Physics Midterm 2

he sound level in dB of a sound traveling through air at 0° C is 97 dB. Calculate its pressure amplitude. A. 4.3 Pa B. 0.20 Pa C. 0.04 Pa D. 2.1 Pa

D. 2.1 Pa

An artificial satellite orbits the Earth at a distance of 1.45×10^4 km from Earth's center. The moon orbits the Earth at a distance of 3.84×10^5 km once every 27.3 days. How long does it take the satellite to orbit the Earth? A. 0.200 days B. 3.07 days C. 243 days D. 3721 days

A. 0.200 days

You have a mass of 65.0 kg and you have just landed on one of the moons of a distant planet where you have a weight of 75.0 N. What is the acceleration due to gravity, g, on the moon you are visiting? A. 1.15 m/s^2 B. 1.23 m/s^2 C. 0.867 m/s^2 D. 8.49 m/s^2

A. 1.15 m/s^2

Saturn's moon Titan has an orbital period of 15.9 days. If Saturn has a mass of 5.68×10^23 kg, what is the average distance from Titan to the center of Saturn? A. 1.22×10^6 m B. 4.26×10^7 m C. 5.25×10^4 km D. 4.26×10^10 km

A. 1.22×10^6 m

Titan, with a radius of 2.58 x 10^6 m, is the largest moon of the planet Saturn. If the mass of Titan is 1.35 x10^23 kg, what is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of this moon? A. 1.35 m/s^2 B. 3.49 m/s^2 C. 3.49 x 10^6 m/s^2 D. 1.35 x 10^6 m/s^2

A. 1.35 m/s^2

If a seagull sitting in water bobs up and down once every 2 seconds and the distance between two crests of the water wave is 3 m, what is the velocity of the wave? A. 1.5 m/s B. 3 m/s C. 6 m/s D. 12 m/s

A. 1.5 m/s

Hyperion is a moon of the planet Saturn. Its orbit has an eccentricity of 0.123 and a semi-major axis of 1.48 x 10^6 km. How far is the center of the orbit from the center of Saturn? A. 1.82 x 10^5 km B. 3.64 x 10^5 km C. 1.20 x 10^7 km D. 2.41 x 10^7 km

A. 1.82 x 10^5 km

What is the possible number of nodes and antinodes along one full wavelength of a standing wave? A. 2 nodes and 3 antinodes or 2 antinodes and 3 nodes. B. 2 nodes and 2 antinodes or 3 antinodes and 3 nodes. C. 3 nodes and 3 antinodes or 2 antinodes and 2 nodes. D. 6 nodes and 4 antinodes or 6 antinodes and 4 nodes.

A. 2 nodes and 3 antinodes or 2 antinodes and 3 nodes.

What is the gravitational force between two 60.0-kg people sitting 100 m apart? A. 2.4 x 10^-11 N B. 2.4 x 10^-9 N C. 3.6 x 10^-1 N D. 3.6 x 10^1 N

A. 2.4 x 10^-11 N

A water wave propagates in a river at 6 m/s. If the river moves in the opposite direction at 3 m/s, what is the effective velocity of the wave? A. 3 m/s B. 6 m/s C. 9 m/s D. 18 m/s

A. 3 m/s

The masses of Earth and the moon are 5.97×10^24 kg and 7.35×10^22 kg, respectively. The distance from Earth to the moon is 3.80×10^5 km. At what point between the Earth and the moon are the opposing gravitational forces equal? (Use subscripts e and m to represent Earth and moon.) A. 3.42×10^5 km from the center of Earth B. 3.80×10^5 km from the center of Earth C. 3.42×10^6 km from the center of Earth D. 3.10×10^7 km from the center of Earth

A. 3.42×10^5 km from the center of Earth

How did Becquerel's observations of pitchblende imply the existence of radioactivity? A. A chemical reaction occurred on the photographic plate without any external source of energy. B. Bright spots appeared on the photographic plate due to an external source of energy. C. Energy from the Sun was absorbed by the pitchblende and reflected onto the photographic plate. D. Dark spots appeared on the photographic plate due to an external source of energy.

A. A chemical reaction occurred on the photographic plate without any external source of energy.

Give an example of a non-mechanical wave. A. A radio wave is an example of a nonmechanical wave. B. A sound wave is an example of a nonmechanical wave. C. A surface wave is an example of a nonmechanical wave. D. A seismic wave is an example of a nonmechanical wave.

A. A radio wave is an example of a nonmechanical wave.

What is added together when two waves superimpose? A. Amplitudes B. Wavelengths C. Velocities

A. Amplitudes

Comets have very elongated elliptical orbits with the sun at one focus. Using Kepler's Law, explain why a comet travels much faster near the sun than it does at the other end of the orbit. A. Because the satellite sweeps out equal areas in equal times B. Because the satellite sweeps out unequal areas in equal times C. Because the satellite is at the other focus of the ellipse D. Because the square of the period of the satellite is proportional to the cube of its average distance from the sun

A. Because the satellite sweeps out equal areas in equal times

How would the gold foil experiment have changed if electrons were used in place of alpha particles, assuming that the electrons hit the gold foil with the same force as the alpha particles? A. Being less massive, the electrons might have been scattered to a greater degree than the alpha particles. B. Being less massive, the electrons might have been scattered to a lesser degree than the alpha particles. C. Being more massive, the electrons would have been scattered to a greater degree than the alpha particles. D. Being more massive, the electrons would have been scattered to a lesser degree than the alpha particles.

A. Being less massive, the electrons might have been scattered to a greater degree than the alpha particles.

A dog would have a hard time stalking and catching a red bird hiding in a field of green grass. Explain this in terms of cone cells and color perception. A. Dogs are red-green color-blind because they can see only blue and yellow through two kinds of cone cells present in their eyes. B. Dogs are only red color-blind because they can see only blue and yellow through two kinds of cones cells present in their eyes. C. Dogs are only green color-blind because they can see only blue and yellow through two kinds of cones cells present in their eyes. D. Dogs are color-blind because they have only rods and no cone cells present in their eyes.

A. Dogs are red-green color-blind because they can see only blue and yellow through two kinds of cone cells present in their eyes.

It took scientists a long time to arrive at the understanding of gravity as explained by Galileo and Newton. They were hindered by two ideas that seemed like common sense but were serious misconceptions. First was the fact that heavier things fall faster than light things. Second, it was believed impossible that forces could act at a distance. Explain why these ideas persisted and why they prevented advances. A. Heavier things fall faster than light things if they have less surface area and greater mass density. In the Renaissance and before, forces that acted at a distance were considered impossible, so people were skeptical about scientific theories that invoked such forces. B. Heavier things fall faster than light things because they have greater surface area and less mass density. In the Renaissance and before, forces that act at a distance were considered impossible, so people were skeptical about scientific theories that invoked such forces. C. Heavier things fall faster than light things because they have less surface area and greater mass density. In the Renaissance and before, forces that act at a distance were considered impossible, so people were quick to accept scientific theories that invoked such forces. D. Heavier things fall faster than light things because they have larger surface area and less mass density. In the Renaissance and before, forces that act at a distance were considered impossible because of people's faith in scientific theories.

A. Heavier things fall faster than light things if they have less surface area and greater mass density. In the Renaissance and before, forces that acted at a distance were considered impossible, so people were skeptical about scientific theories that invoked such forces.

Why do heavy nuclei contain more neutrons than light nuclei? A. Heavy nuclei require more neutrons to achieve stability of the nucleus. B. Heavy nuclei require more neutrons in order to make atom overall charge neutral. C. Light nuclei are not as stable, thus they emit most of their neutrons. D. Light nuclei require fewer neutrons to make the atom overall charge neutral.

A. Heavy nuclei require more neutrons to achieve stability of the nucleus.

Why does fission of heavy nuclei result in the release of neutrons? A. Heavy nuclei require more neutrons to achieve stability. B. Heavy nuclei require more neutrons to balance charge. C. Light nuclei require more neutrons to achieve stability. D. Light nuclei require more neutrons to balance charge.

A. Heavy nuclei require more neutrons to achieve stability.

How is human speech produced? A. Human speech is produced by shaping the cavity formed by the throat and mouth, the vibration of vocal cords, and using the tongue to adjust the fundamental frequency and combination of overtones. B. Human speech is produced by shaping the cavity formed by the throat and mouth into a closed pipe and using tongue to adjust the fundamental frequency and combination of overtones. C. Human speech is produced only by the vibrations of the tongue. D. Human speech is produced by elongating the vocal cords.

A. Human speech is produced by shaping the cavity formed by the throat and mouth, the vibration of vocal cords, and using the tongue to adjust the fundamental frequency and combination of overtones.

Why do Bohr's calculations for electron energies not work for all atoms? A. In atoms with more than one electron is an atomic shell, the electrons will interact. That requires a more complex formula than Bohr's calculations accounted for. B. In atoms with 10 or more electorns in an atomic shell, the electrons will interact. That requires a more complex formula than Bohr's calculations accounted for. C. In atoms with more than one electron in an atomic shell, the electrons will not interact. That requires a more complex formula than Bohr's calculations accounted for. D. In atoms with 10 or more electrons in an atomic shell, the electrons will not interact. That requires a more complex formula than Bohr's calculations accounted for.

A. In atoms with more than one electron is an atomic shell, the electrons will interact. That requires a more complex formula than Bohr's calculations accounted for.

