Pharm 1 B

Which statement about the BCG vaccine does the nurse identify as true? a. BCG is a live preparation of attenuated Mycobacterium bovis b. BCG is routinely administered in the US c. BCG has no effect on tuberculin skin tests d. BCG vaccine can be used to treat carcinoma of the bladder

D. the vaccine can be used to treat carcinoma of the bladder

The patient is ordered daily divided doses of gentamycin. The patient received an intravenous dose of gentamycin at 4:00pm. When should the nurse obtain the peak level? a. 4:30PM b. 5:00PM c.5:30PM d. 6:00PM

a. 4:30PM

Which statement about allergic rxn to penicillin does the nurse identify as true? a. anaphylactic rxn occur more frequently with penicillin than any other drug. b. allergy to penicillin always increases over time c. Benadryl is the drug of choice for anaphylaxis due to penicillin allergy d. patients allergic to penicillin are also allergic to vancomycin

a. anaphylactic rxn occur more frequently with penicillin than any other drug

Which statement about the treatment of helminth infestations does the nurse identify as true? a. many worm infestations are asymptomatic and self-limiting b. treatment with antihelmintic drugs should be avoided. c. most of the antihelmintics cause serious of life-threatening adverse effects d. the best way to prevent helminth infestations in countries where funds are limited is to teach people to avoid beef and pork.

a. many worm infestations are asymptomatic and self-limiting

a patient is being discharged with continued ciprofloxacin therapy. When providing discharge teaching, the nurse should advise the patient to call the healthcare provider immediately if what develops? a. pain in the heal of the foot b. nausea c. diarrhea d. headache

a. pain in the heal of the foot

A patient who was on a mission trip to sub-Saharan Africa is admitted to the hospital with severe malaria. The nurse anticipates administration of which medication? a. Quinidine b. Quinidine glucconate c. Mefloquine d. Artesunate

b. Quinidine glucconate

Pyrantel (antiminth) is prescribed for a child with pinworms. How will the nurse administer the medication? a. everyday for 3 days b. as a single oral dose c. by the IV route d. with a glucocorticoid

b. as a single oral dose

A patient with a history of severe anaphylactic reaction to penicillin has an order to receive cephalosporin. What should the nurse do? a. admin the cephaloporin as ordered b. contact healthcare provider for different antibiotic c. admin a test does of cephalosporin to determine reactivity d. Have epinephrine does available when admin the cephalosporin

b. contact healthcare provider for different antibiotic

The nurse delegates the cleaning of an automatic blood pressure machine to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). The nurse should instruct the UAP to use which agent to clean the equipment? a. hexachlorophene b. disinfectant, such as glutaraldehyde c. antiseptic, such as ethanol d. povidone-iodine

b. disinfectant such as glutaraldehyde

a patient who sustained second and third degree burns has been prescribed mafenide. which statement about mafenide does the nurse identify as true? a. use of mafenide can cause alkalosis b. Mafenide is painful upon application c. a blue-green to gray discoloration of skin occurs with mafenide therapy d. mafenide exerts its therapeutic effect by the release of free silver

b. mafenide is painful upon application

a patient is diagnosed with C. difficile infection. The nurse anticipates administering which medication? a. Daptomycin b. Metronidazole c. Rifampin d. Rifaximin

b. metronidazole

Before administering gentamycin, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for a history of what? a. Hypertension b. Myasthenia gravis c. Diabetes mellitus d. asthma

b. myasthenia gravis

A patient is prescribed cefixime. The nurse should teach the patient to immediately report any signs of what? a. Milk intolerance b. skin rash, hives or itching c. constipation, nausea, or vomiting d. headache, confusion, seizures

b. skin rash, hives or itching

Which information should the nurse include when teaching a patient about isonizoid (INH) therapy? a. Tubercle bacilli develop resistance to isoniazid during treatment b. isoniozid is administered intravenously c. An adverse effect of isoniozid therapy is peripheral neuropathy, which can be reversed with pyridoxine d. The dose of isoniozid should be lowered if the patient is also taking phenytoin.

