Operational Procedures - Level 3
For how long is a SNOWTAM valid?
24 hours.
The use of passenger oxygen in the case of severe smoke in the cabin is:
Useless because the toxic cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen.
Astronomical (earth rate) precession is:
Valid whether the aircraft is on the ground or in the air
In categorising aeroplanes for the determination of operating minima, how is the indicated airspeed at threshold Vat calculated?
Vat = Vso x 1,3
For a flight deck fire which of the following do you use? i. CO2. ii. Halon iii. Dry Powder. iv. Water.
(i) & (ii)
Gradual decompression is caused by: i. Window leak. ii. Door leak. iii. Window blown. iv. Emergency escape hatch open.
(i), (ii)
CO2 type fire extinguishers are usable on: i. Class A fires. ii. Class B fires. iii. Electrical fires. iv. Special fires - metal, chemical.
(i), (ii) and (iii)
A pilot is using a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel to the zero meridian, with Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. In polar regions, the pilot stops navigation in free-gyro mode after leaving the 6 microteslas zone, and the grid heading controlled by information from the inertial navigation system (INS) is 045° . After switching to magnetic mode, the compass heading is 220° . The INS position at this moment is 76° N 180° W. The magnetic variation on the chart is 10° E. The compass shift on this heading at this point in time is:
-5° .
For turbo-propeller aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance on at alternate aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:
0.7.
The chart is a South polar stereographic projection of the Antarctic regions. A grid, printed over it, its aligned with meridian 180° , the grid North in the direction of the geographic North (non standard grid). The grid course followed by the aircraft is Rg-280° , the position is 80° S 100° E. The true course followed at this moment is:
000°
The validity period of a flight track system organized in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace during an Eastbound flight normally is:
01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
An aeroplane with one passenger deck, is configured with 61 seats. The required number of megaphones on board is:
1
The number of extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment when the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is between 7 and 30 is:
1
An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be equipped with at least:
1 hand fire-extinguisher conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
From the following list: 1. Fire extinguishers 2. Portable oxygen supplies 3. First-aid kits 4. Passenger meals 5. Alcoholic beverages Which are classed as Dangerous Goods that are required to be on the aeroplane in accordance with relevant JAR for operating reasons:
1, 2 and 3 only.
You will use a Halon extinguisher for a fire of: 1. solids (fabric, plastic, ...) 2. liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...) 3. gas 4. metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...) The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2, 3
A fast decompression is recognizable by the following elements: 1. mist in the cabin 2. blast towards the exterior of the aircraft 3. expansion of body gases 4. blast of air released violently from the lungs The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2, 3, 4
The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following into account: 1. equipment available for navigation 2. dimensions and characteristics of the runways 3. composition of the flight crew 4. obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas 5. facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditions The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
In a pressurisation malfunction: 1. Noise increases. 2. Change in RCDI. 3. Pressure differential decreases
1, 2, 3.
As regards the detection of bird strike hazard, the pilots means of information and prevention are: 1. ATIS. 2. NOTAM' s. 3. BIRDTAMs. 4. Weather radar. 5. The report by another crew. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2, 5.
For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as: 1. Water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves. 2. Speed is greater than 132 kt. 3. Water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves. 4. Speed is greater than 117 kt. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2.
In case of a fire due to the heating of the brakes, you fight the fire using: 1. a dry powder fire extinguisher 2. a water spray atomizer 3. a water fire-extinguisher 4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher to the maximum The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2.
In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gust or strong down wind which forces you to go around. 1. maintain the same aircraft configuration (gear and flaps) 2. reduce the drags (gear and flaps) 3. gradually increase the attitude up to triggering of stick shaker 4. avoid excessive attitude change The combination of correct statements is:
1, 3
Passengers are to be briefed before take-off on safety matters and also receive a demonstration of certain items. Which of the following must be demonstrated? 1. Location and use of oxygen equipment. 2. Emergency door opening. 3. Use of safety belts. 4. Emergency lighting. 5. Use and location of life jackets. 6. Location and use of medical equipment.
1, 3, 5
How do you calculate Conversion Angle?
1/2 Ch long x sin lat.
The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard wing tip, with a coverage angle of:
110° .
The validity period of a flight track system organized in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace during a Westbound flight normally is:
11H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC.
The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40.000 ft is:
12 seconds.
Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplanes main wheel tyre pressure is 206 psi, the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur in the event of applying brakes is:
129 kt.
What is the oxygen requirement for the crew and 100% of the passengers in an unpressurised aircraft?