A person is in an elevator that suddenly begins to descend. The person knows, intuitively, that the feeling of suddenly becoming lighter is because the elevator is accelerating downward. What other change would produce the same feeling? How does this demonstrate Einstein's postulate on which he based the theory of general relativity? A. It would feel the same if the force of gravity suddenly became weaker. This illustrates Einstein's postulates that gravity and acceleration are indistinguishable. B. It would feel the same if the force of gravity suddenly became stronger. This illustrates Einstein's postulates that gravity and acceleration are indistinguishable. C. It would feel the same if the force of gravity suddenly became weaker. This illustrates Einstein's postulates that gravity and acceleration are distinguishable. D. It would feel the same if the force of gravity suddenly became stronger. This illustrates Einstein's postulates that gravity and acceleration are distinguishable.

A. It would feel the same if the force of gravity suddenly became weaker. This illustrates Einstein's postulates that gravity and acceleration are indistinguishable.

What kind of waves are sound waves? A. Mechanical waves B. Electromagnetic waves

A. Mechanical waves

Do water waves push water from one place to another? Explain. A. No, water waves transfer only energy from one place to another. B. Yes, water waves transfer water from one place to another.

A. No, water waves transfer only energy from one place to another.

Why would it most likely be difficult to observe quantized orbital states for satellites orbiting the earth? A. On a macroscopic level, the orbital states do exist for satellites orbiting Earth but are too closely spaced for us to see. B. On a macroscopic level, the orbital states do not exist for satellites orbiting Earth. C. On a macroscopic level, we cannot control the amount of energy that we give to an artificial satellite and thus control its orbital altitude. D. On a macroscopic level, we cannot control the amount of energy that we give to an artificial satellite but we can control its orbital altitude.

A. On a macroscopic level, the orbital states do exist for satellites orbiting Earth but are too closely spaced for us to see.

Why do some smaller instruments, such as piccolos, produce higher-pitched sounds than larger instruments, such as tubas? A. Smaller instruments produce sounds with shorter wavelengths, and thus higher frequencies. B. Smaller instruments produce longer wavelength, and thus higher amplitude, sounds. C. Smaller instruments produce lower amplitude, and thus longer wavelength sounds. D. Smaller instruments produce higher amplitude, and thus lower frequency, sounds.

A. Smaller instruments produce sounds with shorter wavelengths, and thus higher frequencies.

Why can light travel through outer space while sound cannot? A. Sound waves are mechanical waves and require a medium to propagate. Light waves can travel through a vacuum. B. Sound waves are electromagnetic waves and require a medium to propagate. Light waves can travel through a vacuum. C. Light waves are mechanical waves and do not require a medium to propagate; sound waves require a medium to propagate. D. Light waves are longitudinal waves and do not require a medium to propagate; sound waves require a medium to propagate.

A. Sound waves are mechanical waves and require a medium to propagate. Light waves can travel through a vacuum.

How is a human able to hear sounds? A. Sound waves cause the eardrum to vibrate. A complicated mechanism converts the vibrations to nerve impulses, which are perceived by the person as sound. B. Sound waves cause the ear canal to vibrate. A complicated mechanism converts the vibrations to nerve impulses, which are perceived by the person as sound. C. Sound waves transfer electrical impulses to the eardrum. A complicated mechanism converts the electrical impulses to sound. D. Sound waves transfer mechanical vibrations to the ear canal, and the eardrum converts them to electrical impulses.

A. Sound waves cause the eardrum to vibrate. A complicated mechanism converts the vibrations to nerve impulses, which are perceived by the person as sound.

What is the relation between the amplitude and the frequency of a wave? A. The amplitude and the frequency of a wave are independent of each other. B. The amplitude and the frequency of a wave are equal. C. The amplitude decreases with an increase in the frequency of a wave. D. The amplitude increases with an increase in the frequency of a wave.

A. The amplitude and the frequency of a wave are independent of each other.

What is the relation between the amplitude of a wave and its speed? A. The amplitude of a wave is independent of its speed. B. The amplitude of a wave is directly proportional to its speed. C. The amplitude of a wave is directly proportional to the square of the inverse of its speed. D. The amplitude of a wave is directly proportional to the inverse of its speed.

A. The amplitude of a wave is independent of its speed.

If the amplitude of a water wave is 0.2 m and its frequency is 2 Hz, how much distance would a bird sitting on the water's surface move with every wave? How many times will it do this every second? A. The bird will go up and down a distance of 0.4 m. It will do this twice per second. B. The bird will go up and down a distance of 0.2 m. It will do this twice per second. C. The bird will go up and down a distance of 0.4 m. It will do this once per second. D. The bird will go up and down a distance of 0.2 m. It will do this once per second.

A. The bird will go up and down a distance of 0.4 m. It will do this twice per second.

In a sound wave, which parameter of the medium varies with every cycle? A. The density of the medium varies with every cycle. B. The mass of the medium varies with every cycle. C. The resistivity of the medium varies with every cycle. D. The volume of the medium varies with every cycle.

A. The density of the medium varies with every cycle.

A circle is a special case of an ellipse. Explain how a circle is different from other ellipses. A. The foci of a circle are at the same point and are located at the center of the circle. B. The foci of a circle are at the same point and are located at the circumference of the circle. C. The foci of a circle are at the same point and are located outside of the circle. D. The foci of a circle are at the same point and are located anywhere on the diameter, except on its midpoint.

A. The foci of a circle are at the same point and are located at the center of the circle

Bright sunlight is reflected from an icy pond. You look at the glare of the reflected light through polarized glasses. When you take the glasses off, rotate them 90°, and look through one of the lenses again, the light you see becomes brighter. Explain why the light you see changes. A. The glass blocks horizontally polarized light, and the light reflected from the icy pond is, in part, polarized horizontally. B. The glass blocks vertically polarized light, and the light reflected from the icy pond is, in part, polarized vertically. C. The glass allows horizontally polarized light to pass, and the light reflected from the icy pond is, in part, polarized vertically. D. The glass allows horizontally polarized light to pass, and the light reflected from the icy pond is, in part, polarized horizontally.

A. The glass blocks horizontally polarized light, and the light reflected from the icy pond is, in part, polarized horizontally.

How does the orbital energy of a hydrogen-like atom change as it increases in atomic number? A. The orbital energy will increase. B. The orbital energy will decrease. C. The orbital energy will remain constant. D. The orbital energy will be halved.

A. The orbital energy will increase.

Why do people think carefully about whether to receive a diagnostic test such as a CT scan? A. The radiation from a CT scan is capable of creating cancerous cells. B. The radiation from a CT scan is capable of destroying cancerous cells. C. The radiation from a CT scan is capable of creating diabetic cells. D. The radiation from a CT scan is capable of destroying diabetic cells.

A. The radiation from a CT scan is capable of creating cancerous cells.

How does the radioactive activity of a sample change with time? A. The radioactive activity decreases exponentially. B. The radioactive activity undergoes linear decay. C. The radioactive activity undergoes logarithmic decay. D. The radioactive activity will not change with time.

A. The radioactive activity decreases exponentially.

Sometimes it is necessary to take a PET scan very soon after ingesting a radiopharmaceutical. Why is that the case? A. The radiopharmaceutical may have a short half-life. B. The radiopharmaceutical may have a long half-life. C. The radiopharmaceutical quickly passes through the digestive system. D. The radiopharmaceutical can become lodged in the digestive system.

A. The radiopharmaceutical may have a short half-life.

Some terms referring to the observation of light include emission spectrum and absorption spectrum. Based on these definitions, what would a reflection spectrum describe? A. The reflection spectrum would describe when incident waves are selectively reflected by a substance. B. The reflection spectrum would describe when incident waves are completely reflected by a substance. C. The reflection spectrum would describe when incident waves are not absorbed by a substance. D. The reflection spectrum would describe when incident waves are completely absorbed by a substance.

A. The reflection spectrum would describe when incident waves are selectively reflected by a substance.

When a passing driver has his stereo turned up, you cannot even hear what the person next to you is saying. Why is this so? A. The sound from the passing car's stereo has a higher amplitude and hence higher intensity compared to the intensity of the sound coming from the person next to you. The higher intensity corresponds to greater loudness, so the first sound dominates the second. B. The sound from the passing car's stereo has a higher amplitude and hence lower intensity compared to the intensity of the sound coming from the person next to you. The lower intensity corresponds to greater loudness, so the first sound dominates the second. C. The sound from the passing car's stereo has a higher frequency and hence higher intensity compared to the intensity of the sound coming from the person next to you. The higher frequency corresponds to greater loudness so the first sound dominates the second. D. The sound from the passing car's stereo has a lower frequency and hence higher intensity compared to the intensity of the sound coming from the person next to you. The lower frequency corresponds to greater loudness, so the first sound dominates the second.

A. The sound from the passing car's stereo has a higher amplitude and hence higher intensity compared to the intensity of the sound coming from the person next to you. The higher intensity corresponds to greater loudness, so the first sound dominates the second.

What is "timbre" of sound? A. Timbre is the quality of the sound that distinguishes it from other sound B. Timbre is the loudness of the sound that distinguishes it from other sound. C. Timbre is the pitch of the sound that distinguishes it from other sound. D. Timbre is the wavelength of the sound that distinguishes it from other sound.

