Patho Quiz 2
Which of the following traits is characteristic of saprophytes? A) They derive energy from decaying organic matter. B) They are beneficial components of human microflora. C) They have RNA or DNA, but never both. D) They are capable of spore production.
A) They derive energy from decaying organic matter.
Which of the following clients have a pathophysiologic process capable of causing fever by inducing the production of pyrogens? Select all that apply. a. A farmer who cut his arm while sharpening his tools coming to clinic because of acute inflammation signs like fever and redness b. A middle-aged obese client complaining of "knees hurting and swelling by the end of the day" c. An older adult recuperating following a myocardial infarction d. A newly diagnosed Hodgkin lymphoma client e. A 30-year-old end-stage renal failure client receiving hemodialysis three times per week
A. A farmer who cut his arm while sharpening his tools coming to clinic because of acute inflammation signs like fever and redness C. an older adult recuperating following a myocardial infarction D. A newly diagnosed Hodgkin lymphoma client
Which of the following outpatients are at a greater risk for developing Treponema pallidum, the cause of syphilis? Select all that apply. a. A homeless adolescent female performing oral sex for money b. A male who frequents clubs catering to exotic dancers and sexual favors c. A homosexual male couple who have had a monogamous relationship for the past 20 years d. An older adult female living in a condominium who regularly has sex with three to four different men/week
A. A homeless adolescent female performing oral sex for money B. A male who frequents clubs catering to exotic dancers and sexual favors D. An older adult female living in a condominium who regularly has sex with three to four different men/week
Which most accurately describes the characteristics of saprophytes? They: a. Derive energy from decaying organic matter b. Are beneficial components of human microflora c. Have RNA or DNA, but never both d. Are capable of spore production
A. Derive energy from decaying organic matter
Which of the following are accurate characteristics of prions? Select all that apply. a. Disease usually progresses slowly. b. The primary manifestation includes ataxia and dementia. c. Prions are protease sensitive. d. Prions tend to aggregate into amyloid-like plaques in the brain. e. Prions lack reproductive functions so are not very harmful to humans.
A. Disease usually progresses slowly. B. The primary manifestation includes ataxia and dementia D. Prions tend to aggregate into amyloid-like plaques in the brain.
An 84-year-old client's blood cultures have come back positive, despite the fact that his oral temperature has remained within normal range. Which of the following phenomena underlies the alterations in fever response that occur in the elderly? a. Disturbance in the functioning of the thermoregulatory center b. Increased heat loss by evaporation c. The presence of comorbidities that is associated with lowered core temperature d. Persistent closure of arteriovenous shunts
A. Disturbance in the functioning of the thermoregulatory center
Which of the following lab results confirm the client has developed an acute-phase inflammatory response? Select all that apply. a. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 175 mm/h (high). b. Red blood cell count (RBC) 3.11 cells/μL (low). c. Leukocytes (WBC) 18.7 cells/μL (high). d. C-reactive protein (CRP) 10.0 mg/L (high). e. Fibrinogen level 1.5 g/L (normal).
A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 175 mm/h (high). C. Leukocytes (WBC) 18.7 cells/μL (high). D. C-reactive protein (CRP) 10.0 mg/L (high).
A client has recently received a pneumococcal vaccine and the client's B cells are consequently producing antibodies. Which of the following cells may enhance this production of antibodies? a. Helper T cells b. Regulatory T cells c. Cytotoxic T cells d. Natural killer cells
A. Helper T cells
Histocompatability molecules are of primary importance to which of the following aspects of immunity? A) Induction of T-cell immunity B) T-cell maturation C) NK cell activation D) Phagocytosis by neutrophils
A. Induction of T-cell immunity
An older adult client has just sheared the skin on her elbow while attempting to boost herself up in bed, an event that has precipitated acute inflammation in the region surrounding the wound. Which of the following events will occur during the vascular stage of the client's inflammation? a. Outpouring of exudate into interstitial spaces b. Chemotaxis c. Accumulation of leukocytes along the epithelium d. Phagocytosis of cellular debris
A. Outpouring of exudate into interstitial spaces
The nurse notes the client has developed a systemic response of inflammation based on assessment findings. Which of the following clinical manifestations support this diagnosis? Select all that apply. a. Temperature of 100.9°F, lethargy b. Pulse rate 130 beats/minute (high) c. Generalized achiness d. Low urine output e. Pounding, throbbing headache
A. Temperature of 100.9°F, lethargy B. Pulse rate 130 beats/minute (high) C. Generalized achiness
Prions cause transmissible neurodegenerative diseases and are characterized by: A) a lack of reproductive capacity. B) hypermetabolism. C) enzyme production. D) chronic inflammation.
A. a lack of reproductive capacity
Which of the following pathophysiologic processes are capable of inducing the production of pyrogens? Select all that apply. a. acute inflammation b. obesity c. myocardial infarction d. malignancy e. renal failure
A. acute inflammation C. myocardial infarction D. malignancy
Chlamydiaceae, a rather common sexually transmitted infectious organism, has characteristics of both viruses and bacteria. The infectious form of this organisms life cycle is _______ until it enters the host cell. A) an elementary body B) adhered to cholesterol C) propelled by filaments D) encapsulated hyphae
A. an elementary body
Serology testing includes the measurement of which of the following? A) Antibody titers B) Culture growth C) Direct antigens D) DNA sequencing
A. antibody titers
A genetically determined hypersensitivity to common environmental allergens causes ___________ reactions, such as: A) atopic; urticaria. B) autoimmune; diarrhea. C) IgM-mediated; infections. D) delayed; poison ivy rash:
A. atopic; urticaria
Wasting syndrome, an AIDS-defining illness, is characterized by involuntary weight loss of at least 10% of baseline body weight in the presence of: A) diarrhea. B) hypermetabolism. C) weakness and fever. D) glucose intolerance.
A. diarrhea
An 84-year-old patient's blood cultures have come back positive, despite the fact that his oral temperature has remained within normal range. Which of the following phenomena underlies the alterations in fever response that occur in the elderly? a. disturbance in the functioning of the thermoregulatory center b. increased heat loss by evaporation c. the presence of comorbidities that are associated with lowered core temperature d. persistent closure of arteriovenous shunts
A. disturbance in the functioning of the thermoregulatory center
The acute-phase systemic response usually begins within hours of the onset of inflammation and includes: a. fever and lethargy b. decreased C-reactive protein c. positive nitrogen balance d. low erythrocyte sedimentation rate
A. fever and lethargy
Which assessment findings of a client with an elevated temperature would be considered a "normal" finding? Select all that apply. a. Flushed skin b. White, cheesy patches on oral mucous membranes c. Pain when moving joints to sit up in bed d. Unusual fatigue and drowsiness e. Complaining of "spots before the eyes"
A. flushed skin C. pain when moving joints to sit up in bed D. complaining of "spots before the eyes"
A client with poor arterial circulation in the lower limbs has developed areas of inflammation and "weeping" clear serous exudate. Since chronic inflammation lasts for a long time, it has been associated with which of the following changes in physiological response? Select all that apply. a. formation and development of new blood vessels b. the death of one or more cells in the body within a localized area c. release of a number of potent inflammatory mediators, altering adhesive properties d. regulation and modulation of the immune response through synthesis and release of inflammatory mediators e. release of a scavenger cells capable of engulfing bacteria through phagocytosis
A. formation and development of new blood vessels B. the death of one or more cells in the body within a localized area
The clinic nurse suspects the client is having a genetically determined hypersensitivity to common environmental allergens since the client is experiencing which of the following clinical manifestations? Select all that apply. a. Hives b. Runny nose c. Diarrhea d. Topical pustules e. Wheezes
A. hives B. diarrhea E. wheezes
Type III hypersensitivity immune responses can be harmful when immune complex deposits in tissue activate ___________ that can directly damage area tissues. A) inflammation B) autoantibodies C) cytotoxic cells D) immunoglobulins
A. inflammation
Dendritic cells, found in skin tissues and lymphoid tissues, are important for: A) initiation of adaptive immunity. B) deep-tissue phagocytosis. C) disposal of dead cells. D) delaying inflammation.
A. initiation of adaptive immunity
The mediators involved in type I hypersensitivity allergic responses are released from: A) mast cells. B) plasma cells. C) monocytes. D) arachidonic acid.
A. mast cells
Which of the following would constitute a normal assessment finding in a neonate? a. Minimal or absent levels of IgA and IgM b. Absence of plasma cells in the lymph nodes and spleen c. Undetectable levels of all immunoglobulins d. Absence of mature B cells with normal T-cell levels and function
A. minimal or absent levels of IgA and IgM
Although both eukaryotes and prokaryotes are capable of causing infectious diseases in humans, eukaryotes are unique because they have a distinct: A) organized nucleus. B) circular plasmid DNA. C) cytoplasmic membrane. D) variation of shape and size.
A. organized nucleus
Although both eukaryotes and prokaryotes are capable of causing infectious diseases in humans, eukaryotes are unique because they have a/an: a. Organized nucleus b. Circular plasmid DNA c. Cytoplasmic membrane d. Variation of shape and size
A. organized nucleus
An older adult patient has just sheared the skin on her elbow while she attempted to boost herself up in bed, an event that has precipitated acute inflammation in the region surrounding the wound. Which of the following events will occur during the vascular stage of the patient's inflammation? a. outpouring of exudate into interstitial spaces b. chemotaxis c. accumulation of leukocytes along the epithelium d. phagocytosis of cellular debris
A. outpouring of exudate into interstitial spaces
During the latent period before antibodies are detected in the humoral immune response, B cells differentiate into ________ cells. A) plasma B) cytotoxic C) stem D) helper
A. plasma
Prior to leaving on a backpacking trip to Southeast Asia, a college student has received a tetanus booster shot. This immunization confers protection by way of what immune process? a. Secondary humoral response b. Cell-mediated immune response c. Primary humoral response d. Innate immunity
A. secondary humoral response
Which of the following individuals is experiencing a health problem that is the result of a parasite? A) A college student who contracted Chlamydia trachomatis during an unprotected sexual encounter B) A man who acquired malaria while on a tropical vacation C) A hospital patient who has developed postoperative pneumonia D) A woman who developed hepatitis A from eating at an unhygienic restaurant
B) A man who acquired malaria while on a tropical vacation
Which of the following statements from a group of young adults demonstrates the need for further teaching related to HIV and prevention of the spread? a. "A woman can still get pregnant if she is HIV positive." b. "Having oral sex is one way I can prevent passing on HIV to my partner." c. "Good perineal care following sex will not have an effect on the transmission of HIV." d. "My HIV medications do not prevent me from passing the virus on to my partners."
B. "Having oral sex is one way I can prevent passing on HIV to my partner"
A client was diagnosed as HIV positive several years ago. Which of the following blood test results reflects the fact that the client now has developed AIDS? a. 350,000 platelets/μL b. CD4+ T-cell count less than 200 cells/μL c. Viral load 500,000 copies/mL d. White blood cell count of 5300 cmm
B. CD4+ T-cell count less than 200 cells/μL
A patient was diagnosed as HIV positive several years ago. Which of the following blood tests is most clinically useful for determining the stage and severity of her disease? A) Plasma levels B) CD4 + cell counts C) Viral load D) White blood cell count with differential
B. CD4+ cell counts
Some viruses have the ability to transform host cells into cancer cells. For which of the following viruses should the client be assessed regularly for the potential development of cancer? Select all that apply. a. Hepatitis A b. Hepatitis B c. Human papillomavirus d. Varicella
B. Hepatitis B C. Human papillomavirus
A 1-day-old infant was exposed to an infectious microorganism prior to discharge home from the hospital, but was able to affect a sufficient immune response in the hours and days following exposure. The nurse knows that which of the following immunoglobulins assisted with this process? a. IgA b. IgG c. IgM d. IgD
B. IgG
The first circulating immunoglobulin to appear in response to a new antigen is: A) IgG. B) IgM. C) IgA. D) IgD.
B. IgM
A febrile, 3-week-old infant has been brought to the emergency department by his parents and is currently undergoing a diagnostic workup to determine the cause of his fever. Which of the following statements best conveys the rationale for this careful examination? a. The immature hypothalamus is unable to perform normal thermoregulation. b. Infants are susceptible to serious infections because of their decreased immune function. c. Commonly used antipyretics often have no effect on the core temperature of infants. d. Fever in neonates is often evidence of a congenital disorder rather than an infection.
B. Infants are susceptible to serious infections because of their decreased immune function.
A client asks why his temperature is always below 98.6°F. The nurse responds: a. Some people maintain a core body temperature of 41°C and that is normal for them. b. Normal core temperature varies between individuals within the range of 97.0°F to 99.5°F. c. A person's highest point of core temperature is usually first thing in the morning. d. The best way to bring your body temperature up to normal is to live in a warmer climate.
B. Normal core temperature varies between individuals within the range of 97.0°F to 99.5°F
A client cuts herself with a sharp knife while cooking dinner. The client describes how the wound started bleeding and had a red appearance almost immediately. The nurse knows that in the vascular stage of acute inflammation, the vessels: a. Bleed profusely until the body can compensate and start to send fibrinogen to the wound b. Vasodilate causing the area to become congested causing the red color and warmth c. Constrict as a result of "fight/flight" hormone release resulting in pale-colored skin d. Swell to the point of compromising circulation causing the limb to become cool to touch
B. Vasodilate causing the area to become congested causing the red color and warmth
Which of the following patients is most likely to be susceptible to developing a neurogenic fever? a. a patient who has stage II Alzheimer disease b. a patient who has sustained a head injury in a bicycle crash c. a patient who has become delirious after the administration of a benzodiazepine d. a patient who has begun taking a selective serotonin-reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for the treatment of depression
B. a patient who has sustained a head injury in a bicycle crash
A client who has undergone a liver transplant 7 weeks ago has developed the following assessment data: ALT/AST elevation; jaundice of skin and sclera; weight gain with increase in abdominal circumference; and low-grade fever. The nurse suspects: a. Hyperacute graft rejection b. Acute graft rejection c. Chronic rejection d. Atherosclerosis of arteries of the liver
B. acute graft rejection
The cells that mediate humoral immunity do so because they are capable of producing: a. Platelets b. Antibodies c. Stem cells d. Helper T cells
B. antibodies
Mismatched blood transfusion reaction with hemolysis of blood cells is an example of type II, _____ mediated hypersensitivity reaction. A) T-cell B) antibody C) leukotriene D) complement
B. antibody
Organ rejection is a complication of organ transplantation caused by recipient immune cells: A) destroying the host T cells. B) attack on the donor cells. C) combining with grafts HLA. D) being recognized as foreign.
B. attack on the donor cells
Although growth rate is variable among types of bacteria, the growth of bacteria is dependent on: A) biofilm communication. B) availability of nutrients. C) an intact protein capsid. D) individual cell motility.
B. availability of nutrients
Although growth rate is variable among types of bacteria, the growth of bacteria is dependent on: a. Biofilm communication b. Availability of nutrients c. An intact protein capsid d. Individual cell motility
B. availability of nutrients
The vascular, hemodynamic stage of acute inflammation is initiated by momentary vasoconstriction followed by vasodilation that causes localized: a. bleeding b. congestion c. pale skin d. coolness
B. congestion
Once T helper cells are activated, they secrete ____________ that activate and regulate nearly all of the other cells of the immune system. A) complement proteins B) cytokines C) leukotrienes D) bradykinins
B. cytokines
Treponema pallidum, the cause of syphilis, is a spirochete bacterium that is spread from human to human by: A) tick or lice vector bites. B) direct physical contact. C) exposure to infected urine. D) inhaling airborne particles.
B. direct physical contact
The effector cells of the immune system have the primary function of: a. Activating phagocytic cells b. Eliminating the antigens c. Processing antigen into epitopes d. Controlling the immune response
B. eliminating the antigens
A febrile, 3-week-old infant has been brought to the emergency department by his parents and is currently undergoing a diagnostic workup to determine the cause of his fever. Which of the following statements best conveys the rationale for this careful examination? a. the immune hypothalamus is unable to perform normal thermoregulation b. infants are susceptible to serious infections because of their decreased immune function c. commonly used antipyretics often have no effect on the core temperature of infants d. fever in neonates is often evidence of a congenital disorder rather than an infection
B. infants are susceptible to serious infections because of their decreased immune function
The course of any infectious disease progresses through several distinct stages after the pathogen enters the host. Although the duration may vary, the hallmark of the prodromal stage is: A) tissue inflammation and damage. B) initial appearance of symptoms. C) progressive pathogen elimination. D) containment of infectious pathogens.
B. initial appearance of symptoms
Adaptive immune responses, also called acquired or specific immunity, are composed of _____________ and their products. A) granulocytes B) lymphocytes C) epithelial cells D) Toll-like receptors
B. lymphocytes
Innate immunity, also called natural or native immunity, consists of mechanisms that respond specifically to: a. Self-cells b. Microbes c. Antibodies d. Inflammation
B. microbes
In the usual course (stages) after a pathogen has entered the host body, the stage when the host initially develops the appearance of signs/symptoms like a mild fever and body aches is: a. Incubation b. Prodromal c. Acute d. Convalescence
B. prodromal
Exogenous pyrogens (interleukin-1) and the presence of bacteria in the blood lead to the release of endogenous pyrogens that: a. stabilize thermal control in the brain b. produce leukocytosis and anorexia c. block viral replication in cells d. inhibit prostaglandin release
B. produce leukocytosis
Exogenous pyrogens (interleukin-1) and the presence of bacteria in the blood lead to the release of endogenous pyrogens that: a. Stabilize thermal control in the brain b. Produce leukocytosis and shivering c. Block viral replication in cells d. Inhibit prostaglandin release
B. produce leukocytosis and shivering
An elderly patient is dressed only in a hospital gown and complains of a draft in her room. Consequently, she has requested a warm blanket while she sits in her wheelchair. Which of the following mechanisms of heat loss is most likely the primary cause of her request? a. evaporation and conduction b. radiation and convection c. conduction and convection d. convection and evaporation
B. radiation and convection
The mechanism by which humans recognize self-cells from non-self (antigens)-cells is called: a. Autoimmunity b. Self-tolerance c. Nonself anergy d. Immunocompatibility
B. self-tolerance
The "window period" of HIV infection refers to the period of time between infection and: A) transmission. B) seroconversion. C) initial symptoms. D) antibody screening.
B. seroconversion
International travel has contributed to increased prevalence and incidence of nonindigenous diseases by increasing which of the following? A) Portals of entry B) Sources of infection C) Virulence D) Disease course
B. sources of infection
While sponging a client who has a high temperature, the nurse observes the client begins to shiver. At this point, the priority nursing intervention would be to: a. Administer an extra dose of aspirin b. Stop sponging the client and retake a set of vital signs c. Increase the room temperature by turning off the air conditioner and continue sponging the client with warmer water d. Place a heated electric blanket on the client's bed
B. stop sponging the client and retake a set of vital signs
Which of the following clients is most likely to be susceptible to developing a neurogenic fever? A client who has: a. Stage II Alzheimer disease b. Sustained a head injury in a bicycle crash c. Become delirious after the administration of a benzodiazepine d. Begun taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for the treatment of depression
B. sustained a head injury in a bicycle crash
Shortly after being diagnosed with HIV, a patient has begun highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). What is the primary goal of the patient's drug regimen? A) To limit the latent period of HIV B) To slow the progression of the disease C) To minimize opportunities for transmission D) To prevent seroconversion
B. to slow the progression of the disease
The nurse caring for a population of HIV clients needs to be assessing for which of the following diseases that amounts to the leading cause of death for people with HIV? a. Leukemia b. Tuberculosis c. Pneumonia d. Toxoplasmosis
B. tuberculosis
The employee health nurse is working with a nursing student who has just sustained a needlestick injury and has received a dose of hepatitis B immune globulin. The nurse is counseling the student about vaccination against hepatitis B. Which statement by the student indicates understanding? a. "I will make an appointment to start the hepatitis B vaccination series within the next 3 months." b. "I will only need to receive two doses of the hepatitis B vaccine because you just gave me one dose of the immune globulin." c. "I need to start the hepatitis B vaccination series as soon as possible." d. "I don't need to receive the hepatitis B vaccine because I will now produce antibodies against hepatitis B."
C. "I need to start the hepatitis B vaccination series as soon as possible."
A client has been diagnosed with Coxiella burnetii infection. She asked the health care provider how she could have gotten this disease. The health care provider's best response is: a."Probably while walking outside without your shoes on." b. "While swimming in an unsanitary pond." c. "Drinking contaminated milk." d. "Eating undercooked fish."
C. "drinking contaminated milk"
A client's exposure to an antibiotic-resistant microorganism while in the hospital has initiated an immune response. Which of the following is responsible for the mediated and regulated actions that occur in this situation? a. Peripheral lymphoid tissues b. Chemokines that contribute to an ongoing immune response c. Cytokines released at cell-to-cell interfaces, binding to specific receptors d. Phagocytosis in the response to viral invasion
C. Cytokines released at cell-to-cell interfaces, binding to specific receptors
A client with a diagnosis of cirrhosis has experienced an acute rejection of a donor liver. Which of the following cells is responsible for the rejection of the client's transplanted organ? a. Natural killer cells b. Mast cells c. T cells d. Neutrophils
C. T cells
While working in the newborn nursery, a nurse is assessing a new admission. The nurse notes the infant has an increased distance between his eyes, a very small jaw, and a split uvula. Thinking this infant might have DiGeorge syndrome, the nurse should be assessing this infant for which of the following electrolyte imbalances? a.Frequent ventricular beats on ECG due to hyperkalemia b. Loss of consciousness due to hyponatremia c. Tetany due to hypocalcemia d. Decreased reflexes due to hypermagnesemia
C. Tetany due to hypocalcemia
A client arrived in the emergency department following 2 days of general malaise. The temperature is 103.8°F. The nurse administers the prescribed aspirin, an antipyretic. Which of the following statements relates to the rationale for this action? a. Temperatures in excess of 37.5°C (99.5° F) can result in seizure activity. b. Lower temperatures inhibit the protein synthesis of bacteria. c. These medications protect vulnerable organs, such as the brain, from extreme temperature elevation. d. Most common antipyretics have been shown to have little effect on core temperature.
C. These medications protect vulnerable organs, such as the brain, from extreme temperature elevation.
A 9-month-old infant has been diagnosed with botulism after he was fed honey. The child's mother was prompted to seek care because of this child's sudden onset of neuromuscular deficits, which were later attributed to the release of substances by Clostridium botulinum. Which virulence factor contributed to this child's illness? a. Endotoxins b. Adhesion factors c. Exotoxins d. Evasive factors
C. adhesion factors
Which of the following mediators of inflammation causes increased capillary permeability and pain? a. serotonin b. histamine c. bradykinin d. nitric oxide
C. bradykinin
A hospital client was swabbed on admission for antibiotic-resistant organisms and has just been informed that methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is present in his groin. The client has a normal core temperature and white blood cell count. This client is experiencing: a. Infection b. Proliferation c. Colonization d. Inflammation
C. colonization
A hospital patient was swabbed on admission for antibiotic-resistant organisms and has just been informed that methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is present in his groin. The patient has a normal core temperature and white blood cell count. This patient is experiencing which of the following? A) Infection B) Proliferation C) Colonization D) Inflammation
C. colonization
A post surgical patient who is recovering in the post anesthetic recovery unit states that she is "freezing cold." Which of the following measures is likely to be initiated in the patient's hypothalamus in an effort to reduce heat loss? a. opening of arteriovenous (AV) shunts b. reduced exhalation of warmed air c. contraction of pilomotor muscles d. decreased urine production
C. contraction of pilomotor muscles
A postsurgical client who is recovering in the postanesthetic recovery unit states that she is "freezing cold." Which of the following measures is likely to be initiated in the client's hypothalamus in an effort to reduce heat loss? a. Opening of arteriovenous (AV) shunts b. Reduced exhalation of warmed air c. Contraction of pilomotor muscles d. Decreased urine production
C. contraction of pilomotor muscles
A public health nurse should recognize that sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are typically spread by which of the following mechanisms? A) Penetration B) Vertical transmission C) Direct contact D) Ingestion
C. direct contact
A 9-month-old infant has been diagnosed with botulism after he was fed honey. The child's mother was prompted to seek care because of this child's sudden onset of neuromuscular deficits, which were later attributed to the release of substances by Clostridium botulinum bacteria. Which virulence factor contributed to this child's illness? A) Endotoxins B) Adhesion factors C) Exotoxins D) Evasive factors
C. exotoxins
A 70-year-old female client has had her mobility and independence significantly reduced by rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following processes likely contributed to the development of her health problem? a. Delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH) reaction b. Proliferation of cytotoxic T cells c. Failure of normal self-tolerance d. Deletion of autoreactive B cells
C. failure of normal self-tolerance
During a lecture on inflammation, the physiology instructor discusses the major cellular components involved in the inflammation response. The instructor asks, "Which of the following cells arrives early in great numbers?" The student with the correct response is: a. basophils b. lymphocytes c. neutrophils d. monocytes
C. neutrophils
The cellular stage of acute inflammation is marked by the movement of leukocytes into the area. Which of the following cells arrives early in great numbers? a. basophils b. lymphocytes c. neutrophils d. platelets
C. neutrophils
Whatever the mechanism of entry, the human-to-human transmission of infectious agents is directly related to the: A) source of contact. B) site of infection. C) number of pathogens absorbed. D) virulence factors.
C. number of pathogens absorbed
When skin is broken, germs can enter. Transmission of infectious agents is directly related to the: a. Source of contact b. Site of infection c. Number of pathogens absorbed d. Virulence factors
C. number of pathogens absorbed
Because dermatophytes are capable of growing _________, the infection is mainly found on cutaneous surfaces of the body. A) a powdery colony B) in moist skin folds C) on cooler tissue D) branching filaments
C. on cooler tissue
A child's thymus gland is fully formed and proportionately larger than an adult's. Which of the following processes that contributes to immunity takes place in the thymus gland? a. Differentiation of B cells b. Production of natural killer (NK) cells c. Proliferation of T cells d. Filtration of antigens from the blood
C. proliferation of T cells
The characteristic, localized cardinal signs of acute inflammation include: a. fever b. fatigue c. redness d. granuloma
C. redness
A diabetic client has injured his foot while walking barefoot on the lawn. On admission, which of the following assessment findings would be considered a localized cardinal sign of acute inflammation? a. temperature of 101˚F b. fatigue with listlessness c. redness and edema at the injured site d. urine output of less than 500mL/24 hours (low)
C. redness and edema at the injured site
A client with a long-standing diagnosis of Crohn disease has developed a perianal abscess. Which of the following treatments will this client most likely require? a. Antiviral therapy b. Antibiotic therapy c. Surgical draining d. Pressure dressing
C. surgical draining
A patient with a long-standing diagnosis of Crohn disease has developed a perianal abscess. Which of the following treatments will this patient most likely require? A) Antiviral therapy B) Antibiotic therapy C) Surgical draining D) Pressure dressing
C. surgical draining
Patients are commonly administered antipyretics when their oral temperature exceeds 37.5˚C (99.5˚F). Which of the following statements related to the rationale for this action is the most accurate? a. temperatures in excess of 37.5˚C (99.5˚F) can result in seizure activity b. lower temperatures inhibit the protein synthesis of bacteria c. there is little empirical evidence for this treatment modality d. most common antipyretics have been shown to have little effect on core temperature
C. there is little empirical evidence for this treatment modality
Which of the following core body temperatures is within the normal range? a. 35.9˚C (96.6˚F) b. 38.0˚C (100.4˚F) c. 35.5˚C (95.9˚F) d. 37.3˚C (99.1˚F)
D. 37.3˚C (99.1˚F)
HIV-positive persons who display manifestations of laboratory category 3 or clinical category C are considered to have: a. Zero viral load b. Seroconversion c. Complete remission d. AIDS-defining illnesses
D. AIDS-defining illnesses
While caring for a pediatric client admitted with a viral infection, the nurse knows that which type of cell will be the child's primary defense against the virus? a. Complement b. Bradykinin c. Leukotrienes d. Natural killer (NK) cells
D. Natural killer (NK) cells
Which of the following individuals most likely has the highest risk of experiencing chronic inflammation? a. a patient who has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes b. a patient who is a carrier of an antibiotic-resistant organism c. a patient who is taking oral antibiotics for an upper respiratory infection d. a patient who is morbidly obese and who has a sedentary lifestyle
D. a patient who is morbidly obese and who has a sedentary lifestyle
Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules, with human leukocyte antigens (HLAs), are markers on all nucleated cells and have an important role in: a. Identifying blood types b. Cell membrane transport c. Suppressing viral replication d. Avoiding transplant rejections
D. avoiding transplant rejection
A group of teenagers spent an entire day on the beach without using sunscreen. The first night, their skin was reddened and painful to touch. The second day, they awoke to find large fluid-filled blisters over several body areas. The nurse recognizes the development of blisters as which type of inflammatory response? a. Cellular response b. Immediate transient response c. Continuous response d. Delayed response
D. delayed response
Bacteria on a sliver in a boy's finger have initiated an adaptive immune response. The boy's lymphocytes and antibodies recognize immunologically active sites on the bacterial surfaces known as: A) Toll-like receptors. B) opsonins. C) chemokines. D) Epitopes. the part of an antigen molecule to which an antibody attaches itself.
D. epitopes, the part of an antigen molecule to which an antibody attaches itself
Although bacterial toxins vary in their activity and effects on host cells, a small amount of gram-negative bacteria endotoxin: A) is released during cell growth. B) inactivates key cellular functions. C) uses protein to activate enzymes. D) in the cell wall activates inflammation.
D. in the cell wall activates inflammation
A patient has begun taking acyclovir, an antiviral medication, to control herpes simplex outbreaks. What is this drug's mechanism of action? A) Inhibition of viral adhesion to cells B) Elimination of exotoxin production C) Antagonism of somatic cell binding sites D) Interference with viral replication processes
D. interference with viral replication processes
A patient has sought care because of recent malaise and high fever. Upon assessment , the patient states that his current fever began two days earlier, although he states that for the last 2 weeks he is in a cycle of high fever for a couple of days followed by a day or two of normal temperature. Which of the following fever patterns is this patient experiencing? a. recurrent fever b. remittent fever c. sustained fever d. intermittent fever
D. intermittent fever
A patient's primary care provider has ordered direct antigen detection in the care of a patient with a serious symptomatology of unknown origin. Which of the following processes will be conducted? A) Detecting DNA sequences that are unique to the suspected pathogen B) Growth of biofilms on various media in the laboratory setting C) Quantification of IgG and IgM antibodies in the patient's blood D) Introduction of monoclonal antibodies to a blood sample from the patient
D. introduction of monoclonal antibodies to a blood sample from the patient
In contrast to acute inflammation, chronic inflammation is characterized by which of the following phenomena? a. profuse fibrinous exudation b. a "shift to the left" of granulocytes c. metabolic and respiratory alkalosis d. lymphocytosis and activated macrophages
D. lymphocytosis and activated macrophages
A client has an abscess in the mouth with a profuse amount of thick creamy white exudate. The nurse knows that this wound with necrotic cells is classified as: a. Serous b. Fibrinous c. Suppurative d. Membranous
D. membranous
Inflammatory exudates are a combination of several types. Which of the following exudates is composed of enmeshed necrotic cells? a. serous b. fibrinous c. suppurative d. membranous
D. membranous
A client has developed pericarditis following an episode of acute glomerulonephritis, developments that may be attributable to the presence of similar epitopes on group A beta-hemolytic streptococci and the antigens in the client's heart tissue. Which of the following has most likely accounted for this client's autoimmune response? a. Breakdown of T-cell anergy b. Release of sequestered antigens c. Superantigens d. Molecular mimicry
D. molecular mimicry
A teenager presents to the clinic with an infected wound from a bike accident. He asks, "How does my body fight off the germs in my scraped arm?" Which is the nurse's best response? "The cells that plays the central role related to the innate immune response to an infectious microorganism are: a. T lymphocytes." b. Antibodies." c. B lymphocytes." d. Neutrophils."
D. neutrophils
Which of the following would participate in the innate immune response to an infectious microorganism? A) T lymphocytes B) Antibodies C) B lymphocytes D) Neutrophils
D. neutrophils
A 33-year-old client who is a long-term intravenous user of heroin has been recently diagnosed with hepatitis C. Which of the following portals of entry most likely led to the client's infection? a. Direct contact b. Vertical transmission c. Ingestion d. Penetration
D. penetration
A 33-year-old patient who is a long-term intravenous user of heroin has been recently diagnosed with hepatitis C. Which of the following portals of entry most likely led to the patient's infection? A) Direct contact B) Vertical transmission C) Ingestion D) Penetration
D. penetration
The effector function of activated members of the complement system includes all of the following EXCEPT: A) chemotaxis. B) opsonization. C) pathogen lysis. D) phagocytosis.
D. phagocytosis
Activation of lymphocytes is dependent upon the ________ and ________ of the antigens by macrophages. A) memory; clustering B) capture; destruction C) recognition; grouping D) processing; presentation
D. processing; presentation
The phagocytosis process involves three distinct steps. What is the initial step in the process? a. engulfment b. intracellular killing c. antigent margination d. recognition and adherence
D. recognition and adherence
A client has just been diagnosed with Graves disease. The primary care provider tells the client that this is due to the presence of autoantibodies to the TSH receptor. The client asks the nurse to explain this in simpler terms. Which response would be the best for this client? a. "Hyperthyroidism is basically an autoimmune disorder." b. "Basically your lymph node system has gone haywire." c. "Your body has loss its ability to delete autoreactive T cells in the thyroid." d. "The filtration system in your body is no longer working."
a. "Hyperthyroidism is basically an autoimmune disorder."
A sixth grade science teacher asks the students to explain the role of cilia in the lower respiratory tract. Which student response is the best? a. "These little hairs move germs trapped in mucous toward the throat so the body can cough them out." b. "Cilia help to warm the airways so that moisture in the air can neutralize any germs that get in our lungs." c. "Cilia can trap the microbes in one location so the body can grow scar tissue around them and wall them off so they can't cause disease." d. "Cilia help facilitate a chemical defense against germs by secreting an enzyme that will cement the germ to the lining of the airways."
a. "These little hairs move germs trapped in mucous toward the throat so the body can cough them out."
A 5-year-old child is experiencing itchy, watery eyes and an increased respiratory rate with some inspiratory wheezes. He has been outside playing in the yard and trees. The mother asks, "Why does he get like this?" The health care worker's best response is: a. "This is what we call a type I hypersensitivity reaction and usually occurs a few minutes after exposure to his allergen. It is primarily caused by mast cells in his body." b. "Because his allergy is related to something in his environment, the best thing you can do is try to keep him indoors as much as possible." c. "This sounds like he is on his way to having an anaphylactic reaction and you need to get a prescription for an EpiPen to decrease his response to monocytes." d. "This is pretty common in children. He is just getting used to all the allergens in the air. I suggest you just give him a shower after every time he plays outside."
a. "This is what we call a type I hypersensitivity reaction and usually occurs a few minutes after exposure to his allergen. It is primarily caused by mast cells in his body."
Chlamydiaceae have characteristics of both viruses and bacteria and are a rather common sexually transmitted infectious organism. After entry into the host, they transform into a reticulate body. The health care provider should monitor which of the following clients for this possible infection? Select all that apply. a. An adult male who raises a number of exotic birds in his home b. A drug abuser looking to share needles/syringes c. A newborn with a noticeable eye infection d. A teenager who swims in the lake regularly
a. An adult male who raises a number of exotic birds in his home b. A drug abuser looking to share needles/syringes c. A newborn with a noticeable eye infection
While discussing the effector function of activated members of the complement system, the faculty member will include which of the following concepts? Select all that apply. a. Chemotaxis b. Opsonization c. Pathogen lysis d. Phagocytosis e. Mobilization of immunoglobulins
a. Chemotaxis b. Opsonization c. Pathogen lysis
The nurse can anticipate which of the following interventions to be prescribed for a client with AIDS who is experiencing involuntary weight loss of more than 10% of baseline body weight and frequent diarrhea daily? Select all that apply. a. Enteral or parental nutrition b. Order for megestrol acetate c. Calcium carbonate for mineral replacement d. Benadryl, an antihistamine e. Prenatal vitamins
a. Enteral or parental nutrition b. Order for megestrol acetate
Which of the following clients should the nurse assess for a type III hypersensitivity immune responses resulting in injury to the vascular system? A client admitted with: Select all that apply. a. Extensive edema associated with acute glomerulonephritis b. Newly diagnosed systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) c. Facial droop and impaired speech d. Wheezing on inspiration e. Liver failure exhibiting bleeding tendencies
a. Extensive edema associated with acute glomerulonephritis b. Newly diagnosed systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
A home health nurse suspects that a child living with his IV drug-abusing mother may have HIV. Which of the following clinical manifestations would confirm this diagnosis? Select all that apply. a. Extremely small for his age to the point of failure to thrive b. CNS abnormalities like seizures, difficulty with walking c. Pneumonia culture reveals a fungal infection of the lungs d. Isolating himself in a back room with the lights dim e. Uncontrolled crying every time the mother approaches
a. Extremely small for his age to the point of failure to thrive b. CNS abnormalities like seizures, difficulty with walking c. Pneumonia culture reveals a fungal infection of the lungs
While explaining evasive factors by microbes to evade various components of the host's immune system, the instructor uses which of the following examples? a. H. Pylori being able to survive in an acidic environment b. Enzymes capable of destroying cell membranes c. S. aureus ability to immobilize IgG d. An infectious agent's ability to produce toxins
a. H. Pylori being able to survive in an acidic environment
While explaining immunity to a client, the nurse responds, "The body's internal organs are protected from pathogens because: a. Our mucosal tissue contains all the necessary cell components to fight a pathogen with an immune response." b. The tonsils store a large amount of natural killer cells at that location." c. We have special glands that can secrete cytokines on a moment's notice." d. The actions of the cytokines in the mouth can act on different cell types at the same time it is fighting pathogens."
a. Our mucosal tissue contains all the necessary cell components to fight a pathogen with an immune response."
A mother of a child diagnosed with strep throat asks, "Why are the lymph nodes in my child's neck swollen?" The nurse will base her response knowing that dendritic cells help: a. Phagocytose foreign agents/microbes and migrate them to regional lymph nodes b. Produce more killer cells to assist building more immunity against strep throat c. Dispose of metabolic waste products d. Delay the inflammatory response
a. Phagocytose foreign agents/microbes and migrate them to regional lymph nodes
A client's cell-mediated immune response has resulted in the release of regulatory T cells. These cells will perform which of the following roles? a. Suppressing the immune response to limit proliferation of potentially harmful lymphocytes b. Presenting antigens to B cells to facilitate the production of antibodies c. Differentiating into subpopulations of helper T cells d. Destroying target cells by releasing cytolytic enzymes and other toxins
a. Suppressing the immune response to limit proliferation of potentially harmful lymphocytes
A student asks, "What does cell-mediated immunity mean to the client?" The instructor responds. "This means: a. The body is trying to defend itself against intracellular microbe invasion by engulfing and destroying the microbe." b. The person's immune system is trying to eliminating all responses to certain antigens." c. The person's immune system is trying to rapidly mature more killer cells to protect against any microbial invasion." d. Our body is trying to systematically control the immune response."
a. The body is trying to defend itself against intracellular microbe invasion by engulfing and destroying the microbe."
Following delivery, the parents have chosen to have their infant's cord blood frozen. A blood test is performed on the cord blood and found to contain IgM antibodies. The nurse interprets this to mean: a. The infant has been exposed to an intrauterine infection. b. The infant has received active antibodies from the mother. c. The child's placenta was defective since it did not filter the IgM out of the blood. d. The child likely already has developed an immunocompromised disease.
a. The infant has been exposed to an intrauterine infection
A college student has been called into the student health office because she tested positive for HIV on the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). The student asks, "What is this Western blot assay going to tell you?" The best response by the health care provider is: a. "We always want two positive test results before we give you medicine." b. "The Western blot is a more sensitive assay that looks for the presence of antibodies to specific viral antigens." c. "This assay will actually look at all the individual cells in your blood and count how many HIV cells you have, so we can treat you with the proper medication." d. "If you are afraid of another blood test, we can do a rapid oral test to see if we get the same results."
b. "The Western blot is a more sensitive assay that looks for the presence of antibodies to specific viral antigens."
A client with cancer has been receiving amphotericin B intravenously. The client asks, "How will this help with my fungal disease?" The health care provider responds: a. "This medication inhibits the synthesis of ergosterol." b. "This drug binds to ergosterol and forms holes in the cell membrane, killing the fungus." c. "This medication will keep the body from growing any new fungi." d. "This drug impairs the synthesis of enzymes needed for viral replication."
b. "This drug binds to ergosterol and forms holes in the cell membrane, killing the fungus."
Shortly after being diagnosed with HIV, a client has begun highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The client asks, "My doctor tells me that my viral load is going down. What does that mean?" The nurse's best response is: a. "This means that you are in the long-term nonprogressors stage of HIV." b. "Your HAART medications are working to slow the progression of the disease." c. "Your medications are going to decrease your ability to transmit the virus to your sexual partners." d. "You are developing drug resistance and may need to have your medications adjusted."
b. "Your HAART medications are working to slow the progression of the disease."
Which of the following individuals is experiencing a health problem that is the result of a parasite? a. A college student who contracted Chlamydia trachomatis during an unprotected sexual encounter b. A man who acquired malaria while on a tropical vacation c. A hospital client who has developed postoperative pneumonia d. A woman who developed hepatitis A from eating at an unhygienic restaurant
b. A man who acquired malaria while on a tropical vacation
Which of the following clients is at the greatest risk for developing an intracellular pathogen infection? a. A teenager who attends a crowded high school b. An AIDS client with a decreased CD4+ TH1 count c. A breast cancer client who has a WBC count of 8000 d. A hyperthyroid client who has received treatment with radioactive iodine
b. An AIDS client with a decreased CD4+ TH1 count
The entrance of a microbe into an individual's vascular space has initiated opsonization. How will the health care provider explain this process critical in stopping the infiltration of the microbe through opsonization? Opsonization: a. Stimulates B cells by helper T cells b. Coats a microbe to activate phagocytosis recognition c. Releases proteins that stimulate cell production by the bone marrow d. Involves lysis of intracellular microbes by cytotoxic T cells
b. Coats a microbe to activate phagocytosis recognition
Which of the following findings are considered part of normal aging? Select all that apply. a. Increased absolute number of lymphocytes b. Decrease in CD4+ count c. Decreased IL-2 level d. Elevated CD8+ T cells e. Increase in B-cell production
b. Decrease in CD4+ count c. Decreased IL-2 level
A public health nurse notes an increase in regional throat cancer cases. Upon epidemiological studies, many of the throat cancer clients also had oral exposure to human papillomavirus (HPV). This exposure to HPV would be considered by: a. Deep penetration of open lesions b. Direct contact with infected secretions c. Ingestion of HPV through the GI tract d. Accidental aspiration and inhalation of pathogens
b. Direct contact with infected secretions
Which of the following would be considered an example of transmitting an infection from person-to-person through shared inanimate objects (fomites)? a. Malaria from mosquito bites b. HIV from a contaminated IV drug user needle c. Tuberculosis from inhalation of air after a cough d. Typhoid fever from traveling to a third-world country
b. HIV from a contaminated IV drug user needle
A premature neonate in the ICU suspected of having an infection has blood drawn for class specific antibodies. Which of the following confirms that the neonate has developed a congenital infection? a. IgG titer is decreased. b. IgM antibodies are elevated. c. IgG antibodies remain elevated throughout entire ICU admission. d. Initial IgM-specific antibodies are negative.
