OB quizzes 5-8

अब Quizwiz के साथ अपने होमवर्क और परीक्षाओं को एस करें!

5-1b Adam Smith's idea of self-interest focuses on which aspect of motivation? a. government intervention b. internal needs c. external incentives d. Protestant ethics

C

7-2a Which of the following approaches asserts that stress occurs when emotions or demands upset an individual's natural steady state of balance? a. Cannon's medical approach b. Kahn's person-environment fit c. Levinson's psychoanalytic approach d. Lazarus's cognitive appraisal approach

A

7-2b Which approach to stress introduced the ideas of problem-focused and emotion-focused coping? a. Lazarus's cognitive appraisal approach b. Levinson's psychoanalytic approach c. Cannon's medical approach d. Kahn's person-environment fit

A

7-3 Kiesha was up for a promotion at work but didn't get it. She believes her coworker Mark got the job because of his gender. Because Kiesha believes she was treated unfairly, her bloodstream likely contains high levels of a. cortisol. b. insulin. c. serotonin. d. testosterone.

A

7-1 Which of the following terms refers to a person or event that triggers the stress response? a. eustress b. stressor c. distress d. strain

B

7-2d How does the psychoanalytic approach to stress differ from the other three approaches? a. It does not view stress on a continuum; one never feels "a little" stressed. b. It does not view stress as a result of person-environment interaction. c. It does not view stress as having a cognitive component. d. It does not view stress as a benefit, only a hinderance.

B

7-4b Which of the following is an addiction and the most notable stress-inducing nonwork demand? a. global travel b. workaholism c. sexual harassment d. work trauma

B

7-5b Erica is working at her first full-time job. She has a degree in accounting but has been doing little more than data input for two years. She now is apathetic about her work, and her performance is subpar. Erica likely is experiencing a. emotional exhaustion. b. rust-out. c. karoshi. d. burnout

B

8-1 By definition, a message has two primary components: content and a. thoughts. b. affect. c. feedback. d. screens.

B

8-7c All of the following statements accurately describe information communication technology (ICT) EXCEPT a. ICTs encourage polyphasic activity. b. ICTs tends to speed up group decision-making activities. c. ICTs may make people less patient with face-to-face communication. d. ICTs can alter the social context of the communication exchange.

B

6-3d Which of the following is a goal-setting program developed by Peter Drucker based on interaction and negotiation between employees and managers? a. management by objectives b. 360-degree feedback c. management by walking around d. the one-minute manager

A

6-6 All of the following statements accurately describe rewarding performance EXCEPT a. Reward decisions are among the simplest and easiest decisions managers make. b. Reward and punishment decisions affect an entire organization, not just the individual. c. Performance appraisals often provide input for reward decisions. d. High-potential women often reverse the gender pay gap and receive a pay premium.

A

5-7b To understand altruistic, fair, and equitable behavior, we must understand an individual's a. moral maturity. b. expectancy. c. motivational problems. d. valence.

A

6-1d While in group meetings, Josef tends to daydream and ignore the business at hand. When Josef does participate, his supervisor compliments his ideas and thanks him. When Josef daydreams, his supervisor says nothing. This is an example of a. extinction. b. punishment. c. negative reinforcement. d. positive reinforcement.

A

6-6b The power of earning rests on a direct link between a. performance and rewards. b. merit raises and length of service. c. entitlement and rewards. d. performance and motivation.

A

6-7a Which of the following terms in Kelley's attribution theory refers to the cue indicating the degree to which an individual behaves the same way in other situations? a. distinctiveness b. consistency c. validity d. consensus

A

7-6d Frances has just been promoted to her dream job, but she is extremely fearful of making mistakes and looking foolish in front of her peers. To compensate, she spends the majority of her time on her phone with Isabella, her former mentor who now works elsewhere. Frances does not make any decisions without checking with Isabella first. Frances has developed a pattern of a. overdependence. b. transformance. c. counterdependence. d. self-reliance.