13000 ft.
A polar stereographic chart has a grid printed over it which is parallel to the meridian 054° W, with Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. An aircraft is following a true course of 330° . At position 80° N 140° E, its grid heading (GH) with this system will be:
136° .
In what period of time must a fuel jettisoning system be capable of jettisoning sufficient fuel to meet the precise climb and discontinued approach requirements:
15 minutes.
If airworthiness documents do not shown any additional correction factor for landing performance determination on a wet runway, the landing distance shall be increased by:
15%.
What is the circling minima for a Cat A aeroplane?
1500 m.
The mass of an aeroplane at the start of take-off shall not exceed the relevant maximum masses at which compliance with the applicable noise certifications standards of ICAO Annex ... can be achieved.
16
Which ICAO Annex details the SARPS for the carriage of articles or substances which are capable of posing significant risk to health, safety or property when transported by air.
18
Which of the following is valid criteria for a take-off diversion aerodrome:
2 hours or less flying time at one engine out cruise speed for a 4 engined aeroplane.
For a light aircraft departing after a medium what is the minimum time for wake turbulence separation?
2 min.
A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for: 1. a paper fire 2. a hydrocarbon fire 3. a fabric fire 4. an electrical fire 5. a wood fire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
2, 3, 4
Airborne weather radar is required on the following aircraft: 1. All piston powered aircraft. 2. All pressurized aircraft. 3. All turbo-prop powered aircraft. 4. If the aircraft mass is greater than 5700kg or has more than 9 seats. 5. All jet engined aircraft.
2, 4
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1. Flies above the glide path. 2. Flies below the glide path. 3. Has an increasing true airspeed. 4. Has a decreasing true airspeed. The combination of correct statements is:
2,4.
According to JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima) a Category IIIA approach has a Decision Height of less than 100 feet and a minimum RVR (Runway Visual Range) of:
200 m.
What is the required RVR for CAT IIIA operations?
200m
An air traffic units may request the aircraft to report position when flying east-west north of 70° N between 10° W and 50° W, every:
20° of longitude.
On a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the Greenwich meridian in the direction of the true North pole, the true orientation of the great circle linking point 62° N 010° E to point 66° N 050° W is 305° . The grid route at the starting point of this great circle is:
295° .
The recent experience conditions of a commander assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an operator must not be less than:
3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aircraft or approved simulator in the preceding 90 days
The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an operator must not be less than:
3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days.
To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you use: 1. a water fire-extinguisher 2. a powder or chemical fire-extinguisher 3. a Halon fire-extinguisher 4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
3, 4
The standby power supply powering the standby artificial horizon must be operable on board any aircraft of more than 5.700 kg or more than 9 passengers during at least:
30 minutes.
What is the system minimum for an NDB approach?
300 ft.
An operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a non-precision approach procedure which is based upon the use of an NDB is not lower than:
300ft.
For an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator controls the amount of pure oxygen mixed with air. Following explosive decompression with the regulator set to normal, at what approximate altitude will pure oxygen be supplied:
32000 ft.
How many fire extinguishers must be carried in the cabin for a seating configuration of 300 passengers?
4
Above what height must equipment to measure the dose rate of cosmic radiation be carried:
49.000 ft
In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHT aircraft are using the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied a wake turbulence radar separation minima of:
5 NM.
Where there are no facilities at an aerodrome the minimum take-off RVR is:
500 m.
The minimum RVR requirement for CAT I ILS approach is:
550m
All aeroplanes which individual certificates of airworthiness were issued after 1 April 1998 must be fitted with a flight data recorder when their maximum certificated take-off mass is greater than:
5700 kg
A recent aircraft must be provided with a flight data recorder when its certified take-off gross weight is greater than:
5700 kg.
The number of extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment when the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is between 401 and 500 is:
6
The number of hand fire extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment when the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is between 401 and 500 is:
6
The minimum lateral separation applied in the NAT region is...
60 NM.
How far away can a take-off alternate be for a 2-engined aeroplane?
60 mins at one engine cruise speed.
How far from an en route alternate airfield can a 2-engined aeroplane with more than 20 seats and a MTOM of 8.600 kg be flown?
60 minutes at the one engine out speed.
The number of extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment when the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is between 501 and 600 is:
7
The number of hand fire extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment when the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is between 501 and 600 is:
7
For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?
7.4 km (4 NM).
You are a heavy aeroplane behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach. What is he required separation?
7.4km, 4nm.
In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is:
7500
An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of:
80 kt.
Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen at which flying efficiency is not impaired is:
8000ft.
For single-pilot operations, an RVR of less than ... is not permitted except when using a suitable autopilot coupled to an ILS or MLS, in which case the normal minima apply.
800m
How long is holdover time for Type II anti-icing fluids?
A certain time dependent on concentration.
What is meant by the abbreviation RNP5?
A mandatory maximum across track mileage allowable deviation for 5% of the Total flight time.
Actions taken by the flight operations officer or flight dispatcher shall not conflict with procedures established by:
ATC.
Who shall provide the flight operations personal with a operations manual and also issue the amendments to keep it up to date?
Aircraft operator.
Which of the following forms or information are NOT required to be carried on all flights? 1. The Operational Flight Plan (OFP) 2. Mass and balance Documentation 3. NOTAMS 4. The Technical Log 5. Maps and Charts 6. Passenger and cargo manifests.
All are required except 4.
An operator shall use Air Traffic Services:
Always whenever available.
One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of alternative destination, are: (Annex 6, Part I)
At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
When are passengers briefed on the use of oxygen for a flight that is planned to operate at FL 290.
Before T/O.
At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within NAT region?
Between FL290 and FL410.
In a SNOWTAM, if the cleared length of runway is less than the published length, what and where would the information be displayed?
Box D with the cleared length in metres.
An aircraft has a threshold speed of 135kts. Into which ICAO aircraft approach category is such an aircraft designated?
C
H2O extinguishers are fit to fight:
Class A fires.
When refuelling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary that: (Annex 6, Part I)
Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on board.
In MNPSA north of 70° N, how frequently can ATC ask for you to report your position?
Every 20 degrees of longitude.
When an aircraft, having already undergone an anti-icing procedure, must be protected again?
First, you must de-ice again the surface of the airplane, then apply the new layer of anti-icing fluid.
The take-off alternate has to be within which of the following distances from the aerodrome of departure:
For an aeroplane with three or more engines, a distance equivalent to a flight time of two hours at the one engine inoperative engine cruise speed.
When are all flight crew members required to be at their duty stations?
For routine take-offs and landings.
What is the worst case for hold over time following de-ice/anti-ice?
Freezing rain.
Ignoring astronomical effects, wind and drift, what route will a constant gyro heading follow?
Great circle.
The reference document dealing with air transport of hazardous materials is:
ICAO Appendix 18.
When is a flight navigator required as part of the flight crew?
If the authority of the State of the operator deems that the safe navigation of the aeroplane cannot be adequately accomplished from the pilots station.
Operators are to ensure that VFR flights must be conducted:
In accordance with the Visual Flight Rules.
When may the operating minima for an aerodrome be exceeded?
In an emergency.
The applicability of the JAR-OPS within JAA member countries:
Is an addition to the rules set out in ICAO Annex 6.
Which of the following statements correctly describes the operation of a cockpit voice recorder?
It must be switched off after an accident and not reactivated until recordings have been transcribed.
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of 9.3 Km (5.0 NM) shall be applied when a:
LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1.000.ft).
Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of birds?
Long grass.
In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures, which letter should be entered into a flight plan to denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than 136.000 kg but greater than 7.000 kg:
M
Which of the following statements is true:
MDH is referenced to threshold elevation if that is more than 2 m or 7 feet below the aerodrome elevation.
Which of the following are not to be operated on board of an aeroplane?
Mobile phones.
What precludes a runway being used for noise abatement procedures if landing in VMC?
No ILS or visual guidance.
Which statement is correct concerning turns on noise abatement procedures?
No turns should be coincident with a reduction in power.
What allows a pilot to act as co-pilot for take-off and landing?
Operated as PIC or as co-pilot at the controls for a take-off and landing in the previous 90 days.
Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when:
Operating at or above FL 60 or 2000 ft whichever is higher.
On an ILS, you are told that the weather has dropped below company minima. When must you abort the approach?
Outer Marker.
The terminal VOR transmits the following weather data. When do you expect carburettor icing?
Outside Air Temperature (OAT): +10° C Dew Point (DEWP): +7° C.
A flight to Europe is expected to be at 0300W at 0030UTC. Where will you be?
Outside the organised track system.
What happens to the EPR if the probe is blocked by ice?
Over reads.
On the approach you hit wind shear and have to go around. Do you:
Pitch up to the stick shaker.
Which of the following limitations are included in the aircraft flight manual?
Power plant and airspeed limitations.
