Pathopharm Test 4
SATA which factor would the nurse assess for a client reporting constipation? a. diet b. fluid intake c. use of laxatives d. date of last bowel movement e. use of opioid pain medications
a, b, c, d, e
SATA which finding indicates that a client is at an increased risk for colorectal cancer? a. presence of dark, tarry stools b. family history of polyposis c. 20-year history of ulcerative colitis d. unintentional 20-pound weight loss e. change in bowel pattern for 3 months
a, b, c, d, e
SATA which action would the nurse include in the plan of care for a client admitted with heart failure who has gained 20 pounds in 3 weeks? a. diuretics b. low-salt diet c. daily weight checks d. fluid restriction e. intake and output f. oxygen administration
a, b, c, d, e, f
SATA an infant with persistent diarrhea is subject to significant fluid and electrolyte alterations. which physiologic imbalance would the nurse most likely encounter? a. hypovolemia b. hyperkalemia c. hypercalcemia d. metabolic acidosis e. decreased hematocrit
a, d
SATA which condition is a cardiovascular manifestation of alkalosis? a. increased heart rate b. decreased heart rate c. Widened QRS complex d. increased digitalis toxicity e. prolonged PR interval
a, d
SATA which response would a nurse monitor for when a client is receiving furosemide to relieve edema? a. weight loss b. negative nitrogen balance c. increased urine specific gravity d. excessive loss of potassium ions e. pronounced retention of sodium ions
a, d
why would the nurse advise the client who takes furosemide and digoxin for heart failure to drink a glass of orange juice every day? a. Maintaining potassium levels b. preventing increased sodium levels c. limiting the medications' synergistic effects d. correcting the associated dehydration
a. Maintaining potassium levels
SATA which statement made by the client identifies a regulatory function of the kidney? a. "eryhtropoiesis" b. " acid-base balance" c. "vitamin D activation" d. "blood pressure control" e. "fluid and electrolyte balance"
b, e
which intravenous fluid is a hypertonic solution? a. ringer solution b. 5% dextrose in water c. lactated ringer solution d. 5% dextrose in normal saline
d. 5% dextrose in normal saline
the assessment of a newly admitted client reveals malnourishment, nausea, distention, and a firm abdomen with ascites. the client has tachycardia and is hypotensive. which physiological change occurred that resulted in the client's development of ascites? a. an increase in vitamins to maintain cell coenzyme functions b. an increase in iron to maintain adequate hemoglobin synthesis c. a decrease in sodium to maintain its concentration in tissue fluid d. a decrease in plasma protein to maintain adequate capillary-tissue circulation
a decrease in plasma protein to maintain adequate capillary-tissue circulation
SATA which nursing assessment would be preformed by the nurse administering intravenous infusion of potassium chloride 40 mEq in 100 mL of 5% dextrose and water be infused over 2 hours? a. urinary output b. deep tendon reflexes c. last bowel movement d. arterial blood gas results e. last serum potassium level f. patency of the intravenous access
a, e, f
SATA which statement made by the nurse about neuromuscular manifestations of alkalosis with hypocalcemia is correct? a. "the client would show signs of twitching" b. " the client would show signs of hyporeflexia" c. " the client would show signs of paresthesias" d. " the client would show signs of muscle cramping" e. " the client would show signs of skeletal muscle weakness"
a, d, e
SATA which factor would the nurse assess for a client reporting constipation? a. diet b. fluid intake c. use of laxatives d. date of last bowel movement e. use of opioid pain medications
a, b, c, d, e
which type of laxative causes stool to absorb water and swell?
bulk-forming
when assessing a client during the postoperative period of receiving a kidney transplant, the clients creatinine level is 3.1 mg/dL (260 mmol/L). which action would the nurse take first in response to this laboratory report? a. notify the primary health care provider b. obtain current blood test results c. assess for decreased urine output d. check the intravenous infusion
c. assess for decreased urine output
which adverse medication effect will a nurse monitor for in a client with cirrhosis of the liver who develops ascites and is prescribed spironolactone? a. bruising b. tachycardia c. hyperkalemia d. hypoglycemia
c. hyperkalemia
which nursing action is a priority before administering prescribed furosemide? a. weigh the client b. assess skin turgor c. review the potassium level results d. check the 24-hour intake and output
c. review the potassium level results
which factor may contribute to a client developing urinary calculi? a. increased fluid intake b. urine specific gravity of 1.017 c. jogging 3 miles (4.8 km) a day d. history of hyperparathyroidism
d. history of hyperparathyroidism
what part of the kidney function has a significant change with aging?
decreasing glomerular filtration rate
A client on a cruise is prescribed scopolamine. what is the most common adverse effect?
dry mouth
which type of incontinence is involuntary leakage with urgency and exertion efforts sneezing and coughing? a. stress b. urge c. overactive d. transient e. functional f. mixed
f. mixed
Abdominal bloating and infrequent small hard stools after taking psyllium for 2 weeks. What is a priority action when taking psyllium?
hydration; they aren't drinking enough water
SATA which data collection assessment would be preformed to evaluate the effectiveness of furosemide administered to a client with congestive heart failure? a. daily weight b. intake and output c. monitor for edema d. daily pulse oximetry e. auscultate breath sounds
a, b, c, d, e
a nurse is teaching a client about the potential for laxative abuse. what statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. laxative abuse causes fecal impaction b. can cause chronic constipation c. changes acid levels in stomach d. slows down or completely stops intestine enzymes
b. can cause chronic constipation
which clinical finding would the nurse anticipate when admitting a client with an extracellular fluid volume excess? a. rapid, thready pulse b. distended jugular veins c. elevated hematocrit d. increased serum sodium level
b. distended jugular veins
a client has a fractured mandible that is immobilized with wires. for which life-threatening postoperative problem would the nurse monitor the client? a. infection b. vomiting c. osteomyelitis d. bronchospasm
b. vomiting
which clinical finding indicates that a client taking digoxin may have developed digoxin toxicity? a. constipation b. decreased urination c. cardiac dysrhythmias d. metallic taste in the mouth
c. cardiac dysrhythmias
the nurse observes that a client's urine has a sweet fruity odor. which information is important to evaluate when performing a further client assessment? a. vital signs b. fluid balance c. serum glucose level d. dietary calorie count
c. serum glucose level
the nurse determined a clients arterial blood gases reflected a compensated respiratory acidosis. the pH was 7.34; which additional laboratory value did the nurse consider? a. the partial pressure of oxygen value is 80 mm Hg b. the partial pressure of carbon dioxide value is 60 mm Hg c. the bicarbonate value is 50 mEq/L d. serum potassium value is 4 mEq/L
c. the bicarbonate value is 50 mEq/L
which information would the nurse include when teaching about why women are more susceptible to UTIs than men? a. inadequate fluid intake b. poor hygienic practices c. the length of the urethra d. the disruption of mucous membranes
c. the length of the urethra
which symptom in a client receiving hydrochlorothiazide would cause a nurse to notify the health care provider? a. insomnia b. nasal congestion c. increased thirst d. generalized weakness
d. generalized weakness
which action is responsible for the therapeutic effect of docusate sodium? a. lubricates the feces b. creates an osmotic effect c. stimulates motor activity d. softens the feces
d. softens the feces
which mechanism would a nurse recall when caring for a client prescribed bisacodyl for constipation? a. producing bulk b. softening feces c. lubricating feces d. stimulating peristalsis
d. stimulating peristalsis
which type of incontinence is leakage that occurs temporarily because of a specific condition or situation that will pass? a. stress b. urge c. overactive d. transient e. functional f. mixed
d. transient
which type of incontinence is urination due to a physical disability, external obstacles, or problems in communicating to ask to use a toilet? a. stress b. urge c. overactive d. transient e. functional f. mixed
e. functional
which client would the nurse see first among this group of clients? a. a toddler with diarrhea b. an adult who is nauseated c. an adult who has vomiting because of food poisoning d. an older adult whose last bowel movement was 3 days ago
a. a toddler with diarrhea
An increase in which blood component is responsible for the acidosis related to untreated diabetes mellitus? a. ketones b. glucose c. lactic acid d. glutamic acid
a. ketones
which finding for a client with pulmonary edema who received furosemide is the best indicator that the treatment has been effective? a. urine output over 1 hour is 200 mL b. oxygen saturation per pulse oximetry is 99% c. cardiac monitor shows sinus rhythm, rate 98 beats/minute d. no jugular vein distention is seen with head elevated to 90 degrees
b. oxygen saturation per pulse oximetry is 99%
how can the nurse prevent vomiting in a client who reports feeling nauseated after cataract surgery? a. administer the prescribed antiemetic medication b. provide some dry crackers for the client to eat c. explain that this is expected after surgery d. teach how to breathe deeply until the nausea subsides
a. administer the prescribed antiemetic medication
SATA which prescribed medication would the nurse anticipate initiating for a client with CDAD? a. penicillin b. fidaxomicin c. ciprofloxacin d. metronidazole e. vancomycin
b, d, e
SATA What is an example of a situation where a client should not take laxatives? a. constipation b. pregnancy c. recent abdominal surgery d. absent bowel sounds
c, d
SATA a client is admitted with severe diarrhea that resulted in hypokalemia. the nurse would monitor for which clinical manifestations of the electrolyte deficiency? a. diplopia b. skin rash c. leg cramps d. tachycardia e. muscle weakness
c, e
which clinical manifestation indicates a need for the nurse to contact the health care provider to increase the intravenous fluid infusion rate for an older client with an infection? a. pruritus b. erythema c. acute confusion d. general malaise
c. acute confusion
a child with type 1 diabetes is admitted to the hospital with deep, rapid respirations; flushed, dry cheeks; abdominal pain with nausea; and increased thirst. which laboratory findings are the nurse most likely to observe? a. pH 7.25; glucose 60 mg/dL b. pH 7.50; glucose 60 mg/dL c. pH 7.25; glucose 460 mg/dL d. pH 7.50; glucose 460 mg/dL
c. pH 7.25; glucose 460 mg/dL
which process is the origin of metabolic acidosis caused by aspirin toxicity? a. deep, rapid breathing b. higher pH of gastric contents c. rapid absorption of salicylate d. increased renal excretion of bicarbonate
c. rapid absorption of salicylate
the nurse is teaching a female client that is of child bearing age, and trying to get pregnant about spironolactone. what statement indicates an understanding? a. "i need to increase my foods that have potassium" b. " i need to use salt substitutes to lower my sodium" c. " im going to take this medication at bedtime" d. " i need to call my doctor if i have menstrual irregularities"
d. " i need to call my doctor if i have menstrual irregularities"
SATA the nurse provides education related to manifestations of hyperglycemia to a client with type 1 diabetes. which signs and symptoms, identified by the client, indicate that the teaching was effective? a. thirst b. headache c. nervousness d. fruity breath odor e. excessive urination
a, d, e
why is blood glucose self-monitoring preferred over urine glucose testing? a. blood glucose monitoring is more accurate b. blood glucose monitoring is easier to perform c. blood glucose monitoring is done by the client d. blood glucose monitoring is not influenced by medications
a. blood glucose monitoring is more accurate
SATA which statement made by the nurse is accurate about the manifestation of alkalosis in the central nervous system?" a. " a client's chvostek sign would be negative" b. " a clients trousseau sign would be positive" c. " a client would be suffering from paresthesias" d. " a client would show signs of anxiety and irritability" e. " a clients central nervous system should have decreased activity"
b, c, d
SATA which nursing intervention would help an older adult experiencing urinary incontinence? a. provide nutritional support b. provide voiding opportunities c. avoid indwelling catheterization d. provide beverages and snacks frequently e. promote measures to prevent skin breakdown
b, c, e
an older client is admitted to the hospital for rehydration therapy after 3 days of diarrhea. in addition to sodium, which electrolyte would the nurse be most concerned about? a. calcium b. chlorides c. potassium d. phosphates
c. potassium
which preventative would the nurse anticipate will be prescribed daily to avoid straining due to constipation for a client who has had a recent brain attack? a. stimulant laxatives such as bisacodyl b. tap-water enemas c. stool softener d. saline laxatives such as magnesium citrate
c. stool softener
SATA which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect when assessing a client with hypercalcemia? a. Muscle tremors b. abdominal cramps c. increased peristalsis d. cardiac dysrhythmias e. hypoactive bowel sounds
d, e
in which category of fluids would the nurse classify an intravenous solution of 0.45% sodium chloride? a. isotonic b. isometric c. hypotonic d. hypertonic
c. hypotonic
when evaluating fluid loss for a client with burns, which relationship between a client's burned body surface area and fluid loss would the nurse consider? a. equal b. unrelated c. inversely related d. directly proportional
d. directly proportional
what significant change with kidney change in aging?