A

7-7Which of the following is a secondary stress prevention method in organizations? a. team building b. job redesign c. role negotiation d. goal setting

A

8-1 Which of the following is the preferred method of workplace communication? a. electronic mail b. text message c. telephone d. face-to-face communication

A

8-3a Which of the following denotes a gateway through the gender barrier in communication? a. seek clarification of the person's meaning rather than interpreting it from one's own frame of reference b. use simple, direct, and declarative statements c. pay closer attention to message context than content d. acquire a guide for understanding differences

A

8-4Which of the following terms is defined as communication and behavior that respects the integrity and dignity of the individual? a. civility b. two-way communication c. richness d. employee voice behavior

A

8-4e Priya is assigned to mentor Neil, a new employee. When an e-mail regarding an upcoming staff meeting is sent, Priya notices that Neil was not included but decides to remain silent. Neil misses the meeting and important information. Which defense tactic is Priya using in this example? a. power play b. hostile jokes c. disseminating misleading information d. labeling

A

5-2 Drew is committed to his work because of the excellent retirement plan. Which need in Maslow's hierarchy is fulfilled in this example? a. physiological b. safety and security c. social d. esteem

B

5-6a Which of the following is an individual contribution, according to Etzioni's exchange relationship? a. benefits b. developmental potential c. organizational goals d. physiological needs

B

8-7a Of the following, which is considered the shortest form of written communication? a. memos b. forms c. reports d. manuals

B

5-5 Which of the following statements accurately describes family motivation? a. It reduces work stress. b. It rarely boosts performance in the workplace. c. It requires direct supervisor interaction. d. It provides energy, even when one's intrinsic motivation is low

D

5-5a Which of the following terms refers to healthy, normal stress? a. restress b. distress c. overstress d. eustress

D

5-5b Loehr's full engagement idea asserts that people must a. manage time rather than energy. b. be activated by unmet self-actualization needs. c. be activated by unmet safety needs. d. manage energy rather than time

D

5-6d Claire and Raj work similar jobs for the same company. Since Raj has more experience than Claire, he earns a higher salary. Claire reacts to this realization by putting in less effort. She now believes she makes more money per hour of "real" work than Raj, which makes her happy. Claire would be considered a. a critic. b. an equity sensitive. c. a benevolent. d. an entitled.

D

5-7 Expectancy theory assumes that a. there is no correlation between effort and performance but a strong one between performance and reward. b. high effort correlates to strong performance but does not result in a reward. c. there is no correlation between effort, performance, and reward. d. high effort correlates to strong performance, which results in a coveted reward.

D

5-1 Which motivational theory classification emphasizes the nature of the interaction between the individual and the environment? a. process theories b. internal theories c. sustained theories d. external theories

A

5-7 Which of the following terms refers to the belief that performance is related to rewards? a. instrumentality b. valence c. expectancy d. moral maturity

A

6-6a One benefit of individual reward systems over team reward systems is that they encourage a. competition. b. joint efforts. c. the sharing of information and expertise. d. educational advancement.

A

7-4 It's Sunday evening, and Luis had been packing for a trip across the country to attend his company's annual sales conference this week. He is now stressed because a social worker from his mother's assisted living center just called and requested an emergency meeting on Monday afternoon to discuss moving his mother to the nursing care unit. Luis's stress is likely due to a. interrole conflict. b. intrarole conflict. c. person-role conflict. d. role ambiguity.

A

7-5a Which of the following statements accurately describes the Yerkes-Dodson law? a. The greatest benefits from stress are achieved in the midrange of the curve. b. Boredom from understimulation does not cause distress. c. The stress response invokes heightened strength and physical force indefinitely. d. Overstimulation has a neutral, nondistressful effect on an employee.

A

5-3a Genevieve is overjoyed to have been chosen to work on her company's most prestigious and challenging project. She asks her supervisor to set up weekly progress meetings, so she can receive timely feedback and to permit her to work from home two days per week, so she can avoid distractions. According to McClelland's Need Theory, Genevieve has a high need for a. affiliation. b. achievement. c. security. d. power.