The current standard for RNP in Europe is:
RNP 5 where an aeroplane must not be flown more than 5 nm from the centre line of the route at all times.
The WARS is the area to the east of ... extending eastwards to ... and south to...
San Francisco, 60W, 27N
Noise abatement for landing:
Should not preclude the use of thrust reverse.
In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing NAT traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft not able to maintain its assigned flight level should:
Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated by 30 NM from its assigned route or track.
About procedures for noise attenuation during landing:
Such procedures will not involve the prohibition of using reverse thrust .
Who is responsible for ensuring that all passengers are briefed before take-off?
The Commander.
Which of the following statements concerning the MEL is correct?
The MEL allows aeroplanes to be flown with unserviceability which would otherwise require immediate rectification.
Regarding ETOPS what additional points should be considered compared to a non-ETOPS aircraft?
The availability of an ATC facility and one let down aid?
Who accepts the MEL?
The country of the operator.
In which of the following cases, you should preclude consideration of noise abatement?
The crosswind component exceeds 15 kts
If information indicates that at ETA a landing at the destination or one of the destination alternates would not be possible within the established minima, then:
The flight may not commence.
Which of the following is not considered when establishing AOM?
The frequency of meteorological reports.
Which of the following is not required to be certified by the pilot before a flight commences?
The number of meals is at least equal to the number of boarded passengers.
Where a flight is above 15.000m:
The operator shall maintain records of the total cosmic radiation dose received by each crew member
Who is responsible for ensuring that dangerous goods are packed, labelled and carried in accordance with the regulations?
The operator.
Who is responsible for completing the journey log or the general declaration?
The pilot in command.
The minimum crew for all turbo propeller aeroplanes is 2 when:
The seating configuration is more than 19.
Who makes sure that the air transportation of an item of dangerous goods is not prohibited?
The shipper when completing the shippers declaration for dangerous goods.
Regarding the carriage of dangerous goods, the transport document, if required, is drawn up by:
The shipper.
What is the minimum recent experience for an aircraft commander?
Three take-offs landings in the preceding 90 days .
Each pilot must undertake a proficiency check:
Twice within any period of one year.
An aerodrome is suitable as a take-off alternate if:
Weather conditions must be at or above the aerodrome minima at the time of take-off.
Passengers are to be secured in their seats by means of seatbelts or harnesses during take-off and landing, turbulence and an emergency. When also must they be secured?
Whenever it is considered necessary.
Can dangerous goods be carried in the passenger cabin or on the flight deck?
Yes, but only goods specified in the technical instructions.
To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold:
You turn off the cargo hold ventilation and extinguish fire.
When leaving MNPS airspace and you have lost communications, what Mach No do you select?
Your last cleared Mach No.
Wake turbulence should be taken into account when:
a much heavier aeroplane has landed just previously on the same runway, a light crosswind condition exist and all high-lift devices are being used.
Viscous hydroplaning is caused by:
a smooth and dirty runway surface.
MDA is:
a specified altitude in a Non-precision Approach or Circling Approach below which the descent must not be made without the required visual reference.
In the event of a critical power unit failing during the take-off run, the aeroplane must be able to:
abort the take-off and stop within the ASDA or continue the take-off and clear all obstacles along the flight path by an adequate margin.
The observations and studies conducted on the behaviour of birds on the ground, ahead of an aircraft taking off and having reached an average speed of 135 kt, show that birds fly away:
about two seconds beforehand.
The authorization for the transport of hazardous materials is specified on the:
air carrier certificate.
For a flight above 10.000 ft the stored breathing oxygen carried must be sufficient for:
all crew members and 10 per cent of the passengers for any period in excess of 30 minutes that the pressure in compartments occupied by them will be between 700 hPa and 620 hPa, 4.000m/13.000ft.
In a mountainous region you encounter windshear and see an increase in airspeed. You:
allow speed to increase while staying on the glidepath and monitoring speed.
Fire extinguishers should be located in the pilots compartment and...
at each passenger compartment that is separate from the pilots compartment and not readily accessible to the flight crew.
An aircraft is scheduled to operate to a destination where the weather reports and forecasts indicate the runway likely to be used at the expected time of arrival may be wet. The landing distance available compared to the required landing distance on a dry runway is to be:
at least 115%.
One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it:
can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes.
In case of an engine jet pipe fire while on the ground you:
carry out a dry motoring cycle.
Which of the following documents are to be carried on each flight?
certificate of registration, certificate of airworthiness, AOC, aircraft radio license, crew licences, third party liability insurance certificates and a noise certificate (if applicable).
