PMD FINAL REVIEW
When assessing distal pulses in a patient with a lower extremity injury, it is MOST important to: A) suspect severe shock if a unilateral pulse deficit is present. B) compare the strength of the pulses in both lower extremities. C) remember that most people do not have a palpable pedal pulse. D) count the pedal pulse rate and compare it to the radial pulse rate.
B) compare the strength of the pulses in both lower extremities.
Treatment for a superficial frostbite injury includes: A) rewarming with radiant heat. B) elevating the frostbitten part. C) rewarming the area with hot water. D) gently rubbing the frostbitten area.
B) elevating the frostbitten part.
You would NOT expect a patient with a flail chest to present with: A) cyanosis. B) hyperpnea. C) shallow breathing. D) decreased breath sounds.
B) hyperpnea.
Alcohol predisposes a patient to hypothermia due to: A) increased liver glycogen storage. B) impaired shivering thermogenesis. C) brain atrophy and impaired thermolysis. D) widespread cutaneous vasoconstriction.
B) impaired shivering thermogenesis.
The stratum corneum are dead cells that have had their cytoplasm replaced with: A) fibrin. B) keratin. C) collagen. D) melanin.
B) keratin.
The Platinum 10 minutes refers to the: A) maximum amount of time to extricate a patient. B) maximum time spent at a scene for a trauma patient. C) amount of time before decompensated shock occurs. D) amount of time taken to perform a rapid assessment.
B) maximum time spent at a scene for a trauma patient.
Damage to the kidneys following an electrical injury: A) is caused by excess serum potassium levels. B) occurs when damaged muscle produces myoglobin. C) can be prevented with boluses of lactated Ringer's. D) is the result of electricity passing through the kidneys.
B) occurs when damaged muscle produces myoglobin.
Nitrogen causes decompression sickness: A) on descent because of the bubbles that form on reduction of pressure. B) on ascent because of the bubbles that form on reduction of pressure. C) on descent because of a progressive increase in atmospheric absolute. D) on ascent because of a progressive increase in atmospheric absolute.
B) on ascent because of the bubbles that form on reduction of pressure
Pneumothoraces create a ventilation-perfusion mismatch when: A) concomitant myocardial injury prevents adequate pulmonary perfusion and the lung collapses. B) perfusion of the involved lung continues while the pneumothorax prevents adequate ventilation. C) the vasculature of the affected lung is not intact and intrapulmonary gas exchange is impaired. D) the affected lung continues to expand adequately despite a decrease in pulmonary perfusion.
B) perfusion of the involved lung continues while the pneumothorax prevents adequate ventilation.
Abruptio placenta is MOST accurately defined as: A) separation of the placenta secondary to blunt maternal abdominal trauma. B) premature separation of a normally implanted placenta from the uterine wall. C) a condition in which the placenta progressively detaches from the uterine wall. D) a placenta that implants low in the uterus and partially or fully covers the cervix.
B) premature separation of a normally implanted placenta from the uterine wall.
The purpose of hospice care is to: A) render quality care to patients with a debilitating but temporary disease. B) provide quality end-of-life care through pain and symptom management. C) restore a person to his or her maximum physical and emotional potential. D) render around-the-clock intensive care to prevent cardiopulmonary arrest.
B) provide quality end-of-life care through pain and symptom management.
In which of the following patients should the impaled object be removed? A) Apneic patient with a shard of glass impaled in the center of the chest B) Pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the lower abdomen C) Cardiac arrest patient with an ice pick impaled in the center of the back D) Semiconscious patient with a screwdriver impaled in the side of the head
C) Cardiac arrest patient with an ice pick impaled in the center of the back
In which of the following situations should cervical spine immobilization be considered in a patient involved in a water-related incident? A) Age older than 45 years B) Age younger than 25 years C) Evidence of intoxication D) Any single extremity fracture
C) Evidence of intoxication
The peak magnitude of the pressure wave experienced by a person: A) causes secondary and tertiary injuries as a result of the explosion. B) will cause less severe trauma if the person is standing beside a solid object. C) lessens as the person is farther away from the center of the explosion. D) causes more severe trauma if the person is in an open area during the explosion.
C) lessens as the person is farther away from the center of the explosion.
Gestational hypertension: A) often requires an antihypertensive. B) is common in underweight women. C) may be an early sign of preeclampsia. D) is benign in the vast majority of cases.
C) may be an early sign of preeclampsia.
On the ECG, an Osborne wave can be recognized as: A) a negative deflection that produces a biphasic P wave. B) acute widening of the QRS complex during the R wave. C) an upward slurring at the beginning of the QRS complex. D) a positive deflection immediately after the QRS complex.
D) a positive deflection immediately after the QRS complex
In contrast to delirium, dementia is: A) often caused by conditions such as poisonings and infection. B) an acute state of confusion that may last for up to 1 week. C) often reversible if the underlying cause is identified rapidly. D) a progressive disease that produces irreversible brain failure.
D) a progressive disease that produces irreversible brain failure.
Cerebrospinal fluid drainage from the ears is MOST indicative of: A) a nasal fracture. B) intracerebral bleeding. C) an epidural hematoma. D) a skull fracture.
D) a skull fracture.
If you are unsure if a patient became hypothermic prior to developing cardiac arrest, you should: A) withhold resuscitation. B) contact medical control. C) transport with BLS only. D) begin resuscitative efforts.
D) begin resuscitative efforts.
You should splint an open soft-tissue injury to an extremity because: A) most patients do not keep the extremity still when asked to do so. B) Most open soft-tissue injuries are associated with a fracture. C) splinting is an excellent means of providing relief from pain. D) motion of the extremity may disrupt the blood-clotting process.
D) motion of the extremity may disrupt the blood-clotting process.
