pharm 1 final review question
In which situations is Cyclobenzaprine typically indicated? (Select all that apply.) A. Acute low back pain due to a muscle strain. B. Spasticity associated with cerebral palsy. C. Neck pain after a whiplash injury. D. Short-term relief of muscle spasms. E. Chronic pain management in fibromyalgia.
A C D
What should the nurse monitor to evaluate the ongoing effectiveness and safety of Baclofen therapy? (Select all that apply.) A. Frequency and intensity of muscle spasms. B. Signs of excessive sedation or drowsiness. C. Respiratory rate and depth. D. Patient's ability to perform activities of daily living. E. Signs of withdrawal symptoms, such as hallucinations or seizures.
Answers: A, B, D, E
Allopurinol is indicated for which of the following conditions? A. Acute gout attack B. Prevention of chronic gout and hyperuricemia C. Pain relief in gouty arthritis D. Reduction of inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis
B
Cyclobenzaprine is primarily prescribed to: A. Treat spasticity in multiple sclerosis. B. Manage acute muscle spasms related to musculoskeletal conditions. C. Relieve chronic back pain due to disc herniation. D. Treat muscle rigidity in Parkinson's disease.
B
How does Allopurinol help reduce uric acid levels? A. Promotes renal excretion of uric acid B. Inhibits the formation of uric acid by blocking xanthine oxidase C. Disrupts leukocyte infiltration in the affected joint D. Enhances the metabolism of uric acid into water-soluble compounds
B
Propranolol is primarily indicated for: A. Asthma management B. Essential tremors and migraine prevention C. Acute heart block D. Chronic kidney disease
B Propranolol, a nonselective beta-blocker, is used to prevent migraines and manage essential tremors, among other conditions
What is the primary indication for prescribing Warfarin (Coumadin)? A. Prevention of myocardial infarction (MI) in patients with atherosclerosis. B. Long-term prevention of thromboembolic events in atrial fibrillation. C. Immediate management of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). D. Pain relief in peripheral vascular disease (PVD)
B Rationale: Warfarin is primarily used for long-term prevention of thromboembolic events in conditions such as atrial fibrillation, mechanical heart valves, and venous thromboembolism (VTE). It is not suitable for immediate management, as its onset of action is delayed.
How does Warfarin exert its anticoagulant effect? A. Inhibits thrombin directly, preventing fibrin clot formation. B. Enhances the activity of antithrombin, reducing clotting factor activation. C. Inhibits vitamin K-dependent synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. D. Blocks platelet aggregation by inhibiting cyclooxygenase.
C Warfarin inhibits the hepatic synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors (II, VII, IX, and X), leading to a reduced ability to form clots.
A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about administering morphine IV bolus to a client. Which of the following pieces of information should the nurse include in the teaching? a. respiratory depression can occur 7 min after the morphine is administered. b. the morphine will peak in 10 min. c. withhold the morphine if the client has a respiratory rate of <16 /min. d. administer the morphine over 2 min.
Respiratory depression can occur within 7 mins of the administration of IV bolus morphine. The nurse should monitor the client's respirations and have naloxone available to reverse the effects of the morphine.
A nurse is teaching a client who is postmenopausal and has a prescription for alendronate. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? a . " You can lie down 15 mins after taking this medication." b. "Take this medication on an empty stomach." c. "crush this medication to improve absorption." d. "avoid taking antacids or supplements that contain calcium while taking this medication. "
TAKING ALENDRONATE with food or liquids other than water because it can decrease absorption. The client should only take this med with water 30 minutes before breakfast.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving gentamicin IM and has a new prescription to obtain gentamicin peak and trough levels. At which of the following times should the nurse plan to obtain a blood sample to evaluate the gentamicin peak? a. 1 hour after administering the IM injection. b. just before administering the IM injection. c. 12 hour after the last IM injection d. 30 minutes after administering the IM injection.
a
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing an acute gout attack. The nurse should anticipate a prescription from the provider for which of the following medications? a. Colchicine. b. Allopurinol. c. Probenecid. d. Pegloticase
a The nurse should anticipate a prescription for colchicine because it is the medication of choice for an acute gout attack. The client can experience relief from the attack within hours of receiving this medication. Colchicine can also be prescribed for long-term use to prevent future attacks from occurring.
A nurse is teaching a client about taking diphenhydramine. The nurse should explain to the client that which of the following is an adverse effect of this medication? a. sedation b. constipation c. hypertension d. bradycardia
a Diphenhydramine, an antihistamine, commonly causes sedation as a side effect due to its central nervous system depressant properties. It is often used for allergies, motion sickness, and as a sleep aid, but the drowsiness can be undesirable in some situation.
