patho final

To make a diagnosis of fibromyalgia, tenderness must be present in ____ of the 18 points necessary for diagnosis.

ANS: 11

A 20-year-old male was recently diagnosed with lactose intolerance. He eats an ice cream cone and develops diarrhea. His diarrhea can be classified as _____ diarrhea. a. Osmotic b. Secretory c. Hypotonic d. Motility

ANS: A A nonabsorbable substance in the intestine leads to osmotic diarrhea.

A 32-year-old female presents with lower leg pain, with swelling and redness. While obtaining the patient's history, which finding could have caused her condition? a. Venous thrombus b. Heart valve damage c. Bacterial infection d. Atherosclerosis

ANS: A A thrombus formation in the vein leads to inflammation that may cause pain and redness with obstruction. Increased pressure in the vein behind the clot may lead to edema of the extremity.

A 12-year-old female hurts her ankle while playing basketball. Tests reveal that she tore a ligament. This condition is known as a: a. Sprain b. Strain c. Disunion d. Subluxation

ANS: A A torn ligament is also called a sprain.

Individuals of _____ descent are more prone to developing keloids? a. African-American b. Northern European c. Asian d. Native American

ANS: A African Americans are at greater risk for the development of keloids.

A 20-year-old female presents with vaginal itch and thin-walled pustular lesions. She is diagnosed with candidiasis. This condition is caused by a: a. Yeast b. Virus c. Bacterium d. Fungus

ANS: A Candidiasis is a yeast.

If a patient has carbuncles, the infection will be located in the: a. Hair follicles b. Papillary layer of the dermis c. Reticular layer of the dermis d. Subcutaneous tissue

ANS: A Carbuncles are a collection of infected hair follicles and usually occur on the back of the neck,

A 65-year-old female with emphysema presents to the ER for difficulty breathing. Physical exam reveals bluish skin and mucous membranes. How should the nurse chart this condition? Patient has: a. Cyanosis b. Hemoptysis c. Hematemesis d. Ischemia

ANS: A Cyanosis is a blue color to the skin.

Which principle should the nurse remember while planning care for a patient with respiratory problems? Diffusion of respiratory gases takes place at the: a. Alveolocapillary membrane b. Visceral pleurae c. Parietal pleurae d. Respiratory center

ANS: A Diffusion of respiratory gases takes place across the alveolocapillary membrane.

A nursing student wants to know during which stage actin binds to myosin. What is the nurse's best response? During: a. Coupling b. Relaxation c. Discharging d. Excitation

ANS: A During coupling, depolarization of the transverse tubules occurs. This triggers the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, exposing binding sites on the actin molecule.

A 12-year-old male is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. Which of the following tests should the nurse prepare the patient to best confirm the diagnosis? a. Fasting plasma glucose levels b. Random serum glucose levels c. Genetic testing d. Glycosylated hemoglobin measurements

ANS: A Fasting blood glucose levels are most beneficial in confirming the diagnosis of diabetes.

A 30-year-old male firefighter is badly burned and is admitted to the emergency department. Which of the following would be expected in the first 24 hours? a. Increased capillary permeability b. Diuresis c. Decreased levels of stress hormones d. Fluid overload

ANS: A Increased capillary permeability occurs, leading fluid to shift to interstitial spaces.

A 20-year-old male is in acute pain. An arterial blood gas reveals decreased carbon dioxide (CO2) levels. Which of the following does the nurse suspect is the most likely cause? a. Hyperventilation b. Hypoventilation c. Apnea d. Cyanosis

ANS: A Individuals with hyperventilation blow off CO2.

A 34-year-old female was recently diagnosed with RA. Physical examination revealed that inflammation started in the: a. Synovial membrane b. Articular cartilage c. Subchondral bone d. Surrounding ligaments

ANS: A Inflammation of RA starts in the synovial membrane.

A patient has researched lipid-soluble hormones on the Internet. Which information indicates the patient has a good understanding? Lipid-soluble hormone receptors cross the plasma membrane by: a. Diffusion b. Osmosis c. Active transport d. Endocytosis

ANS: A Lipid-soluble hormones cross the plasma membrane by diffusion.

A 36-year-old male is experiencing frontotemporal hair recession. He is diagnosed with male pattern baldness, which is a form of: a. Alopecia b. Areata c. Hirsutism d. Paronychia

ANS: A Male-pattern alopecia is an inherited form of irreversible baldness with hair loss in the central scalp and recession of the frontotemporal hairline.

Which of the following people is at highest risk for the development of gout? a. Men aged 40 to 50 years b. Premenopausal women c. Male adolescents d. Female children

ANS: A People at highest risk for gout are men aged 40 to 50 years of age.

A 40-year-old female is diagnosed with skin cancer. Her primary care provider explains that the most important risk factor for skin cancer is: a. Amount of direct sun exposure at a young age b. Amount of sun exposure over age 50 c. Lifetime amount of sun exposure d. Living in equatorial regions where the sun is most intense

ANS: A Protection from the sun, particularly during the childhood years of life, significantly reduces the risk of skin cancer in later years.

A 70-year-old male presents with back pain, fever, and weight loss. He reports that he had a recent respiratory infection from which he thought he recovered. Tests revealed increased white blood cell count, and a diagnosis of endogenous osteomyelitis was made. The primary organism causing this condition is: a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Salmonella c. Mycobacterium d. Haemophilus influenza

ANS: A Staphylococcus aureus remains the primary microorganism responsible for osteomyelitis.

The nursing student is teaching a class to second graders. The student would correctly identify that food moves down the esophagus via the process termed: a. Peristalsis b. Retropulsion c. Haustral segmentation d. Defecation

ANS: A Swallowed food is moved from the esophagus to the stomach by peristalsis.

Which cells are involved in initiating immune responses in the skin? a. Langerhans cells b. Merkel cells c. Keratinocytes d. Melanocytes

ANS: A The Langerhans cells process the antigen and carry it to T cells. T cells then become sensitized to the antigen, inducing the release of inflammatory cytokines and the symptoms of dermatitis.

A 25-year-old paralyzed male develops a dermal pressure ulcer. When assessing the patient's skin, which finding is the first indication of this ulcer? a. Redness b. Whiteness c. Indurations d. Ulceration

ANS: A The initial sign of a pressure ulcer is redness.

A 2-year-old malnourished child has vitamin B12 and folate deficiencies. A blood smear suggests the deficiency is macrocytic and normochromic. The nurse would expect the hemoglobin to be: a. Normal b. Sporadic c. Low d. High

ANS: A The macrocytic (megaloblastic) anemias are characterized by unusually large stem cells (megaloblasts) in the marrow that mature into erythrocytes that are unusually large in size (macrocytic), thickness, and volume. The hemoglobin content is normal, thus allowing them to be classified as normochromic.

Which information indicates the nursing student has a good understanding between compact bone and spongy bone? The major difference between compact bone and spongy bone is the: a. Organization of the structural elements b. Location within the body c. Activating chemicals in each d. Types of minerals in the bone matrix

ANS: A The major difference between the two types of tissue is the organization of the elements.

While planning care for a patient with renal calculi, the nurse remembers the most important factor in renal calculus formation is: a. urine pH. b. body temperature. c. gender. d. serum mineral concentrations.

ANS: A The most important factor in renal calculus formation is urine pH.

A staff member asks a nurse how blood gets to the bone. How should the nurse reply? Blood vessels penetrate to the inner structures of the bone via: a. Volkmann canals b. Canaliculi c. Sharpey fibers d. Lamellae

ANS: A The outer layer of the periosteum contains blood vessels and nerves, some of which penetrate to the inner structures of the bone through channels called Volkmann canals.

A 3-year-old male develops tinea capitis after playing with the family dog. This infection is caused by a: a. Fungus b. Bacterium c. Virus d. Parasite

ANS: A Tinea capitis is caused by a fungus.

A 5-year-old male is diagnosed with tinea corporis following development of lesions on the non-hairy parts of his face, trunk, and limbs. A common source of this condition is a: a. Kitten b. Pet bird c. Hamster d. Horse

ANS: A Tinea corporis is usually attributed to contact with young dogs and cats.

Transchondral fractures are most prevalent in: a. Adolescents b. Older adults c. Infants d. Premenopausal females

ANS: A Transchondral fractures are most prevalent in adolescents.

A 51-year-old male experienced severe acute gouty arthritis. Which of the following is the most common trigger for the symptoms? a. Trauma b. Anemia c. High-fat foods d. Lack of exercise

ANS: A Trauma is the most common trigger for gout symptoms.

An isolated muscle is believed to be a type 1 fiber. Which of the following should be observed by the nurse when the muscle is stimulated? a. The muscle resists fatigue. b. The muscle tires easily. c. The muscle will not contract. d. The muscle has no fascia.

ANS: A Type I fibers can resist fatigue for longer periods because of their capacity for oxidative metabolism.

A 40-year-old female presents complaining of pain near the midline in the epigastrium. Assuming the pain is caused by a stimulus acting on an abdominal organ, the pain felt is classified as: a. Visceral b. Somatic c. Parietal d. Referred

ANS: A Visceral pain arises from a stimulus (distention, inflammation, ischemia) acting on an abdominal organ.

A nurse is preparing to teach about skeletal muscles. Which information should the nurse include? The terms used to describe skeletal muscle are (select all that apply): a. Voluntary b. Striated c. Extrafusal d. Fibrotic e. Epithelial

ANS: A, B, C Skeletal muscle has been termed voluntary, striated, or extrafusal.

Which information indicates the staff member has a good understanding of bone classifications? The shapes that represent bone classifications include (select all that apply): a. Long b. Flat c. Short d. Irregular e. Round

ANS: A, B, C, D Bones can be classified by shape as long, flat, short (cuboidal), or irregular.

A 70-year-old male nursing home resident developed a dermal pressure ulcer. This condition is most often caused by (select all that apply): a. Shearing forces b. Friction c. Moisture d. Unrelieved pressure e. High-carbohydrate diet

ANS: A, B, C, D Pressure ulcers are ischemic ulcers resulting from unrelieved pressure, shearing forces, friction, and moisture. A high-carbohydrate diet is not a factor in development of pressure ulcers.

A nurse is assessing a patient with hypoparathyroidism. Clinical manifestations of hypoparathyroidism include (select all that apply): a. Tetany b. Chvostek sign c. Trousseau sign d. Oily skin e. Hair loss

ANS: A, B, C, E Symptoms of hypoparathyroidism includes tetany, Chvostek and Trousseau signs, dry (not oily) skin, and loss of body and scalp hair.

The nurse has a good understanding of bone matrix when he comments that the following molecules are part of the bone matrix? (Select all that apply.) a. Collagen fibers b. Elastin fibers c. Proteoglycans d. Glycoproteins e. Epithelial cells

ANS: A, B, D Bone matrix is composed of collagen fibers, proteoglycans, and glycoproteins.

Signs and symptoms of subluxation include (select all that apply): a. Pain b. Swelling c. Hemorrhage d. Limitation of movement e. Joint deformity

ANS: A, B, D, E Signs and symptoms of dislocations or subluxations include pain, swelling, limitation of motion, and joint deformity.

Dermal appendages include which of the following structures? (Select all that apply.) a. Sweat glands b. Nails c. Dermal papilla d. Hair e. Eccrine glands

ANS: A, B, D, E The dermal appendages include the nails, hair, sebaceous glands, and the eccrine and apocrine sweat glands.

Which of the following clinical findings would be expected in the patient with rhabdomyolysis? a. Sweating b. Dark urine c. Yellow color to the skin d. Lower extremity swelling

ANS: B A classic triad of muscle pain, weakness, and dark urine is considered typical of rhabdomyolysis.

A nurse recalls fibrous joints generally are: a. Rotating b. Slightly movable c. Freely movable d. Calcified

ANS: B A fibrous joint has little, if any, movement.

A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart? a. Iron deficiency anemia b. Pernicious anemia c. Sideroblastic anemia d. Hemolytic anemia

ANS: B A lack of the intrinsic factor leads to pernicious anemia.

A 65-year-old Hispanic female is admitted to the hospital with a pathologic, compound, transverse fracture of the femur. Which of the following statements best describes this type of fracture? a. The fracture line is parallel to the bone. b. The fracture line is straight across the bone. c. The fracture line is perpendicular to the bone. d. The fracture line is vertical to the shaft of the bone.

ANS: B A transverse fracture occurs straight across the bone.

Acne vulgaris involves inflammation of the: a. Hair follicles b. Sebaceous follicles c. Eccrine glands d. Apocrine glands

ANS: B Acne is a disorder of the pilosebaceous units, known as sebaceous follicles.

A 12-year-old female visits her primary care provider to obtain acne medication for recurrent acne vulgaris. This condition is an inflammatory disorder of the: a. Apocrine glands b. Pilosebaceous follicle c. Dermal layer d. Eccrine gland

ANS: B Acne vulgaris is an inflammatory disorder of the pilosebaceous follicle.

A patient wants to know what causes atherosclerosis. How should the nurse respond? In general, atherosclerosis is caused by: a. High serum cholesterol levels b. Endothelial injury and inflammation c. An increase in antithrombotic substances d. Congenital heart disease

ANS: B Atherosclerosis begins with injury to the endothelial cells that line artery walls

A clinician is preparing to discuss hydroxyapatite. Which information should be included? Hydroxyapatite in the bone matrix contains which of the following molecules in its crystalline structure? a. Calcium and magnesium b. Calcium and phosphate c. Phosphate and magnesium d. Magnesium and hydrogen

ANS: B Calcium and phosphate form amorphous (fluid) calcium phosphate compounds that are converted, in stages, to solid hexagonal crystals of hydroxyapatite.

A 5-year-old female develops chickenpox after exposure at her day care center. This disease is caused by: a. A pox virus b. A herpes virus c. An adenovirus d. HPV

ANS: B Chickenpox is caused by a herpes virus.

An 11-year-old male is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. Which classic symptoms should the nurse assess the patient for? a. Recurrent infections, visual changes, fatigue, and paresthesias b. Polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, and weight loss c. Vomiting; abdominal pain; sweet, fruity breath; dehydration; and Kussmaul breathing d. Weakness, vomiting, hypotension, and mental confusion

ANS: B Classic symptoms of type 1 DM include polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, and weight loss.

A patient has researched muscles on the internet. Which information indicates the patient has a good understanding? The molecule that prevents a muscle contraction from occurring when the muscle is at rest is: a. Calcium b. Troponin-tropomyosin c. Actin d. Myosin

ANS: B Contraction begins as the calcium ions combine with troponin, a reaction that overcomes the inhibitory function of the troponin-tropomyosin system.

When a staff member asks where costal cartilage is located, how should the nurse respond? Between the: a. Vertebrae b. Ribs and sternum c. Sutures of the skull d. Facial bones

ANS: B Costal cartilage is located between the ribs and the sternum.

A 54-year-old female was recently diagnosed with degenerative joint disease. This condition is characterized by loss of: a. The epiphyses b. Articular cartilage c. Synovial fluid d. The joint capsule

ANS: B Degenerative joint disease is caused by loss of the articular cartilage.

The nurse observed the patient's muscle contracted, but the limb did not move. How should the nurse chart this muscle contraction? a. Isotonic contraction b. Isometric contraction c. Eccentric contraction d. Concentric contraction

ANS: B During isometric contraction, the muscle contracts, but the limb does not move.

The patient has burns to both forearms that extend from the fingers to the elbows with no normal tissue present. The nurse has difficulty assessing the patient's pulse, and the patient complains of numbness in the fingers. The nurse notifies the primary care provider and expects the primary care provider to: a. Increase fluid intake. b. Perform an escharotomy. c. Order physical therapy. d. Perform debridement of some burned tissue.

ANS: B Escharotomies (tissue decompression by cutting through burned skin) are performed to release pressure and prevent compartment syndrome (the compression of blood vessels, veins, muscle, or abdominal organs resulting in irreversible injury).

A 28-year-old male is admitted to the burn unit 2 hours after receiving second- and third-degree burns over 50% of his body surface in an industrial explosion. Abnormal vital signs include low blood pressure and tachycardia. Lab results show a high hematocrit due to: a. Sickle cell syndrome b. Fluid movement out of the vascular space c. Renal failure d. Increased vascular protein secondary to increased metabolism

ANS: B Fluid and protein movement out of the vascular compartment results in an elevated hematocrit.

A 40-year-old male vegetarian is diagnosed with folate deficiency anemia. He reports that he is an alcoholic. Which of the following factors put him at greatest risk for developing his disease? a. Being vegetarian b. Being alcoholic c. Age d. Gender

ANS: B Folate deficiency occurs more often in alcoholics and individuals who are malnourished because of fad diets or diets low in vegetables.

A 30-year-old male is diagnosed with a hormone-secreting tumor of the pancreas alpha cells. Which of the following would the nurse expect to be most likely increased in this patient? a. Amylin b. Glucagon c. Insulin d. Somatostatin

ANS: B Glucagon is produced by the alpha cells of the pancreas.

A nurse is reviewing lab results for glycosylated hemoglobin (hemoglobin A1c) levels. A nurse recalls the purpose of this test is to: a. Measure fasting glucose levels. b. Monitor long-term serum glucose control. c. Detect acute complications of diabetes. d. Check for hyperlipidemia.

ANS: B Glycosylated hemoglobin refers to the permanent attachment of glucose to hemoglobin molecules and reflects the average plasma glucose exposure over the life of a red blood cell (approximately 120 days).

A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has? a. Sideroblastic anemia b. Hemolytic anemia c. Pernicious anemia d. Iron deficiency anemia

ANS: B Hemolytic anemia is an example of normocytic-normochromic anemia.

Hypovolemia in the early stages of burn shock is directly related to: a. Decreased cardiac contractility and shunting of blood away from visceral organs b. Increased capillary permeability and evaporative water loss c. Hypometabolism and renal water loss d. Bacterial infection of the wound and resulting bacteremia

ANS: B Hypovolemia occurs due to increased capillary permeability.

A 34-year-old male was diagnosed with a bacterial GI infection. Which of the following types of diarrhea would most likely occur with his condition? a. Osmotic b. Secretory c. Hypotonic d. Motility

ANS: B Infections lead to secretory diarrhea.