ICAO Annex 6 states that operators are to ensure that all their employees:
comply with the laws of the State in which operations are being conducted.
In the event of communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the pilot must:
continue his flight compliance with the last oceanic clearance received and acknowledge by him.
A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The safest extinguishant to use is:
dry powder.
The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the protection time:
during strong winds or as a result of the other aircraft engines jet wash.
In icing conditions, the pilot in command must:
ensure holdover time has not exceeded the time since de-icing started.
The operator must nominate post holders, acceptable to the authority for:
flight operations, maintenance, crew training, ground operations.
When a destination alternate is required to be nominated for a propeller driven aeroplane, the fuel and oil carried must be at least sufficient to:
fly to the aerodrome of intended landing, then to the most fuel consumption critical alternate specified in the operational flight plan, and then remain airborne for a further 45 minutes.
If a turbo-jet engined aeroplane has a nominated destination diversion aerodrome and the commander decides to attempt a landing at the nominated destination, the aeroplane must carry sufficient fuel to fly to the destination alternate after:
flying an approach and a missed approach.
The holdover time following an anti-icing procedure being carried out will vary considerably depending on the ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather conditions of:
frost.
An airplane creates a wake turbulence when:
generating lift.
An airplane creates wake turbulence when:
generating lift.
Where minimum navigation performance is prescribed by Regional Air Navigation Agreements, an aeroplane shall be fitted with equipment which:
has been authorised by the State of the operator.
The safety position for adults looks like: seat belts fastened:
head placed on a knee cushion, arms around the thigh.
The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a:
high weight, low speed, gear and flaps up.
The effective time during which the process of de-icing/anti-icing of a type fluid is active is called the...
holdover time.
Passengers are required to be briefed about the location and use of lifejackets...
if the carriage of life jackets in the aeroplane is required.
Pilots of aircraft in flight are permitted to jettison fuel...
in an emergency.
Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the following is established:
lift.
A class B fire is a fire of:
liquid or liquefiable solid.
Which of the following factors affect aircraft performance:
mass, temperature, wind.
ICAO defines wake turbulence categories of aeroplanes based on:
maximum take-off mass.
After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. The fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres:
only from front or rear side.
Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the:
operation manual.
The minimum equipment list of a public transport airplane is to be found in the:
operation manual.
During an approach procedure which involves noise abatement, the aeroplane is to be in the final landing configuration at any point after passing the ... or at a point ... from the threshold of the landing runway, whichever is earlier.
outer marker, 5NM
A flight crossing 0300W in MNPSA at 1100UTC will be:
outside OTS.
When flying above optimum altitude:
range reduces.
During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front left, will first see the:
red steady light.
During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front right right, will first see the:
red steady light.
After landing, in case of high temperature of the brakes you:
release the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from aft or fore.
ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organisation) Appendix 18 is a document dealing with the:
safety of the air transport of hazardous materials.
Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:
the airline complies with the Technical Instructions.
An operator must select at least one destination alternate for each IFR flight unless:
the duration of the planned flight from take-off to landing does not exceed 6 hours.
After landing heavy and fast, an engineer should approach the landing gear from:
the front or rear.
The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is established by:
the manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority.
For a propeller driven aeroplane, sufficient fuel must he carried to cater for flight to:
the nominated destination and then to the most fuel consumption critical alternate and then remain airborne for a further 45 minutes.
The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by:
the operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual.
The MEL (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:
the operator.
Who is responsible for the establishment of the MMEL?
the organisation responsible for the type design in conjunction with the State of design.
When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the aircraft tends:
to descend.
In compliance with the JAR OPS, in order to carry hazardous materials on board a public transport airplane, they must be accompanied with a:
transport document for hazardous materials.
During a transoceanic and polar flight, the transport precession is the rotation in degrees of the gyro North with respect to the:
true North.
A four-jet aircraft must be equipped with an in-flight fuel jettisoning system in order to reduce the aircraft weight in an emergency:
unless it is capable of meeting the climb requirements : 2.7% in approach configuration with 1 engine inoperative and 3.2% in landing configuration with all engines operative.
To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:
useless because the toxic cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen.
If a runway is covered with water which is less than 3mm deep, or where the surface appears reflective but without standing water patches, it is said to be:
wet.
Mach meters are required to be carried in aeroplanes:
where speed limitations are expressed in Mach-number.
While approaching the outer-marker, the tower informs you about the presence of a microburst. You will expect to encounter:
windshear (vertical and horizontal).
In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:
you descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration.