Pathopharm 1 Exam 3

what is the action of prednisone?

supresses inflammation and the normal immune response

what are the indications for griseofulvin?

treatment of various tinea infections

what is the therapeutic classification of vancomycin?

anti-infectives

what are the life-threatening adverse reactions of ciprofloxacin?

aortic aneurysm, hepatotoxicity, clostridiodies difficle-associated diarrhea, elevated intracranial pressure, seizures, suicidal thoughts, hypersensitivity reactions

which action would the nurse take to avoid red man syndrome when preparing to administer a vancomycin infusion? a. infuse slowly b. change the intravenous site c. reduce the dosage d. administer vitamin K

a. infuse slowly

indications for penicillin G?

treatment of a wide variety of infections including: pneumococcal pneumonia streptococcal pharyngitis syphyllis gonorrhea strains

what is the action of amoxicillin?

binds to bacterial cell wall; causing cell death

what is the action of amphotericin b?

binds to fungal cell membrane, allowing leakage of cellular contents

what is the action of cefotaxime?

binds to the bacterial cell wall membrane; causing cell death

what is the action of imipenem?

binds to the bacterial cell wall membrane; resulting in cell death

which tissue connect the client's tibia to the femur at the knee joint? a. fascia b. bursae c. tendons d. ligaments

d. ligaments

what are the indications of cefotaxime?

treatment of the following infections caused by susceptible organisms: skin and skin structure infections bone and joint infections urinary tract infections gynecological infections including gonorrhea, lower respiratory tract infections, intra-abdominal infections, septicemia, meningitis, lyme disease

what is the action of metronidazole?

disrupts DNA and protein synthesis in susceptible organisms

what is the duration of vancomycin?

12-24 hr

what are life-threatening adverse reactions of vancomycin?

acute generalized exanthematous pustulosis, drug reaction with eosinophilia, and systemic symptoms, line bullous dermatosis, steven-johnsons syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis, hypersensitivity reactions, red mans syndrome

what is the peak of griseofulvin?

24 hr

what is the onset of nystatin?

24-72 hrs

what is the duration of amphotericin b?

24hr

what is the duration of cefoxitin IM?

4-8 hours

which type of synovial joint movement is involved in moving the client's first and fifth metacarpals anteriorly from the flattened palm? a. flexion b. extension c. abduction d. opposition

d. opposition

what is the onset of doxycycline PO?

1-2 hr

what is the onset of tetracycline?

1-2 hr

what is the peak of cefepime IM?

1-2 hr

what is the peak of ciprofloxacin PO?

1-2 hr

what is the peak of amoxicillin?

1-2hr

what is the contraindications of cefoxitin?

hypersensitivity to cephalosporins and penicillins

assesment for amoxicillin

Monitor for signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis (rash, pruritus, laryngeal edema, wheezing). Notify health care professional immediately if these occur. Monitor bowel function. Diarrhea, abdominal cramping, fever, and bloody stools should be reported to health care professional promptly as a sign of Clostridioides difficile-associated diarrhea (CDAD). May begin up to several wk following cessation of therapy.

what are the narrow spectrum penicillins?

Penicillin G Penicillin V

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which therapeutic outcome is expected after administering ibuprofen? a. diuresis b. pain relief c. temperature reduction d. bronchodilation e. anticoagulation f. reduced inflammation

b, c, f

what are the most common adverse reactions to cephalexin?

diarrhea

what is the peak of cefoxitin IV?

end of infusion

what is the peak of ceftaroline?

end of infusion

what is the peak of ciprofloxacin IV?

end of infusion

what is the peak of doxycycline IV?

end of infusion

what is the peak of erythromycin IV?

end of infusion

which medications are included in the category azoles?

fluconazole intraconazole ketoconazole clotrimazole miconazole griseofulvin nystatin

which glucocorticoid is used with pediatric patients?

prednisolone

which medications are included in the category glucocorticoids?

prednisones: cortisone hydrocortisone prednisolone methylprednisolone betamethasone dexamethasone

what is the onset of penicillin V?

rapid

what is the onset of trimethoprim?

rapid

what are the indications for amphotericin b?

treatment of progressive, potentially fatal fungal infections

what are the indications of trimethoprim?

treatment of uncomplicated urinary tract infections and otitis media

what are the indications of imipenem?

treatment of: lower respiratory tract infections urinary tract infections abdominal infections gynecologic infections skin and skin structure infections bone and joint infections bacteremia endocarditis polymicrobic infections

what is the duration of nystatin?

unk

what is the onset of acyclovir?

unk

what is the peak of nystatin?

unk

what are the contraindications of amphotericin b?

Hypersensitivity

which medication is currently the main treatment for MRSA?

vancomycin

what are the contraindications of metronidazole?

Hypersensitivity

action of erythromycin

Suppresses protien synthesis at the level of the 50S bacterial ribosome

what is the action of penicillin V?

bind to bacterial cell wall; resulitng in cell death

which of the following medications for pain is the best choice for acute pain management of osteoarthritis? a. aspirin b. acetaminophen c. celecoxib d. Ibuprofen e. prednisone

c. celecoxib

which synovial joint movement is involved in turning a client's palm downward? a. eversion b. inversion c. pronation d. supination

c. pronation

what are life-threatening adverse reactions of cefepime?

clostridioides difficle- associated diarrhea, encephalopathy, seizures, hypersensitivity reactions

what are life-threatening adverse reactions to cefotaxime?

clostridioides difficle- associated diarrhea, seizures, anaphylaxis

what are the life-threatening adverse reactions of ceftaroline?

clostridioides difficle-associated diarrhea, encephalopathy, seizures, hypersensitivity reactions

what are the common adverse reactions of ciprofloxacin?

diarrhea, nausea

what is the action of trimethoprim?

interferes with bacterial folic acid synthesis

onset of penicillin G IM

rapid

which medication is commonly used for burns?

topical silver sulfadiazine

what is the peak of erythromycin PO?

1-4 hr

what is the short acting tetrayclines?

tetracycline

what is the peak of trimethoprim?

1-4 hr

what is the assessment of tetracycline?

Assess for infection (vital signs; appearance of wound, sputum, urine, and stool; WBC) at beginning of and throughout therapy.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which findings are consistent with hypercalcemia after prolonged immobility? a. bone pain b. convulsions c. muscle spasms d. tingling of extremities e. depressed deep tendon reflexes

a, e

what is the action of ceftaroline?

binds to bacterial cell wall membrane; causing cell death

what is the fifth generation cephalosporin?

ceftaroline

what is the onset of cefepime IM?

rapid

what is the onset of cefepime IV?

rapid

what is the onset of cefotaxime IM?

rapid

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which of the following are causes for immobility? a. bone fracture b. surgical procedure c. sedation d. obesity e. restraints

a, b, c, d, e

what is the therapeutic classification for nystatin?

antifungal

which medication would the nurse anticipate administering to a client who reports fever, cough, muscle aches, night sweats, and chest pain with a laboratory report indicating the presence of coccidioides organisms in the respiratory tract? a. oseltamivir b. fluconazole c. pyrazinamide d. cephalosporin

b. fluconazole

what is the assessment for griseofulvin?

Assess patient for allergy to penicillin; potential cross-sensitivity exists. Assess for rash periodically during therapy. May cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome or toxic epidermal necrolysis. Discontinue therapy if severe or if accompanied with fever, general malaise, fatigue, muscle or joint aches, blisters, oral lesions, conjunctivitis, hepatitis and/or eosinophilia.

the primary health care provider prescribed medications to four clients with osteoporosis. which client would the nurse instruct to remain upright for 30 minutes after receiving the medication? client a- medication: alendronate client b- medication: zoledronic acid client c- medication: calcium supplements client d- medication: raloxifene a. client a b. client b c. client c d. client d

a. client a

the nurse recommends that, when it bed, a client who has osteoarthritis should lie in the supine or prone position. the client states that these positions are uncomfortable for the knees and hips. which action would the nurse take? a. encourage the client to maintain extension for specific periods of time b. urge the client to lie in whatever position is most comfortable c. insert a pillow under the client's knees to relieve discomfort d. place the client in the semi-fowler position most of the time

a. encourage the client to maintain extension for specific periods of time

the nurse is teaching an unlicensed assistant personnel about ways to prevent the spread of infection. the nurse decides to emphasize the need to break the cycle of infection. which teaching would be priority? a. hand washing before and after providing client care b. cleaning all equipment with an approved disinfectant after use c. wearing personal protective equipment (PPE) when providing client care d. using medical and surgical aseptic techniques at all times

a. hand washing before and after providing client care

which adverse effect would the nurse monitor for in an infant receiving a sulfonamide? a. kernicterus b. gray syndrome c. growth suppression d. discoloration of the teeth

a. kernicterus

the plan of care for a client with osteoporosis includes active and passive exercises, calcium supplements, and daily vitamins. which finding would indicate that the therapy is helping? a. mobility increases b. fewer muscle spasms occur c. the heartbeat is more regular d. there are fewer bruises than before therapy

a. mobility increases

which medication may contribute to development of a peptic ulcer in a client receving immunosuppressive therapy? a. prednisone b. azathioprine c. cyclosporine d. cyclophosphamide

a. prednisone

which action would the nurse take when a client develops a maculopapular rash on the upper extremities and audible wheezing during the administration of intravenous vancomycin? a. stop the infusion b. decrease the flow rate c. reassess in 15 minutes d. notify the health care provider

a. stop the infusion

a 5-year-old child is given fluoroquinolones. which potential adverse effect unique to pediatric clients would the nurse anticipate? a. tendon rupture b. cartilage erosion c. staining of developing teeth d. central nervous system toxicity

a. tendon rupture

which medications are included in the category VIRs?