A nurse is teaching a patient about insulin. Which information should the nurse include? Insulin is primarily regulated by: a. Metabolic rate b. Serum glucose levels c. Prostaglandins d. Enzyme activation

ANS: B Insulin secretion is promoted when blood levels of glucose rise.

A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit? a. Hyperactivity b. Spoon-shaped nails c. Gait problems d. Petechiae

ANS: B Iron deficiency anemia is manifested by fingernails that become brittle and "spoon shaped" or concave.

A 23-year-old male received a knife wound in a fight. His scar was sharply elevated, irregularly shaped, and progressively enlarging. This condition is caused by excessive amounts of _____ in the corneum during connective tissue repair. a. Elastin b. Collagen c. Keratin d. Calcification

ANS: B Irregular scar formation is due to excessive fibroblast activity and collagen formation.

A patient asks how oxygen is transported in the body. What is the nurse's best response? Most of the oxygen (O2) is transported: a. Dissolved in the plasma b. Bound to hemoglobin c. In the form of carbon dioxide (CO2) d. As a free-floating molecule

ANS: B Most O2 is transported bound to hemoglobin.

A 13-year-old female is concerned about several pigmented skin lesions on her body. Her primary care provider tells her that these lesions must be monitored because of their ability to transform into malignant melanoma. These lesions are referred to as: a. Macules b. Nevi c. Plaques d. Keloids

ANS: B Nevi may undergo transition to malignant melanoma.

Which information indicates the nurse has a good understanding of osteoblasts? Once their initial function is complete, osteoblasts become: a. Osteoclasts b. Osteocytes c. Chondroblasts d. Osteoids

ANS: B Osteoblasts are the bone-forming cells. Their primary function is to lay down new bone. Once this function is complete, osteoblasts become osteocytes. Osteoclasts reabsorb bone. Chondroblasts are a part of mature bone. Osteoids are part of non-mineralized bone matrix that the osteoblasts work on.

A 70-year-old female presents with a hip fracture. She is diagnosed with osteoporosis. One factor that most likely contributed to her condition is: a. Increased androgen levels b. Decreased estrogen levels c. Strenuous exercise d. Excessive dietary calcium

ANS: B Osteoporosis can be attributed to decreased estrogen levels.

A 58-year-old female presents in the clinic presenting with fatigue, weight loss, and tingling in her fingers. Laboratory findings show low hemoglobin and hematocrit, a high mean corpuscular volume, and normal plasma iron. These assessment findings are consistent with which type of anemia? a. Hemolytic anemia b. Pernicious anemia c. Iron deficiency anemia d. Aplastic anemia

ANS: B Pernicious anemia is manifested by tingling paresthesias of feet and fingers.

A 19-year-old female developed a circular, demarcated, and salmon-pink lesion. Two weeks later she developed more lesions over the trunk and upper part of the extremities. The diagnosis is pityriasis rosea, and the nurse knows the disorder is caused by a: a. Parasite b. Virus c. Bacteria d. Fungus

ANS: B Pityriasis rosea is caused by a virus

A nurse recalls prolactin-inhibiting factor's target tissue is the: a. Hypothalamus b. Anterior pituitary c. Mammary glands d. Posterior pituitary

ANS: B Prolactin-inhibiting factor (PIF) inhibits prolactin secretion by the anterior pituitary.

Researchers now believe that RA is: a. Curable with antiviral agents b. An autoimmune disease c. A complication of rheumatic fever d. Related superficial joint injury

ANS: B RA is now thought to be an autoimmune disease.

In discoid lupus erythematosus, skin lesions may be accompanied by Raynaud phenomenon, which is manifested by: a. Bone deformities b. Vasospasm in the extremities c. Arterial aneurysms d. Venous thrombus

ANS: B Raynaud phenomenon is manifested by vasospasm in the extremities.

The nurse would correctly identify the medical term for ringworm as: a. Impetigo b. Tinea corporis c. Thrush d. Psoriasis

ANS: B Ringworm is also known as tinea corporis.

The nurse would expect the occurrence of scabies to occur more commonly among children who: a. Attend day care b. Live in crowded, unsanitary conditions c. Reside in rural areas d. Play outside

ANS: B Scabies is often epidemic in areas of overcrowded housing and poor sanitation

What of the following behavior in the patient with scleroderma would cause the nurse concern? a. Wears mittens on cold days b. Smokes a few cigarettes a day c. Applies lotion daily d. Seeks warmer environments

ANS: B Smoking should be avoided as it promotes vasoconstriction that may worsen Raynaud phenomenon.

A 35-year-old female suffers a broken clavicle following a motor vehicle accident. X-ray reveals that the bone surfaces in the joint partially lost contact with each other. This condition is called: a. Dislocation b. Subluxation c. Distortion d. Nonunion

ANS: B Subluxation occurs when contact between the opposing joint surfaces of a fracture are partially lost.

Which of the following burns is most painful? a. First degree b. Superficial partial-thickness c. Deep partial-thickness d. Third degree

ANS: B Superficial partial-thickness burns leave tactile and pain sensors intact and are the most painful.

To promote efficient wound healing, which dressing should be applied to a superficial ulcer? a. Thick and dry b. Flat and moist c. Bulky and dry d. None

ANS: B Superficial ulcers should be covered with flat, moisture-retaining dressings.

A nurse recalls asthma is classified by: a. Pathophysiologic differences b. Clinical severity c. Genetic traits d. Treatment outcomes

ANS: B The National Asthma Education and Prevention Program offers stepwise guidelines for the diagnosis and management of chronic asthma based on clinical severity.

Of the sweat glands, the _____ glands are most abundant in the axillae and genital areas. a. Eccrine b. Apocrine c. Sebaceous d. Subcutaneous

ANS: B The apocrine sweat glands are located in the axillae, scalp, face, abdomen, and genital areas.

A nurse recalls the elbow joint is an example of a(n): a. Amphiarthrosis b. Diarthrosis c. Synarthrosis d. Symphysis

ANS: B The elbow joint is an example of a diarthrosis joint.

The pathophysiology student would correctly identify the etiologic agent of smallpox as: a. A bacteria b. A virus c. Insects d. Mites

ANS: B The etiologic agent of smallpox is the pox virus.

If a patient's posterior pituitary is removed, which hormone would the nurse expect to decrease? a. PRF b. ADH c. ACTH d. GH

ANS: B The hormones ADH and oxytocin are released from the posterior pituitary gland.