B

5-3a Which need theory of motivation focuses only on higher-order needs and ignores the lower-order needs? a. Alderfer's ERG Theory b. McClelland's Need Theory c. Maslow's Need Hierarchy d. McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y Hide Feedback

B

5-8 Cultural researchers have found that expectancy theory does not hold up well in cultures that are a. feminine. b. collectivist. c. future oriented in time. d. masculine.

B

6-1a Which statement accurately describes the difference between classical and operant conditioning? a. Classical conditioning works only with voluntary behaviors, whereas operant conditioning works only with involuntary behaviors. b. Classical conditioning involves two paired stimuli, whereas operant conditioning pairs behavior and response. c. Classical conditioning has only been studied with animals, whereas operant conditioning has been studied with humans. d. Classical conditioning rewards the learner with incentives, whereas operant conditioning offers no rewards.

B

6-1c Sumi is known for her inability to be on time for group meetings. When she is late, her boss nags her about it. When she is on time, her boss says nothing. This is an example of a. punishment. b. negative reinforcement. c. positive reinforcement. d. extinction.

B

6-2b In the cognitive approach to learning, which of the following personality preference types most likely will scan research reports for the overall theme and then go with their gut as to what research findings can be apply to their organization? a. intuitive feeler b. intuitive thinker c. sensing thinker d. sensing feeler

B

6-5 Which of the following statements accurately describes a quality performance feedback session? a. Critical feedback is unnecessary and should be avoided. b. Supervisors must establish mutual trust and be vulnerable to challenges from the employee. c. Supervisors should begin the session with negative feedback to get it out of the way early. d. It will not create stress for supervisors or employees.

B

6-7b Which of the following statements accurately describes the mentoring relationship? a. Research has found that mentoring leads to OCBs that directly benefit the organization as a whole. b. Mentor relationships go through four phases: initiation, cultivation, separation, and redefinition. c. Counseling, coaching, and mentoring are three unique functions of management. d. To play a role in employee problem solving, supervisors must accept responsibility for the employee's problems.

B

7-5c Which of the following is an example of a participation problem resulting from organizational distress? a. Achilles is so upset at being passed over for partner for the sixth time that he decides to leave the law firm. b. Minerva is so worried about her newest project with a seemingly impossible deadline that she calls in sick when she isn't. c. Zeus filed a lawsuit against his company for causing his incapacitating depression. d. Athena is so troubled by her boss's attitude, she cannot concentrate, and the quality of her work declines.

B

7-6 All of the following statements accurately describe the stress-strain relationship EXCEPT a. The Type A behavior pattern is linked to coronary heart disease. b. Research shows that time urgency is the lethal agent of the Type B personality. c. Women's behavioral responses to stress are different from men's. d. Extraversion and neuroticism affect the stress-strain relationship.

B

7-7a According to the job strain model, which of the following combinations leads to a high-strain job? a. stringent demands and unlimited control b. stringent demands and restricted control c. flexible demands and unlimited control d. flexible demands and restricted control

B

8-2 Ashley is a supervisor at a call center. Her employees are comfortable approaching her with their suggestions and complaints. Which of the manager-employee communication skills does Ashley most likely exhibit? a. informative style b. empathy and sensitivity c. persuasiveness d. expressiveness

B

8-2a Antonio supervises the art department at a major magazine. In a recent meeting, he told his employees that he didn't care for sculpture chosen for the cover art because it felt too depressing and heavy for that month's light-hearted content. Which of the manager-employee communication skills does Antonio most likely exhibit in this example? a. persuasiveness b. expressiveness c. informative style d. empathy and sensitivity

B

8-3c Which of the following denotes a gateway through the language barrier in communication? a. acquire a guide for understanding differences b. use simple, direct, and declarative statements c. seek clarification of the person's meaning rather than interpreting it from one's own frame of reference d. pay closer attention to message context than content

B

8-5b Which of the following terms refers to the study of body movements and posture? a. paralanguage b. kinesics c. proxemics d. territorial space

B

5-2a Which of the following statements best represents a Theory Y assumption? a. People lack ambition. b. People are not very bright. c. People resist organizational needs because of prior experiences. d. People dislike change, and since they lack responsibility, they prefer to be led

C

5-2b All of the following statements accurately describe ERG theory EXCEPT a. It was proposed by Clayton Alderfer. b. It offers a regression hypothesis. c. It groups human needs into three categories: external, regressive, and growth. d. It recategorizes the needs recognized in Maslow's hierarchy.

C

5-3 David McClelland's needs theory involves three ________ needs. a. ambiguous b. equivocal c. manifest d. innate

C

5-4 Which of the following did researchers classify both as a motivational factor and a hygiene factor? a. growth b. security c. salary d. responsibility

C

5-6b Aaron knows he works much harder than Byron, has a more advanced university degree, but makes about one-third less money. According to Adams's theory, Aaron is perceiving a situation of a. equity. b. positive inequity. c. negative inequity. d. multiculturism.

C

5-8 In America, self-actualization is the pinnacle need on Maslow's hierarchy. When studying cultures with a high need to avoid uncertainty, researchers found workers' pinnacle need to be a. esteem. b. social. c. safety and security. d. physiological.

C

6-2a All of the following are sources of task-specific self-efficacy EXCEPT a. current physical and emotional capabilities b. persuasion from other people c. application of desirable consequences d. prior experience

C

6-4c The intersection of actual performance and measured performance is called a. unreliability. b. organizational citizenship behavior. c. true assessment. d. a deficiency problem.

C

6-5c Which characteristic of effective performance appraisal systems refers to the fair evaluation against established criteria, regardless of individual differences? a. flexibility b. reliability c. equitability d. validity

C

7-3 During the stress response, chemical messengers activate the a. circulatory system and the endocrine system. b. sympathetic nervous system and the renal system. c. sympathetic nervous system and the endocrine system. d. lymphatic system and the digestive system.

C

7-4a Which of the following is a leading cause of work stress for employees? a. global travel b. technological innovation c. demanding managerial styles d. uncomfortable temperatures

C

7-6c Which of the following is a component of personality hardiness? a. alienation b. transformation c. commitment d. critical thinking

C

8-2 All of the following statements accurately describe manager-employee communication skills EXCEPT a. The best supervisors are sensitive to the self-esteem of others. b. Most effective supervisors tend toward extroversion. c. Good supervisors cannot and should not be transparent in employee communication. d. Good supervisors do not manipulate others during nonemergent situations.

C

8-3 Which of the following is not a barrier to communication? a. language b. physical separation c. status similarities d. gender differences

C

8-4d Which of the following is an example of a subordinately defensive statement? a. I'm the boss, so try it my way first. b. We've done it this way for years. c. I'm just following orders. d. Trust me; I know what I'm doing.

C

8-6 According to James Lynch, what is the cure for communicative disease? a. reengaging in conversations about emotions with loved ones b. reengaging in conversations about thoughts with loved ones c. reengaging in conversations balanced by thoughts and emotions d. no cure availabe

C

8-6 The absence of heartfelt communication in relationships leads to a. healthy internal conversation. b. focus. c. social isolation. d. incivility.

C

8-7c What is workplace telepressure? a. the tension caused by having to be without a personal smartphone b. the tension caused by having to spend every workday communicating electronically, instead of face-to-face c. the pressure to prioritize all workplace communication similarly, no matter the format d. the pressure to learn new technologies as soon as they are introduced

C

5-1a With which of the following ideas would Sigmund Freud agree? a. People are motived by economic gain to provide the necessary conveniences of life. b. Prosperous workers are more likely to find a place in heaven. c. Successful workers recognize others' interests as well as their own. d. The unconscious mind influences human motivation.

D

5-4 All of the following statements accurately describe motivation factors in Herzberg's two-factor theory EXCEPT a. Motivation factors are the more important of the two sets of factors. b. Job enrichment creates job satisfaction. c. Motivation factors lead to positive mental health. d. The absence of motivation factors leads to dissatisfaction.