c. An adverse effect of isoniozid therapy is peripheral neuropathy, which can be reversed with pyridoxine (vitaminB)

A patient is receiving amphotericin B to treat a systemic fungal infection. To prevent renal damage, it is most important for the nurse to do what? a. admin the meds through a central venous access device b. admin potassium supplements c. admin 1000ml of 0.9% saline d. admin the medication orally

c. admin 1000 ml of 0.9% saline (give the day of admin, before hand)

A patient who takes warfarin is prescribed itraconazole (Sporanox) to treat a fungal infection. The nurse will teach the patient to do what? a. Take medication with famotidine (pepcid) to reduce gastric upset b. prepare for long-term intravenous administration of itraconazole c. Avoid taking esomeprazole (Nexium) with itraconazole therapy d. Double the dose of warfarin

c. avoid taking esomeprazole (Nexium) with itraconazole therapy don't take any protein pump inhibitor, antacids, 6 hours before giving or 2 hours after.

Which patient does the nurse identify as most likely to need treatment with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazle (bactrim) for a period of 6 months? a. female patient with acute pyelonephritis b. a male patient with acute prostatitis c. female patient with recurring acute urinary tract infections d. male patient with acute cystitis

c. female patient with recurring acute UTI

A patient is prescribed ivermectin for river blindness. It is most important for the nurse to inform the patient that expected adverse effects of this medication include what? a. Dyspnea, increased respiratory rate, and headache b. angioedema and blurred vision c. fever, pruritus, and rash d. Tachycardia, palpitations and diaphoresis

c. fever, pruritus, and rash

Which statement by a new nurse about intravenous administration of amphotericin B indicates the nurse needs more education? a. Almost all patients receiving amphotericin B experience some degree of nephrotoxicity b. Patients receiving amphotericin B should be under close supervision in a hospital c. Heparin can be used in the infusion site to prevent phlebitis associated with amphotericin B therapy d. Diphenhydramine plus acetaminophen can minimize rigors associated with amphotericin B therapy

d. Diphenhydramine plus acetaminophen can minimize rigors associated with amphotericin B therapy

a prescriber states that a patient will need to receive penicillin IV. The nurse anticipates administering which drug? a. Penicillin V b. Procaine penicillin G c. Benzathine penicillin G d. Potassium penicillin G

d. Potassium penicillin G

Which information should the nurse include when teaching a patient about rifampin therapy? a. oral contraceptives are safe to use with rifampin therapy b. contact you healthcare provider immediately if the color of you body fluids change to reddish orange c. Rifampin is safe to use in patients who have hepatic disease d. Rifampin may be administered intravenously

d. Rifampin may be administered intravenously

a healthcare worker has been exposed to B. anthracis on the hand. What is the most appropriate action by the heatlhcare worker? a. apply an alcohol based handrub to the hands b. start a systemic based anti infective drug c. soak the hand in povidone iodine d. wash both hands with soap and water

d. Wash both hands with soap and water Spores need the friction when washing to be removed

Which patient would most likely need intravenous antibiotic therapy to treat a urinary tract infection? a. patient with uncomplicated UTI caused by Escherichia coli b. patient with pyelonephritis with symptoms of high fever, chills, and severe flank pain c. patient with acute cystitis who complains of dysuria, frequency, and urgency d. patient with acute bacterial prostatitis with a mild fever, chills and nocturia

b. patient with pyelonephritis with symptoms of high fever, chills and severe flank pain

The nurse is reviewing laboratory values from a patient who has been prescribed gentamicin. To prevent ototoxicity, it is important for the nurse to monitor which values? a. serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen levels b. trough drug levels of gentamicin c. peak drug levels of gentamicin d. serum alanine aminotransferase and aspartate aminotransferase levels

b. trough drug levels of gentamicin

a patient has been prescribed oral ciprofloxacin (cipro) for a skin infection. When administering the medication, it is most important for the nurse to do what? a. monitor for a decrease in the prothrombin time (PT) if the patient is also taking warfarin (coumadin) b. withhold antacids and milk products for 6 hours before or 2 hours afterward c. inform the healthcare provider if the patient has a history of asthma d. Assess the skin for Stevens-Johnson syndrome.

b. withhold antacids and milk products for 6 hours before or 2 hours afterward

A patient who takes warfarin has been prescribed sulfadiazine. When teaching the patient about this drug, which statement will the nurse include? a. "if you become pregnant, it is safe to take sulfadiazine." b. "you should limit your fluid intake while taking sulfadiazine." c. "Avoid prolonged exposure to exposed skin." d." you will most likely need to have an increase in the dose of warfarin while taking sulfadiazine."

c. "Avoid prolonged exposure to exposed skin."

a patient is prescribed doxycycline (vibramycin). if the patient complains of gastric irritation, what should the nurse do? a. instruct the patient to take the medication with milk b. tell patient to take an antacid with med c. give the patient food, such as crackers or toast, with med d. have patient stop med immediately and contact healthcare provider

c. give patient food, such as crackers or toast, with med

A patient is prescribed mefloquine (lariam) to treat erythrocytic malaria. Which symptom should the nurse teach the patient to report that would indicate central nervous system toxicity? a. amnesia b. dizziness c. hallucinations d. fever

c. hallucinations psych symptoms are considered extreme rxn to CNS

A patient has been prescribed ciprofloxacin for treatment of a urinary tract infection with Escherichia coli. Before administering the drug, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for a history of what? a. Hypertension b. diabetes mellitus c. myasthenia gravis d. seasonal allergies

c. myasthenia gravis

Which drug does the nurse identify as a urinary tract antiseptic? a. ciprofloxacin b. cefriaxone c. nitrofuratoin d. ceftazidime

c. nitrofuratoin

Fluoroquinolones should be discontinued immediately if what happens? a. nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea is experienced b. dizziness, headache, or confusion occurs. c. tendon pain or inflammation develops d. Theophylline is prescribed for asthma

c. tendon pain or inflammation develops

The CDC recommends that before entering a patient's room, the nurse should do what? a. wash hands with an antibacterial soap and water b. wash hands with a nonantibacterial soap and water c. Use an alcohol-based handrub d. wash hands with chlorhexidine and water

c. use an alcohol based handrub

A patient is prescribed cefazolin. it is most important for the nurse to teach the patient to avoid which substance while taking cefazolin? a. warfarin b. milk products c. Digitalis d. alcohol

d. alcohol acute alcohol intolerance if alcohol is had within 72 hours. it will cause severe GI upset

it is most important for the nurse to avoid administering oral ciprofloxacin to this patient with which food? a. bananas b. baked chicken c. grapefruit juice d. milk

d. milk dairy products can reduce absorption

Which tetracycline may be considered with meals? a. tetracycline b. demeclocycline c. doxycycline d. minocycline

d. minocycline

A patient is prescribed vancomycin orally for antibiotic associated pseudomembranous colits. the nurse will monitor the patient for what? a. Leukopenia b. "red man" syndrome c. liver impairment d. Ototoxicity

d. ototoxicity

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravenous gentamicin for a severe bacterial infection. Which assessment finding by the nurse indicates the patient is experiencing an adverse effect of gentamycin therapy? a. blurred vision b. hand tremors c. urinary frequency d. Tinnitus

d. tinnitus

before administering erythromycin to a patient for an upper resp. tract infection, it is most important for the nurse to determine if the patient is also prescribed which drug? a. Guafenesin (Guiatuss) b. Hydrocodone (Vicodin) c. Nitroglycerin (Tridil) d. verapamil (colon)

d. verapamil QT prolongation, cardiac arrest and death has occured

a patient who was taking sulfonamides develops Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Upon assessment, the nurse expects to find what? a. hypotension b. bronchospasm c. temperature of 35.5 C d. widespread skin lesions

d. widespread skin lesions

A patient is prescribed atovaquone and proguanil hydrochloride (Malorone) for prophylaxis against malaria. The patient should take the medication in which way? a. for 7 days before exposure to an endemic area b. At bedtime to reduce possible food interactions c. with tetracycline to improve protection against infection d. with food or milk to enhance absorption

d. with food or milk to enhance absorption