A. Timbre is the quality of the sound that distinguishes it from other sound

Light travels at different speeds in different media. Put these media in order, from the slowest light speed to the fastest light speed: air, diamond, vacuum, water. A. diamond, water, air, vacuum B. vacuum, diamond, air, water C. diamond, air, water, vacuum D. air, diamond, water, vacuum

A. diamond, water, air, vacuum

Why does a standing wave form on a guitar string? A. due to superposition with the reflected waves from the ends of the string B. due to superposition with the reflected waves from the walls of the room C. due to superposition with waves generated from the body of the guitar

A. due to superposition with the reflected waves from the ends of the string

Which type of EM radiation has the shortest wavelengths? A. gamma rays B. infrared waves C. blue light D. microwaves

A. gamma rays

Observation of which phenomenon can be considered proof that something is a wave? A. interference B. noise C. reflection D. conduction

A. interference

What is the amplitude of a sound wave perceived by the human ear?* A. loudness B. pitch C. intensity D. timbre

A. loudness

With reference to waves, what is a trough? A. the lowermost position of a wave B. the uppermost position of a wave C. the final position of a wave D. the initial position of the wave

A. the lowermost position of a wave

What does the speed of a mechanical wave depend on? A. the properties of the material through which it travels B. the shape of the material through which it travels C. the size of the material through which it travels D. the color of the material through which it travels

A. the properties of the material through which it travels

Earth is 1.496×10^8 km from the sun, and Venus is 1.08×10^8 km from the sun. One day on Venus is 243 Earth days long. What best represents the number of Venusian days in a Venusian year? A. 0.78 days B. 0.92 days C. 1.08 days D. 1.21 days

B. 0.92 days

You have a mass of 55 kg and you have just landed on one of the moons of Jupiter where you have a weight of 67.9 N. What is the acceleration due to gravity, g, on the moon you are visiting? A. .810 m/s^2 B. 1.23 m/s^2 C. 539 m/s^2 D. 3735 m/s^2

B. 1.23 m/s^2

The orbit of the planet Mercury has a period of 88.0 days and an average radius of 5.791×10^10 m. What is the mass of the sun? A. 3.43×10^19 kg B. 1.99×10^30 kg C. 2.56×10^29 kg D. 1.48×10^40 kg

B. 1.99×10^30 kg

Suppose you start with 1 million (= 1.00 x 10^6) radioactive Cs-137 nuclei. After 1 half-life goes by, there will be 500,000 Cs-137 (parent nuclei) left and 500,000 Ba-137 (daughter nuclei). After 2 half-lives go by, how many parent and daughter nuclei will there be? A. 250,000 parent nuclei and 250,000 daughter nuclei B. 250,000 parent nuclei and 750,000 daughter nuclei C. 750,000 parent nuclei and 250,000 daughter nuclei D. 125,000 parent nuclei and 875,000 daughter nuclei

B. 250,000 parent nuclei and 750,000 daughter nuclei

What is the atomic number of the most strongly bound nuclide? A. 25 B. 26 C. 27 D. 28

B. 26

The average radius of Earth is 6.37 x 10^6 m. What is Earth's mass? A. 9.35 x 10^17 kg B. 5.96 x 10^24 kg C. 3.79 x 10^31 kg D. 2.42 x 10^38 kg

B. 5.96 x 10^24 kg

The orbits of satellites are elliptical. Define an ellipse. A. An ellipse is an open curve wherein the sum of the distance from the foci to any point on the curve is constant. B. An ellipse is a closed curve wherein the sum of the distance from the foci to any point on the curve is constant. C. An ellipse is an open curve wherein the distances from the two foci to any point on the curve are equal. D. An ellipse is a closed curve wherein the distances from the two foci to any point on the curve are equal.

B. An ellipse is a closed curve wherein the sum of the distance from the foci to any point on the curve is constant.

Describe the location of gamma rays on the electromagnetic spectrum. A. At the high-frequency and long-wavelength end of the spectrum B. At the high-frequency and short-wavelength end of the spectrum C. At the low-frequency and long-wavelength end of the spectrum D. At the low-frequency and short-wavelength end of the spectrum

B. At the high-frequency and short-wavelength end of the spectrum

Occasionally, during earthquakes, areas near the epicenter are not damaged while those farther away are damaged. Why could this occur? A. Destructive interference results in waves with greater amplitudes being formed in places farther away from the epicenter. B. Constructive interference results in waves with greater amplitudes being formed in places farther away from the epicenter. C. The standing waves of great amplitudes are formed in places farther away from the epicenter. D. The pulse waves of great amplitude are formed in places farther away from the epicenter.

B. Constructive interference results in waves with greater amplitudes being formed in places farther away from the epicenter.

What is the difference between harmonics and overtones? A. Harmonics are all multiples of the fundamental frequency. The first overtone is actually the first harmonic. B. Harmonics are all multiples of the fundamental frequency. The first overtone is actually the second harmonic. C. Harmonics are all multiples of the fundamental frequency. The second overtone is actually the first harmonic. D. Harmonics are all multiples of the fundamental frequency. The third overtone is actually the second harmonic.

B. Harmonics are all multiples of the fundamental frequency. The first overtone is actually the second harmonic.

Standing in front of a fire, we can sense both its heat and its light. How are the light and heat radiated by the fire the same, and how are they different? A. Both travel as waves, but only light waves are a form of electromagnetic radiation. B. Heat and light are both forms of electromagnetic radiation, but light waves have higher frequencies. C. Heat and light are both forms of electromagnetic radiation, but heat waves have higher frequencies. D. Heat and light are both forms of electromagnetic radiation, but light waves have higher wavelengths.

B. Heat and light are both forms of electromagnetic radiation, but light waves have higher frequencies.

When the speed of the source matches the speed of sound, what happens to the amplitude of the sound wave? Why? A. It approaches zero. This is because all wave crests are superimposed on one another through constructive interference. B. It approaches infinity. This is because all wave crests are superimposed on one another through constructive interference. C. It approaches zero, because all wave crests are superimposed on one another through destructive interference. D. It approaches infinity, because all wave crests are superimposed on one another through destructive interference.

B. It approaches infinity. This is because all wave crests are superimposed on one another through constructive interference.

With reference to waves, what is a disturbance? A. It refers to the resistance produced by some particles of a material. B. It refers to an oscillation produced by some energy that creates a wave. C. It refers to the wavelength of the wave. D. It refers to the speed of the wave.

B. It refers to an oscillation produced by some energy that creates a wave.

In which region of the electromagnetic spectrum would you find radiation that is invisible to the human eye and has low energy? A. Long-wavelength and high-frequency region B. Long-wavelength and low-frequency region C. Short-wavelength and high-frequency region D. Short-wavelength and low-frequency region

B. Long-wavelength and low-frequency region

Explain how X-radiation can be harmful and how it can be a useful diagnostic tool. A. Overexposure to X-rays can cause HIV, though normal levels of X-rays can be used for sterilizing needles. B. Overexposure to X-rays can cause cancer, though in limited doses X-rays can be used for imaging internal body parts. C. Overexposure to X-rays causes diabetes, though normal levels of X-rays can be used for imaging internal body parts. D. Overexposure to X-rays causes cancer, though normal levels of X-rays can be used for reducing cholesterol in the blood.

B. Overexposure to X-rays can cause cancer, though in limited doses X-rays can be used for imaging internal body parts.

What kind of a wave does a tuning fork create? A. Pulse wave B. Periodic wave C. Electromagnetic wave

B. Periodic wave

Why is radioactive iodine used to monitor the thyroid? A. Radioactive iodine can be used by the thyroid while absorbing information about the thyroid. B. Radioactive iodine can be used by the thyroid while emitting information about the thyroid. C. Radioactive iodine can be secreted by the thyroid while absorbing information about the thyroid. D. Radioactive iodine can be secreted by the thyroid while emitting information about the thyroid.

B. Radioactive iodine can be used by the thyroid while emitting information about the thyroid.

Why does a good-quality speaker have a woofer and a tweeter? A. In a good-quality speaker, sounds with high frequencies or short wavelengths are reproduced accurately by woofers, while sounds with low frequencies or long wavelengths are reproduced accurately by tweeters. B. Sounds with high frequencies or short wavelengths are reproduced more accurately by tweeters, while sounds with low frequencies or long wavelengths are reproduced more accurately by woofers.

B. Sounds with high frequencies or short wavelengths are reproduced more accurately by tweeters, while sounds with low frequencies or long wavelengths are reproduced more accurately by woofers.

How is sound produced by an electronic speaker? A. The cone of a speaker vibrates to create small changes in the temperature of the air. B. The cone of a speaker vibrates to create small changes in the pressure of the air. C. The cone of a speaker vibrates to create small changes in the volume of the air. D. The cone of a speaker vibrates to create small changes in the resistance of the air.

B. The cone of a speaker vibrates to create small changes in the pressure of the air.

Why are different radiopharmaceuticals used to image different parts of the body? A. The different radiopharmaceuticals travel through different blood vessels. B. The different radiopharmaceuticals travel to different parts of the body. C. The different radiopharmaceuticals are used to treat different diseases of the body. D. The different radiopharmaceuticals produce different amounts of ionizing radiation.

B. The different radiopharmaceuticals travel to different parts of the body.

What did the Cavendish experiment measure? A. The mass of Earth B. The gravitational constant C. Acceleration due to gravity D. The eccentricity of Earth's orbit

B. The gravitational constant

Explain how the masses of a satellite and its parent body must compare in order to apply Kepler's laws of planetary motion. A. The mass of the parent body must be much less than that of the satellite. B. The mass of the parent body must be much greater than that of the satellite. C. The mass of the parent body must be equal to the mass of the satellite. D. There is no specific relationship between the masses for applying Kepler's laws of planetary motion.

B. The mass of the parent body must be much greater than that of the satellite.

If electrons are negatively charged and the nucleus is positively charged, why do they not attract and collide with each other? A. The pull from the nucleus provides a centrifugal force, which is not strong enough to draw the electrons into the nucleus. B. The pull from the nucleus provides a centripetal force, which is not strong enough to draw the electrons into the nucleus. C. The pull from the nucleus provides a helical motion. D. The pull from the nucleus provides a cycloid motion.

B. The pull from the nucleus provides a centripetal force, which is not strong enough to draw the electrons into the nucleus.