decreased glomerular filtration rate
give an example of a client who should not take an antidiarrheal.
if they do not have bowel sounds individuals who have just had acute abdominal surgery
A client has traveler's diarrhea, and they ask the nurse about using loperamide to stop the symptoms. the nurse knows that loperamide works by ___ which could prolong ___
slowing down peristalsis; their symptoms
which fluid shift will the nurse take into consideration when assessing a client with type 1 diabetes who is experiencing a fluid imbalance? a. intravascular to interstitial as a result of glycosuria b. extracellular to interstitial as a result of hypoproteinemia c. intracellular to intravascular as a result of hyperosmolarity d. intercellular to intravascular as a result of increased hydrostatic pressure
c. intracellular to intravascular as a result of hyperosmolarity
twelve hours after sustaining full-thickness burns to the chest and thighs, a client who is on nothing-by-mouth status is reporting severe thirst. the client's urinary output has been 60 mL/h for the past 10 hours. no bowel sounds are heard. which action would the nurse take? a. give the client orange juice by mouth b. increase the clients intravenous flow rate c. moisten the clients lips with a wet 4 x 4 gauze d. offer the client 4oz of water by mouth
c. moisten the clients lips with a wet 4 x 4 gauze
the nurse is caring for a client with the following arterial blood gas values: PO 2 89mm Hg, PCO 2 35 mm Hg, and pH of 7.37. these findings indicate that the client is experiencing which condition? a. respiratory alkalosis b. poor oxygen perfusion c. normal acid-base balance d. compensated metabolic acidosis
c. normal acid-base balance
what is the sequence of events that occurs in the child's respiratory response to acidosis? place the physiologic responses in the order in which they occur. 1. hyperventilation 2. increased CO2 elimination 3. decreased blood H+ ions 4. increased pH
1, 2, 3, 4
which initial change in acid-base balance will the nurse expect when a client is in the progressive stage of shock? a. metabolic acidosis b. metabolic alkalosis c. respiratory acidosis d. respiratory alkalosis
a. metabolic acidosis
SATA which intervention is indicated as initial treatment for a client who has a hemorrhoidectomy? a. giving an enema b. apply moist heat c. administering stool softeners d. encouraging sitz bath salts e. providing occlusive dressings to the area
b, c, d
SATA the nurse recognizes which statements are true regarding the pharmacokinetic changes observed in infants? a. an infants fat content is higher b. an infants gastric pH is less acidic c. an infants gastric emptying is slow d. an infants first-pass metabolism is slow e. an infants transdermal absorption is rapid
b, c, d
SATA which factor is a likely cause of hyponatremia? a. diabetes insipidus b. profuse diaphoresis c. excess sodium intake d. removal of the parathyroid glands e. rapid intravenous infusion of 5% dextrose in water
b, e
a client who has a cesarean birth is unable to void 3 hrs after the removal of an indwelling catheter. how would the nurse evaluate the client for bladder distention? a. by catheterizing the client for residual urine b. by palpating the clients' suprapubic area gently c. by asking the client whether she still feels the urge to urinate d. by determining whether the client is experiencing suprapubic pain
b. by palpating the clients' suprapubic area gently
potentials for laxative use: which statement by the client indicates understanding of teaching: a. laxative abuse causes fecal impaction b. can cause chronic constipation c. changes acid levels in stomach d. slows down or completely stops intestine enzymes
b. can cause chronic constipation
which complication would the nurse prevent by addressing the needs of a hyperventilating client? a. cardiac arrest b. carbonic acid deficit c. reduction in serum pH d. excess oxygen saturation
b. carbonic acid deficit
which clincial finding leads the nurse to conclude that an IV has infiltrated rather than caused inflammation? a. pain b. coolness c. localized swelling d. cessation in flow of solution
b. coolness
which treatment strategy would the nurse conclude is the cause of the diarrhea several days after a health care provider prescribes bed rest, loperamide, and esomeprazole for a client who just had major surgery? a. loperamide b. esomeprazole c. bed rest d. diet alteration
b. esomeprazole
which effect of sodium bicarbonate is the nurse trying to prevent when teaching a client about the dangers of using sodium bicarbonate regularly? a. gastric distention b. metabolic alkalosis c. chronic constipation d. cardiac dysrhythmias
b. metabolic alkalosis
which chemical buffers excessive acetoacetic acid? a. potassium b. sodium bicarbonate c. carbon dioxide d. sodium chloride
b. sodium bicarbonate
SATA which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect the client who has chronic kidney disease with hypocalcemia to exhibit? a. acidosis b. lethargy c. fractures d. osteomalacia e. eye calcium deposits
c, d, e
SATA which assessment finding would the nurse associate with a client with diabetic ketoacidosis? a. diaphoresis b. retinopathy c. acetone breath d. increased arterial bicarbonate level e. decreased arterial carbon dioxide level
c, e
which information would the nurse include in response to a clients questioning a protein-restricted dietary change required for acute kidney injury? a. " a high-protien intake ensures an adequate daily supply of amino acids to compensate for losses" b. "essential and nonessential amino acids are necessary in the diet to supply materials for tissue protein synthesis" c. "this diet supplies only essential amino acids, reducing the amount of metabolic waste products, thus decreasing stress on the kidneys" d. "currently, your body is unable to synthesize amino acids, so the nitrogen for amino acid synthesis must come from the dietary protien"
c. "this diet supplies only essential amino acids, reducing the amount of metabolic waste products, thus decreasing stress on the kidneys"
which client problem would the nurse expect to decrease in response to the administration of serum albumin intravenously to a client with ascites? a. confusion b. urinary output c. abdominal girth d. serum ammonia level
c. abdominal girth
which order would the nurse identify as a priority nursing action after reviewing the prescriptions for the newly admitted emergency department client with urolithiasis? a. strain the client's urine b. place the client in the high-fowler position c. administer the prescribed morphine d. collect a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity
c. administer the prescribed morphine
which prescribed medication will the nurse administer to ensure a bowel movement before discharge for a client who has not had a bowel movement since before surgery, which was 4 days ago? a. lactulose b. docusate sodium c. bisacodyl suppository d. psyllium
c. bisacodyl suppository
a client that has heart failure is taking furosemide and have been diagnosed with bacterial pneumonia. which medication order are you going to question? a. ciprofloxacin b. amoxicillin c. gentamicin d. penicillin