A nurse is caring for a client who has schizophrenia and a prescription for chlorpromazine. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor? a. orthostatic hypotension. b. diarrhea c . urinary frequency. d. bradycardia
a Orthostatic hypotension is an adverse effect of chlorpromazine. Other adverse effects include palpitations, tachycardia, cobsitipation, sedation, and photosensitivity.
A nurse is caring for a client who has cancer and a new prescription for Ondansetron to treat chemotherapy-induced nausea. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor? a. HA. b. dependent edema c. polyuria d. photosensitivity
a most common SE of ondansetron , a serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist used to treat chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, is headache.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse should anticipate a prescription from the provider for which of the following medications for daily management of this condition? a. celecoxib b. prednisone c. adalimumab d. abatacept
a. celecoxib The nurse should anticipate that the provider will prescribe celecoxib, which is a NSAID. This medication or another NSAID should be initiated for a client who has a new diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis.
A nurse is caring for a Client who has asthma and is prescribed a short-acting beta2-agonist. Which of the following should the nurse identify as the expected outcome of this medication? a. reduces the frequency of attacks. b. reverses bronchospasm. c. prevents inflammation. d. decreases chronic manifestations
b
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of hypothyroidism. On which of the following medications should the. nurse prepare to instruct the client? a. radioactive iodine. b. levothyroxine c. sumatriptan d. levofloxacin
b
A nurse is monitoring a client who has asthma, takes albuterol, and recently started taking propranolol to treat a cardiovascular disorder. The client reports that the albuterol has been less effective. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a possible explanation for this change? a. potentiative ineraction b. detrimental inhibitory interaction c. increased adverse reaction d. toxicity-reducing inhibitory interaction
b A detrimental inhibitory interaction can occur with the concurrent use of propranolol and albuterol. When a client takes propranolol and albuterol together, propranolol can interfere with albuterol's therapeutic effects.
A nurse is teaching a client who has severe generalized rheumatoid arthritis and is scheduled to start taking prednisone for long-term therapy. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following as an AE of prednisone? a. ototoxicity. b. immunosuppression. c. gastric ulceration. d. liver toxicity
b AEs of prednisone : immunosuppression, osteoporosis and adrenal suppression.
A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis and a new prescription for lactose. Which of the following manifestation indicates an adverse effect of the medication? a. dry mouth. b. vomiting. c. headache d. peripheral edema
b Lactulose is commonly prescribed for clients with cirrhosis to reduce ammonia levels by promoting excretion through the stool. While it is effective, adverse effects may include GI symptoms like nausea, vomiting abdominal cramping, and diarrhea. Vomitting can be significant concern as it may lead to dehydration or electrolyte imbalances, which need to be monitored and managed.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a seizure disorder and a new prescription for valproic acid. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse plan to monitor? SATA. a BUN. b. PTT c. AST. d. Urinalysis. e. ALT
b c e Valproic acid can alter coagulation; therefore, PT and PTT should be monitored. It also can cause life-threatening hepatotoxicity; the client should have baseline liver function tests before starting this medication.
A nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a client who is scheduled to begin long-term oral prednisone for asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan? a. stop taking the medication if a rash occurs. b. take the medication on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. c. schedule the medication on alternative days to decrease adverse effects. d. treat shortness of breath with an extra dose of the medication.
c
A nurse is providing discharge teaching about lithium toxicity to a client who has a new prescription for lithium. Which of the statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. " I should take naproxen if I have a headache because aspirin can cause lithium toxicity. " b. " I can develop lithium toxicity if I eat foods with lots of sodium." c. " I can develop lithium toxicity if I experience vomiting or diarrhea. " d. "I might need to take a daily diuretic along with my lithium to prevent lithium toxicity."
c
A nurse is caring for a client who is exhibiting signs of alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer? a. methadone. b. disulfiram. c. diazepam d. buprenorphine
c Diazepam , a benzo, is commonly used during alcohol withdrawal to prevent seizures, reduce anxiety, and stabilize vital signs. BENZO work by enhancing the inhibitory effects of GABA, which helps to mitigate the hyper excitability of the central nervous system associated with withdrawal. -methadone used for opioid withdrawal, not for alcohol. -disulfiram- used as a deterrent for drinking alcohol, not for acute withdrawal mgmt. It causes an unpleasant reaction when alcohol is consumed. -Buprenorphine, used to treat opioid withdrawal or dependence, not alcohol withdrawal.
A nurse is caring for a client who has bacterial infection and is receiving gentamicin, which of the following actions should the nurse take to minimize the risk of an adverse effect of the medication? a. limit the client's fluid intake. b. instruct the client to report agitation. c. monitor the serum medication levels. d. administer the medication with food.
c Gentamicin is amino glycoside antibiotic that has a narrow therapeutic range and is associated with serious AEs such as nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. Monitoring serum medication levels ensures that the drug stays within the therapeutic range and minimizes the risk of toxicity.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the instructions? a. "I'll use a safety razor to shave each day." b. "I'll be sure to eat lots of spinach. " c. "I'll avoid contact sports like football." d. "I'll take ibuprofen if I get a headache."
c The most common AE of taking anticoagulants is bleeding. Therefore, the client should avoid any activities that have a high risk of causing injury, such as contact sports.
A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has gout and prescription for allopurinol. Which of the following statements by the client should indicate to the nurse that the teaching was effective? a. "I should start taking this medication at 800 mg daily." b. "I will have an increased risk for diabetes with this medication." c. "I will increase my fluids to at least 2 liters per day." d. "I should take this medication twice daily."
c The nurse should identify that an AE of allopurinol is renal injury. Therefore, clients are encouraged to drink at least 2,000mL/day to maintain a urine output of at least 2 liters per day.
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is taking oral furosemide 40 mg daily. For which of the following adverse effects should the client be taught to monitor and notify the provider if it occurs? a. nasal congestion. b. tremors. c. tinnitus. d. frontal headache
c Loop diuretics such as furosemide can cause ototoxicity. The client should be taught the provider if tinnitus, a full feeling in the ears, or hearing loss occurs.
A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record of a client who is receiving an opioid medication for pain. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider? a. metoprolol. b. ondansetron c. lorazepam. d. naloxone
c The nurse should identify that lorazepam can cause central nervous system depression, which can result in increased respiratory depression and sedation when administered with an opioid. The nurse should clarify the prescription with the provider.
A nurse is providing instruction to a new nurse about caring for a client who is receiving diuretic therapy to treat heart failure. The nurse should explain that which of the following medications puts client at risk for both hyerkalemia and hyponatremia? a. furosemide b. hydrochlorothiazide. c. metolazone d. spironolactone
d
A nurse is providing teaching to a client with TB who has prescriptions for rifampin and ethambutol. Which of the following findings is an adverse effect of these medications that the client should report to the provider? a. red-orange discoloration of urine. b. unexpected weight gain. c. ringing in the ears. d. decreased visual acuity
d
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has been on levothyroxine for several months. which of the following findings indicates a therapeutic response to the medication? a. decrease in level of thyroxine -T4. b. increase in weight. c. increase in hr of sleep per night d. decrease in level of thyroid of stimulating hormone (TSH)
d
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation. Which of the following medication should the nurse identify as being contraindicated for this client? a. dextromethorphan b. montelukast. c. ciprofloxacin. d. propranolol
d The nurse should identify that a client who is experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation requires the use of a beta2-agonist to alleviate bronchospasm and relax the client's airway. Therefore, propranolol is contraindicated for this client. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that is used to treat cardiac conditions, including hypertension. Blocking the beta receptors prevents the action of beta 2-agonists such as albuterol
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has multiple sclerosis and a new prescription for baclofen PO. which of the following pieces of information should the nurse include? a. " you should take the medication on an empty stomach to increase absorption." b. "You should stop taking the medication once your back spasms disappear. " c. "You can expect to experience urinary frequency when you first start taking this medication." d. "You should change positions slowly while taking this medication."
d dizziness and hypotension are AEs of this med.
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking warfarin. Which of the following lab values should the nurse recognize as an effective response to the medication? a. Hct 45%. b. Hgb 15 g/dL. c. aPTT 35 seconds. d. INR 3.0
d warfarin is an anticoagulant that prevents thrombus formation is susceptible clients. The INR measures its effectiveness. For most clients taking warfarin, an INR of 3.0 indicate effective therapy.
A nurse is caring for a client who has peptic ulcer disease and reports a headache. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer? a. ibuprofen. b. Naproxen c. aspirin d. acetaminophen
d Acetaminophen is an analgesic used for mild to moderate pain. It can be administered to a client who has peptic ulcer disease because it does not affect blood coagulation and does not increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding.