What is it about the nature of light reflected from snow that causes skiers to wear polarized sunglasses? A. The reflected light is polarized in the vertical direction. B. The reflected light is polarized in the horizontal direction. C. The reflected light has less intensity than the incident light. D. The reflected light has triple the intensity of the incident light.

B. The reflected light is polarized in the horizontal direction.

What does the speed of seismic waves depend on? A. The speed of seismic waves depends on the size of the medium. What does the speed of seismic waves depend on? 1/1 A. The speed of seismic waves depends on the size of the medium. B. The speed of seismic waves depends on the rigidity of the medium. C. The speed of seismic waves depends on the age of the medium. D. The speed of seismic waves depends on the magnitude of the earthquake. C. The speed of seismic waves depends on the age of the medium. D. The speed of seismic waves depends on the magnitude of the earthquake.

B. The speed of seismic waves depends on the rigidity of the medium.

An n = 2 orbital contains exactly 2 standing electron wavelengths. An n = 4 orbital contains exactly 4 standing electron wavelengths. However, the radius of the n = 4 orbital is 4x larger than the radius of the n = 2 orbital since r goes as n^2. Compare the standing wavelength of the n = 2 orbital to the standing wavelength of the n = 4 orbital. A. The standing wavelength of an n = 2 orbital is greater than the standing wavelength of an n = 4 orbital. B. The standing wavelength of an n = 2 orbital is less than the standing wavelength of an n = 4 orbital. C. There is no relation between the standing wavelength of an n = 2 orbital and the standing wavelength of an n = 4 orbital. D. The standing wavelength of an n = 2 orbital is the same as the standing wavelength of ann = 4 orbital.

B. The standing wavelength of an n = 2 orbital is less than the standing wavelength of an n = 4 orbital.

Compare the standing wavelength of an n = 2 orbital to the standing wavelength of an n = 4 orbital. A. The standing wavelength of an n = 2 orbital is greater than the standing wavelength of an n = 4 orbital. B. The standing wavelength of an n = 2 orbital is less than the standing wavelength of an n = 4 orbital. C. There is no relation between the standing wavelength of an n = 2 orbital and the standing wavelength of an n = 4 orbital. D. The standing wavelength of an n = 2 orbital is the same as the standing wavelength of an n = 4 orbital.

B. The standing wavelength of an n = 2 orbital is less than the standing wavelength of an n = 4 orbital.

Visible light has wavelengths in the range of about 400 to 800 nm. What does this indicate about the approximate thickness of the wall of a soap bubble? Explain your answer. A. The thickness of the bubble wall is ten times that of the wavelength of light. B. The thickness of the bubble wall is similar to that of the wavelength of light. C. The thickness of the bubble wall is half the wavelength of light. D. The thickness of the bubble wall equals the cube of the wavelength of light.

B. The thickness of the bubble wall is similar to that of the wavelength of light.

Two identical waves with an amplitude X superimpose in a way that pure constructive interference occurs. What is the amplitude of the resultant wave? A. X/2 B. X C. 2X D. X^2

C. 2X

How is the distance to the epicenter of an earthquake determined? A. The wavelength difference between P-waves and S-waves is used to measure the distance to the epicenter. B. The time difference between P-waves and S-waves is used to measure the distance to the epicenter. C. The frequency difference between P-waves and S-waves is used to measure the distance to the epicenter. D. The phase difference between P-waves and S-waves is used to measure the distance to the epicenter.

B. The time difference between P-waves and S-waves is used to measure the distance to the epicenter.

Describe the electric and magnetic fields that make up an electromagnetic wave in terms of their orientation relative to each other and their phases. A. They are perpendicular to and out of phase with each other. B. They are perpendicular to and in phase with each other. C. They are parallel to and out of phase with each other. D. They are parallel to and in phase with each other.

B. They are perpendicular to and in phase with each other.

What kind of waves are electromagnetic waves? A. Longitudinal waves B. Transverse waves C. Mechanical waves D. P-waves

B. Transverse waves

What are orbital progressive waves? A. Waves that force the particles of the medium to follow a linear path from the crest to the trough B. Waves that force the particles of the medium to follow a circular path from the crest to the trough C. Waves that force the particles of the medium to follow a zigzag path from the crest to the trough D. Waves that force the particles of the medium to follow a random path from the crest to the trough

B. Waves that force the particles of the medium to follow a circular path from the crest to the trough

Does the elasticity of the medium affect the speed of sound? How? A. No, there is no relationship that exists between the speed of sound and elasticity of the medium. B. Yes. When particles are more easily compressed in a medium, sound does not travel as quickly through the medium. C. Yes. When the particles in a medium do not compress much, sound does not travel as quickly through the medium. D. No, the elasticity of a medium affects frequency and wavelength, not wave speed.

B. Yes. When particles are more easily compressed in a medium, sound does not travel as quickly through the medium.

A planet of mass m circles a sun of mass M. Which distance changes throughout the planet's orbit? A. distance f_1 to f_2 B. distance m to M C. distance M to f_2, M to f_1 D. distance M to f_1

B. distance m to M

What component of a longitudinal sound wave is analogous to a trough of a transverse wave? A. compression B. rarefaction C. node D. antinode

B. rarefaction

What is the fundamental frequency of an open-pipe resonator? A. 3v/2L B. v/2L C. v/L D. 2 v/L

B. v/2L

Do standing waves explain why electron orbitals are quantized? A. no, any number of electron wavelengths can occupy an electron orbital B. yes, although Bohr's original theory did not view electrons as waves

B. yes, although Bohr's original theory did not view electrons as waves

Earth is 1.496×10^8 km from the sun, and Neptune is 4.490×10^9 km from the sun. What best represents the number of Earth years it takes for Neptune to complete one orbit around the sun? A. 10 years B. 30 years C. 160 years D. 900 years

C. 160 years

For convenience, astronomers often use astronomical units (AU) to measure distances within the solar system. One AU equals the average distance from Earth to the sun. Halley's Comet returns once every 75.3 years. What is the average radius of the orbit of Halley's Comet in AU? A. 0.002 AU B. 0.056 AU C. 17.8 AU D. 653 AU

C. 17.8 AU

If the horizontal distance, that is, the distance in the direction of propagation, between a crest and the adjacent trough of a sine wave is 1 m , what is the wavelength of the wave?* 1/1 A. 0.5 m B. 1 m C. 2 m D. 4m

C. 2 m

What is the period of a wave with a frequency of 0.5 Hz? A. 0.5 s B. 1 s C. 2 s D. 3 s

C. 2 s

Rhea, with a radius of 7.63×10^5 m, is the second-largest moon of the planet Saturn. If the mass of Rhea is 2.31×10^21 kg, what is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of this moon? A. 2.65×10^−1 m/s B. 2.02×10^5 m/s C. 2.65×10^−1 m/s^2 D. 2.02×10^5 m/s^2

C. 2.65×10^−1 m/s^2

What is the difference in decibels (dB) for one sound which is 100 times the intensity of another sound? That is I_1/I_2 = 100. You will need to use the decibel formula. A. 2 dB B. 10 dB C. 20 dB D. 100 dB

C. 20 dB

What is the length of an closed-pipe resonator with a fundamental frequency of 400.0 Hz? (Assume the speed of sound is 331 m/s.) A. 165.1 cm B. 82.22 cm C. 20.69 cm D. 41.38 cm

C. 20.69 cm

The focal point of the elliptical orbit of a moon is 50,000 km from the center of the orbit. If the eccentricity of the orbit is 0.25, what is the length of the semi-major axis? A. 12,500 km B. 100,000 km C. 200,000 km D. 400,000 km

C. 200,000 km

A boat in the trough of a wave takes 3 seconds to reach the highest point of the wave. The velocity of the wave is 5 m/s. What is its wavelength? A. 0.83 m B. 15 m C. 30 m D. 180 m

C. 30 m

Two identical waves superimpose in pure constructive interference. What is the trough-to-crest height of the resultant wave if the amplitude of each of the waves is 1.5 m? A. 1 m B. 3 m C. 6 m D. 9 m

C. 6 m

Earth has a mass of 5.971×10^24 kg and a radius of 6.371×10^6 m. Use the data to check the value of the gravitational constant. A. 6.66× 10 ^ −11 ( N · m )/( kg^2 ) , it matches the value of the gravitational constant G. B. 1.05× 10 ^ −17 ( N · m )/( kg^2 ) , it matches the value of the gravitational constant G. C. 6.66× 10 ^ −11 ( N · m^2 )/( kg^2 ) , it matches the value of the gravitational constant G. D. 1.05× 10 ^ −17 ( N · m^2 )/( kg^2 ) , it matches the value of the gravitational constant G.

C. 6.66× 10 ^ −11 ( N · m^2 )/( kg^2 ) , it matches the value of the gravitational constant G.

If a particular sound S1 is 5 times more intense than another sound S2, then what is the difference in sound intensity levels in dB for these two sounds? A. 5 dB B. 6 dB C. 7 dB

C. 7 dB

The closest Earth comes to the sun is 1.47×10^8 km, and Earth's farthest distance from the sun is 1.52×10^8 km. What is the area inside Earth's orbit? A. 2.23×10^16 km^2 B. 6.79×10^16 km^2 C. 7.02×10^16 km^2 D. 7.26×10^16 km^2

C. 7.02×10^16 km^2

What kind(s) of interference can occur between two identical waves moving in opposite directions? A. Constructive interference only B. Destructive interference only C. Both constructive and destructive interference D. Neither constructive nor destructive interference

C. Both constructive and destructive interference

Why are large electromagnets necessary in nuclear fusion reactors? A. Electromagnets are used to slow down the movement of charge hydrogen plasma. B. Electromagnets are used to decrease the temperature of hydrogen plasma. C. Electromagnets are used to confine the hydrogen plasma. D. Electromagnets are used to stabilize the temperature of the hydrogen plasma.

C. Electromagnets are used to confine the hydrogen plasma.

A star emits light from its core. One observer views the emission unobstructed while a second observer views the emission while obstructed by a cloud of hydrogen gas. Describe the difference between their observations. A. Intensity of the light in the spectrum will increase. B. Intensity of the light in the spectrum will decrease. C. Frequencies will be absorbed from the spectrum. D. Frequencies will be added to the spectrum.

C. Frequencies will be absorbed from the spectrum.

Why are high-frequency gamma rays more dangerous to humans than visible light? A. Gamma rays have a lower frequency range than visible light. B. Gamma rays have a longer wavelength range than visible light. C. Gamma rays have greater energy than visible light for penetrating matter. D. Gamma rays have less energy than visible light for penetrating matter.

C. Gamma rays have greater energy than visible light for penetrating matter.

Describe the postulate on which Einstein based the theory of general relativity and describe an everyday experience that illustrates this postulate. A. Gravity and velocity have the same effect and cannot be distinguished from each other. An acceptable illustration of this is any description of the feeling of constant velocity in a situation where no outside frame of reference is considered. B. Gravity and velocity have different effects and can be distinguished from each other. An acceptable illustration of this is any description of the feeling of constant velocity in a situation where no outside frame of reference is considered. C. Gravity and acceleration have the same effect and cannot be distinguished from each other. An acceptable illustration of this is any description of the feeling of acceleration in a situation where no outside frame of reference is considered. D. Gravity and acceleration have different effects and can be distinguished from each other. An acceptable illustration of this is any description of the feeling of acceleration in a situation where no outside frame of reference is considered.

C. Gravity and acceleration have the same effect and cannot be distinguished from each other. An acceptable illustration of this is any description of the feeling of acceleration in a situation where no outside frame of reference is considered

How can humming while shooting a gun reduce ear damage? A. Humming can trigger those two muscles in the outer ear that react to intense sound produced while shooting and reduce the force transmitted to the cochlea. B. Humming can trigger those three muscles in the outer ear that react to intense sound produced while shooting and reduce the force transmitted to the cochlea. C. Humming can trigger those two muscles in the middle ear that react to intense sound produced while shooting and reduce the force transmitted to the cochlea. D. Humming can trigger those three muscles in the middle ear that react to intense sound produced while shooting and reduce the force transmitted to the cochlea.

C. Humming can trigger those two muscles in the middle ear that react to intense sound produced while shooting and reduce the force transmitted to the cochlea.

When you move a rope up and down, waves are created. If the waves pass through a slot, they will be affected differently, depending on the orientation of the slot. Light waves can also be filtered by their polarization - which of the following statements is incorrect? A. If the wave—electric field—is vertical and slit—polarizing molecules in the glass—are horizontal, the wave will pass. B. If the wave—electric field— is vertical and slit—polarizing molecules in the glass— are vertical, the wave will not pass. C. If the wave—electric field—is horizontal and slit—polarizing molecules in the glass—are horizontal, the wave will pass. D. If the wave—electric field—is horizontal and slit—polarizing molecules in the glass — are horizontal, the wave will not pass.

C. If the wave—electric field—is horizontal and slit—polarizing molecules in the glass—are horizontal, the wave will pass.

How does the illuminance of light change when the distance from the light source is tripled? Cite the relevant equation and explain how it supports your answer. A. Illuminance = P · (4πr^2) ; if distance is tripled, then the illuminance increases by 19 times. B. Illuminance = P / (4πr) ; if distance is tripled, then the illuminance decreases by 13 times. C. Illuminance = P / (4πr^2) ; if distance is tripled, then the illuminance decreases by 9 times. D. Illuminance = P · 4π r ; if distance tripled, then the illuminance increases by 3 times.

C. Illuminance = P / (4πr^2) ; if distance is tripled, then the illuminance decreases by 9 times.

Explain why a star on the other side of the Sun might appear to be in a location that is not its true location. A. It can be explained by using the concept of atmospheric refraction. B. It can be explained by using the concept of the special theory of relativity. C. It can be explained by using the concept of the general theory of relativity. D. It can be explained by using the concept of light scattering in the atmosphere.

C. It can be explained by using the concept of the general theory of relativity.

Give an example of a wave that propagates only through a solid. A. Light wave B. Sound wave C. Seismic wave D. Surface wave

C. Seismic wave

Why is sound from a stereo louder in one part of the room and softer in another? A. Sound is louder in parts of the room where the density is greatest. Sound is softer in parts of the room where density is smallest. B. Sound is louder in parts of the room where the density is smallest. Sound is softer in parts of the room where density is greatest. C. Sound is louder in parts of the room where constructive interference occurs and softer in parts where destructive interference occurs. D. Sound is louder in parts of the room where destructive interference occurs and softer in parts where constructive interference occurs.

C. Sound is louder in parts of the room where constructive interference occurs and softer in parts where destructive interference occurs.

How is the propagation of sound in solids different from that in air? A. Sound waves in solids are transverse, whereas in air, they are longitudinal. B. Sound waves in solids are longitudinal, whereas in air, they are transverse. C. Sound waves in solids can be both longitudinal and transverse, whereas in air, they are longitudinal. D. Sound waves in solids are longitudinal, whereas in air, they can be both longitudinal and transverse.

C. Sound waves in solids can be both longitudinal and transverse, whereas in air, they are longitudinal.

Describe one way in which heat waves—infrared radiation—are different from sound waves. A. Sound waves are transverse waves, whereas heat waves—infrared radiation—are longitudinal waves. B. Sound waves have shorter wavelengths than heat waves. C. Sound waves require a medium, whereas heat waves—infrared radiation—do not. D. Sound waves have higher frequencies than heat waves.

C. Sound waves require a medium, whereas heat waves—infrared radiation—do not.

If a nucleus elongates due to a neutron strike, which of the following forces will decrease? A. Nuclear force between neutrons only B. Coulomb force between protons only C. Strong nuclear force between all nucleons and Coulomb force between protons, but the strong force will decrease more D. Strong nuclear force between neutrons and Coulomb force between protons, but Coulomb force will decrease more

C. Strong nuclear force between all nucleons and Coulomb force between protons, but the strong force will decrease more

Which property of the wave is related to its intensity? How? A. The frequency of the wave is related to the intensity of the sound. The larger-frequency oscillations indicate greater pressure maxima and minima, and the pressure is higher in greater-intensity sound. B. The wavelength of the wave is related to the intensity of the sound. The longer-wavelength oscillations indicate greater pressure maxima and minima, and the pressure is higher in greater-intensity sound. C. The amplitude of the wave is related to the intensity of the sound. The larger-amplitude oscillations indicate greater pressure maxima and minima, and the pressure is higher in greater-intensity sound. D. The speed of the wave is related to the intensity of the sound. The higher-speed oscillations indicate greater pressure maxima and minima, and the pressure is higher in greater-intensity sound.

C. The amplitude of the wave is related to the intensity of the sound. The larger-amplitude oscillations indicate greater pressure maxima and minima, and the pressure is higher in greater-intensity sound.

What is the relation between a wave's energy and its amplitude? A. There is no relation between the energy and the amplitude of a wave. B. The magnitude of the energy is equal to the magnitude of the amplitude of a wave. C. The energy of a wave increases with an increase in the amplitude of the wave. D. The energy of a wave decreases with an increase in the amplitude of a wave.

C. The energy of a wave increases with an increase in the amplitude of the wave.

What is the relation between the amplitude and height of a transverse wave? A. The height of a wave is half of its amplitude. B. The height of a wave is equal to its amplitude. C. The height of a wave is twice its amplitude. D. The height of a wave is four times its amplitude.

C. The height of a wave is twice its amplitude.

What is the natural frequency of a system? A. The natural frequency is the frequency at which a system oscillates when it undergoes forced vibration. B. The natural frequency is the frequency at which a system oscillates when it undergoes damped oscillation. C. The natural frequency is the frequency at which a system oscillates when it undergoes free vibration without a driving force or damping. D. The natural frequency is the frequency at which a system oscillates when it undergoes forced vibration with damping.

C. The natural frequency is the frequency at which a system oscillates when it undergoes free vibration without a driving force or damping.

Describe the potential energy of two nuclei as they approach each other. A. The potential energy will decrease as the nuclei are brought together and then rapidly increase once a minimum is reached. B. The potential energy will decrease as the nuclei are brought together. C. The potential energy will increase as the nuclei are brought together and the potential energy will increase as the nuclei are brought together and then rapidly decrease once a maximum is reached.

C. The potential energy will increase as the nuclei are brought together and the potential energy will increase as the nuclei are brought together and then rapidly decrease once a maximum is reached.

What does the speed of seismic waves depend on? A. The speed of seismic waves depends on the size of the medium. B. The speed of seismic waves depends on the shape of the medium. C. The speed of seismic waves depends on the rigidity of the medium.

C. The speed of seismic waves depends on the rigidity of the medium.

What is the observed frequency when the observer is moving away from the source at 125 m/s? The source frequency is 237 Hz and the speed of sound is 325 m/s. A. 303 Hz B. 259 Hz C. 201 Hz D. 146 Hz

D. 146 Hz

What is the speed of sound in fresh water at 20 degrees Celsius? A. 5960 m/s B. 1540 m/s C. 331 m/s D. 1480 m/s

D. 1480 m/s

Explain why the string, pins, and pencil method works for drawing an ellipse. A. The string, pins, and pencil method works because the length of the two sides of the triangle remains constant as you are drawing the ellipse. B. The string, pins, and pencil method works because the area of the triangle remains constant as you are drawing the ellipse. C. The string, pins, and pencil method works because the perimeter of the triangle remains constant as you are drawing the ellipse. D. The string, pins, and pencil method works because the volume of the triangle remains constant as you are drawing the ellipse.