If a patient had a problem with the hypothalamus, which of the following hormones would be affected? a. ACTH b. Oxytocin c. ADH d. TSH

ANS: B The hypothalamus secretes oxytocin.

Which cells of the gastric glands secrete hydrochloric acid? a. Chief b. Parietal c. Zymogenic d. Surface epithelial

ANS: B The parietal cells secrete hydrochloric acid.

When a staff member asks the nurse which gland secretes ADH and oxytocin, how should the nurse respond? a. Anterior pituitary b. Posterior pituitary c. Hypothalamus d. Pineal gland

ANS: B The posterior pituitary secretes ADH, which also is called vasopressin, and oxytocin.

Tinea corporis (ringworm) is a _____ infection of the skin. a. Nematode b. Fungal c. Viral d. Bacterial

ANS: B Tinea corporis is caused by a fungus.

The final stage of gout, characterized by crystalline deposits in cartilage, synovial membranes, and soft tissue, is called: a. Monarticular arthritis b. Tophaceous gout c. Asymptomatic hyperuricemia d. Complicated gout

ANS: B Tophaceous gout is a progressive inability to excrete uric acid, which expands the urate pool. Until urate crystal deposits (tophi) appear in cartilage, synovial membranes, tendons, and soft tissue.

When a patient asks what causes hyperglycemia in type 2 DM, how should the nurse respond? Hyperglycemia is a result of: a. Insulin deficiency b. Hyperinsulinemia c. Glucagon deficiency d. Liver dysfunction

ANS: B Type 2 diabetes is due to hyperinsulinemia and insulin resistance.

An isolated muscle is believed to be a type II fiber. Which of the following should be observed by the nurse when the muscle is stimulated? a. The muscle has slow contraction speed. b. The muscle is fatigued easily. c. The muscle has a profuse capillary supply. d. The muscle has no fascia.

ANS: B Type II fibers rely on anaerobic glycolytic metabolism and fatigue readily.

A 52-year-old female is diagnosed with scleroderma. Which complication leads to ulcer formation? a. Cutaneous vasculitis b. Raynaud phenomenon c. Cellulitis d. Infection

ANS: B Ulcer formation is due to Raynaud phenomenon.

A 10-year-old male is given penicillin for an infection. He has an allergic reaction, during which he develops urticarial lesions. These lesions are mediated by the release of: a. Beta-adrenergic agonists b. Histamine c. Calcium d. Cortisol

ANS: B Urticarial lesions are mediated by the histamine response.

When a patient asks about target cell receptors, which is the nurse's best response? Target cell receptors for most water-soluble hormones are located in the: a. Cytosol b. Cell membrane c. Endoplasmic reticulum d. Nucleus

ANS: B Water-soluble hormones bind to cell surface receptors.

Which information indicates the nurse has a good understanding of synovial joints? The synovial joints in the body include the (select all that apply): a. Syndesmosis type that connects two vertebrae b. Spheroid type found in the shoulder c. Hinge type found in the elbow d. Gliding type found in the hand e. Gomphosis joint in the mandible

ANS: B, C, D A syndesmosis joint does not have a joint space.

A 32-year-old obese male begins a jogging routine. A week after beginning, he fractures his leg. This is referred to as a what type of fracture? a. Comminuted b. Greenstick c. Fatigue d. Compound

ANS: C A fatigue fracture is caused by abnormal stress or torque applied to a bone that usually occurs in individuals who engage in a new activity that is both strenuous and repetitive.

A 70-year-old female with osteoporosis fractures her leg at a location of preexisting abnormality. She reports that the fracture occurred following a minor fall. Which of the following best describes the fracture? a. Fatigue fracture b. Stress fracture c. Pathologic fracture d. Greenstick fracture

ANS: C A pathologic fracture is a break at the site of a preexisting abnormality, usually by force that would not fracture a normal bone.

A 4-month-old female is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis (AD). Which of the following assessment findings by the nurse will most likely support this diagnosis? a. Blistering b. Moist reddened skin c. Dry, itchy skin d. White patches

ANS: C AD has a constellation of clinical features that include dry, sensitive, itchy, and easily irritated skin because the barrier function of the skin is impaired.

A 15-year-old female reports abnormal hair growth on her face and body. This condition is referred to as: a. Alopecia b. Areata c. Hirsutism d. Paronychia

ANS: C Abnormal hair growth is referred to as hirsutism.

When the nurse is using the term "sarcopenia," what is the nurse describing? It is the: a. Absence of muscle cells b. Fatigue of muscle cells c. Age-related loss in skeletal muscle d. Muscles that are unable to contract

ANS: C Age-related loss in skeletal muscle is referred to as sarcopenia and is a direct cause of the age-related decrease in muscle strength.

An endocrinologist is teaching about aldosterone secretion. Which information should the endocrinologist include? Aldosterone secretion is regulated by: a. The sympathetic nervous system b. ACTH feedback c. The renin-angiotension system d. Positive feedback

ANS: C Aldosterone synthesis and secretion are regulated primarily by the renin-angiotensin system.

A 60-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting chest pain. He is diagnosed with atherosclerosis. This disease is caused by: a. Arterial wall thinning and weakening b. Abnormally dilated arteries and veins c. Abnormal thickening and hardening of vessel walls d. Autonomic nervous system imbalances

ANS: C Atherosclerosis is a form of arteriosclerosis characterized by thickening and hardening of the vessel wall.

For a patient with candidiasis, which factor will exacerbate the condition? a. Poor hygiene b. Older age c. Systemic antibiotics d. Anemia

ANS: C Candidiasis is exacerbated by the use of systemic antibiotics because the antibiotics eliminate normal flora.

Which of the following diseases should the nurse teach the patient to prevent as it is the ultimate cause of death in the patient with diabetes? a. Renal disease b. Stroke c. Cardiovascular disease d. Cancer

ANS: C Cardiovascular disease is the ultimate cause of death in up to 75% of people with diabetes.