acyclovir ganciclovir ribavirin oseltamivir zanamivir peramivir

a client with methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infected wound is scheduled for a computed tomography (CT) scan. to ensure client and visitor safety during transport, the nurse would implement which precaution? a. no special precautions are required b. cover the infected site with a dressing c. drape the client with a covering labeled biohazardous d. place a surgical mask on the client

b. cover the infected site with a dressing

use of which medication would the nurse identify as a potential risk for hearing impairment in a child? a. amoxicillin b. gentamicin c. clindamycin d. ciprofloxacin

b. gentamicin

which factor explains why a client who experiences an acute episode of rheumatoid arthritis has swollen finger joints? a. urate crystals in the synovial tissue b. inflammation in the joints synovial lining c. formation of bony spurs on the joint surfaces d. deterioration and loss of articular cartilage joints

b. inflammation in the joints synovial lining

the nurse is teaching the parent of a child prescribed a high dose of oral prednisone for asthma. which information is critical for the nurse to include when teaching about this medication? a. it protects against infection b. it should be stopped gradually c. an early growth spurt may occur d. a moon-shaped face will develop

b. it should be stopped gradually

the nurse teaches a client who is premenopausal and obese about strategies to prevent osteoporosis. which strategy identified by the client indicates the teaching is effective? a. start a rapid, strict weight-reduction diet b. join a tennis league and practice every day c. take 1200 international units of vitamin d a day d. sign up for a swimming class three times a week

b. join a tennis league and practice every day

an assessment of an 89-year-old client yields a history of severe congenital spinal deformity. which condition would describe the nurse's finding? a. lordosis b. kyphosis c. presbycusis d. osteoporosis

b. kyphosis

how does the skeletal system of a toddler differ from that of an older adult? a. toddlers' bones are less pliable than the bones of older persons b. toddlers' bones can withstand falls better than the bones of older adults c. toddlers' bones are more susceptible to osteoporosis than the bones of older adults d. toddlers' bones are more susceptible to bone loss than the bones of older persons

b. toddlers' bones can withstand falls better than the bones of older adults

what is the action of cefoxitin?

binds to bacterial cell wall membrane; causing cell death

what is the action of vancomycin?

binds to bacterial cell wall membrane; causing cell death

what is the action of nystatin?

binds to fungal cell membrane, allowing leakage of cellular contents

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which of the following medications are used to help maximize bone strength? a. corticosteroids b. glucocorticoids c. calcium d. vitamin d e. vitamin e

c, d

which information would the nurse provide when administering the first dose of prednisone prescribed to a client with an exacerbation of colitis? a. "prednisone protects you from getting an infection" b. "the medication may cause weight loss by decreasing your appetite" c. " prednisone is not curative but does cause a suppression of the inflammatory process" d. " the medication is relatively slow in precipitating a response but is effective in reducing symptoms"

c. " prednisone is not curative but does cause a suppression of the inflammatory process"

a nurse is creating a plan of care for a client with rheumatoid arthritis who has severe pain and swelling of the hand joints. which details about range-of-motion exercises would the plan include? a. passively performing the exercises for the client b. discontinuing the exercises if the client reports discomfort c. applying heat or cold before the exercises d. increasing the vigor of the exercises to restore mobility

c. applying heat or cold before the exercises

a 5-month-old infant is brought to the pediatric clinic because of exposure to an adolescent sibling with measles. which factor would the nurse consider when determining the infant's risk of infection? a. the infant's immunizations b. the infants previous viral illnesses c. maternal diseases and immunizations d. maternal exposure to tuberculosis and herpes genitalis

c. maternal diseases and immunizations

a child recovering from a severe asthma attack is given oral prednisone 15mg twice daily. which intervention would be a priority for the nurse? a. having the child rest as much as possible b. checking the child's eosinophil count daily c. preventing exposure of the child to infection d. offering sips of water when administering the medication

c. preventing exposure of the child to infection

the nurse is caring for a client who had an above-the-knee amputation 1 week ago. which action would the nurse take to control edema of the residual limb? a. administer a diuretic as needed b. restrict the clients oral fluid intake c. rewrap the elastic bandage as necessary d. keep the residual limb elevated on a pillow

c. rewrap the elastic bandage as necessary

a client is admitted to the hospital with severe diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and vomiting for 5 days. upon further assessment, the primary health care provider finds the symptoms occurred after the client ate eggs, salad dressings, and sandwich fillings. which food-borne disease would the provider suspect in this client? a. listeriosis b. shigellosis c. salmonellosis d. staphylococcus

c. salmonellosis

which population-level action would the nurse use to support tertiary prevention for clients with osteoporosis? a. develop an educational campaign to support early identification b. provide routine screening for osteoporosis at local health fairs and community sites c. support development of low-impact physical activity options for those diagnosed with osteoporosis d. encourage local providers to include discussion of strategies that reduce osteoporosis risk during annual wellness visits

c. support development of low-impact physical activity options for those diagnosed with osteoporosis

which describes the purpose of preoperative antibiotics for a client scheduled for a surgical resection of the colon and creation of a colostomy? a. to decrease peristalsis b. to minimize electrolyte imbalance c. to decrease bacteria in the intestines d. to treat inflammation caused by the malignancy

c. to decrease bacteria in the intestines

which client statement indicates to the nurse effective teaching regarding the administration of ciproflaxin therapy for treatment of osteomyelitis? a. " i should go to my primary health care provider's clinic for a weekly dressing change" b." i should stop taking the medication as soon as my symptoms begin to decrease" c. "i should not remove the soiled dressing without someones assistance" d. "i should contact my primary health care provider if white patches appear in my mouth"

d. "i should contact my primary health care provider if white patches appear in my mouth"

after a below-the-knee amputation, a client is refusing to eat, talk, or perform any rehabilitative activities. which approach would the nurse take when interacting with this client? a. explain why there is no need to increase activity b. emphasize that with a prosthesis, there will be a return to the previous lifestyle c. appear cheerful and noncritical regardless of the client's response to attempts at intervention d. acknowledge that the client's withdrawal is an expected and necessary part of initial grieving

d. acknowledge that the client's withdrawal is an expected and necessary part of initial grieving

while assessing an immobilized client, the nurse notes that the client has shortened muscles over a joint, preventing full extension. which is this condition known as? a. osetoarthritis b. osteoporosis c. muscle atrophy d. contracture

d. contracture

which nursing intervention would the nurse include in the plan of care for an older adult client with decreased bone density? a. teaching the client isometric exercises b. advising the client to take a warm shower c. providing a supportive armchairs to the client d. demonstrating weight-bearing exercises to the client

d. demonstrating weight-bearing exercises to the client

which anti-infective agent may lead to blindness if not used correctly by the client in prescribed amounts? a. bromfenac b. natamycin c. trifluridine d. gentamicin

d. gentamicin

which change in the joint may result in joint pain for older adults? a. dehydration of discs b. loss of muscle mass c. decreased elasticity in the ligaments d. increased cartilage erosion

d. increased cartilage erosion

which medication used to treat bacterial vaginosis may be responsible for a client's report of an unpleasant metallic taste, nausea, and vomiting? a. tinidazole b. miconazole c. clotrimazole d. metronidazole

d. metronidazole

which prescription would the nurse anticipate being written for a client experiencing vaginal discharge with a fishy odor who was diagnosed bacterial vaginosis? a. tinidazole b. miconazole c. clotrimazole d. metronidazole

d. metronidazole

which hormone promotes bone reabsorption in a client and potentially leads to decreased bone densities? a. estrogen b. calcitonin c. growth hormone d. parathyroid hormone (PTH)

d. parathyroid hormone (PTH)

which effect has resulted in the avoidance of tetracycline use in children under 8 years old? a. birth defects b. allergic responses c. severe nausea and vomiting d. permanent tooth discoloration

d. permanent tooth discoloration

at which joint would the nurse be able to palpate spongy swelling caused by excess synovial fluid? a. biaxial joint b. pivotal joint c. synovial joint d. temporomandibular joint

d. temporomandibular joint

which glucocorticoids is given for inflammation of the brain and spine, and eyes?

dexamethasone

what is the long acting tetracylcines?

doxycycline

what are the common adverse reactions of griseofulvin?

headache

what are life-threatening adverse reactions of griseofulvin?

hepatotoxicity, erythema multiforme, stevens-johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis, serum sickness

what are the contraindications of doxycycline?

hypersensitivity

what are the contraindications of fluconazole?

hypersensitivity

which medications are included in the category carbapenems?

imipenem vancomycin

what are the indications for erythromycin?

infections caused by susceptible organisms including: upper and lower respiratory tract infections otitis media skin and skin structure infections pertussis diphtheria erythrasma intestinal amebiasis pelvic inflammatory disease nongonococal urethritis syphillis legionnaries disease rheuamatic fever

what are the indications of nystatin?

local treatment of oropharyngeal candidiasis treatment of non-esophageal mucus membrane gastrointestinal candidiasis

which medication is important because it treats c. diff infections, gardnerella vaginalis, and H. pylori associate peptic ulcer disease?

metronidazole (FLAGYL)

what are the routes of doxycycline?

oral (PO) and intravenous (IV)

what are the routes of erythromycin?

oral (PO) and intravenous (IV)

what are the common adverse reactions of gentamicin?

ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, ataxia, vertigo

which medications are included in the category penicillin?

penicillin g penicillin v amoxicillin

contraindications of penicillin G

previous hypersensitivity to penicillins, hypersensitivity to procaine or benzathine

what is the onset of gentamicin IM?

rapid

what are the common adverse reactions of cefepime?

rash, pain at im site, phlebitis at iv site

which medications are included in the category tetracyclines?

tetracycline doxycycline

what are the indications of acyclovir?

treatment of recurrent genial herpes infections and localized cutaneous herpes zoster infections

what are the indications for cefoxitin?

treatment of the following infections caused by susceptible organisms: lower respiratory tract infections skin and skin structure infections bone and joint infections urinary tract infections gynecological infections intra-abdominal infections septicemia

what are the indications of ciprofloxacin?

treatment of the following infections: skin and skin structure infections bone and joint functions complicated intra-abdominal infections urinary tract infections chronic bacterial prostatitis lower respiratory tract infections

what is the therapeutic classification for cefoxitin?

anit-infectives

most common adverse reactions of prednisone

depression, euphoria, hypertension, anorexia, nausea, acne, decreased wound healing, ecchymoses, fragility, hirsutism, petechiae, adrenal suppression, muscle wasting, osteoporosis, cushingoid appearance

what is the onset of ceftaroline?

rapid

what is the peak of fluconzole?