C. The string, pins, and pencil method works because the perimeter of the triangle remains constant as you are drawing the ellipse.

Explain why we see the colorful effects of thin-film interference on the surface of soap bubbles and oil slicks, but not on the surface of a window pane or clear plastic bag. A. The thickness of a window pane or plastic bag is more than the wavelength of light, and interference occurs for thicknesses smaller than the wavelength of light. B. The thickness of a window pane or plastic bag is less than the wavelength of light, and interference occurs for thicknesses similar to the wavelength of light. C. The thickness of a window pane or plastic bag is more than the wavelength of light, and interference occurs for thicknesses similar to the wavelength of light. D. The thickness of a window pane or plastic bag is less than the wavelength of light, and interference occurs for thicknesses larger than the wavelength of light.

C. The thickness of a window pane or plastic bag is more than the wavelength of light, and interference occurs for thicknesses similar to the wavelength of light.

Explain why doubling the mass of an object doubles its weight, but doubling its distance from the center of Earth reduces its weight fourfold. A. The weight is two times the gravitational force between the object and Earth. B. The weight is half the gravitational force between the object and Earth. C. The weight is equal to the gravitational force between the object and Earth, and the gravitational force is inversely proportional to the distance squared between the object and Earth. D. The weight is directly proportional to the square of the gravitational force between the object and Earth.

C. The weight is equal to the gravitational force between the object and Earth, and the gravitational force is inversely proportional to the distance squared between the object and Earth

Why does the emission spectrum of an isolated gas differ from the emission spectrum created by a white light? A. White light and an emission spectrum are different varieties of continuous distribution of frequencies. B. White light and an emission spectrum are different series of discrete frequencies. C. White light is a continuous distribution of frequencies, and an emission spectrum is a series of discrete frequencies. D. White light is a series of discrete frequencies, and an emission spectrum is a continuous distribution of frequencies.

C. White light is a continuous distribution of frequencies, and an emission spectrum is a series of discrete frequencies.

What happens when two dissimilar waves interfere? A. pure constructive interference B. pure destructive interference C. a combination of constructive and destructive interference

C. a combination of constructive and destructive interference

Which nerve carries auditory information to the brain? A. buccal nerve B. peroneal nerve C. cochlear nerve D. mandibular nerve

C. cochlear nerve

Which form of EM radiation has the most penetrating ability? A. red light B. microwaves C. gamma rays D. infrared radiation

C. gamma rays

Give an example of longitudinal waves. A. light waves B. water waves in a lake C. sound waves in air D. seismic waves in Earth's surface

C. sound waves in air

When does a yo-yo travel the farthest from the finger? A. when the amplitude of the finger moving up and down is greater than the amplitude of the yo-yo B. when the amplitude of the finger moving up and down is less than the amplitude of the yo-yo C. when the frequency of the finger moving up and down is equal to the resonant frequency of the yo-yo D. when the frequency of the finger moving up and down is different from the resonant frequency of the yo-yo

C. when the frequency of the finger moving up and down is equal to the resonant frequency of the yo-yo

By what minimum amount should frequencies vary for humans to be able to distinguish two separate sounds? A. 100 Hz B. 10 Hz C. 5 Hz D. 1 Hz

D. 1 Hz

A light bulb has an illuminance of 19.9 lx at a distance of 2 m . What is the luminous flux of the bulb? A. 500 lm B. 320 lm C. 250 lm D. 1,000 lm

D. 1,000 lm

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) recommends an illuminance of 500 lx for desktop lighting. An office space has lighting hung 2.50 m above desktop level that provides only 300 lx. To what height would the lighting fixtures have to be lowered to provide 500 lx on desktops? A. 1.22 m B. 1.09 m C. 0.96 m D. 1.94 m

D. 1.94 m

Mars has two moons, Deimos and Phobos. The orbit of Deimos has a period of 1.26 days and an average radius of 2.35 x 10^3 km. The average radius of the orbit of Phobos is 9.374 x 10^3 km. According to Kepler's third law of planetary motion, what is the period of Phobos? A. 0.16 days B. 0.50 days C. 3.17 days D. 10.0 days

D. 10.0 days

A tuning fork oscillates at a frequency of 512 Hz, creating sound waves. How many waves will reach the eardrum of a person near that fork in 2 seconds? A. 512 B. 128 C. 256 D. 1024

D. 1024

What is the frequency of a stationary sound source if you hear it at 1200.0 Hz while moving towards it at a speed of 50.0 m/s? (Assume speed of sound to be 331 m/s.) A. 1410 Hz B. 1380 Hz C. 1020 Hz D. 1042 Hz

D. 1042 Hz

An ambulance is moving away from you. You are standing still and you hear its siren at a frequency of 101 Hz. You know that the actual frequency of the siren is 105 Hz. What is the speed of the ambulance? (Assume the speed of sound to be 331 m/s.) A. 17.07 m/s B. 16.55 m/s C. 14.59 m/s D. 13.1 m/s

D. 13.1 m/s

How many lumens are radiated from a candle which has an illuminance of 3.98 lx at a distance of 2.00 m? A. 400 lm B. 100 lm C. 50 lm D. 200 lm

D. 200 lm

A tube open at both ends has a fundamental frequency of 500 Hz. What will the frequency be if one end is closed? A. 1000 Hz B. 500 Hz C. 125 Hz D. 250 Hz

D. 250 Hz

A bat produces a sound at 17,250 Hz and wavelength 0.019 m. What is the speed of the sound? A. 1.7 x 10^6 m/s B. 8.6 x 10^5 m/s C. 1.15 x 10^-6 m/s D. 3.28 x 10^2 m/s

D. 3.28 x 10^2 m/s

Visible light has a range of wavelengths from about 400 nm to 800 nm . What is the range of frequencies for visible light? A. 3.75 × 10^6 Hz to 7.50 × 10^6 Hz B. 3.75 Hz to 7.50 Hz C. 3.75 × 10^−7 Hz to 7.50 × 10^−7 Hz D. 3.75 × 10^14 Hz to 7.50 × 10^14 Hz

D. 3.75 × 10^14 Hz to 7.50 × 10^14 Hz

he time difference between a 2 km/s S-wave and a 6 km/s P-wave recorded at a certain point is 10 seconds. How far is the epicenter of the earthquake from that point? A. 15 m B. 30 m C. 15 km D. 30 km

D. 30 km

Two identical waves superimpose in pure constructive interference. What is the height of the resultant wave if the amplitude of each of the waves is 1 m? A. 1 m B. 2 m C. 3 m D. 4 m

D. 4 m

A particular sound, S1, has an intensity 3 times that of another sound, S2. What is the difference in sound intensity levels measured in decibels? A. 9.54 dB B. 6.02 dB C. 3.01 dB D. 4.77 dB

D. 4.77 dB

What is the beat frequency produced by the superposition of two waves with frequencies 300 Hz and 340 Hz? A. 640 Hz B. 320 Hz C. 20 Hz D. 40 Hz

D. 40 Hz

What is the length of an open-pipe resonator with a fundamental frequency of 400.0 Hz? (Assume the speed of sound is 331 m/s.)* A. 165.1 cm B. 82.22 cm C. 20.25 cm D. 41.38 cm

D. 41. 38 Hz

Light travels through the wall of a soap bubble that is 600 nm thick and is reflected from the inner surface back into the air. Assume the bubble wall is mostly water and that light travels in water at 75 percent of the speed of light in vacuum. How many seconds behind will the light reflected from the inner surface arrive compared to the light that was reflected from the outer surface? A. 4.0 × 10^-8 s B. 5.3 × 10^-6 s C. 2.65 × 10^-15 s D. 5.3 × 10^-15 s

D. 5.3 × 10^-15 s

A boat bobs up and down as waves pass by. Starting from the trough of a wave takes 5 seconds to reach the crest of the wave. The velocity of the waves is 5 m/s. What is the wavelength? A. 5 m B. 10 m C. 25 m D. 50 m

D. 50 m

What is the wavelength of red light with a frequency of 4.00 × 10^14 Hz? A. 2.50 × 10^14 m B. 4.00 × 10^15 m C. 2.50 × 10^6 m D. 7.50 × 10^-7 m

D. 7.50 × 10^-7 m

Calculate the sound intensity for a sound wave traveling through air at 15° C and having a pressure amplitude of 0.80 Pa. (Hint—Speed of sound in air at 15° C is 340 m/s .) A. 9.6×10^−3 W / m^2 B. 7.7×10^−3 W / m^2 C. 9.6×10^−4 W / m^2 D. 7.7×10^−4 W / m^2

D. 7.7×10^−4 W / m^2

Saturn is 1.43×1012 m from the Sun. How many minutes does it take the Sun's light to reach Saturn? A. 7.94 × 10^9 minutes B. 3.4 × 10^4 minutes C. 3.4 × 10^-6 minutes D. 79.4 minutes

D. 79. 4 minutes

A moon orbits a planet in an elliptical orbit. The foci of the ellipse are 50, 000 km apart. The closest approach of the moon to the planet is 400, 000 km. What is the length of the major axis of the orbit? A. 400, 000 km B. 450, 000, km C. 800, 000 km D. 850, 000 km

D. 850, 000 km

What is the distance of one light year in kilometers? A. 2.59 × 10^10 km B. 1.58 × 10^11 km C. 2.63 × 10^9 km D. 9.46 × 10^12 km

D. 9.46 × 10^12 km

An ambulance passes you at a speed of 15.0 m/s. If its siren has a frequency of 995 Hz, what is difference in the frequencies you perceive before and after it passes you? (Assume the speed of sound in air is 331 m/s.) A. 47.0 Hz B. 43.0 Hz C. 94.9 Hz D. 90.0 Hz

D. 90.0 Hz

Aside from energy yield, why are nuclear fusion reactors more desirable than nuclear fission reactors? A. Nuclear fusion reactors have a low installation cost. B. Radioactive waste is greater for a fusion reactor. C. Nuclear fusion reactors are easy to design and build. D. A fusion reactor produces less radioactive waste.