c. gentamicin
a client is admitted with a head injury and has large amounts of clear, colorless urine draining from the urinary catheter. which physiologic response is possibly causing the increased urine output? a. increased serum glucose b. deficient renal perfusion c. inadequate ADH secretion d. excess amounts of IV fluid
c. inadequate ADH secretion
the nurse is caring for a child with severe dehydration and its associated acid-base imbalance. which compensatory mechanism within the body is activated to counteract the effects of the child's acid-base imbalance? a. profuse diaphoresis b. increased temperature c. increased respiratory rate d. renal retention of hydrogen ions
c. increased respiratory rate
which unique response is associated with diabetic ketoacidosis that is not exhibited with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome? a. fluid loss b. glycosuria c. kussmaul respirations d. increased blood glucose level
c. kussmaul respirations
a client with a femoral fracture and osteomyelitis is immobilized for 3 weeks. which rationale explains the nurses plan to assess for the development of renal calculi? a. the clients dietary patterns have changed since administration b. the client has more difficulty urinating in a supine position c. lack of weight-bearing activity promotes bone demineralization d. fracture healing requires more calcium, which increases calcium metabolism
c. lack of weight-bearing activity promotes bone demineralization
which antidiarrheal medication would the nurse anticipate administering to a client with severe diarrhea who is prescribed intravenous fluids, sodium bicarbonate, and an antidiarrheal medication? a. psyllium b. bisacodyl c. loperamide d. docusate sodium
c. loperamide
an infant has been vomiting after each feeding, and the physical assessment reveals poor skin turgor, a sunken anterior fontanel, and tremors. which process would the nurse suspect as causing the infants acid-base imbalance? a. retention of potassium in the cells b. loss of fluid by way of the kidneys c. loss of chloride ions through vomiting d. reduction of blood supply to body cells
c. loss of chloride ions through vomiting
a 4-month-old infant is brought to the emergency department after 2 days of diarrhea. the infant is listless and has sunken eyeballs, a depressed anterior fontanel, and poor tissue turgor. breathing is deep, rapid, and unlabored. stools are liquid and there has been no obvious urine output. which problem would the nurse be concerned about? a. kidney failure b. mild dehydration c. metabolic acidosis d. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis
which condition will improve if an intravenous solution of lactated ringer solution to replace the T-tube output of a client who had a cholecystectomy and common bile duct exploration is effective? a. urinary stasis b. paralytic ileus c. metabolic acidosis d. increased potassium level
c. metabolic acidosis
a client arrives in the emergency department with epigastric pain and prolonged vomiting. assessment findings include rapid and shallow respirations, dry and flushed skin, weakness, and lethargy. which is the primary nursing concern? a. acute pain b. risk for injury c. metabolic alkalosis d. ineffective breathing
c. metabolic alkalosis
a client is hospitalized after 4 days of epigastric pain, nausea, and vomiting. the nurse reviews the laboratory test results: plasma pH 7.51, pCO 2 50 mm Hg, bicarbonate 58 mEq/L, chloride 55 mEq/L, sodium 132 mEq/L, and potassium 3.8 mEq/L. which condition does the nurse determine the results indicate? a. hypernatremia b. hyperchloremia c. metabolic alkalosis d. respiratory acidosis
c. metabolic alkalosis
which action would be most important for the nurse take when caring for a client who started furosemide 2 days ago and has a serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L? a. hold the morning dose of the diuretic b. continue to monitor the level to ensure that it stays within the normal limits c. notify the primary health care provider of the critically low result d. anticipate a prescription for an increase in the dosage of the furosemide
c. notify the primary health care provider of the critically low result
which type of incontinence is the frequent or sudden urge to urinate that may be difficult to control? a. stress b. urge c. overactive d. transient e. functional f. mixed
c. overactive
which action will a nurse take when a male client receiving prolonged steroid therapy complains of always being thirsty and urinating frequently? a. have the client assessed for an enlarged prostate b. obtain a urine specimen from the client to test for ketonuria c. perform a finger stick to test the clients blood glucose level d. assess the clients lower extremities for the presence of pitting edema
c. perform a finger stick to test the clients blood glucose level
a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease has a blood pH of 7.25 and a partial pressure of carbon dioxide of 60 mm Hg. which complication would the nurse suspect the client is experiencing? a. metabolic acidosis b. metabolic alkalosis c. respiratory acidosis d. respiratory alkalosis
c. respiratory acidosis
the nurse is caring for a client after abdominal surgery and encourages the client to engage in deep-breathing exercises and turn from side to side. which complication is the nurse trying to prevent? a. metabolic acidosis b. metabolic alkalosis c. respiratory acidosis d. respiratory alkalosis
c. respiratory acidosis
which type of acid-base imbalance would the nurse expect in a child admitted with a severe asthma exacerbation? a. metabolic alkalosis caused by excessive production of acid metabolites b. respiratory alkalosis caused by accelerated respirations and loss of carbon dioxide c. respiratory acidosis caused by impaired respirations and increased formation of carbonic acid d. metabolic acidosis caused by the kidneys' inability to compensate for increased carbonic acid formation
c. respiratory acidosis caused by impaired respirations and increased formation of carbonic acid
which mechanism of action explains how diuretics reduce blood pressure? a. they facilitate vasodilation b. they promotes smooth muscle relaxation c. they reduce the circulating blood volume d. they block the sympathetic nervous system
c. they reduce the circulating blood volume
which clinical manifestation would the nurse associate with benign prostatic hyperplasia? a. perineal edema b. urethral discharge c. flank pain radiating to the groin d. distension of the lower abdomen
d. distension of the lower abdomen
which part of the renal system does furosemide exert its effects? a. distal tubule b. collecting duct c. glomerulus of the nephron d. loop of henle
d. loop of henle
which new prescription will the nurse question when reviewing a plan of care for a client who was admitted with dehydration as a result of prolonged watery diarrhea? a. oral psyllium b. oral potassium supplement c. intravenous normal saline d. magnesium citrate
d. magnesium citrate