A clinician is preparing to teach about bone matrix. Which information should be included? The component of the bone matrix that gives bone tensile strength is: a. Calcium b. Phosphate c. Collagen d. Magnesium

ANS: C Collagen is the component of bone matrix that gives bone tensile strength. Calcium plays a role on bone formation, but collagen is the component of bone matrix that gives bone tensile strength. Phosphate plays a role in bone formation, but collagen is the component of bone matrix that gives bone tensile strength. Magnesium plays a role in bone formation, but collagen is the component of bone matrix that gives bone tensile strength.

While planning care for a patient with muscle problems, which information should the nurse remember? _____ ions directly control the contraction of muscles. a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Calcium d. Magnesium

ANS: C Contraction begins as the calcium ions combine with troponin, a reaction that overcomes the inhibitory function of the troponin-tropomyosin system.

A 29-year-old female is burned through all her dermis with only a few epidermal appendages intact. This burn is classified as: a. First degree b. Superficial partial-thickness c. Deep partial-thickness d. Third degree

ANS: C Deep partial-thickness burns involve the entire dermis, sparing skin appendages such as hair follicles and sweat glands.

A 10-year-old male is playing with matches and gets burned. His burn is waxy white in appearance. This burn is classified as: a. First degree b. Superficial partial-thickness c. Deep partial-thickness d. Third degree

ANS: C Deep partial-thickness burns involve the entire dermis, sparing skin appendages such as hair follicles and sweat glands. These wounds look waxy white.

A 42-year-old female presents with raised red lesions with a brownish scale. She was diagnosed with discoid lupus erythematosus. A clinician recalls this disorder is related to: a. Infection b. Trauma c. Autoimmunity d. Cancer

ANS: C Discoid lupus is related to autoimmunity.

The epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium are made of: a. Bone b. Epithelium c. Fascia d. Cartilage

ANS: C Each skeletal muscle is a separate organ, encased in a three-part connective tissue framework called fascia.

A staff member asks a nurse what foam cells are. What is the nurse's best response? Foam cells in a fatty streak are: a. Deposited adipose cells b. Injured neutrophils c. Macrophages that engulf low-density lipoprotein (LDL) d. Lipid-laden mast cells

ANS: C Foam cells are lipid-laden macrophages that engulf LDL.

A 46-year-old male presents with severe pain, redness, and tenderness in the right big toe. He was diagnosed with gouty arthritis. The symptoms he experienced are caused by the crystallization of _____ within the synovial fluid. a. Purines b. Pyrimidines c. Uric acid d. Acetic acid

ANS: C Gout is caused by an increase in uric acid.

A nurse is preparing to teach the staff about asthma. Which information should the nurse include? Airway hyper-responsiveness in asthma is related to: a. Increased sympathetic nervous system response b. The release of stress hormones c. Exposure to an allergen causing mast cell degranulation d. Hereditary decrease in IgE responsiveness

ANS: C Hyper-responsiveness is due to mast cell degranulation.

A 27-year-old male lung transplant patient developed KS. He tells the nurse he thought only people with AIDS developed this type of cancer. The nurse knows that the cause of this patient's KS is most likely related to the fact that the patient: a. Is malnourished b. Was exposed to hepatitis B c. Is immunosuppressed d. Is diabetic

ANS: C KS is a vascular malignancy associated with immunodeficiency states and occurs among transplant recipients taking immunosuppressive drugs.

A 54-year-old male was recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which of the following is the expected treatment of choice? a. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) b. Gold salts c. Methotrexate d. Hydroxychloroquine

ANS: C Methotrexate remains the first line of treatment for RA.

A 4-month-old male is brought to his primary care provider for severe itching and skin lesions. He is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis. Which of the following would be elevated in this patient? a. Immunoglobulin D (IgD) b. Immunoglobulin M (IgM) c. Immunoglobulin E (IgE) d. Immunoglobulin G (IgG)

ANS: C Most individuals affected with atopic dermatitis show an increased serum IgE level.

A 70-year-old female presents with a hip fracture secondary to osteoporosis. This condition is caused by an increase in bone: a. Density b. Formation c. Resorption d. Mineralization

ANS: C Osteoporosis is due to an increase in bone resorption.

When a staff member asks how remodeling of bone occurs, what is the nurse's best response? Remodeling is done by clusters of bone cells called: a. Precursor stimulating cells b. Osteoclastic cutting cones c. Basic multicellular units d. Haversian system cells

ANS: C Remodeling is carried out by clusters of bone cells termed basic multicellular units.

A 46-year-old male presents with severe pain, redness, and tenderness in the right big toe. He was diagnosed with gouty arthritis. He is at risk for developing: a. Cholelithiasis b. Myocarditis c. Renal stones d. Liver failure

ANS: C Renal stones are 1000 times more prevalent in individuals with primary gout than in the general population.

A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Synthesis of which of the following would decrease in this patient? a. Corticosteroid B globulin b. Sex hormone-binding globulin c. Thyroid-binding globulin d. Albumin

ANS: C TH is transported in the blood in bound and free forms. Most of the TH is transported bound to thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG); thus, if TH is low, the patient would also be low in TBG.

The nurse is teaching the staff about aldosterone. Which information should the nurse include? The main site of aldosterone synthesis is the: a. Liver b. Kidneys c. Adrenal cortex d. Hypothalamus

ANS: C The adrenal cortex synthesizes aldosterone.

A 13-year-old male who uses insulin to control his type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion during gym class. The most probable cause of these symptoms is: a. Hyperglycemia resulting from incorrect insulin administration b. Dawn phenomenon caused by eating a snack before gym class c. Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise d. Somogyi effect caused by insulin sensitivity

ANS: C The boy is experiencing hypoglycemia due to increased glucose utilization with exercise.

Thrombocytopenia may be: a. Transient or consistent b. Normal or abnormal c. Congenital or acquired d. Active or inactive

ANS: C The condition may also be either congenital or acquired and may be either primary or secondary to other conditions.

Fat cells are located in the: a. Epidermis b. Dermis c. Hypodermis d. Fascia beneath the skin

ANS: C The hypodermis is an underlying layer of connective tissue that contains macrophages, fibroblasts, and fat cells.

When a patient asks what the fuel for skeletal muscle contraction is, how should the nurse respond? The main energy source or fuel for skeletal muscle contraction is: a. Calcium b. Lactic acid c. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) d. Actin

ANS: C The main energy source for muscle contraction is ATP.