D. A fusion reactor produces less radioactive waste.

Overexposure to this range of EM radiation is dangerous, and yet it is used by doctors to diagnose medical problems. Part A—Identify the type of radiation. Part B—Locate the position of this radiation on the EM spectrum by comparing its frequency and wavelength to visible light. Part C—Explain why this radiation is both dangerous and therapeutic in terms of its energy, based on your answer to Part B. A. A. X-rays B. X-rays have shorter wavelengths ( 1× 10 ^ -8 -5× 10 ^ -12 m ) and higher frequencies ( 3× 10 ^ 16 -6× 10 ^ 19 Hz ) than visible light ( 7.5× 10 ^ -7 -4.0× 10 ^ -7 m; 4.0× 10 ^ 14 -7.5× 10 ^ 14 Hz ). C. X-rays have low energies because of their high frequencies, and so can penetrate matter to greater depths. B. A. X-rays B. X-rays have shorter wavelengths ( 1× 10 ^ -8 -5× 10 ^ -12 m ) and higher frequencies ( 3× 10 ^ 10 -6× 10 ^ 13 Hz ) than visible light ( 7.5× 10 ^ -7 -4.0× 10 ^ -7 m; 4.0× 10 ^ 14 -7.5× 10 ^ 14 Hz ). C. X-rays have low energies because of their low frequencies, and so can penetrate matter to greater depths. C. A. X-rays B. X-rays have longer wavelengths ( 1× 10 ^ -6 -5× 10 ^ -7 m ) and higher frequencies (3× 10 ^ 15 -6× 10 ^ 15 ) Hz visible light ( 7.5× 10 ^ -7 -4.0× 10 ^ -7 m; 4.0× 10 ^ 14 -7.5× 10 ^ 14 Hz ). C. X-rays have high energies because of their high frequencies, and therefore can penetrate matter to greater depths. D. A. X-rays B. X-rays have shorter wavelengths ( 1× 10 ^ -8 -5× 10 ^ -12 m ) and higher frequencies ( 3× 10 ^ 16 -6× 10 ^ 19 Hz ) than visible light ( 7.5× 10 ^ -7 -4.0× 10 ^ -7 m; 4.0× 10 ^ 14 -7.5× 10 ^ 14 Hz ). C. X-rays have high energies because of their high frequencies, and so can penetrate matter to greater depths.

D. A. X-rays B. X-rays have shorter wavelengths ( 1× 10 ^ -8 -5× 10 ^ -12 m ) and higher frequencies ( 3× 10 ^ 16 -6× 10 ^ 19 Hz ) than visible light ( 7.5× 10 ^ -7 -4.0× 10 ^ -7 m; 4.0× 10 ^ 14 -7.5× 10 ^ 14 Hz ). C. X-rays have high energies because of their high frequencies, and so can penetrate matter to greater depths.

Why is I_0 chosen as the reference for sound intensity? A. Because, it is the highest intensity of sound a person with normal hearing can perceive at a frequency of 100 Hz. B. Because, it is the lowest intensity of sound a person with normal hearing can perceive at a frequency of 100 Hz. C. Because, it is the highest intensity of sound a person with normal hearing can perceive at a frequency of 1000 Hz. D. Because, it is the lowest intensity of sound a person with normal hearing can perceive at a frequency of 1000 Hz.

D. Because, it is the lowest intensity of sound a person with normal hearing can perceive at a frequency of 1000 Hz.

Why is decibel (dB) used to describe loudness of sound? A. Because, human ears have an inverse response to the amplitude of sound. B. Because, human ears have an inverse response to the intensity of sound. C. Because, the way our ears perceive sound can be more accurately described by the amplitude of a sound rather than the intensity of a sound directly. D. Because, the way our ears perceive sound can be more accurately described by the logarithm of the intensity of a sound rather than the intensity of a sound directly.

D. Because, the way our ears perceive sound can be more accurately described by the logarithm of the intensity of a sound rather than the intensity of a sound directly.

Given that the sound intensity level of a particular wave is 82 dB, what will be the sound intensity for that wave? A. I=1.6 x 10^-6 W/m^2 B. I=82 x 10^-12 W/m^2 C. I=8.2 x 10^-12 W/m^22 D. I=1.6 x 10^-4 W/m^2

D. I=1.6 x 10^-4 W/m^2

Why is no sound heard by the observer when an object approaches him at a speed faster than that of sound? A. If the source exceeds the speed of sound, then destructive interference occurs and no sound is heard by the observer when an object approaches him. B. If the source exceeds the speed of sound, the frequency of sound produced is beyond the audible range of sound. C. If the source exceeds the speed of sound, all the sound waves produced approach minimum intensity and no sound is heard by the observer when an object approaches him. D. If the source exceeds the speed of sound, all the sound waves produced are behind the source. Hence, the observer hears the sound only after the source has passed.

D. If the source exceeds the speed of sound, all the sound waves produced are behind the source. Hence, the observer hears the sound only after the source has passed.

What influence does the strong nuclear force have on the electrons in an atom? A. It attracts electrons toward the nucleus. B. It repels electrons away from the nucleus. C. The strong force makes electrons revolve around the nucleus. D. It does not have any influence because it acts over a much shorter range equal to the distance between nucleons in the nucleus.

D. It does not have any influence because it acts over a much shorter range equal to the distance between nucleons in the nucleus.

What influence does the strong nuclear force have on the electrons in an atom? A. It attracts them toward the nucleus. B. It repels them away from the nucleus. C. The strong force makes electrons revolve around the nucleus. D. It does not have any influence.

D. It does not have any influence.

In which of the following situations is the Doppler effect absent? A. The source and the observer are moving towards each other. B. The observer is moving toward the source. C. The source is moving away from the observer. D. Neither the source nor the observer is moving relative to one another.

D. Neither the source nor the observer is moving relative to one another.

Part A. When you stand in front of an open fire, you can sense light waves with your eyes. You sense another type of electromagnetic radiation as heat. What is this other type of radiation? Part B. How is this other type of radiation different front light waves? A. Part A. X-rays; Part B. The X-rays have higher frequencies and shorter wavelengths than the light waves. B. Part A. X-rays; Part B. The X-rays have lower frequencies and longer wavelengths than the light waves. C. Part A. Infrared rays; Part B. The infrared rays have higher frequencies and shorter wavelengths than the light waves. D. Part A. Infrared rays; Part B. The infrared rays have lower frequencies and longer wavelengths than the light waves.

D. Part A. Infrared rays; Part B. The infrared rays have lower frequencies and longer wavelengths than the light waves.

Light shines on a picture of the subtractive color wheel. The light is a mixture of red, blue, and green light. Part A—Which part of the color wheel will look blue? Explain in terms of absorbed and reflected light. Part B—Which part of the color wheel will look yellow? Explain in terms of absorbed and reflected light. A. Part A. The yellow section of the wheel will look blue because it will reflect blue light and absorb red and green. Part B. The blue section of the wheel will look yellow because it will reflect red and green light and absorb blue. B. Part A.The blue section of the wheel will look blue because it will absorb blue light and reflect red and green. Part B. The yellow section of the wheel will look yellow because it will absorb red and green light and reflect blue. C. Part A. The yellow section of the wheel will look blue because it will absorb blue light and reflect red and green. Part B. The blue section of the wheel will look yellow because it will absorb red and green light and reflect blue. D. Part A. The blue section of the wheel will look blue because it will reflect blue light and absorb red and green. Part B. The yellow section of the wheel will look yellow because it will reflect red and green light and absorb blue.

D. Part A. The blue section of the wheel will look blue because it will reflect blue light and absorb red and green. Part B. The yellow section of the wheel will look yellow because it will reflect red and green light and absorb blue.

The Cavendish experiment marked a milestone in the study of gravity. Part A. What important value did the experiment determine? Part B. Why was this so difficult in terms of the masses used in the apparatus and the strength of the gravitational force? A. Part A. The experiment measured the acceleration due to gravity, g. Part B. Gravity is a very weak force but despite this limitation, Cavendish was able to measure the attraction between very massive objects. B. Part A. The experiment measured the gravitational constant, G. Part B. Gravity is a very weak force but, despite this limitation, Cavendish was able to measure the attraction between very massive objects. C. Part A. The experiment measured the acceleration due to gravity, g. Part B. Gravity is a very weak force but despite this limitation, Cavendish was able to measure the attraction between less massive objects. D. Part A. The experiment measured the gravitational constant, G. Part B. Gravity is a very weak force but despite this limitation, Cavendish was able to measure the attraction between less massive objects.

D. Part A. The experiment measured the gravitational constant, G. Part B. Gravity is a very weak force but despite this limitation, Cavendish was able to measure the attraction between less massive objects.

The orbit of Halley''s Comet has an eccentricity of 0.967 and stretches to the edge of the solar system. Part A. Describe the shape of the comet's orbit. Part B. Compare the distance traveled per day when it is near the sun to the distance traveled per day when it is at the edge of the solar system. Part C. Describe variations in the comet's speed as it completes an orbit. Explain the variations in terms of Kepler's second law of planetary motion. A. Part A. The orbit is circular, with the sun at the center. Part B. The comet travels much farther when it is near the sun than when it is at the edge of the solar system. Part C. The comet decelerates as it approaches the sun and accelerates as it leaves the sun. B. Part A. The orbit is circular, with the sun at the center. Part B. The comet travels much farther when it is near the sun than when it is at the edge of the solar system. Part C. The comet accelerates as it approaches the sun and decelerates as it leaves the sun. C. Part A. The orbit is very elongated, with the sun near one end. Part B. The comet travels much farther when it is near the sun than when it is at the edge of the solar system. Part C. The comet decelerates as it approaches the sun and accelerates as it moves away from the sun. D. Part A. The orbit is very elongated, with the sun near one end. Part B. The comet travels much farther when it is near the sun than when it is at the edge of the solar system. Part C. The comet accelerates as it approaches the sun and decelerates as it moves away from the sun.

D. Part A. The orbit is very elongated, with the sun near one end. Part B. The comet travels much farther when it is near the sun than when it is at the edge of the solar system. Part C. The comet accelerates as it approaches the sun and decelerates as it moves away from the sun.

A frequency of red light has a wavelength of 700 nm. Part A—Compare the wavelength and frequency of violet light to red light. Part B—Identify a type of radiation that has lower frequencies than red light. Part C—Identify a type of radiation that has shorter wavelengths than violet light. A. Part A. Violet light has a lower frequency and longer wavelength than red light. Part B. ultraviolet radiation; Part C. infrared radiation B. Part A. Violet light has a lower frequency and longer wavelength than red light. Part B. infrared radiation; Part C. ultraviolet radiation C. Part A. Violet light has a higher frequency and shorter wavelength than red light. Part B. ultraviolet radiation; Part C. infrared radiation D. Part A. Violet light has a higher frequency and shorter wavelength than red light. Part B. infrared radiation; Part C. ultraviolet radiation

D. Part A. Violet light has a higher frequency and shorter wavelength than red light. Part B. infrared radiation; Part C. ultraviolet radiation

A mixture of red and green light is shone on each of the subtractive colors. Part A—Which of these colors of light are reflected from magenta? Part B—Which of these colors of light are reflected from yellow? Part C—Which these colors of light are reflected from cyan? A. Part A. red and green Part B. green Part C. red B. Part A. red and green Part B. red Part C. green C. Part A. green Part B. red and green Part C. red D. Part A. red Part B. red and green Part C. green

D. Part A. red Part B. red and green Part C. green

Which kind of seismic waves cannot travel through liquid? A. compressional waves B. P-waves C. longitudinal waves D. S-waves

D. S-waves

Why does the amplitude of a sound wave decrease with distance from its source? A. The amplitude of a sound wave decreases with distance from its source, because the frequency of the sound wave decreases. B. The amplitude of a sound wave decreases with distance from its source, because the speed of the sound wave decreases. C. The amplitude of a sound wave decreases with distance from its source, because the wavelength of the sound wave increases. D. The amplitude of a sound wave decreases with distance from its source, because the energy of the wave is spread over a larger and larger area.

D. The amplitude of a sound wave decreases with distance from its source, because the energy of the wave is spread over a larger and larger area.

A sample of radioactive material has a decay constant of 0.05 s^-1. Why is it wrong to presume that the sample will take just 20 seconds to fully decay? A. The decay constant varies with the mass of the sample. B. The decay constant results vary with the amount of the sample. C. The decay constant represents a percentage of the sample that cannot decay. D. The decay constant represents only the fraction of a sample that decays in a unit of time, not the decay of the entire sample.

D. The decay constant represents only the fraction of a sample that decays in a unit of time, not the decay of the entire sample.

A seagull is sitting in the water surface and a simple water wave passes under it. What sort of motion does the gull experience? Why? A. The gull experiences mostly side-to-side motion and moves with the wave in its direction. B. The gull experiences mostly side-to-side motion but does not move with the wave in its direction. C. The gull experiences mostly up-and-down motion and moves with the wave in its direction. D. The gull experiences mostly up-and-down motion but does not move in the direction of the wave.

D. The gull experiences mostly up-and-down motion but does not move in the direction of the wave.

Provide an example of something that decreases in a manner similar to radioactive decay. A. The potential energy of an object falling under the influence of gravity B. The kinetic energy of a ball that is dropped from a building to the ground C. The charge transfer from an ebonite rod to fur D. The heat transfer from a hot to a cold object

D. The heat transfer from a hot to a cold object

For a constant area, what is the relationship between intensity of a sound wave and power? A. The intensity is inversely proportional to the power transmitted by the wave, for a constant area. B. The intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the power transmitted by the wave, for a constant area. I=1/P^2 C. The intensity is directly proportional to the square of the power transmitted by the wave, for a constant area. I =P^2. D. The intensity is directly proportional to the power transmitted by the wave, for a constant area. I=P/A

D. The intensity is directly proportional to the power transmitted by the wave, for a constant area. I=P/A

How does the "decibel" get its name? A. The meaning of deci is "hundred" and the number of decibels is one-hundredth of the logarithm to base 10 of the ratio of two sound intensities. B. The meaning of deci is "ten" and the number of decibels is one-tenth of the logarithm to base 10 of the ratio of two sound intensities. C. The meaning of deci is "one-hundredth" and the number of decibels is hundred times the logarithm to base 10 of the ratio of two sound intensities. D. The meaning of deci is "one-tenth" and the number of decibels is ten times the logarithm to base 10 of the ratio of two sound intensities.

D. The meaning of deci is "one-tenth" and the number of decibels is ten times the logarithm to base 10 of the ratio of two sound intensities.

Newton's third law of motion says that, for every action force, there is a reaction force equal in magnitude but that acts in the opposite direction. Apply this law to gravitational forces acting between the Washington Monument and Earth. A. The monument is attracted to Earth with a force equal to its weight, and Earth is attracted to the monument with a force equal to Earth's weight. The situation can be represented with two force vectors of unequal magnitude and pointing in the same direction. B. The monument is attracted to Earth with a force equal to its weight, and Earth is attracted to the monument with a force equal to Earth's weight. The situation can be represented with two force vectors of unequal magnitude but pointing in opposite directions. C. The monument is attracted to Earth with a force equal to its weight, and Earth is attracted to the monument with an equal force. The situation can be represented with two force vectors of equal magnitude and pointing in the same direction. D. The monument is attracted to Earth with a force equal to its weight, and Earth is attracted to the monument with an equal force. The situation can be represented with two force vectors of equal magnitude but pointing in opposite directions.

D. The monument is attracted to Earth with a force equal to its weight, and Earth is attracted to the monument with an equal force. The situation can be represented with two force vectors of equal magnitude but pointing in opposite directions.

Use the concepts on which Maxwell's equations are based to explain why a compass needle is deflected when the compass is brought near a wire that is carrying an electric current. A. The charges in the compass needle and the charges in the electric current have interacting electric fields, causing the needle to deflect. B. The electric field from the moving charges in the current interacts with the magnetic field of the compass needle, causing the needle to deflect. C. The magnetic field from the moving charges in the current interacts with the electric field of the compass needle, causing the needle to deflect. D. The moving charges in the current produce a magnetic field that interacts with the compass needle's magnetic field, causing the needle to deflect.

D. The moving charges in the current produce a magnetic field that interacts with the compass needle's magnetic field, causing the needle to deflect.

Consider these colors of light: yellow, blue, and red. Part A. Put these light waves in order according to wavelength, from shortest wavelength to longest wavelength. Part B. Put these light waves in order according to frequency, from lowest frequency to highest frequency. A. Wavelength: blue, yellow, red. Frequency: blue, yellow, red B. Wavelength: red, yellow, blue. Frequency: red, yellow, blue C. Wavelength: red, yellow, blue. Frequency: blue, yellow, red D. Wavelength: blue, yellow, red. Frequency: red, yellow, blue

D. Wavelength: blue, yellow, red. Frequency: red, yellow, blue

21. When does the amplitude of an oscillating system become maximum? A. When two sound waves interfere destructively. B. When the driving force produces a transverse wave in the system. C. When the driving force of the oscillator to the oscillating system is at a maximum amplitude. D. When the frequency of the oscillator equals the natural frequency of the oscillating system.

D. When the frequency of the oscillator equals the natural frequency of the oscillating system.

When does pure destructive interference occur? A. When two waves with equal frequencies that are perfectly in phase and propagating along the same line superimpose. B. When two waves with unequal frequencies that are perfectly in phase and propagating along the same line superimpose. C. When two waves with unequal frequencies that are perfectly out of phase and propagating along the same line superimpose. D. When two waves with equal frequencies that are perfectly out of phase and propagating along the same line superimpose.

D. When two waves with equal frequencies that are perfectly out of phase and propagating along the same line superimpose.

Explain why an alpha particle can have a greater range in air than a beta particle in lead. A. While the alpha particle has a lesser charge than a beta particle, the electron density in lead is much less than that in air. B. While the alpha particle has a greater charge than a beta particle, the electron density in lead is much lower than that in air. C. While the alpha particle has a lesser charge than a beta particle, the electron density in lead is much greater than that in air. D. While the alpha particle has a greater charge than a beta particle, the electron density in lead is much higher than that in air.

D. While the alpha particle has a greater charge than a beta particle, the electron density in lead is much higher than that in air.

What term refers to the bending of light at the junction of two media? A. interference B. diffraction C. scattering D. refraction

D. refraction

What kind of waves form in pipe resonators? A. damped waves B. propagating waves C. high-frequency waves D. standing waves

D. standing waves