a critically ill 5-year-old child exhibits kussmaul respirations. which response would the nurse suspect may be causing an increasing acid-base imbalance? a. metabolic alkalosis caused by an increase in base bicarbonate b. respiratory alkalosis caused by excess carbon dioxide output c. respiratory acidosis caused by an accumulation of CO2 d. metabolic acidosis caused by a concentration of cations in body fluids
d. metabolic acidosis caused by a concentration of cations in body fluids
which medication is the first-time medication used to treat a client with mild diarrhea who is diagnosed with a clostridium difficle infection? a. rifaximin b. fidaxomicin c. vancomycin d. metronidazole
d. metronidazole
the nurse providing postoperative care for a client who had kidney surgery reviews the clients urinalysis report. which urinary finding indicates the need to notify the primary health care provider? a. acidic pH b. glucose negative c. bacteria negative d. presence of large proteins
d. presence of large proteins
which prescription by the HCP would the nurse question when caring for a client who is hospitalized with a myocardial infarction? a. long-acting beta blocker b. daily low-dose aspirin tablet c. H 1 blocker to reduce gastric acid secretion d. rectal suppository as needed for constipation
d. rectal suppository as needed for constipation
which prescription by the health care provider would the nurse question when caring for a client who is hospitalized for an acute myocardial infarction? a. long-acting beta blocker b. daily low-dose aspirin c. H 1 blocker to reduce gastric acid secretions d. rectal suppository as needed for constipation
d. rectal suppository as needed for constipation
the arterial blood gases for a client with acute respiratory distress are pH 7.30, PaO 2 80 mm Hg, PaCO 2 55 mm Hg and HCO 3 23 mEq/L. how would the nurse interpret these findings? a. hypoxemia b. hypocapnia c. compensated metabolic acidosis d. uncompensated respiratory acidosis
d. uncompensated respiratory acidosis
the nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of a treatment for a client with excessive fluid volume. which clinical finding indicates that treatment was successful? a. clear breath sounds b. positive pedal pulses c. normal potassium level d. decreased urine specific gravity
a. clear breath sounds
which action would the nurse take in a client who takes rifampin who tells the nurse, "my urine looks orange"? a. explain that this is expected b. check the liver enzymes c. ask the provider to order a urinalysis d. ask what foods were eaten
a. explain that this is expected
which priority nursing intervention would the nurse implement for a client. on diuretic therapy who has developed metabolic alkalosis? a. fall prevention measures b. monitoring electrolytes c. administering antiemetics d. adjusting the diuretic therapy
a. fall prevention measures
which medication will the nurse expect the health care provider to prescribe to a client who had a thyroidectomy and is pale with spasms of the hand when taking the blood pressure? a. calcium b. magnesium c. bicarbonate d. potassium chloride
a. calcium
which ion is the regulator of extracellular osmolarity? a. sodium b. potassium c. chloride d. calcium
a. sodium
List the actions in the order in which they will be performed by the nurse transfusing packed red blood cells prescribed for a client with anemia. 1. determine the clients vital signs 2. ensure that the client signed a consent for the transfusion 3. verify that the number on the blood product, laboratory record, and client arm band match 4. don a pair of clean gloves 5. initiate the transfusion slowly
2, 1, 3, 4, 5
the provider has ordered endocrine testing for a client. arrange the steps to be followed for the urine specimen collection in the correct sequence? 1. note the time 2. the timing for the urine collection begins after this specimen 3. empty the bladder at the end of the time period and add urine to the collection 4. empty the bladder and discard the urine
4, 2, 1, 3
the nurse is caring for a client who is vomiting. when caring for this client, the nurse recalls that the vomiting reflex follows a set pattern. list the steps in the order that they occur. 1. closure of the trachea to prevent aspiration 2. contraction of abdominal muscles 3. relaxation of the upper esophageal sphincter 4. initiation of reverse peristalsis in the stomach
4, 2, 3, 1
SATA which finding indicates that a client is at an increased risk for colorectal cancer? a. presence of dark, tarry stools b. family history of polyps c. 20-year history of ulcerative colitis d. unintentional 20-pound weight loss e. change in bowel pattern for 3 months
a, b, c, d, e
SATA which lifestyle advice does the nurse give to a client when oral digoxin therapy is initiated? a. bran can decrease digoxin absorption b. digoxin should not be taken with hawthorn supplements c. ginseng may cause a dangerous increase in digoxin levels in the blood d. st. johns wort can increase digoxin levels in the blood e. medications that lower serum potassium or magnesium can worsen digoxin toxicity
a, b, c, e
SATA the nurse is teaching a group of adults about the signs and symptoms of colorectal cancer. which common clinical manifestations would the nurse include in the teaching program? a. anemia b. rectal pain c. rectal bleeding d. change in bowel habits e. severe abdominal pain
a, c, d
SATA which action will the nurse take when a client with and intravenous infusion containing 40 mEq of potassium reports a stinging pain at the IV site? a. restart the IV in a different vein b. assist the client through guided imagery c. assess the IV site d. ask the health care provider for pain medication e. verify that the potassium is adequately diluted and not infusing too rapidly
c, e
which part of the renal system does furosemide exerts its effects? a. distal tubule b. collecting duct c. glomerulus of the nephron d. loop of henle
d. loop of henle
the nurse is caring for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus and renal insufficiency. the client is scheduled for a computerized tomography scan with contrast. which medication would the nurse withhold to prevent lactic acidosis? a. pioglitazone b. insulin c. glyburide d. metformin
d. metformin
which medication is the first-line medication used to treat a client with mild diarrhea who is diagnosed with a Clostridium difficle infection? a. rifaximin b. fidaxomicin c. vancomycin d. metronidazole
d. metronidazole
which medication corrects for deleterious effects of anaerobic energy production when a clients cells are deprived of oxygen during a cardiac arrest? a. regular insulin b. calcium gluconate c. potassium chloride d. sodium bicarbonate
d. sodium bicarbonate
which physiological alteration will the nurse monitor to best determine the effectiveness of a clients hydrochlorothiazide therapy? a. blood pressure b. decreasing edema c. serum potassium level d. urine specific gravity
a. blood pressure
which test would the nurse check to determine whether a transplanted kidney is functioning? a. white blood cell (WBC) cell count b. renal ultrasound c. serum creatinine level d. 24-hour urinary output
c. serum creatinine level
a client reports abdominal bloating and infrequent small hard stools after taking psyllium for 2 weeks. What is a priority action when taking psyllium?
the client needs to hydrate
for a client admitted with metabolic acidosis, which two body systems would the nurse assess for compensatory changes? a. skeletal and nervous b. circulatory and urinary c. respiratory and urinary d. muscular and endocrine
c. respiratory and urinary
which medication requires the nurse to monitor the client for signs of hyperkalemia? a. furosemide b. metolazone c. spironolactone d. hydrochlorothiazide
c. spironolactone
for which reason would the clients who receive intravenous fluids rather than total parenteral nutrition for gastrointestinal problems to lose weight? a. lack of bulk in the diet b. deficient carbohydrate intake c. insufficient intake of water-soluble vitamins d. increasing concentrations of electrolytes in the cells
b. deficient carbohydrate intake
SATA which rationale will the nurse provide to a client with Chron's disease who asks why the prescribed vitamins have to be given intravenously (IV) rather than by mouth? a. "they provide more rapid action results" b. "they decrease colon irritability" c. "oral vitamins are less effective" d. " intestinal absorption may be inadequate" e. "allergic responses are less likely to occur"
a, c, d
SATA which nursing action has a specific gerontological implication the nurse must consider when caring for an older adult receiving chemotherapy for cancer whose severe nausea and vomiting causes dehydration requiring hospital admission for rehydration therapy? a. assessment of skin turgor b. documentation of vital signs c. assessment of intake and output d. administration of antiemetic medications e. replacement of fluid and electrolytes
a, d, e
a high school student arrives at the local blood drive center to donate blood for the first time and as the site is being prepared for needle insertion, the student becomes agitated and starts to hyperventilate. which instruction would the nurse provide the student? a. breathe into cupped hands b. pant using rapid, shallow breaths c. use a rapid deep-breathing pattern d. hold the breath for as long as possible
a. breathe into cupped hands
a client appears anxious, exhibiting 40 shallow respirations per minute. the client reports dizziness, light-headedness, and tingling sensations of the fingertips and around the lips. the nurse concludes that the clients symptoms are most likely related to which condition? a. eupnea b. hyperventilation c. kussmaul respirations d. carbon dioxide intoxication
b. hyperventilation
a client on a cruise is prescribed scopolamine. what is most common adverse effect?
dry mouth
which sign of hypokalemia will the nurse monitor for in a client receiving furosemide? a. chvostek sign b. muscle weakness c. anxious behavior d. abdominal cramping
b. muscle weakness
which disease increases the risk of hyperkalemia? a. crohn disease b. cushing disease c. end-stage renal disease d. gastroesophageal reflux disease
c. end-stage renal disease
why is blood glucose self-monitoring preferred over urine glucose testing? a. blood glucose monitoring is more accurate b. blood glucose monitoring is easier to perform c. blood glucose monitoring is done by the client d. blood glucose monitoring is not influenced by medications
a. blood glucose monitoring is more accurate
what type of laxative causes stool to absorb water and swell? a. bulk-forming b. surfactant c. stimulant d. osmotic
a. bulk-forming
when ammonia is excreted by health kidneys, which mechanism usually is maintained? a. osmotic pressure of the blood b. acid-base balance of the body c. low bacterial levels in the urine d. normal red blood cell production
b. acid-base balance of the body
which complication would the nurse monitor for when caring for an infant with intractable vomiting? a. acidosis b. alkalosis c. hyperkalemia d. hypernatremia
b. alkalosis
which condition is it most important for the nurse to assess for in a client admitted to the hospital for acute gastritis and ascites secondary to alcohol use and cirrhosis? a. nausea b. blood in stool c. food intolerances d. hourly urinary output
b. blood in stool
SATA which suggestion would the nurse provide to the parent whose child has been constipated for 3 days? a. give laxatives to the child b. reduce the child's fluid intake c. include dairy products in the child's diet daily d. increase the child's physical activity e. include food with a high fiber content in the child's diet
a, d, e
which statement by a client receiving diuretic therapy indicates that the teaching about potassium supplements is understood? a. "i will report any abdominal distress" b. "i should use salt substitutes with my food" c. "the medication must be taken on an empty stomach" d. "the dosage is correct if my urine output increases"
a. "i will report any abdominal distress"
which blood gas report most likely reflects the acid-base balance of an infant with severe dehydration? a. pH of 7.50 and pco2 of 34 mm Hg b. pH of 7.23 and pco2 of 70 mm Hg c. pH of 7.20 and HCO3 of 20 mEq/L d. pH of 7.56 and HCO3 of 30 mEq/L
c. pH of 7.20 and HCO3 of 20 mEq/L
which information would the nurse include when teaching a client about the administration of ranitidine? a. ranitidine increases gastrointestinal peristalsis b. ranitidine reduces gastric acidity in the stomach c. ranitidine neutralizes the acid that is present in the stomach d. ranitidine stops the production of hydrochloric acid in the stomach
b. ranitidine reduces gastric acidity in the stomach
which indicator of client status is important for the nurse to assess in a client receiving total parenteral nutrition? a. blood glucose b. occult blood in stool c. urine specific gravity d. presence of bowel sounds ddd
a. blood glucose
which independent nursing action would be included in the plan of care for a client after an episode of ketoacidosis? a. monitoring for signs of hypoglycemia resulting from treatment b. withholding glucose in any form until the situation is corrected c. giving fruit juices, broth, and milk as soon as the client is able to take fluids orally d. regulating insulin dosage according to the clients urinary ketone levels
a. monitoring for signs of hypoglycemia resulting from treatment
when a client in the emergency department has a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, weak quality radial pulse of 108 beats/minute, and reports working outside for several hours on a hot day, which prescribed action would the nurse take first? a. complete a head-to-toe assessment b. start infusion of normal saline 500 mL c. ask the client about current medications d. obtain blood samples for laboratory testing
b. start infusion of normal saline 500 mL
which rationale explains the purpose of administering diphenoxylate hydrochloride to clients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? a. to manage pain b. to manage diarrhea c. to manage candidal esophagitis d. to manage behavioral problems
b. to manage diarrhea
which type of incontinence is involuntary leakage accompanied by or immediately preceded by urgency? a. stress b. urge c. overactive d. transient e. functional f. mixed
b. urge
which type of urinary condition would cholinergic agonists be prescribed for? a. kidney stones b. urine retention c. spastic bladder d. urinary tract infections
b. urine retention
SATA which clinical finding is important for the nurse to monitor for when a total parental nutrition solution is prescribed to infuse at 1 liter every 12 hours? a. activity tolerance b. intake and output c. orthostatic vital signs d. glucose levels e. serum electrolytes
b, d, e
which action is a priority before administering prescribed furosemide? a. weight the client b. assess skin turgor c. review the potassium level results d. check the 24 hr I/O
c. review the potassium level results