2-4 hr

what is the onset of griseofulvin?

4 hr

what is the duration of cefotaxime IM?

4-12 hr

what is the duration of cefotaxime IV?

4-12 hr

what is the duration of cephalexin?

6-12 hours

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY the nurse identifies which antimicrobial medications as safe during breast-feeding? a. penicillins b. macrolides c. tetracycline d. cephalosporins e. chloramphenicol

a, b, d

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY the nurse is completing the health history of a client admitted to the hospital with osteoarthritis. which joint would the nurse expect to report as having been involved first? a. hips b. knees c. ankles d. shoulders e. metacarpals

a, b

what is the peak of tetracycline?

2-4 hr

what is the onset of amoxicillin?

30 minutes

what is the peak of gentamicin IM?

30-90 minutes

what is the duration of penicillin v?

4-6 hours

duration of penicillin G IM

4-6 hr

duration of penicillin G IV

4-6 hr

which glucocorticoids is given for pre-term labor to help the pre-term infants lungs?

bethmethasone

what is the route of cephalexin?

oral (PO)

what is the route of penicillin v?

oral (PO)

what is the route of tetracycline?

oral (PO)

what is the route of trimethoprim?

oral (PO)

what is the peak of cephalexin?

1 hour

what is the onset of erythromycin PO?

1 hr

what is the peak of acyclovir?

1.5-2.5 hrs

what is the peak of doxycycline PO?

1.5-4 hr

which advice will the nurse provide to the client after a health care provider prescribes aspirin for a client with severe arthritis? a. take the medicine with meals b. see a dentist if bleeding gums develop c. switch to acetaminophen if tinnitus occurs d. avoid spicy foods while taking the medication

a. take the medicine with meals

what is the onset of doxycycline IV?

rapid

what are the indications of penicillin V?

Treatment of a wide variety of infections including: Pneumococcal pneumonia Streptococcus pharyngitis syphyllis gonnorrhea strains

the health care provider prescribed ralozifene for a client with osteoporosis. which manifestation would the nurse monitor in this client? a. check serum creatinine b. monitor urinary calcium c. monitor liver function tests d. observe for anxiety and drowsiness

c. monitor liver function tests

what is the first generation cephalosporin?

cephalexin

which medications are included in the category cephalosporin?

cephalexin cefoxitin cefotaxime cefepime ceftaroline

what are the routes of ciprofloxacin?

oral (PO) and intravenous (IV)

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a pregnant client is prescribed heparin to prevent the risk of thromboembolism. which is a possible adverse effect of this medication when used during pregnancy? a. osteoporosis b. suppression of contractions in labor c. increased risk of serious bleeding d. stimulation of uterine contraction e. compression fractures of the spine

a, c, e

what is the therapeutic classification of metronidazole?

anti-infectives antiprotozoals

what is the therapeutic classification for amphotericin b?

antifungals

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which medication would be prescribed when a client reports vaginal itching and the primary health care provider confirms that the client has candidiasis? a. tinidazole b. miconazole c. fluconazole d. clotrimazole e. metronidazole

b, c, d

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which medication would the nurse anticipate being prescribed for a client reporting inflammatory disorder of the sebaceous glands? a. bacitracin b. mupirocin c. clindamycin d. erythromycin e. metronidazole

c, d

which medication is the first-line medication used to treat a client with mild diarrhea who is diagnosed with a clostridium difficile infection? a. rifaximin b. fidaxomicin c. vancomycin d. metronidazole

d. metronidazole

what are the contraindications of trimethoprim?

hypersensitivity, megaloblastic anemia secondary to folate deficiency

what are the life-threatening adverse reactions to cephalexin?

clostridiodes-difficle associated diarrhea. Seizures, hypersensitivity reactions

which rationale describes why the nurse would advise a client to have a dental examination before beginning prescribed therapy with zoledronic acid? a. to prevent kidney failure b. to prevent atrial fibrillation c. to prevent bronchoconstriction d. to prevent maxillary osteonecrosis

d. to prevent maxillary osteonecrosis

which instruction indicates a lack of understanding of a nurse teaching a human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)- positive client about strategies to prevent opportunistic infections? a. 'reuse cups after washing them with soapy water' b. 'rinse your toothbrush in liquid laundry bleach every week' c. 'wash your armpits, groin, and genitals with antimicrobial soap twice a day' d.' purchase organic, unpasteurized apple cider for your vitamin c requirements'

d.' purchase organic, unpasteurized apple cider for your vitamin c requirements'

what are the indications for cephalexin?

treatment of the following infections caused by susceptible organisms: skin and skin structure infections respiratory tract infections otitis media urinary tract infections bone infections

onset of penicillin G IV

rapid

arrange the steps required to stimulate antibody-mediated immunity in the sequence they occur 1. invasion of new antigens in the body 2. interaction of the macrophage and helper T cells to recognize the antigen 3. production of antibodies by B lymphocytes 4. sensitization of B lymphocyte to the new antigen 5.neutralization or elimination of the antigen 6. binding of antibodies to the antigen and formation of immune complex

1, 2, 4, 3, 6, 5

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which findings noted during assessment would lead the nurse to determine that a client is at an increased risk for infection? a. surgical incision b. urinary catheter c. antibiotic therapy d. intravenous access e. diminished appetite

a, b, c, d

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which intervention would the nurse anticipate incorporating into the plan of care for a client with bursitis of the left knee? a. rest of the affected joint b. apply a heat pack c. use a compression splint d. do gentle range-of- motion exercises e. take non-steroidal anti- inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) as needed for pain

a, c, e

which instruction would the nurse include when providing medication teaching to a client prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for cystitis? a. "drink eight to ten glasses of water daily" b. " take this medication with orange juice" c. " take the medication with meals" d. "take the medication until symptoms subside"

a. "drink eight to ten glasses of water daily"

the client is on neutropenic precautions. from which direction does the protective environment isolation help prevent the spread of infection? a. to the client from outside sources b. from the client to others c. from the client by using special techniques to destroy infectious fluids and secretions d. to the client by using special sterilization techniques for lines and personal items

a. to the client from outside sources

what is the therapeutic classification of acyclovir?

antivirals

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY the nurse is assessing a client with a moon-shaped face and thin arms and legs. the nurse expects with other assessment findings? a. weight loss b. gastric ulcer c. pain in bones d. poor appetite e. muscle weakness

b, c, e

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY after a client experiences a cardiac arrest, the client is transferred to the intensive care unit (ICU). which nursing intervention is the major attribute that affects the quality of care provided to the client? a. develop a diet plan according to the clients food preference b. coordinate with the members of the ICU while transferring the client c. provide cardiopulmonary resuscitation before transferring the client d. encourage the clients family members to visit the client frequently e. administer digoxin to the client according to the prescription

b, c, e

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY the nurse instructs a client who avoids bathing to take a bath or shower each day as a means of maintaining hygiene and preventing infection. which of these reactions would the nurse expect if the client is in the action stage? a. "I only take a bath once a week, but I don't see any infections on my skin" b. "I try to take a shower every day, but I skip it sometimes because of my tight work schedule" c. " i understand that bathing regularly is a good habit, but my bathroom is very cold in the mornings" d. "please tell me how to get into the habit of taking a bath daily so that I can keep myself clean and healthy." e. "i want to take a bath regularly, but I don't have time because I need to look after my kids and my parents"

b, c, e

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY the nurse teaches the parent of an infant prescribed nystatin for oral thrush how to prevent aggravation for the condition. which statements by the parent indicate the need for further teaching? a. "i should rinse the infant's mouth with plain water after feeding" b. "i should boil the pacifier for at least 20 minutes on alternate days" c." i should apply the medication at-least 20 minutes before feeding" d. " i should apply the medication to the infants oral cavity four times a day" e. " i should boil the reusable nipples for at least 5 minutes after washing"

b, c, e

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which leukocyte would the nurse include when teaching about antibody-mediated immunity? a. monocyte b. memory cell c. helper T cell d. B-lymphocyte e. cytotoxic T cell

b, d

which example demonstrates clinical decision-making by the nurse? a. "i palpated the right hip of the client, which appeared red, and noted a warm feeling" b. " i identified impaired skin integrity in a pressure ulcer document upon finding redness in the client's hips" c. " i discussed the use of salt with a client who has a history of hypotension history and suffers from light-headedness and dizziness" d. " i assessed weakness and hunger in a client with a history of diabetes history who suffers with light-headedness and blurred vision"

b. " i identified impaired skin integrity in a pressure ulcer document upon finding redness in the client's hips"

the nurse teaches a client about wearing thigh-high anti-embolism elastic stockings. which instruction would be correct to include? a. 'you do not need to wear them while you are awake, but it is important to wear them at night' b. ' you will need to apply them in the morning before you lower your legs from the bed to the floor' c. ' if they bother you, you can roll them down to your knees while you are resting or sitting down' d. ' you can apply them either in the morning or at bedtime, but only after the legs are lowered to the floor'

b. ' you will need to apply them in the morning before you lower your legs from the bed to the floor'

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY the nurse is caring for a client post-surgery takes necessary steps to achieve quality client care. which nursing action satisfies the quality and safety education for nurses (QSEN) competency called informatics? a. washing the hands before hands before handling the clients incision site b. implementing a new method of monitoring the clients incision site for infection c. documenting in the electronic health record (EHR) after performing wound debridement d. locking the electronic health record (EHR) after every entrance of necessary information e. using a computer-assisted instruction (CAI) program to provide better quality of care to the client

c, d, e

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY the nurse is caring for a client whose mobility is restricted to a wheelchair after a motor vehicle accident. the client has been prescribed physiotherapy as a part of rehabilitation care. which interventions would the nurse consider when the client is discharged from the health care facility? a. focus firmly on the challenges faced by the client b. refrain from including children in the support system c. assist the family in identifying community support systems d. encourage the primary caregiver to set a routine time for respite e. consider the primary caregiver's experience in the discharge plan

c, d, e

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY the nurse is collecting case reports that can be analyzed using the failure mode effective analysis (FMEA) tool. which case files would the nurse collect? a. a coma due to severe hemolytic transfusion reaction b. depression committed suicide by falling off the terrace of the hospital c. retained foreign body left during surgery that was removed immediately d. wheelchair-bound client rescued from falling in the corridor of the hospital e. urinary tract infection after 4 days of continuous catheterization

c, d, e

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which scenario would the nurse consider an output component of the nursing process? a. while assessing a client, the nurse finds a history of mental illness b. while assessing a client who is obese, the nurse finds a history of asthma c. the nurse notices the clients wounds healed after performing regular wound debridement d. when changing the surgical site dressing, the nurse notices the client developed an infection e. the nurse finds the client's blood pressure increased, even with timely medication administration

c, d, e

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which of the following clients would we consider as being fully immobile? a. client with a broken bone b. client with a broken arm c. client sedated and paralyzed on a ventilator d. client that utilizes a walker e. client currently in full restraints

c, e

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY the nurse is preparing to insert an intravenous (IV) catheter in a thin, emaciated client who is scheduled to begin intravenous fluid therapy. which interventions would the nurses follow to provide high-quality care? a. insert an 18-gauge IV catheter b. change the IV line every 7 days c. flush the IV line with normal saline d. insert the IV catheter in the client's femur e. stop the insertion procedure when there is a break in the technique

c, e

after instructing an older client's adult child about age-related immune system changes and associated care measures, which statement indicates a need for further instruction? a. "my parent has a private room at home" b. "my parent has received the pneumococcal vaccination recently" c. "my parent comes in for checkups only when experiencing a fever" d. "my parent has been given a second dose of the pertussis vaccination."

c. "my parent comes in for checkups only when experiencing a fever"

which response would the nurse provide during an education session at the local community center to question asking why influenza vaccines are needed annually? a. "the influenza virus has a high level of infectivity, thus requiring an annual booster to keep rates of influenza low" b. "because influenza is seasonal and has never been eradicated, the need for a vaccine is also seasonal annually" c. "the nature of the virus changes every year; the vaccine is developed based on the most prevalent type and variant being seen" d. " there are several types of influenza viruses with differing levels of virulence, making it difficult to develop a vaccine that will be effective against all types of influenza"

c. "the nature of the virus changes every year; the vaccine is developed based on the most prevalent type and variant being seen"

which is the correct response to a parent whose child is undergoing chemotherapy and is not up to date on required immunizations for school? a.' by this time your child has developed sufficient antibodies to provide immunity' b. 'maintaining current immunizations is critical. make sure the series is completed' c. 'this isn't the best time to finish the immunizations, because your child's immune system is suppressed' d.' its important to complete the immunizations because your child needs to be protected from childhood diseases that could be fatal'

c. 'this isn't the best time to finish the immunizations, because your child's immune system is suppressed'

which action would the nurse take after receiving a urine culture and sensitivity report that reveals a client has vancomycin-resistant enterococcus (VRE) and after notifying the primary health care provider? a. insert a foley catheter b. initiate droplet precautions c. move the client to a private room d. use a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirator

c. move the client to a private room

which explanation would the nurse provide to a client with gastric ulcer disease who asks the nurse why the health care provider has prescribed metronidazole? a. to augment the immune response b. to potentiate the effect of antacids c. to treat helicobacter pylori infection d. to reduce hydrochloric acid secretion

c. to treat helicobacter pylori infection

a client who has rheumatoid arthritis participates in an individualized exercise program daily. which statement from client indicates to the nurse that the client understands the purpose of the program? a. "i know the exercises are important, so I do them as many times as I can" b. "i do my exercises when i go to physical therapy in the morning and afternoon" c. "because i'm stiff in the morning, i do most of my exercises then, so i'm done for the day" d. "i do one set of exercises slowly after breakfast, then i space the rest of them throughout the day"

d. "i do one set of exercises slowly after breakfast, then i space the rest of them throughout the day"

after teaching a male client about measures to maintain sexual health and prevent transmission of sexually transmitted infections (STIs), which client statement indicates effective learning? a. "i will use condoms when having sex with an infected person" b. "i will perform a self-examination of my genitals every month before bathing" c. "i will refrain from getting the human papilloma virus vaccine (HPV) before the age of 27 years" d. "i will consult with my primary health care provider when there is a rash or ulcer on my genitalia"

d. "i will consult with my primary health care provider when there is a rash or ulcer on my genitalia"

which response would the nurse give to a client taking ibuprofen for rheumatoid arthritis who asks the nurse if acetaminophen can be substituted? a."yes, both are antipyretics and have the same effect" b. "acetaminophen irritates the stomach more than ibuprofen does" c. "acetaminophen is the preferred treatment for rheumatoid arthritis" d. "ibuprofen has anti-inflammatory properties, and acetaminophen does not"

d. "ibuprofen has anti-inflammatory properties, and acetaminophen does not"

how would the nurse reply when a client prescribed a tetracycline class medication asks why milk and antacids should be avoided before and after dosing? a. "taking these together can lead to kidney impairment" b. "the pairing of these substances leads to tooth staining" c. "severe diarrhea can occur when taking these substances together" d. "this can lead to decreased absorption of the medication you need"

d. "this can lead to decreased absorption of the medication you need"

after teaching a client about the use of calcitonin (nasal route) as treatment for osteoporosis, which client statement indicates effective learning? a. ' i should expect some nausea when taking this medication' b. ' i should stop the medication when the symptoms subside' c. ' i should not take calcium supplements when taking calcitonin' d. ' i should not spray the medication into the same nostril on 2 consecutive days'

d. ' i should not spray the medication into the same nostril on 2 consecutive days'

a new mother asks the nurse administering erythromycin ophthalmic ointment to her newborn why her baby must be subjected to this procedure. which is the best response by the nurse? a. 'it will keep your baby from going blind' b. 'this ointment will protect your baby from bright lights' c. 'there is a law that newborns must be given this medicine' d. 'this antibiotic helps keep babies from contracting eye infections'

d. 'this antibiotic helps keep babies from contracting eye infections'

an adolescent is taken to the emergency department of the local hospital after stepping on a nail. the nurse asks if the client has had a tetanus immunization. the adolescent responds that all immunizations are up to date. a few days later, the client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of tetanus. which statement described the nurses responsibility in this situation? a. the nurses judgement was adequate, and the client was treated accordingly b. the possibility of tetanus was not for-seen because the client was immunized c. nurses would routinely administer immunization against tetanus after such an injury d. assessment by the nurse was incomplete and, as a result, the treatment was insufficient

d. assessment by the nurse was incomplete and, as a result, the treatment was insufficient

Which clients plan of care needs revision? client a- condition: shin splints; treatment: use of proper shoes and gradual increase in the activity client b- condition: rotator cuff tear; treatment: rest and gradually add strengthening exercises client c- condition: ligament injury; treatment: protection of affected extremity by use of brace client d- condition: anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tears; treatment: apply cool ice compresses and perform balance exercises a. client a b. client b c. client c d. client d

d. client d

after completing physical assessments and review of laboratory data, which client would the nurse identify as having findings consistent with rheumatoid arthritis? client a- serological study: uric acid; results: 8.5 mg/dL client b- serological study: c-reactive protien (CRP); results: 800 mcg/dL client c- serological study: anti-deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) antibody; results: 90 IU/mL client d- serological study: erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR); results: 65 mm/hour a. client a b. client b c. client c d. client d

d. client d

which medication would cause the nurse to monitor the serum creatine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels, when administered to a client receiving therapy for extensive bun wounds? a. nitrofurantoin b. mafenide acetate c. silver sulfadiazine d. gentamicin sulfate

d. gentamicin sulfate

which meal is most appropriate for a client. with a large pressure injury? a. hamburger with french fries b. turkey meatloaf with brown rice c. pasta and tomato sauce with a side salad d. grilled chicken, steamed spinach, and a side of orange slices

d. grilled chicken, steamed spinach, and a side of orange slices

which recommendation would the nurse make to the family of a child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis who has difficulty getting ready for school in the morning due to joint pain and stiffness? a. administer acetaminophen before bedtime b. ice the joints that are painful in the evening c. encourage a program of active exercise after awakening d. provide warm, moist heat to the affected joints before arising

d. provide warm, moist heat to the affected joints before arising

which instruction would the nurse provide a client prescribed oral extended-released ciproflaxin therapy for a urinary tract infection? a. chew the medication along with food b. take a walk in morning sunlight c. stop the drug after symptoms subside d. refrain from taking the tablet immediately after an antacid

d. refrain from taking the tablet immediately after an antacid

what are the contraindications of imipenem?

hypersensitivity

what are the contraindications of tetracycline?

hypersensitivity

what are the contraindications of vancomycin?

hypersensitivity

what are the contraindications of erythromycin?

hypersensitivity, concurrent use of dihydroergotamine, ergotamine, lovastatin, pimozide, or simvastin, long QT syndrome, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, heart rate <50 bpm

what are the contraindications of ciprofloxacin?

hypersensitivity, history of myashenia gravis, concurrent use with tizanidine

what are the life-threatening adverse reactions of fluconazole?

torsades de pointes, stevens-johnson syndrome, hepatotoxicity

what are the indications of vancomycin?

treatment of potentially life-threatening infections ; particularly useful in staphylococcal infections including: endocarditis Meningitis Osteomyelitis Pneumonia Septicemia soft-tissue infections in individuals allergic to penicillin

what are the indications for metronidazole?

treatment of the following anaerobic infections: intra-abdominal infections gynecologic infections skin and skin structure infections lower respiratory tract infections bone and joint infections CNS infections septicemia endocarditis

what are the indications of doxycycline?

treatment of various infections caused by unusual organisms including: mycoplasma chlamydia rickettsia borellia burgdoferi

what are the indications of tetracycline?

treatment of various infections due to unusual organisms: mycoplasma chlaymidia rickettsia borrelia burgorferi

what are the indications of cefepime?

treatments of the following infections caused by susceptible organisms: uncomplicated skin and skin structure infections bone and joint infections uncomplicated and complicated urinary tract infections respiratory tract infections complicated intra-abdominal infections septicemia

what are the contraindications for cefotaxime?

hypersensitivity to cephalosporins and penicillins

what are the contraindications for cephalexin?

hypersensitivity to cephalosporins and penicillins

what are the contraindications of cefepime?

hypersensitivity to cephalosporins and penicillins

what are the contraindications of acyclovir?

Hypersensitivity to acyclovir or valacyclovir; hypersensitivity to milk protein concentrate

what are the common adverse reactions of metronidazole?

abdominal pain, anorexia, nausea, dizziness, headache, aseptic meningitis, encephalopathy

SELCT ALL THAT APPLY which condition triggers humoral immunity? a. tuberculosis b. atopic diseases c. bacterial infection d. anaphylactic shock e. contact dermatitis

b, c, d

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which client condition is an example of a cell-mediated immunity? a. tuberculosis (TB) b. graft rejection c. allergic rhinitis d. contact dermatitis e. anaphylactic shock

a, b, d

which surgery is used as a prophylactic measure and as a palliative treatment for clients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA)? a. osteotomy b. arthrodesis c. synovectomy d. debridement

c. synovectomy

what is the action of gentamicin?

inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria at level of 30S ribosome

what is the action of acyclovir?

interferes with viral DNA synthesis

what is the route of vancomycin?

intravenous (IV)

what are the contraindications for ceftaroline?

known serious hypersensitivity to cephalosporins

which glucocorticoid is given IV push or IV drip?

methylprednisolone

what are the common adverse reactions of erythromycin?

nausea, vomiting, phlebitis at iv site

what is the route of amoxicillin?

oral (PO)

what are the common adverse reactions to cefotaxime?

pain at im site, phlebitis at iv site

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which option is an example of actively acquired specific immunity? a. recovery from measles b. recovery from chickenpox c. maternal immunoglobulin in the neonate d. immunization with live or killed vaccines e. injection of human gamma immunoglobulin

a, b, d

what is the peak of gentamicin IV?

15-30 minutes

what is the duration of griseofulvin?

2 days

what is the duration of fluconazole?

24 hr

assessments for prednisone

Assess patient for signs of adrenal insufficiency (hypotension, weight loss, weakness, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, lethargy, confusion, restlessness) before and periodically during therapy. Monitor intake and output ratios and daily weights. Observe patient for peripheral edema, steady weight gain, rales/crackles, or dyspnea. Notify health care professional if these occur

what is the assessment for doxycycline?

Assess for infection (vital signs; appearance of wound, sputum, urine, and stool; WBC) at beginning of and throughout therapy.

what is the assessment for metronidazole?

Assess for rash periodically during therapy. May cause SJS. Discontinue therapy if severe or if accompanied with fever, general malaise, fatigue, muscle or joint aches, blisters, oral lesions, conjunctivitis, hepatitis, and/or eosinophilia.

assessment for fluconazole?

Assess patient for rash (mild to moderate rash usually occurs in the 2nd wk of therapy and resolves within 1-2 wk of continued therapy). If rash is severe (extensive erythematous or maculopapular rash with moist desquamation or angioedema), accompanied by systemic symptoms (serum sickness-like reaction, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis), or occurs during treatment for a superficial fungal infection, therapy must be discontinued immediately.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which assessment finding during the administration of intravenous penicillin would prompt the nurse to stop the infusion? a. hives b. itching c. nausea d. skin rash e. shortness of breath

a, b, d, e

what is the action of fluconazole?

Inhibits synthesis of fungal sterols, a necessary component of the cell membrane

what is the route of imipenem?

Intravenous (IV)

assessment for ciprofloxacin?

Observe for signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis (rash, pruritus, laryngeal edema, wheezing). Discontinue drug and notify health care professional immediately if these problems occur. Keep epinephrine, an antihistamine, and resuscitation equipment close by in case of an anaphylactic reaction. Monitor bowel function. Diarrhea, abdominal cramping, fever, and bloody stools should be reported to health care professional promptly as a sign of Clostridioides difficile-associated diarrhea (CDAD). May begin up to several wk following cessation of therapy.

what is the assessment of vancomycin?

Observe patient for signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis (rash, pruritus, laryngeal edema, wheezing). Discontinue drug and notify health care professional immediately if these problems occur. Keep epinephrine, an antihistamine, and resuscitation equipment close by in case of an anaphylactic reaction.

what is the assessment for penicillin v?

Observe patient for signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis (rash, pruritus, laryngeal edema, wheezing). Discontinue drug and notify physician or other health care professional immediately if these symptoms occur. Keep epinephrine, an antihistamine, and resuscitation equipment close by in case of an anaphylactic reaction. Monitor bowel function. Diarrhea, abdominal cramping, fever, and bloody stools should be reported to health care professional promptly as a sign of Clostridioides difficile-associated diarrhea (CDAD). May begin up to several wk following cessation of therapy.

what is the assessment of ceftaroline?

Observe patient for signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis (rash, pruritus, laryngeal edema, wheezing). Discontinue the drug and notify health care professional immediately if these symptoms occur. Keep epinephrine, an antihistamine, and resuscitation equipment close by in the event of an anaphylactic reaction. Monitor bowel function. Diarrhea, abdominal cramping, fever, and bloody stools should be reported to health care professional promptly as a sign of Clostridioides difficile-associated diarrhea (CDAD). May begin up to several mo following cessation of therapy.

what are the common adverse effects of doxycycline?

photosensitivity, diarrhea, nausea, vomiting

what are the contraindications for amoxicillin?

previous hypersensitivity to penicillins

what are the contraindications of penicillin v?

previous hypersensitivity to penicillins

what is the onset of cefotaxime IV?

rapid

what is the onset of cefoxitin IV?

rapid

what is the onset of ciprofloxacin PO?

rapid

what is the onset of erythromycin IV?

rapid

what is the onset of fluconazole?

rapid

contraindications for prednisone

active untreated infections

what is the therapeutic classification of trimethoprim?

anti-infectives

what is the therapeutic classification of amoxicillin?

anti-infectives antiulcer agents

what is the therapeutic classification for griseofulvin?

antifungals

Place in order the steps the nurse would follow when developing a protocol in the electronic health record for clients with indwelling urinary catheters to decrease the risk of UTI. 1. meets with the nursing staff 2. evaluates and determines data 3. selects an assessment tool 4. interviews the nursing staff 5. designs the assessment screens 6. selects a standardized language 7. adds a decision support rule

1, 3, 4, 5, 2, 6, 7

what is the duration of gentamicin IM?

8-24 hrs

what is the duration of gentamicin IV?

8-24 hrs

what is the assessment for cephalexin?

Observe patient for signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis (rash, pruritus, laryngeal edema, wheezing). Discontinue drug and notify physician or other health care professional immediately if these problems occur. Keep epinephrine, an antihistamine, and resuscitation equipment close by in case of an anaphylactic reaction. Monitor bowel function. Diarrhea, abdominal cramping, fever, and bloody stools should be reported to health care professional promptly as a sign of Clostridioides difficile-associated diarrhea (CDAD). May begin up to several wk following cessation of therapy.

what assessment for cefepime?

Observe patient for signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis (rash, pruritus, laryngeal edema, wheezing). Discontinue the drug and notify health care professional immediately if these symptoms occur. Keep epinephrine, an antihistamine, and resuscitation equipment close by in the event of an anaphylactic reaction. Monitor bowel function. Diarrhea, abdominal cramping, fever, and bloody stools should be reported to health care professional promptly as a sign of Clostridioides difficile-associated diarrhea (CDAD). May begin up to several wk following cessation of therapy.

what is the assessment for cefotaxime?

Observe patient for signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis (rash, pruritus, laryngeal edema, wheezing). Discontinue the drug and notify health care professional immediately if these symptoms occur. Keep epinephrine, an antihistamine, and resuscitation equipment close by in the event of an anaphylactic reaction. Monitor bowel function. Diarrhea, abdominal cramping, fever, and bloody stools should be reported to health care professional promptly as a sign of Clostridioides difficile-associated diarrhea (CDAD). May begin up to several wk following cessation of therapy.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which disease process places a client at increased risk for infection? a. leukemia b. lymphoma c. emphysema d. schizophrenia e. osteoarthritis

a, b, c

what is the action of cephalexin?

binds to bacterial cell wall membrane; causing cell death

peak of penicillin G IV

end of infusion

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which finding during a home health visit would prompt the nurse to provide a client with home safety instructions? a. area rugs on the floor b. clogged, dirty fireplace c. multiple electrical cords d. multiple prescribed medications e. wheeled walker with uneven legs

a, b, c, d, e

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which information would the nurse provide to a client diagnosed with chlamydia and prescribed doxycycline? a. report worsening symptoms b. refrain from sexual relations c. use barrier protection devices d. contact partners to be tested e. take the entire course of antibiotics

a, b, c, d, e

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which intervention would the nurse include in the plan of care for a client admitted with herpes zoster? a. acyclovir b. silvadene c. gabapentin d. wet compress e. contact isolation

a, b, c, d, e

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which action would the nurse instruct an older client to implement to ensure antibody-mediated immunity? a. obtain a shingles vaccination b. receive a tetanus booster injection c. obtain the pneumococcal vaccination d. receive annual testing for tuberculosis e. receive an annual influenza vaccination f. avoid obtaining the pertussis vaccination

a, b, c, e

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which medication increases the risk for upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding? a. aspirin b. ibuprofen c. ciprofloxacin d. acetaminophen e. methylperdnisolone

a, b, e

what is the duration of cefepime IM?

12 hr

what is the duration of cefepime IV?

12 hr

what is the duration of ceftaroline?

12 hr

what is the duration of ciprofloxacin IV?

12 hr

what is the duration of ciprofloxacin PO?

12 hr

what is the duration of doxycycline IV?

12 hr

what is the duration of doxycycline PO?

12 hr

what is the duration of trimethoprim?

12-24 hr

what is the peak of cefoxitin IM?

30 minutes

what is the duration of cefoxitin IV?

4-8 hours

what is the duration of acyclovir?

4-8 hrs

what is the duration of imipenem?

6-8 hr

what is the duration of metronidazole?

8 hr

what is the duration of amoxicillin?

8-12 hrs

the nurse is caring for a client with chronic inflammation of the bowel. for which most serious complication would the nurse monitor in this client? a. ileus b. pain c. perforation d. obstruction

c. perforation

which action will the nurse take when it is time to administer vancomycin to a client with a continuous intravenous heparin drip? a. stop the heparin, flush the line with normal saline, and administer the vancomycin b. administer the vancomycin into the heparin line using an IV piggyback set c. start a second IV line for the vancomycin and continue the heparin as prescribed d. hold the vancomycin and tell the health care provider that the medication is incompatible with heparin

c. start a second IV line for the vancomycin and continue the heparin as prescribed

which initial action would the nurse take when caring for a client receiving intravenous vancomycin who reports ringing in both ears? a. notify the primary health care provider b. consult an audiologist c. stop the infusion d. document the finding and continue to monitor the client

c. stop the infusion

which injury would the nurse suspect in a young adult client who reports that a knee occasionally gives way, sometimes locks, and "clicks" when walking? a. cracked patella b. ruptured achilles tendon c. torn cartilage d. stress fracture

c. torn cartilage

what is the action of ciprofloxacin?

inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis by inhibiting DNA gyrase enzyme

what is the onset of vancomycin?

rapid

peak of penicillin G IM

0.25-0.5 hour

what is the peak of cefotaxime IM?

0.5 hr

what is the peak of penicillin v?

0.5-1 hour

what is the peak of metronidazole?

1-3hr

while assessing a client, the nurse finds inflammation of the skin at the bases of the clients nails. which event or disorder would the nurse associate with the reason behind this condition? a. trauma b. trichinosis c. pulmonary disease d. iron-deficiency anemia

a. trauma

what are the indications for ceftaroline?

acute bacterial skin/skin structure infections community-acquired pneumonia

what is the therapeutic classification of gentamicin?

anti-infectives

what is the therapeutic classification of imipenem?

anti-infectives

what is the therapeutic classification of penicillin V?

anti-infectives

after completing a week of antibiotic therapy, an infant develops oral thrush. which medication is indicated for treatment of this condition? a. acyclovir b. vidarabine c. nystatin d. fluconazole

c. nystatin

which medications are included in the category sulfonamides?

trimethoprim sulfisoxazole topical silver sulfadiazine

what is the action of cefepime?

binds to the bacterial cell wall; causing cell death

what are the indications for prednisone?

used systemically and locally in a wide variety of chronic diseases including: inflammatory, allergic, hematologic, neoplastic, and autoimmune disorders

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which substance history of sever allergic reaction results in avoidance of the cephalosporins such as cefazolin, cefditoren, cefotetan, and cefriaxone? a. milk b. aspirin c. calcium d. penicillin e. strawberries

a, b, c, d

arrange the pathophysiological events of acne in the correct sequence. a. excessive sebum production b. alterations in follicular growth and differentiation c. colonization of propionibacterium acnes d. immune response and inflammation

a, b, c, d

what are the indications of fluconazole?

Fungal infections caused by susceptible organisms, including: Oropharyngeal or esophageal candidiasis, Serious systemic candidal infections, Urinary tract infections, Peritonitis, Cryptococcal meningitis

route(s) of penicillin G

Intramuscular (IM) and intravenous (IV)

what is the route for cefoxitin?

Intramuscular (IM) and intravenous (IV)

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which assessment would the nurse perform before administering a dose of vancomycin to a client? a. creatinine b. trough level c. hearing ability d. intravenous site e. blood urea nitrogen

a, b, c, d, e

what are the assessments of erythromycin?

Monitor bowel function. Diarrhea, abdominal cramping, fever, and bloody stools should be reported to health care professional promptly as a sign of Clostridioides difficile-associated diarrhea (CDAD). May begin up to several wk following cessation of therapy.

what is the assessment for cefoxitin?

Observe patient for signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis (rash, pruritus, laryngeal edema, wheezing). Discontinue the drug and notify health care professional immediately if these symptoms occur. Keep epinephrine, an antihistamine, and resuscitation equipment close by in the event of an anaphylactic reaction. Monitor bowel function. Diarrhea, abdominal cramping, fever, and bloody stools should be reported to health care professional promptly as a sign of Clostridioides difficile-associated diarrhea (CDAD). May begin up to several wk following cessation of therapy.

what is the therapeutic classification of doxycycline?

anti-infectives

what is the the therapeutic classification of prednisone?

anti-inflammatories; immune modifiers

what is the onset of amphotericin b?

rapid

assessment for penicillin G

Assess for infection (vital signs; appearance of wound, sputum, urine, and stool; WBC) at beginning of and during therapy. Observe patient for signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis (rash, pruritus, laryngeal edema, wheezing). Discontinue drug and notify physician or other health care professional immediately if these symptoms occur. Keep epinephrine, an antihistamine, and resuscitation equipment close by in case of an anaphylactic reaction.

which client would the nurse suspect as having a type IV hypersensitive reaction when providing care for four clients with hypersensitivity reactions? Client A- antibody involved: lgE skin test results: wheal and flare Client B- antibody involved: lgM skin test result: none Client C- antibody involved: lgG skin test result: erythema and edema after four hours Client D- antibody involved: none skin test result: erythema and edema after 24 hours

Client D- antibody involved: none skin test result: erythema and edema after 24 hours

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY the nurse notes an older adult's admission orders include gentamicin for the treatment of osteomyelitis. which laboratory report would the nurse review before beginning the medication? a. blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine b. electrolytes and urinalysis c. erythrocyte count d. blood platelet count e. serum thyroxin levels

a, b

what are the contraindications of gentamicin?

Hypersensitivity to gentamicin or other aminoglycosides; Most parenteral products contain bisulfites and should be avoided in patients with known intolerance

which type of immunity would a 4-year-old child develop during the course of an infection with varicella? a. active natural immunity b. active artificial immunity c. passive natural immunity d. passive artificial immunity

a. active natural immunity

what are the routes of gentamicin?

Intravenous (IV) and intramuscular (IM)

what is the assessment for imipenem?

Observe patient for signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis (rash, pruritus, laryngeal edema, wheezing). Discontinue the drug and notify the physician immediately if these occur. Have epinephrine, an antihistamine, and resuscitative equipment close by in the event of an anaphylactic reaction.

which diagnostic test would be used for the direct visualization of ligaments, menisci, and articular surfaces of joints? a. arthroscopy b. muscle biopsy c. ultrasonography d. electromygraphy

a. arthroscopy

which finding in older adult clients is associated with aging? a. decrease in height b. decreased neck rigidity c. increased fine-motor dexterity d. increased range of motion (ROM)

a. decrease in height

action of penicillin G

bind to bacterial cell wall, resulting in cell death

which medications are included in the category fluroquinolones?

ciproflaxin ofloxacin moxifloxacin levofloxacin gemifloxacin metronisazole

what are the life-threatening adverse reactions to cefoxitin?

clostridioides difficle-associated diarrhea, seizures, anaphylaxis

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which treatment strategy would benefit a client diagnosed with chlamydia? a. penicillin G b. ceftriaxone c. clotrimazole d. doxycycline e. azithromycin

d, e

what are the common adverse effects of imipenem?

rash, diarrhea, nausea, vomiting

what is the action of tetracycline?

inhibits bacterial protien synthesis at the level of the 30S bacterial ribosome

what is the route for ceftaroline?

intravenous (IV)

life-threatening adverse reactions of penicillin G

seizures, anaphylaxis, serum sickness

what are the life-threatening adverse reactions to penicillin v?

seizures, hypersensitivity reactions

what are life-threatening adverse reactions of acyclovir?

stevens-johnson syndrome, renal failure, thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, seizures

what are the life-threatening adverse reactions of metronidazole?

stevens-johnson syndrome, seizures

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which infection would the nurse monitor for in the toddler based on structural characteristics at this age? a. bronchiolitis b. ear infection c. acute sinusitis d. laryngotracheobronchitis e. inflammation of the tonsils

b, c, d, e

which mechanism of action applies to penicillin? a. prevents reproduction of the pathogen b. inhibits cell wall synthesis of the pathogen c. inhibits nucleic acid synthesis of the pathogen d. injures the cytoplasmic membrane of the pathogen

b. inhibits cell wall synthesis of the pathogen

which medication is used for candidiasis?

nystatin

life-threatening adverse reactions of prednisone

peptic ulceration, thromboembolism

what are the life-threatening adverse reactions of imipenem?

clostridioides difflice-associated diarrhea, seizures, hypersensitivity reactions

what is the onset of cephalexin?

rapid

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which physiological change of the musculoskeletal system would the nurse associate with aging? a. slowed movement b. cartilage degeneration c. increased bone density d. increased range of motion e. increased bone prominence

a, b, e

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which tasks should the nurse perform to comply with public health laws? a. report cases of communicable diseases b. report incidents of domestic violence c. provide emergency assistance at an accident scene d. notify the primary health care provider of any client-related problems e. ensure that clients in a community have received necessary immunizations

a, b, e

which condition is consistent with a client's report of posterior leg pain while walking that worsens upon rest? a. crepitus b. ankylosis c. contracture d. tendonitis

d. tendonitis

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY the nurse is interviewing a client who was diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). which clinical findings to this disease would the nurse expect the client to exhibit? a. butterfly facial rash b. firm skin fixed to tissue c. inflammation of the joints d. muscle mass degeneration e. Inflammation of small arteries

a, c

what are the contraindications of griseofulvin?

hypersensitivity, severe liver disease or porphyria

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which function of leukocytes is involved in the inflammation process? a. destruction of bacteria and cellular debris b. selective attack and destruction of non-self cells c. release of vasoactive amines during allergic reactions d. secretion of immunoglobulins in response to a specific antigen e. enhancement of immune activity through secretion of various factors, cytokines, and lymphokines

a, c

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which hormones are involved in building and maintaining healthy bone tissue? a. insulin b. thyroxine c. glucocorticoids d. growth hormone e. parathyroid hormone

a, c, d

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which assessment findings would the nurse identify in a client with clinical manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis? a. obesity and asymmetric joint disease b. development of antinuclear antibodies c. inflammatory disease pattern d. bilateral involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints e. disease process involving the distal interphalangeal joints f. disease in the weight-bearing joints and hands

b, c, d

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY according to maslow's hierachy, which example belongs to the third level of needs? a. a client is depressed because the client's significant other passed away b. a client is constipated due to excess loss of fluids from the body c. a client wants to reconnect with old friends after being diagnosed with cancer d. a client has to live in a rat-infested apartment due to a lack of financial resources e. a client never goes to family gatherings because the family members do no accept the client

a, c, e

what is the onset of imipenem?

rapid

what is the onset of metronidazole?

rapid

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a client with a history of cardiac dysrhythmias is admitted to the hospital due to a fluid volume deficit caused by a pulmonary infection. The registered nurse assesses the recorded vital signs. which vital sign assessment requires reassessment? a. respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute b. blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg c. oxygen saturation of 95% d. temporal temperature of 99.3 e. radial pulse rate of 72 and irregular

a, b, c

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. applying the topical anesthetic b. injecting the most painful vaccine last c. holding the child upright during the vaccination d. administering intramuscular injections rapidly without prior aspiration e. administering acetaminophen or ibuprofen after vaccination

a, b, c, d

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which action would the nurse take when a client receiving an infusion of penicillin reports having an anaphylactic reaction to penicillin in the past? a. notifying rapid response b. measuring oxygen level c. administering epinephrine d. inserting an indwelling catheter e. assessing the respiratory pattern

a, b, c, d, e

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which complication would the nurse monitor for in a client on strict bed rest for 3 days? a. atelectasis b. hypotension c. constipation d. pressure injuries e. urinary tract infection

a, b, c, d, e

what are the most common adverse reactions of amoxicillin?

rash, diarrhea

for which client would the nurse need to contact the health care provider based upon the client's condition and treatment after reviewing the medication reconciliation documents of four clients? client a- condition: enterococcus faecalis associated urinary tract infection; treatment: strepomycin client b- condition: staphylococcus epidermidis associated osetomyelitis; treatment: vancomycin client c- condition: streptococcus pneumoniae associated pneumococcal pneumonia; treatment: cefotaxime client d- conditon: klebsiella pneumoniae associated pneumonia; treatment: meropenem a. client a b. client b c. client c d. client d

a. client a

what are the broad spectrum penicillins?

amoxicillin

the nurse should seek clarification by the practitioner for which order? a. discharge in AM b. blood glucose monitoring ac and bedtime c. erythromycin 250 mg TIW d. dalteparin 5000 international units sub-q BID

c. erythromycin 250 mg TIW

the nurse is assessing a client with arthritis. which statement made by the client indicates a precipitating factor? a. " the pain is usually present in my fingers and knees" b. " i observed swelling and redness near the pain area" c. " i feel the pain in each and every joint of my hands and legs" d. " i run for 30 minutes every day; this exercise increases my pain"

d. " i run for 30 minutes every day; this exercise increases my pain"

which statement by the client indicates that the nurse's teaching was effective regarding intravenous gentamicin therapy? a. " i should drink lost of water if i am retaining urine" b. " i should use eyeglasses if i develop vision problems" c. " i should stop the medication when the symptoms have subsided" d. " i should report any hearing loss to the primary health care provider"

d. " i should report any hearing loss to the primary health care provider"

the nurse creates a plan of care for a client with a risk of infection. which is the desirable expected outcome for the client? a. all nursing functions will be completed by discharge b. all invasive intravenous lines will remain patent c. the client will remain awake, alert, and oriented at all times d. the client will be free of signs and symptoms of infection by discharge

d. the client will be free of signs and symptoms of infection by discharge

the nurse provides moist heat for a client with cartilage degeneration. which rational explains the use of this nursing intervention? a. to slow bone loss b. to prevent skin breakdown c. to increase muscle strength d. to increase blood flow to the area

d. to increase blood flow to the area

what are the medications used for osteoporosis and osteoarthritis?

denosumab, estrogen, raloxifene, bisphosphonates, calcitonin-salmon, vitamin D, calcium salts

most common adverse reactions of penicillin G

diarrhea, epigastric distress, nausea, vomiting, rash, pain at IM site, phlebitis at IV site

what are the common adverse reactions to acyclovir?

diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, pain, phlebitis, dizziness, headache

what are the common adverse reactions of tetracycline?

diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, photosensitivity

what are the life-threatening adverse reactions of doxycycline?

drug rash with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms, erythema multiforme, exfoliative dermatitis, stevens-johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis, clostridioides difficle-associated diarrhea, hepatotoxicity, pancreatitis

what is the peak of amphotericin b?

end of infusion

what is the peak of cefepime IV?

end of infusion

what is the peak of cefotaxime IV?

end of infusion

what is the peak of imipenem?

end of infusion

what is the fourth generation cephalosporin?

Cefepime

what is the third generation cephalosporin?

Cefotaxime

what is the second generation cephalosporin?

Cefoxitin

what is the onset of gentamicin IV?

rapid

what are the most common adverse reactions to penicillin v?

rash, diarrhea, epigastric distress, nausea, vomiting

what are the most common adverse reactions to cefoxitin?

rashes, pain at im site, phlebitis at iv site

what is the duration of erythromycin IV?

6-12 hr

what is the duration of erythromycin PO?

6-12 hr

what is the duration of tetracycline?

6-12 hr

what is the route of cefepime?

Intramuscular (IM) and intravenous (IV)

what is the route of cefotaxime?

Intramuscular (IM) and intravenous (IV)

for which physiological condition would the nurse teach an older adult client about the use of isometric exercises? a. kyphosis b. muscle atrophy c. decreased bone density d. decreased range of motion (ROM)

b. muscle atrophy

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which of the following types of medications can be used to treat osteoporosis for both male and female clients? a. calcium supplements b. vitamin D c. biophosphonates d. anticholinergics e. estrogen f. calcium-salmon g. denosumab

a, b, c, g

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which activities would be encouraged of a child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis to prevent loss of joint function? a. riding a bicycle b. walking to school c. watching videos after school d. swimming in the community pool e. playing computer games after school

a, b, d

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY identify the clinical manifestation associated with the release of histamine during a type 1 rapid hypersensitivity reaction. a. pruritus b. erythema c. fibrotic changes d. nasal mucus secretion e. conjunctival mucus secretion f. hematuria

a, b, d, e

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which information will the nurse consider when planning care for a client with human immunodeficiency virus who has been diagnosed with class 3 tuberculosis? a. class 3 tuberculosis is clinically active disease, which is contagious b. tuberculosis is the leading cause of mortality in clients infected with HIV c. HIV-positive clients are more likely to have multidrug resistant tuberculosis d. individuals with HIV usually have high fevers with active tuberculosis infection e. persons with active tuberculosis are usually treated on an outpatient basis

a, b, e

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which information is appropriate for the nurse to include in the education for a group of nursing students regarding near-miss events? a. no actual harm is caused to the clients b. moderate-harm may be caused c. they are caused by variation in standard care d. they are caused by impaired immune functioning e. the cause may be analyzed by a failure modes effects analysis (FEMA)

a, c, e

SELECT ALL TO APPLY a primary health care provider schedules a bone scan for a client with osteoporosis. which nursing action is beneficial for the client? a. placing the client in the supine position b. verifying presence or absence of a shellfish allergy c. ensuring the client does not have. metal on their clothing d. instructing the client to empty their bladder before the scan e. informing the client that the post procedure headache resolves in 2 days

a, d

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY which hormone is responsible for altered serum calcium concentrations? a. calcitonin b. thyroxine c. glucocorticoids d. growth hormone e. parathyroid hormone

a, e

when assessing risk factors, which question would the nurse ask a client who has developed pneumonia? a. "are you diabetic?" b. "have you ever had pneumonia?" c. "what do you use for contraception?" d." do you have a history of intravenous drug use?"

a. "are you diabetic?"

the nurse is changing the dressing of a postoperative client. another client has fallen near the nursing station and is unconscious. which is the priority nursing action in this situation? a. attend to the client who lost consciousness b. delegate the dressing change to the nursing assistant c. delegate the care of the unconscious client to the nursing assistant d. complete the dressing, because the open wound may increase infection risk

a. attend to the client who lost consciousness

the nurse would include which instruction to the parents of a child being treated with oral ampicillin for otitis media? a. complete the entire course of antibiotic therapy b. herbal fever remedies are highly discouraged c. administer the medication with meals d. stop the antibiotic therapy when the child no longer has a fever

a. complete the entire course of antibiotic therapy

which class of medication would a nurse expect to be prescribed to prevent the development of cerebral edema after craniotomy to remove brain tumor? a. glucocorticoids b. anticholinergics c. anticonvulsants d. antihypertensives

a. glucocorticoids

what are the common adverse reactions of trimethoprim?

altered taste, epigastric distress, glossitis, vomiting, pruritus, rash

which medication is the drug of choice for systemic mycoses infections?

amphotericin b

what is the therapeutic classification of cefepime?

anit-infectives

what is the therapeutic classification of cephalexin?

anti-infective

what is the therapeutic classification of penicillin G?

anti-infective

what is the therapeutic classification for ceftaroline?

anti-infectives

what is the therapeutic classification for erythromycin?

anti-infectives

what is the therapeutic classification of cefotaxime?

anti-infectives

what is the therapeutic classification of ciprofloxacin?

anti-infectives

what is the therapeutic classification of tetracycline?

anti-infectives

what is the therapeutic classification of fluconazole?

antifungals

a client arrives at a health clinic reports " i am here to have my tuberculin skin test read." the nurse notes a 7-mm indurated area at the injection site. which nurses statement describes this result? a. "the result indicates that you have active tuberculosis" b. "the result indicates you are infected with the tuberculosis organism" c. "the result indicates there are no tuberculin antibodies in your system" d. "the result indicates you have a secondary infection related to the tuberculin organism"

b. "the result indicates you are infected with the tuberculosis organism"

which nursing intervention is the priority when a client receiving chemotherapy develops a temperature of 102.2 F when the temperature 6 hours ago was 99.2? a. assess the amount and color of urine; obtain a specimen for a urinalysis and culture b. administer the prescribed antipyretic and notify the primary health care provider of this change c. note the consistency of respiratory secretions and obtain a specimen for culture and sensitivity d. obtain the respirations, pulse, and blood pressure when rechecking the temperature in 1 hour

b. administer the prescribed antipyretic and notify the primary health care provider of this change

a postmenopausal woman has been administered raloxifene for osteoporosis. which parameter would the nurse assess to ensure the efficacy of the medication and continuation of use? a. body weight b. bone density c. calcium levels in urine d. esophageal functioning

b. bone density

which structure protects a client's internal organs, supports blood cell production, and stores minerals? a. joints b. bones c. muscles d. cartilages

b. bones

a client with a diagnosis of malabsorption syndrome exhibits a symptom of spastic muscle spasms. which electrolyte is responsible for this symptom? a. sodium b. calcium c. potassium d. phosphorous

b. calcium

to which of these four assigned clients with a mouth infection would the nurse anticipate administering nystatin as an oral suspension? client a- condition: trench mouth client b- condition: moniliasis client c- condition: cold sores client d- parotitis a. client a b. client b c. client c d. client d

b. client b

which client receiving antibiotic therapy would the nurse identify as being at risk for achilles tendon rupture? client a- medication: gentamicin client b- medication: cirprofloxacin client c- medication: cefazolin client d- medication: tobramycin a. client a b. client b c. client c d. client d

b. client b

which synovial joint movement is described as turning the sole away from the midline of the body? a. pronation b. eversion c. adduction d. supination

b. eversion

the nurse is preparing discharge instructions for a client who acquired a nosocomial clostridium difficile infection. which would the nurse include in the instructions? a. anticipate that nausea and vomiting will continue until the infection is no longer present b. the infection causes diarrhea accompanied by flatus and abdominal discomfort c. consume a diet that is high in fiber and low in fat d. other than routine hand washing, it is not necessary to perform special disinfection procedures

b. the infection causes diarrhea accompanied by flatus and abdominal discomfort

route(s) for prednisone

by mouth (PO)

a pregnant client with an infection tells the nurse that they have taken tetracycline for infections in the past and prefer to take it now. which response would the nurse give regarding the avoidance of tetracycline administration during pregnancy? a. " it affects breast-feeding adversely" b. "tetracycline causes fatal allergies" c. "it alters the development of fetal teeth buds" d. "it increases fetal tolerance to the medication"

c. "it alters the development of fetal teeth buds"

a 12-year-old child recently sustained several tick bites while camping and may have lyme disease. what is the most appropriate response when he asks what is lyme disease? a. 'i can see that you're concerned. tell me what you want to know' b.' the infection is caused by a spirochete. it can be cured with penicillin' c. ' the tick bites gave you an infection. there is medication that will treat it' d. 'you sound upset. don't worry. we have medicine that will make you better.'

c. ' the tick bites gave you an infection. there is medication that will treat it'

which nursing intervention would prevent septic shock in the hospitalized client? a. maintain the client in a normothermic state b. administer blood products to replace fluid losses c. use aseptic technique during all invasive procedures d. keep the critically ill client immobilized to reduce metabolic demands

c. use aseptic technique during all invasive procedures

a client with adrenal insufficiency reports feeling weak and dizzy, especially in the morning. which physiological response would the nurse suspect is the probable cause of these symptoms? a. a lack of potassium b. postural hypertension c. a hypoglycemic reaction d. increased extracellular fluid volume

c. a hypoglycemic reaction

which physiological change occurs in older adults and warrants the nurse teaching the client about safety tips to prevent falls? a. slowed movement b. cartilage degeneration c. decreased bone density d. decreased range of motion (ROM)

c. decreased bone density

to prevent thrombophlebitis in the immediate postoperative period, which action is important for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care? a. increase fluid intake b. restrict fluids c. encourage early mobility d. elevate the foot of the bed

c. encourage early mobility

which education would the nurse provide the parent of a 2-month-old infant about home care in the event of an immunization reaction? a. give aspirin for pain; if swelling at the injection site develops, call the health care provider b. apply heat to the injection site for the first day after the injection; apply ice if the arm is inflamed c. give acetaminophen for fever; call the health provider if the child exhibits marked drowsiness or seizures d. apply ice to the injection site if soreness develops; call the health care provider if the child comes down with a fever

c. give acetaminophen for fever; call the health provider if the child exhibits marked drowsiness or seizures

which factor in the client's history increases the risk for osteoporosis? a. estrogen therapy b. hypoparathyroidism c. prolonged immobility d. excessive calcium intake

c. prolonged immobility

what are the common adverse reactions of amphotericin b?

chest pain, hypotension, diarrhea, hyperbilirubinemia, increased liver enzymes, nausea, vomiting, nephrotoxicity, chills, fever

what are the life-threatening adverse reactions of amoxicillin?

clostridoles-difficle associated diarrhea, seizures, hypersensitivity reactions, serum sickness

which client statement provides evidence that the client understands medication teaching for high-dose penicillin? a. "i should take this medication with meals" b." this medicine may cause constipation" c. "i must avoid dairy products while taking this medication" d. "i must increase my intake of fluids while taking this medication"

d. "i must increase my intake of fluids while taking this medication"

the parent of a newborn asks the nurse why, except for hepatitis B vaccine, the immunization schedule does not start until the infant is 2 months old. which response would the nurse provide? a. " a newborn's spleen can't produce efficient antibodies" b. "infants younger than 2 months are rarely exposed to infectious disease" c. "the immunization will attack the infants immature immune system and cause the disease" d. "maternal antibodies interfere with the development of active antibodies by the infant when immunized"

d. "maternal antibodies interfere with the development of active antibodies by the infant when immunized"

a prescription for 6mg of intramuscular dexamethasone, twice a day for 2 days, is issued to a client who is 32 weeks pregnant and having regular labor contractions. the client asks why she needs this medicine. which reaction would the nurse give the client regarding the reason the medication was prescribed? a. " it will promote sleep" b." it may stop contractions" c. "the medication relaxes uterine muscles" d. "the medication accelerates fetal lung maturity"

d. "the medication accelerates fetal lung maturity"

which prescribed medication will the nurse probably prepare educational materials for when caring for a pregnant woman with a body temperature of 103 F and clinical manifestations of coccidioidomycosis? a. doxycycline b. ciproflaxin c. pyrazinamide d. amphotericin B

d. amphotericin B

what is the peak of vancomycin?

end of infusion

which medications are included in the category macrolides?

erythromycin clarithromycin azithromycin

arrange the steps involved in skin testing for an allergen causing a type 1 allergic reaction in their correct sequence. a. apply topical steroid on the skin b. observe for a wheal formation on the skin c. use a skin testing needle to scratch the surface of the skin d. place drops of sera containing the known allergen on skin e. clean the inner side of the forearm with soap and water f. discontinue corticosteroid medications

f, e, d, c, b, a

which medications are included in the category aminoglycosides?

gentamicin tobramycin neomycin

which medication is used to treat superficial mycoses?

griseofulvin

what is the onset of cefoxitin IM?

rapid

what is the action of doxycycline?

inhibits bacterial protein synthesis at the level of the 30S bacterial ribosome

what are the common adverse reactions of vancomycin?

nephrotoxicity, phelbitis

what is the onset of ciprofloxacin IV?

rapid

what are life-threatening adverse reactions of erythromycin?

torsades de pointes, ventricular arrhythmias, clostridioides difficle-associated diarrhea, hypersensitivity reactions

what are the indications of gentamicin?

treatment of serious gram-negative bacterial infections and infections caused by staphylococci when penicillins or other less toxic drugs are contraindicated

what are the indications for amoxicillin?

treatment of: skin and skin structure infections otitis media sinusitis respiratory infections Genitourinary infections