A nurse is preparing to teach the staff about asthma. Which information should the nurse include? Airway obstruction contributing to increased airflow resistance and hypoventilation in asthma is caused by: a. Type II alveolar cell injury and decreased surfactant b. Alveolar fibrosis and pulmonary edema c. Mucus secretion, bronchoconstriction, and airway edema d. Collapse of the cartilaginous rings in the bronchi

ANS: C The mediators of asthma cause vasodilation, increased capillary permeability, mucosal edema, bronchial smooth muscle contraction (bronchospasm), and mucus secretion from mucosal goblet cells with narrowing of the airways and obstruction to airflow.

A 12-year-old female is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. When the parents ask what causes this, what is the nurse's best response? a. A familial, autosomal dominant gene defect b. Obesity and lack of exercise c. Immune destruction of the pancreas d. Hyperglycemia from eating too many sweets

ANS: C The most common cause of type 1 DM is a slowly progressive autoimmune T cell-mediated disease that destroys the beta cells of the pancreas.

A 28-year-old female presents with severe chest pain and shortness of breath. She is diagnosed with pulmonary embolism, which most likely originated from the: a. Left ventricle b. Systemic arteries c. Deep veins of the leg d. Superficial veins of the arm

ANS: C The most likely origin of the embolism is from the deep veins of the legs.

A student asks the instructor which of the following is the most potent naturally occurring glucocorticoid. How should the instructor respond? a. Aldosterone b. Testosterone c. Cortisol d. Prolactin

ANS: C The most potent naturally occurring glucocorticoid is cortisol.

When a staff member asks the nurse about the contractile unit of a muscle, how should the nurse reply? The contractile unit of a muscle cell is called the: a. Motor unit b. Basement membrane c. Myofibril d. Ribosome

ANS: C The muscle fiber contains bundles of myofibrils, the fiber's functional subunits.

A 76-year-old female was diagnosed with osteoporosis by radiologic exam. She is at high risk for: a. Bone infections b. Joint injuries c. Pathologic bone fractures d. Ssteomalacia

ANS: C The patient will be at risk for pathologic bone fractures due to bone fragility.

Which statement indicates the nurse has a good understanding of joints? The joints between the teeth and the maxilla or mandible are examples of a: a. Symphysis b. Diarthrosis c. Gomphosis d. Syndesmosis

ANS: C The teeth held in the maxilla or mandible are gomphosis joints.

A 32-year-old male was injured in a motor vehicle accident and confined to bed for 3 weeks. During this time, the size and strength of muscle fibers decreased, a condition referred to as: a. Myodysplasia b. Ischemic atrophy c. Disuse atrophy d. Deconditioning hypoplasia

ANS: C The term disuse atrophy describes the pathologic reduction in normal size of muscle fibers after prolonged inactivity from bed rest.

A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with vitamin B12 deficiency anemia (pernicious anemia). How should the nurse respond when the patient asks what causes pernicious anemia? A decrease in ______ is the most likely cause. a. Ferritin b. Gastric enzymes c. Intrinsic factor d. Erythropoietin

ANS: C The underlying alteration in pernicious anemia (PA) is the absence of intrinsic factor (IF), an enzyme required for gastric absorption of dietary vitamin B12, a vitamin essential for nuclear maturation and DNA synthesis in red blood cells.

Which of the following should the nurse include when discussing the different types of cartilaginous joints? a. Sutures and gomphosis b. Syndesmosis and gomphosis c. Symphysis and synchondrosis d. Gomphosis and synchondrosis

ANS: C There are two types of cartilaginous joints: symphyses and synchondroses.

A 4-month-old female develops white spots and shallow ulcers in her mouth. Her pediatrician diagnoses her with thrush. This condition is caused by: a. Escherichia coli b. Streptococcal bacteria c. Candida albicans d. Staphylococcal bacteria

ANS: C Thrush is caused by Candida albicans

Many valvular stenosis and regurgitation disorders in adults have a common etiology. Which of the following conditions should alert the nurse that the patient may have both types of valve dysfunction? a. Heart failure b. Connective tissue disorders c. Rheumatic fever or heart disease d. Syphilis infection

ANS: C Valvular dysfunction is often related to rheumatic fever.

Which of the following individuals should the nurse assess first for a vitamin B12 deficiency anemia? a. 3-year-old female who is a fussy eater b. 26-year-old female in the second trimester of her first pregnancy c. 47-year-old male who had a gastrectomy procedure (removal of the stomach) d. 64-year-old male with a history of duodenal ulcers and gastrointestinal bleeding

ANS: C With removal of the stomach, the intrinsic factor is also removed, leading to an inability to absorb B12; thus, the person with removal of the stomach is at greatest risk.

When the physical therapist is describing a freely movable joint, which term should be used? a. Synarthrosis b. Amphiarthrosis c. Fibrous d. Diarthrosis

ANS: D A diarthrotic joint is freely moveable.

A 34-year-old male presents in the emergency room with extreme fatigue and shortness of breath. His skin and sclera appear to have a yellowish discoloration. These assessment findings are consistent with which type of anemia? a. Posthemorrhagic anemia b. Iron deficiency anemia c. Aplastic anemia d. Hemolytic anemia

ANS: D A yellow appearance to the skin and sclera are consistent with hemolytic anemia.

A 23-year-old male reports a rash and pruritus. An increase in _____ is associated with pruritus? a. Substance P b. Norepinephrine c. Dopamine d. Acetylcholine

ANS: D Acetylcholine is one of the itch mediators.

Diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus (DM), and SIADH share which of the following assessment manifestations? a. Polyuria b. Edema c. Vomiting and abdominal cramping d. Thirst

ANS: D All three share thirst as a common clinical manifestation.

An endocrinologist isolated a new hormone and found it to be a water-soluble amine. Which of the following is most like this new hormone? a. Growth hormone (GH) b. Luteinizing hormone (LH) c. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) d. Epinephrine

ANS: D An example of a water-soluble amine is epinephrine.

When catecholamines are released in a patient, what should the nurse assess for? a. Nutrient absorption b. Fluid retention c. Hypotension d. Hyperglycemia

ANS: D Catecholamines cause hyperglycemia and immune suppression.