a client is experiencing persistent vomiting and serum electrolytes have been prescribed. the nurse would monitor which laboratory results? a. sodium and chloride levels b. bicarbonate and sulfate levels c. magnesium and protein levels d. calcium and phosphate levels
a. sodium and chloride levels
which type of incontinence is the involuntary leakage associated with exertion or effort? a. stress b. urge c. overactive d. transient e. functional f. mixed
a. stress
a client is transferred to the post-anesthesia care unit after abdominal surgery. the client begins vomiting. which nursing action is most important when caring for this client? a. turning the client onto the side b. measuring the amount of vomitus c. assessing the wound for dehiscence d. administering the prescribed antiemetic to the client
a. turning the client onto the side
SATA which manifestation would the nurse include when teaching a client about ketoacidosis? a. confusion b. hyperactivity c. excessive thirst d. fruity-scented breath e. decreased urinary output
a, c, d
which statement about administration of IV potassium would a nurse make to a client with a diagnosis of hypokalemia? a. oliguria is an indication for withholding IV potassium b. rapid infusion of potassium prevents burning at the IV site c. clients with severe deficits should be given IV push potassium d. average IV dosage of potassium should not exceed 60 mEq in 1 hour
a. oliguria is an indication for withholding IV potassium
which principle explains how loop diuretics promote diuresis? a. osmosis b. filtration c. diffusion d. active transport
a. osmosis
which electrolyte deficiency triggers the secretion of renin? a. sodium b. calcium c. chloride d. potassium
a. sodium
which structure surrounding the male urethra would the nurse describe to a client scheduled for a dilation of the urethra? a. epididymis b. prostate gland c. seminal vesicle d. bulbourethral gland
b. prostate gland
which purpose would potassium chloride added to the intravenous solution of a client with diabetic ketoacidosis serve? a. treats hyperpnea b. prevents flaccid paralysis c. prevents hypokalemia d. treats cardiac dsyrhythmias
c. prevents hypokalemia
which intervention would the nurse implement when providing care for an older adult male client who is immobile and incontinent of urine? a. restrict the client's fluid intake b. regularly offer the client a urinal c. apply incontinence pants d. insert an indwelling urinary catheter
b. regularly offer the client a urinal
for which condition is an adult client with a weakened urinary sphincter at risk? a. bladder distention b. skin irritation c. tendency to fall d. urinary retention
b. skin irritation
which genitourinary factor contributes to urinary incontinence in older adult clients and needs to be considered by the nurse when planning the care for these clients? a. sensory deprivation b. urinary tract infection c. frequent use of diuretics d. inaccessibility of a bathroom
b. urinary tract infection
SATA which findings are consistent with hypercalcemia after prolonged immobility? a. bone pain b. convulsions c. muscle spasms d. tingling of extremities e. depressed deep tendon reflexes
a, e
which dietary instruction would be a beneficial to a client who has undergone a hypophysectomy and has difficulty passing stools? a. "drink plenty of water" b. "eat foods rich in protein" c. " drink a glass of milk daily" d. "eat foods rich in carbohydrates"
a. "drink plenty of water"
which action by the nurse would be best when a client who has been admitted with pulmonary edema and received furosemide intravenously needs to void? a. place the client on a bedpan b. use adult diapers for the client c. help the client walk to the bathroom d. assist the client to a bedside commode
d. assist the client to a bedside commode
which condition would the nurse suspect in a client who complains of nocturia, bladder pain, urinary frequency, urgency, and dribbling at the end of urination with a digital rectal examination report indicating smooth, firm, and enlarged prostate tissue surrounding the urethra? a. prostatitis b. paraphimosis c. prostate cancer d. benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
d. benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
the nurse is teaching a female client that is child bearing age about spironolactone and trying to get pregnant. what statement indicates an understanding? a. take it at bedtime b. increase sodium c. decrease potassium d. call the provider if having menstrual irregularities
d. call the provider if having menstrual irregularities
which pressure changes does the nurse determine to be the cause of edema for a client with albuminuria? a. decrease in tissue hydrostatic pressure b. increase in plasma hydrostatic pressure c. increase in tissue colloid osmotic pressure d. decrease in plasma colloid oncotic pressure
d. decrease in plasma colloid oncotic pressure
which concern when caring for a client prescribed furosemide 40 mg everyday in conjunction with digoxin would prompt the nurse to ask the health provider about potassium supplements? a. digoxin causes significant potassium depletion b. the liver destroys potassium as digoxin is detoxified c. lasix requires adequate serum potassium to promote diuresis d. digoxin toxicity occurs rapidly in the presence of hypokalemia
d. digoxin toxicity occurs rapidly in the presence of hypokalemia
which clinical manifestation would the nurse associate with benign prostatic hyperplasia? a. perineal edema b. urethral discharge c. flank pain radiating to the groin d. distention of the lower abdomen
d. distention of the lower abdomen
how does sodium biphosphate, prescribed for a client before a colonoscopy, accomplish its therapeutic effect? a. irritates the intestinal mucosa b. provides water-absorbing bulk c. softens stool by exerting a detergent effect d. increases osmotic pressure in the intestines
d. increases osmotic pressure in the intestines
which purpose of insulin would a nurse identify when caring for a client prescribed insulin added to a solution fo 10% dextrose in water after an intravenous solution containing potassium inadvertently was infused too rapidly? a. glucose with insulin increases metabolism, which accelerates potassium excretion b. increased potassium causes a temporary slowing of pancreatic production of insulin c. increased insulin accelerates the excretion of glucose and potassium, thereby decreasing the serum potassium level d. potassium follows glucose into the cells body, thereby raising the intracellular potassium level
d. potassium follows glucose into the cells body, thereby raising the intracellular potassium level
which antidiarrheal medication would the nurse anticipate administering to a client with severe diarrhea who is prescribed intravenous fluids, sodium bicarbonate, and an antidiarrheal medication? a. psyllium b. bisacodyl c. loperamide d. docusate sodium
c. loperamide
which reason would an intravenous infusion of 5% dextrose with 0.45% sodium chloride and 20 mEq of potassium be prescribed for a client with a nasogastric tube set to low intermittent suction? a. prevent constipation b. prevent dehydration c. prevent vomiting d. prevent electrolyte imbalance
d. prevent electrolyte imbalance
which action will a nurse take when a male client receiving prolonged steroid therapy complains of always being thirsty and urinating frequently? a. have the client assessed for an enlarged prostate b. obtain a urine specimen for the client to test for ketonuria c. perform a finger stick to test the client's blood glucose level d. assess the client's lower extremities for the presence of pitting edema
c. perform a finger stick to test the client's blood glucose level d. assess the client's lower
an older client is admitted to the hospital for rehydration therapy after 3 days of diarrhea. in addition to sodium, which electrolyte would the nurse be most concerned about? a. calcium b. cholrides c. potassium d. phosphates