b. IgM antibodies are elevated
Which of the following is an example of how international travel has contributed to increased prevalence and incidence of nonindigenous diseases? a. An airline pilot getting ill after eating pork in a restaurant in Hong Kong b. Outbreak of hemolytic-uremic syndrome related to contaminated salad being shipped to various regions c. Increase in the number of reported Lyme disease cases related to hot summer with local large deer population d. Hepatitis A outbreak when a restaurant worker forgot to wash the hands after using the rest room
b. Outbreak of hemolytic-uremic syndrome related to contaminated salad being shipped to various regions
A client with a diagnosis of aplastic anemia has undergone allogenic bone marrow transplantation. Which of the following signs and symptoms would most clearly suggest the existence of graft versus host disease (GVHD)? a. Shortness of breath, audible crackles, and decreasing PaO2 b. Presence of a pruritic rash that has begun to slough off c. Development of metabolic acidosis d. Diaphoresis, fever, and anxiety
b. Presence of a pruritic rash that has begun to slough off
A child has experienced a "bee-sting" while at the park. The health care provider is walking by and notices the child has swelling around the eyes, lips, and face in general. What priority assessment should the nurse make at this time? a. Palpate for carotid pulses in the neck. b. Assess skin on the truck and back for development of hives. c. Assess and establish an open airway. d. Try to listen to breath sounds by placing your ear on the child's chest.
c. Assess and establish an open airway.
A client presents to the clinic with a swollen, painful "hang nail" on the index finger. There is a large pustule over the site that needs to be lanced. The health care worker knows that which mediator of inflammation causes this increase in capillary permeability and pain? a. Serotonin b. Histamine c. Bradykinin d. Nitric oxide
c. Bradykinin
Contact with poison ivy has resulted in intense pruritus, erythema, and weeping on a client's forearm. Which of the following processes resulted in the client's signs and symptoms? a. IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation b. Formation of antigen-antibody complexes c. Cytokine release by sensitized T cells d. Formation of antibodies against cell surface antigens
c. Cytokine release by sensitized T cells
A teenage male develops a severe case of "athlete's foot." He asks, "How did I get this?" The health care worker explains that certain fungi become infectious (called dermatophytes) and exhibit which of the following characteristics? a. Prefer to grow in warm environments like shoes/socks b. Like a moist environment c. Limited to cooler cutaneous surfaces d. Need higher blood flow to survive
c. Limited to cooler cutaneous surfaces
A newborn has been lethargic, is not nursing well, and is basically looking ill. Following lab tests, it has been found that the newborn has IgM present in his blood. How should the nurse interpret this finding? a. All newborns have IgM in their blood so this is a normal finding. b. IgM in the blood means the infant may be allergic to breast milk. c. The presence of IgM suggests the infant has a current infection. d. IgM is usually only found in saliva so the specimen must be contaminated.
c. The presence of IgM suggests the infant has a current infection.
A client who was exposed to hepatitis A at a local restaurant has recovered from the disease. At her annual physical, the client asks the health care provider if she should go to her health department and get the hepatitis A "shot." The best response, based on the concepts of adaptive immunity, by the health care provider would be: a. "Yes, because you could get a worse case the next time you are exposed." b. "Of course. The virus changes every year." c. "I wouldn't since the vaccine can damage your liver." d. "No, since having an active case, you have already developed antigens against hepatitis A."
d. "No, since having an active case, you have already developed antigens against hepatitis A."
A client has been admitted to the hospital for the treatment of HIV infection, which has recently progressed to overt AIDS. Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse prioritize when providing care for this client? a. Frequent neurologic vital signs and thorough skin care b. Hemodynamic monitoring and physical therapy c. Careful monitoring of fluid balance and neurologic status d. Astute infection control and respiratory assessments
d. Astute infection control and respiratory assessments
Although bacterial toxins vary in their activity and effects on host cells, a small amount of gram-negative bacteria endotoxin: a. Is released during cell growth b. Inactivates key cellular functions c. Uses protein to activate enzymes d. In the cell wall activates inflammation
d. In the cell wall activates inflammation
When discussing colony-stimulating factors (CSFs), the nurse explains that recombinant CSF is currently used to: a. Assist kidney dialysis clients to maintain a therapeutic potassium level b. Stimulate the bone marrow to produce more immature cells c. Grow stem cells in the laboratory d. Increase the success rate of bone marrow transplantation
d. Increase the success rate of bone marrow transplantation
A client has begun taking acyclovir, an antiviral medication, to control herpes simplex outbreaks. What is this drug's mechanism of action? a. Inhibition of viral adhesion to cells b. Elimination of exotoxin production c. Antagonism of somatic cell-binding sites d. Interference with viral replication processes
d. Interference with viral replication processes
A client's primary care provider has ordered direct antigen detection in the care of a client with a serious symptomatology of unknown origin. Which of the following processes will be conducted? a. Detecting DNA sequences that are unique to the suspected pathogen b. Growth of biofilms on various media in the laboratory setting c. Quantification of IgG and IgM antibodies in the client's blood d. Introduction of monoclonal antibodies to a blood sample from the client
d. Introduction of monoclonal antibodies to a blood sample from the client
In contrast to acute inflammation, chronic inflammation is characterized by which of the following phenomena? a. Profuse fibrinous exudation b. A "shift to the left" of granulocytes c. Metabolic and respiratory alkalosis d. Lymphocytosis and activated macrophages
d. Lymphocytosis and activated macrophages
During lecture on wound care, the instructor mentions the final stage of the cellular response of acute inflammation. Of the following statements, which describes what physiologically occurs in the final stage? a. Leukocytes accumulate and begin migration to the site of injury. b. Chemokines direct the trafficking of leukocytes. c. Mediators are transformed into inactive metabolites. d. Neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages engulf and degrade the bacteria/cellular debris.
d. Neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages engulf and degrade the bacteria/cellular debris.
A client with a long history of "hay fever" has recently begun a series of immunotherapy (allergy shots). This treatment potentially will achieve a therapeutic effect by: a. Blocking cytokine release from sensitized mast cells b. Preventing mast cells from becoming sensitized c. Causing T cells to be sequestered in the thymus for longer periods d. Stimulating production of IgG to combine with antigens
d. Stimulating production of IgG to combine with antigens