffocation

B If endotracheal intubation is necessary, extreme care is taken to avoid flexing or extending the client's neck, which can result in extension of a cervical injury. Intubation does not directly cause autonomic dysreflexia and the threat to skin integrity is not a primary concern. Intubation does not carry the potential to cause suffocation.

Following a spinal cord injury, a client is placed in halo traction. While performing pin site care, the nurse notes that one of the traction pins has become detached. The nurse would be correct in implementing what priority nursing action? A. Complete the pin site care to decrease risk of infection. B. Notify the neurosurgeon of the occurrence. C. Stabilize the head in a lateral position. D. Reattach the pin to prevent further head trauma.

B If one of the pins became detached, the head is stabilized in neutral position by one person while another notifies the neurosurgeon. Reattaching the pin as a nursing intervention would not be done due to risk of increased injury. Pin site care would not be a priority in this instance. Prevention of neurologic injury is the priority.

The staff educator is precepting a nurse new to the critical care unit when a client with a T2 spinal cord injury is admitted. The client is soon exhibiting manifestations of neurogenic shock. In addition to monitoring the client closely, what would be the nurse's most appropriate action? A. Prepare to transfuse packed red blood cells. B. Prepare for interventions to increase the client's BP. C. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position. D. Prepare an ice bath to lower core body temperature.

B Manifestations of neurogenic shock include decreased BP and heart rate. Cardiac markers would be expected to rise in cardiogenic shock. Transfusion, repositioning, and ice baths are not indicated interventions.

A client who has sustained a nondepressed skull fracture is admitted to the acute medical unit. Nursing care should include which of the following? A. Preparation for emergency craniotomy B. Watchful waiting and close monitoring C. Administration of inotropic drugs D. Fluid resuscitation

B Nondepressed skull fractures generally do not require surgical treatment; however, close observation of the client is essential. A craniotomy would not likely be needed if the fracture is nondepressed. Even if treatment is warranted, it is unlikely to include inotropes or fluid resuscitation.

A nurse is reviewing the trend of a client's scores on the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). This provides what potential information to the nurse about the client's status? A. The client's level of knowledge about preceding events B. An assessment of the client's current level of consciousness C. An assessment of the client's lowest verbal and physical response to stimuli D. An in-depth and real-time neurological assessment of the client's condition

B The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) examines three responses related to level of consciousness (LOC): eye opening, best verbal response, and best motor response. It is particularly useful for monitoring changes during the acute phase, the first few days after a head injury. It does not take the place of an in-depth neurologic assessment and does not provide knowledge about proceeding events.

The nurse is caring for a client who is rapidly progressing toward brain death. The nurse should be aware of what cardinal sign(s) of brain death? Select all that apply. A. Absence of pain response B. Apnea C. Coma D. Absence of brain stem reflexes E. Absence of deep tendon reflexes

B, C, D The three cardinal signs of brain death upon clinical examination are coma, the absence of brain stem reflexes, and apnea. Absences of pain response and deep tendon reflexes are not necessarily indicative of brain death.

A client is brought to the ED by family after falling off the roof. The care team suspects an epidural hematoma, prompting the nurse to anticipate for which priority intervention? A. Insertion of an intracranial monitoring device B. Treatment with antihypertensives C. Making openings in the skull D. Administration of anticoagulant therapy

C An epidural hematoma is considered an extreme emergency. Marked neurologic deficit or respiratory arrest can occur within minutes. Treatment consists of making an opening through the skull to decrease ICP emergently, remove the clot, and control the bleeding. Antihypertensive medications would not be a priority. Anticoagulant therapy should not be prescribed for a client who has a cranial bleed. This could further increase bleeding activity. Insertion of an intracranial monitoring device may be done during the surgery, but is not priority for this client.

Paramedics have brought an intubated client to the RD following a head injury due to acceleration-deceleration motor vehicle accident. Increased ICP is suspected. Appropriate nursing interventions would include which of the following? A. Keep the head of the bed (HOB) flat at all times. B. Teach the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver. C. Administer benzodiazepines on a PRN basis. D. Perform endotracheal suctioning every hour.

C If the client with a brain injury is very agitated, benzodiazepines are the most commonly used sedatives and do not affect cerebral blood flow or ICP. The HOB should be elevated 30 degrees. Suctioning should be done on a limited basis, due to increasing pressure in the cranium. The Valsalva maneuver is to be avoided. This also causes increased ICP.

A client is admitted to the neurologic ICU with a spinal cord injury. When assessing the client the nurse notes there is a sudden depression of reflex activity in the spinal cord below the level of injury. What should the nurse suspect? A. Epidural hemorrhage B. Hypertensive emergency C. Spinal shock D. Hypovolemia

C In spinal shock, the reflexes are absent, BP and heart rate fall, and respiratory failure can occur. Hypovolemia, hemorrhage, and hypertension do not cause this sudden change in neurologic function.