c. potassium
SATA which intervention is indicated as initial treatment for a client who had a hemorrhoidectomy? a. giving an enema b. applying moist heat c. administering stool softeners d. encouraging sitz baths e. providing occlusive dressings to the area
b, c, d
SATA which prescribed medication would the nurse anticipate initiating for a client with a Clostridium difficile- associated disease (CDAD)? a. penicillin b. fidaxomicin c. ciprofloxacin d. metroidazole e. vancomycin
b, d, e
which statement is important for the nurse to teach a client prescribed psyllium 3.5g twice a day for constipation? a. "urine may be discolored" b. "each dose should be taken with a full glass of water" c. "use only when necessary because it can cause dependence" d. "daily use may inhibit the absorption of some fat-soluble vitamins"
b. "each dose should be taken with a full glass of water"
which intravenous (IV) solution would a nurse anticipate administering when caring for a client with a history of severe diarrhea for the past 3 days who is admitted for dehydration? a. 3% sodium chloride b. 0.9% sodium chloride c. 5% dextrose and 0.9% sodium chloride d. 5% dextrose and lactated ringer solution
b. 0.9% sodium chloride
a client with renal failure receives prescriptions for vitamin D and calcium supplements. the client asks the nurse, 'why do i need to take these?' the nurse explains that, with renal failure, which condition exists? a. a decrease in the inactive forms of vitamin D in the body b. a decrease in the active metabolite of vitamin D in the body c. an increase in the conversion of skin cholesterol into vitamin D d. an increase in the vitamin D-associated intestinal absorption of calcium
b. a decrease in the active metabolite of vitamin D in the body
which condition is the most important for the nurse to assess for in a client admitted to the hospital for acute gastritis and ascites secondary to alcohol use and cirrhosis? a. nausea b. blood in the stool c. food intolerances d. hourly urinary output
b. blood in the stool
a client who has a cesarean birth is unable to void 3 hours after the removal of an indwelling catheter. how would the nurse evaluate the client for bladder distention? a. by catheterizing the client for residual urine b. by palpating the client's suprapubic area gently c. by asking the client whether she still feels the urge to urinate d. by determining whether the client is experiencing suprapubic pain
b. by palpating the client's suprapubic area gently
which medication would the nurse identify as a risk factor for straining due to constipation in a client with a myocardial infarction receiving digoxin. fluoxetine, morphine, and docusate sodium? a. digoxin b. morphine c. docusate d. fluoxetine
b. morphine
which action is important when administering blood? a. warm the blood to the body temperature to prevent chilling the client b. obtain baseline vital signs before beginning blood administration c. draw a blood sample from the client before each unit is transfused d. maintain patency of the intravenous catheter with dextrose solution
b. obtain baseline vital signs before beginning blood administration
which information would the nurse include when teaching about why women are more susceptible to urinary tract infections than men? a. inadequate fluid intake b. poor hygienic practices c. the length of the urethra d. the disruption of mucous membranes
c. the length of the urethra
SATA which nursing assessment finding is consistent with fluid volume overload from high-flow intravenous fluid replacement therapy? a. pulse quality b. pulse pressure c. bounding pulse d. presence of dependent edema e. neck vein distention in the upright position
c, d, e
which statement is important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan of a client with irritable bowel syndrome who has instructions to take psyllium for constipation? a. "urine may be discolored" b. " stop taking the laxative once a bowel movement occurs" c. " each dose should be taken with a full glass of water or juice" d. "daily use may inhibit the absorption of some fat-soluble vitamins"
c. " each dose should be taken with a full glass of water or juice"
which statement indicates family understanding of age-related changes and required care after family members received discharge instructions for an older adult male recovering from a urinary tract infection? a. " i place a small glass of water at his side to ensure sipping before bedtime" b. "i respond immediately with the urinal whenever he indicates a need to void" c. "i provide privacy and standby assistance to help him void." d. " i encourage him to use the urinal at least every 2 hours during the day"
c. "i provide privacy and standby assistance to help him void."
the nurse administers vasopressin to a client and recalls that the medication is which type of hormone? a. growth hormone b. luteinizing hormone c. antidiuretic hormone d. thyroid-stimulating hormone
c. antidiuretic hormone
a client tells the nurse about recent recurrent episodes of bleeding hemorrhoids. which instruction would the nurse provide to the client to help prevent future hemorrhoidal episodes? a. exercise to improve circulation b. eat bland foods and avoid spices c. consume a high-fiber diet and drink adequate water d. use laxatives to avoid constipation and use of the valsalva maneuver
c. consume a high-fiber diet and drink adequate water
which action will the nurse take when a client appears flushed and complains of palpations ten minutes after the start of intravenous vancomycin scheduled to infuse over 30 minutes? a. stop the infusion b. continue the infusion but monitor the client c. contact the primary health care provider to decrease the infusion rate d. contact the primary health care provider to obtain a prescription for an anti-anxiety medication
c. contact the primary health care provider to decrease the infusion rate
which mechanism of action is responsible for the therapeutic effects of mannitol prescribed for a client with a head injury? a. decreasing the production of cerebrospinal fluid b. limiting the metabolic requirements of the brain c. drawing fluid from brain cells into the bloodstream d. preventing uncontrolled electrical discharges in the brain
c. drawing fluid from brain cells into the bloodstream
which manifestations are exhibited with syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone? a. increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and hypotension b. hyperkalemia and poor skin turgor c. hyponatremia and decreased urine output d. polyuria and increased specific gravity of urine
c. hyponatremia and decreased urine output
a client is admitted with a head injury and has large amounts of clear, colorless urine draining from the urinary catheter. which physiological response is possibly causing the increased urine output? a. increased serum glucose b. deficient renal perfusion c. inadequate antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion d. excess amount of intravenous (IV) fluid
c. inadequate antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion
the provider has ordered endocrine testing for a client. arrange the steps to be followed for the urine specimen collection in the correct sequence. a. empty bladder at the end of the timed period and add urine to the collection b. the timing for the urine collection begins after this specimen c. note the time d. empty the bladder and discard the urine
d, b, c, a
which hormonal deficiency causes diabetes insipidus in a client? a. prolactin b. thyrotropin c. luteinizing hormone d. antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
d. antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