D

5-4 Which of the following is a hygiene factor according to Herzberg's two-factor theory of motivation? a. work itself b. recognition of achievement c. advancement d. supervision

D

5-8 Most motivation theories in use today have been developed by and about a. Western Europeans. b. Asians. c. Eastern Europeans. d. Americans.

D

6-2a Which theory of learning asserts that learning occurs when we observe other people and model their behavior? a. machine learning b. behavioral learning c. cognitive learning d. social learning

D

6-3a All of the following statements accurately describe goal setting EXCEPT a. It reduces stress. b. It increases task performance and work motivation. c. It improves the accuracy and validity of performance evaluation. d. It is most useful in small, unpredictable organizations.

D

6-3a Which of the following is an example of a SMART goal? a. We will increase our brand's social media following by 1 billion followers. b. I will improve customer relations by the end of the fiscal year. c. We will lower our carbon footprint to save the planet. d. I will increase my sales revenues by 20% by the end of the calendar year.

D

6-4a What is the first step in performance management? a. address emotions and defenses b. measure performance against quantifiable data c. provide feedback d. define performance in behavioral terms

D

6-4b All of the following are reliability problems in performance appraisal systems EXCEPT a. the mood of the evaluator b. the ill health of the employee being evaluated c. the timing of the evaluation d. the poorly defined task performance

D

6-5a What is a benefit of 360-degree feedback in performance appraisals? a. It is less cumbersome than all other appraisal systems. b. It takes less time than other appraisal formats. c. It does not include a self-evaluation. d. It improves the accuracy of performance appraisals.

D

6-7a Which of the following combinations of informational cues would lead to an internal attribution? a. high consensus, low distinctiveness, and high consistency b. high consensus, high distinctiveness, and low consistency c. low consensus, high distinctiveness, and low consistency d. low consensus, low distinctiveness, and high consistency

D

7-1 Which of the following is another term for distress? a. homeostasis b. threat c. eustress d. strain

D

7-1 Which of the following statements accurately describes stress? a. Organizations have begun to study the effects of stress on workers in the last 50 years. b. Stress tends to affect lower-level workers more so than managers. c. Stress is a negative concept and should be avoided. d. Stress is an asset in achieving peak performance.

D

7-3 What is the primary chemical messenger released into the bloodstream at the beginning of the stress response? a. insulin b. dopamine c. serotonin d. adrenaline

D

7-7 Secondary preventive stress management is directed at the a. process. b. symptom. c. stressor. d. response.

D

8-1c When listening reflectively, which level of verbal response reassures the speaker in the early stages of expression? a. clarifying the implicit b. paraphrasing the expressed c. reflecting core feelings d. affirming contact

D

8-5 What do all forms of nonverbal communication have in common? a. They have little connection to reflective listening. b. They are not influenced by psychological processes. c. Their messages typically are confusing and immaterial. d. Their meanings are culture bound.

D

8-5a You would like to facilitate communication with Ming, your coworker. Which seating dynamic will help you succeed? a. Seat Ming across from you so that you face each other. b. Let Ming choose where she would like to sit. c. Seat Ming beside you, facing the same direction. d. Seat Ming so that she is at a right angle from you.

D

8-6 All of the following statements accurately describe positive, healthy communication EXCEPT a. Communicative disease can lead to premature death. b. President Ronald Reagan spoke to the American people using his core values and sincere aspirations. c. Heartfelt communication requires personal integrity and ethical character. d. A downside of positive, healthy communication is that it excludes competition in the workplace.

D


संबंधित स्टडी सेट्स

Art History 2 Neoclassicism (Module 6)

View Set

APES Air pollution and Acid rain

View Set

ITC560 Exam 2 Review Questions (Chapters 6-10)

View Set

Electronic Funds Transfer Act (Reg E)

View Set

IT: Types and Functions of Output Devices

View Set

Indonesian 6: Berapa (How much/How many)

View Set

Word Chapter 1: Multiple Choice Quiz

View Set

Ch. 14 Autonomic Nervous Systen (What is the function of the autonomic nervous system?ANS)

View Set

CH 2: The Legal System in the US

View Set