When insulin binds to its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells occurs. This is an example of a _____ effect by a hormone. a. Pharmacologic b. Permissive c. Biphasic d. Direct

ANS: D Direct effects are the obvious changes in cell function that result specifically from stimulation by a particular hormone as is true with insulin.

Fibromyalgia is a chronic musculoskeletal disorder characterized by: a. Pain resulting from joint and muscle inflammation b. Muscle pain in the back and gastrointestinal symptoms c. Neurologic pain in the skeletal muscles d. Diffuse pain, fatigue, and tender points

ANS: D Fibromyalgia is characterized by diffuse pain, fatigue, and point tenderness.

A 28-year-old male reports to his primary care provider that he has had a cold for a week and is coughing up bloody secretions. When giving report, what term should the nurse use to describe this condition? a. Hematemesis b. Cyanosis c. Rhinitis d. Hemoptysis

ANS: D Hemoptysis is the coughing up of bloody secretions.

A 50-year-old male recently underwent a liver transplant and is taking immunosuppressive drugs. He now has painful vesicular eruptions on the face and trunk. He reports that he had chickenpox as a child. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis based on his chicken pox history? a. Erysipelas b. Poliomyelitis c. Warts d. Herpes zoster

ANS: D Herpes zoster causes shingles, a disorder similar to chicken pox.

A nurse is preparing to teach the staff about aplastic anemia. Which information should the nurse include? Aplastic anemia is caused by: a. Iron deficiency b. Excess levels of erythropoietin c. Hemolysis d. Stem cell deficiency

ANS: D In aplastic anemia, erythrocyte stem cells are underdeveloped, defective, or absent.

A 20-year-old female undergoes lab testing for anemia. Results show high iron, bilirubin, and transferrin and low hemoglobin and hematocrit. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis to be documented on the chart? a. Pernicious anemia b. Folate deficiency anemia c. Iron deficiency anemia d. Sideroblastic anemia

ANS: D Individuals with sideroblastic anemia may show signs of iron overload (hemosiderosis), including mild to moderate enlargement of the liver (hepatomegaly) and spleen (splenomegaly).

A patient wants to know which malignant skin lesion is the most serious. The correct response is: a. Basal cell carcinoma b. Squamous cell carcinoma c. Kaposi sarcoma (KS) d. Malignant melanoma

ANS: D Malignant melanoma is the most serious skin cancer.

A nurse is teaching the staff about oxytocin. Which information should the nurse include? Target cells for oxytocin are located in the: a. Renal tubules b. Thymus c. Liver d. Uterus

ANS: D Oxytocin causes uterine contraction and lactation in women and may have a role in sperm motility in men.

A nurse is teaching staff about protein hormones. Which information should the nurse include? One of the protein hormones is: a. Thyroxine (T4) b. Aldosterone c. Testosterone d. Insulin

ANS: D Protein hormones are also water-soluble hormones, and insulin is a part of this group.

When assessing a patient with scleroderma, which changes in the skin will be observed? a. Thinning b. Hyperpigmented c. Necrosis d. Hardening

ANS: D Scleroderma is manifested by hardening of the skin.

A 45-year-old female has elevated thyroxine production. Which of the following would accompany this condition? a. Increased thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH) b. Increased anterior pituitary stimulation c. Decreased T4 d. Decreased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

ANS: D Secretion of TSH stimulates the synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormones. Increasing levels of T4 and T3 then feed back negatively on the pituitary and hypothalamus to inhibit TRH and TSH synthesis.

A 1-year-old female is diagnosed with croup. When the parent asks what caused this, what is the nurse's best response? The most likely cause of this disease is: a. Bacteria b. Acute hyperventilation c. Allergy d. Viral infection

ANS: D The cause of croup is a viral infection.

The incidence of fractures of the pelvis is highest in: a. Preadolescent boys b. Adolescent boys c. Adolescent girls d. Older adults

ANS: D The incidence of fractures of the upper femur, upper humerus, vertebrae, and pelvis is highest in older adults and is often associated with osteoporosis.

An important and useful clinical measure in the diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis is measurement of which laboratory value? a. White blood cell count b. Antinuclear antibodies c. Aspartate aminotransferase d. Creatine kinase (CK)

ANS: D The most important and clinically useful measurement in rhabdomyolysis is serum CK. A level five times the upper limit of normal (about 1000 units/liter) is used to identify rhabdomyolysis.

Which layer forms the fascicles in skeletal muscle? a. Tendon sheath b. Endomysium c. Epimysium d. Perimysium

ANS: D The perimysium further subdivides the muscle fibers into bundles of connective tissue called fascicles.

In burn injury patients, the rule of nines and the Lund and Browder chart are used to estimate: a. Depth of burn injury b. Possibility of infection c. Degree of systemic involvement d. Total body surface area burned

ANS: D The rule of nines estimates the total body surface area burned.

A nurse is preparing to teach about myofibrils. Which information should the nurse include? The structure of the contractile subunit of the myofibril is called the: a. Sarcoplasmic reticulum b. Actin c. Motor endplate d. Sarcomere

ANS: D The sarcomere is the contractile portion of the myofibril.

When a patient wants to know why vitamin B12 and folate deficiencies cause anemia, how should the nurse respond? a. Red blood cells are unable to differentiate into erythrocytes. b. Red blood cells have malformed hemoglobin molecules. c. Red blood cells have decreased O2-carrying capacity. d. Red blood cells have a shorter life span.

ANS: D These deficiencies lead to defective erythrocytes that die prematurely, which decreases their numbers in the circulation, causing anemia.

A 50-year-old female is diagnosed with primary thrombocythemia. A nurse would expect the blood smear to reveal _____ platelets. a. Defective b. Fragmented c. Consumed d. Overproduced

ANS: D Thrombocythemia is characterized by a platelet count more than 400,000 platelets/mm3 of blood and is symptomatic when the count exceeds 1,000,000/ mm3, at which time the risk for intravascular clotting (thrombosis) is high.

A 30-year-old female has a history of frequent candidiasis. The areas most likely affected include (select all that apply): a. Plantar surface of the foot b. Eyes c. Ears d. Mucous membranes e. Vagina

ANS: D, E Candidiasis does not affect the soles of the feet, the eyes, or the ears. It does affect the mucous membranes and the vagina.