The nurse in the intensive care unit (ICU) is using the neurological assessment flow chart to evaluate a calm client with traumatic brain injury (TBI) that has several medications infusing. Which medication would best allow an accurate assessment of the client's neurological status? A. Lorazepam B. Benzodiazepines C. Propofol D. Midazolam

C Propofol, a sedative hypnotic agent that is supplied in an intralipid emulsion for intravenous (IV) use, is the sedative of choice. It is an ultra-short acting, rapid onset drug with elimination half-life of less than an hour. It has a major advantage of being titratable to its desired clinical effect but still provides the opportunity for an accurate neurologic assessment. Lorazepam and midazolam are frequently used but have active metabolites that may cause prolonged sedation, making it difficult to conduct a neurologic assessment. Benzodiazepines are the most commonly used sedative agents for agitated clients and do not affect cerebral blood flow or ICP. Benzodiazepines produce a calming effect, which may impact a neurological assessment's findings.

The nurse planning the care of a client with head injuries is addressing the client's nursing diagnosis of "sleep deprivation." What action should the nurse implement? A. Administer a benzodiazepine at bedtime each night. B. Do not disturb the client between 2200 and 0600. C. Cluster overnight nursing activities to minimize disturbances. D. Ensure that the client does not sleep during the day.

C To allow the client longer times of uninterrupted sleep and rest, the nurse can group nursing care activities so that the client is disturbed less frequently. However, it is impractical and unsafe to provide no care for an 8-hour period. The use of benzodiazepines should be avoided.

A client who suffered a spinal cord injury is experiencing an exaggerated autonomic response. What aspect of the client's current health status is most likely to have precipitated this event? A. The client received a blood transfusion. B. The client's analgesia regimen was recently changed. C. The client was not repositioned during the night shift. D. The client's urinary catheter became occluded.

D A distended bladder is the most common cause of autonomic dysreflexia. Infrequent positioning is a less likely cause, although pressure ulcers or tactile stimulation can cause it. Changes in medications or blood transfusions are unlikely causes.

The ED is notified that a 6-year-old child is in transit with a suspected brain injury after being struck by a car. The child is unresponsive at this time, but vital signs are within acceptable limits. What will be the primary goal of initial therapy? A. Promoting adequate circulation B. Treating the child's increased ICP C. Assessing secondary brain injury D. Preserving brain homeostasis

D All therapy is directed toward preserving brain homeostasis and preventing secondary brain injury, which is injury to the brain that occurs after the original traumatic event. The scenario does not indicate the child has increased ICP or a secondary brain injury at this point. Promoting circulation is likely secondary to the broader goal of preserving brain homeostasis.

A client sustained a head injury as a result of trauma. The health care provider has instituted seizure prophylactic measures. The nurse anticipates which specific measures being initiated for this client? A. Antiemetic medications on day three of injury B. Aspiration precautions on day four of injury C. Intubation and ventilator support on day one of injury D. Anticonvulsant medications on day two of injury

D Clients with head injury are at an increased risk for posttraumatic seizures. Posttraumatic seizures are classified as immediate (within 24 hours after injury), early (within 1 to 7 days after injury), or late (more than 7 days after injury). Seizure prophylaxis is the practice of administering anticonvulsant medications to clients with head injury to prevent seizures. It is important to prevent posttraumatic seizures, especially in the immediate and early phases of recovery, because seizures may increase ICP and decrease oxygenation. All of the other interventions are not part of the seizure prophylactic protocol nor have a specific timeline of administration.

A 13-year-old was brought to the ED after being hit in the head by a baseball and is subsequently diagnosed with a concussion. Which assessment finding would rule out discharging the client? A. The client reports a headache. B. The client reports pain at the site where the ball hits his head. C. The client is visibly fatigued. D. The client's speech is slightly slurred.

D Slurred speech would indicate a need for further assessment and observation due to the possibility of more serious trauma. Localized pain, a headache and fatigue are consistent with a concussion and do not necessarily require further intervention.

An ED nurse has just received a call from EMS that they are transporting a 17-year-old client who has just sustained a spinal cord injury (SCI). The nurse recognizes that the most common cause of this type of injury is what event? A. Syncope (fainting) B. Suicide attempts C. Workplace injuries D. Motor vehicle accidents

D The most common causes of SCIs are motor vehicle crashes, falls, violence, and sports.

A client with a head injury has been increasingly agitated and the nurse has consequently identified a risk for injury. What is the nurse's best intervention for preventing injury? A. Restrain the client as ordered. B. Administer opioids PRN as prescribed. C. Arrange for friends and family members to sit with the client. D. Pad the side rails of the client's bed.

D To protect the client from self-injury, the nurse uses padded side rails. The nurse should avoid restraints, because straining against them can increase ICP or cause other injury. Narcotics used to control restless clients should be avoided because these medications can depress respiration, constrict the pupils, and alter the client's responsiveness. Visitors should be limited if the client is agitated.

The nurse is assessing a client with a spinal cord injury that reports a severe headache with a rapid onset. The nurse knows that this could be a symptom of which complication of a spinal cord injury? A. Autonomic dysreflexia B. Spinal shock C. Retinal hemorrhage D. Myocardial infarction

The client is likely suffering from an episode of autonomic dysreflexia which triggers an autonomic-hyper-response. Autonomic dysreflexia occurs after spinal shock, not due to it. Retinal hemorrhage and MI occur if autonomic dysreflexia is not resolved.