Which of the following factors decreases the body's ability to eliminate excess heat through evaporation? A) High humidity B) Wet clothing C) Low wind chill D) Hyperventilation
A) High humidity
In contrast to a contusion, a hematoma is: A) accompanied by ecchymosis. B) caused by large vessel damage. C) rarely accompanied by a bruise. D) a less significant closed injury.
B) caused by large vessel damage.
Which of the following signs of a basilar skull fracture would MOST likely be observed in the prehospital setting? A) Battle's sign B) Cerebrospinal fluid drainage from the ear C) Ecchymosis around the eyes D) Bruising over the mastoid process
B) cerebrospinal fluid drainage from the ear
The MOST disastrous consequence of a severe traumatic brain injury is: A) an increase in intracranial pressure. B) an increase in mean arterial pressure. C) severe hypertension and bradycardia. D) a decrease in cerebral perfusion pressure.
D) a decrease in cerebral perfusion pressure.
Which of the following statements regarding blood flow is correct? A) Ejection fraction is the percentage of blood that the heart pumps per contraction. B) If more blood returns to the heart, stroke volume decreases and cardiac output falls. C) As more blood is pumped with each contraction, the ejection fraction increases. D) The amount of blood that returns to the atrium remains fixed from minute to minute.
A) Ejection fraction is the percentage of blood that the heart pumps per contraction.
According to the rule of nines, an adult with partial- and full-thickness burns to his or her head, face, and anterior chest has burns to ____% of his total body surface area. A) 18 B) 27 C) 36 D) 45
A) 18
Which of the following statements regarding the Apgar score is correct? A) If resuscitation is necessary, the Apgar score is completed to determine the result of the resuscitation. B) The Apgar score is determined on the basis of the newborn's condition at 2 and 10 minutes after birth. C) If resuscitation is needed, it should commence immediately after you obtain the 1-minute Apgar score. D) A newborn with a heart rate of greater than 80 beats/min would be assigned a score of 2 on the Apgar score.
A) If resuscitation is necessary, the Apgar score is completed to determine the result of the resuscitation.
Which of the following organs is LEAST susceptible to pressure changes caused by an explosion? A) Liver B) Lungs C) Tympanic membrane D) Gastrointestinal tract
A) Liver
Which of the following types of maltreatment is perhaps the MOST common? A) Neglect B) Physical abuse C) Sexual abuse D) Abandonment
A) Neglect
Which of the following statements regarding a nondisplaced fracture is correct? A) Nondisplaced fractures are generally caused by low-energy trauma and are typically not associated with deformity. B) Nondisplaced fractures occur when a massive compressive force is applied to the bone, causing it to become wedged into another bone. C) In a nondisplaced fracture, muscles pull the distal fracture fragment alongside the proximal one, causing them to overlap. D) Nondisplaced fractures are caused by low-energy trauma and occur when the ends of the fracture move from their normal positions.
A) Nondisplaced fractures are generally caused by low-energy trauma and are typically not associated with deformity.
Which of the following is NOT a factor when considering transport of a trauma patient via helicopter? A) The need for definitive airway management B) Distance from the scene to the landing zone C) Time it will take the aircraft to reach the scene D) Type of terrain on which the helicopter will land
A) The need for definitive airway management
What do the spleen and liver have in common? A) They are both highly vascular and bleed profusely when injured. B) The liver and spleen are well protected by the abdominal muscles. C) They are less likely to be crushed by blunt trauma than other organs. D) The liver and spleen are the only solid organs in the abdominal cavity.
A) They are both highly vascular and bleed profusely when injured.
Which of the following statements regarding abdominal trauma during pregnancy is correct? A) Use of a lap belt increases the risk of uterine injury. B) Deceleration injuries often result in placenta previa. C) Uterine trauma is common during the first trimester. D) The pubic bone protects the bladder in late pregnancy.
A) Use of a lap belt increases the risk of uterine injury.
The diagnosis of heatstroke is usually made when a patient has an elevated core body temperature and: A) an altered mental status. B) an absence of sweating. C) a history of heat exposure. D) a heart rate above 140 beats/min.
A) an altered mental status.
A woman who does not take prenatal vitamins during the course of her pregnancy is at greatest risk for: A) anemia. B) leukopenia. C) post-term labor. D) abnormal bleeding.
A) anemia.
Pupils that are slow (sluggish) to react to light: A) are a sign of cerebral hypoxia. B) indicate impending brain herniation. C) suggest significant intracranial pressure. D) indicate compression of an oculomotor nerve.
A) are a sign of cerebral hypoxia.
When performing a needle decompression of the chest, you should insert the needle: A) at a 90-degree angle and listen for the release of air. B) on the side of the chest that has audible breath sounds. C) at a 45-degree angle until you hear a sudden release of air. D) on the inferior rib border to avoid vasculature and nerves.
A) at a 90-degree angle and listen for the release of air.
Unlike deceleration injuries, crush and compression injuries occur: A) at the time of impact. B) before impact occurs. C) after the initial impact. D) from penetrating mechanisms.
A) at the time of impact.
If a newborn requires epinephrine and peripheral venous access is unsuccessful, you should: A) cannulate the umbilical vein. B) defer drug therapy and transport. C) perform intubation immediately. D) inject the drug directly into a vein.
A) cannulate the umbilical vein.
A terminal illness is MOST accurately defined as a(n): A) disease process that is expected to cause death within 6 months, verified by a physician. B) disease that will ultimately cause death due to a lack of effective medical treatment. C) disease that is fatal in greater than 50% of a given population, even with timely treatment. D) disease process that will ultimately require ongoing treatment in order to prevent death.
A) disease process that is expected to cause death within 6 months, verified by a physician.
Phosphorus is found in _____________ and burns when exposed to _____________. A) fireworks, air B) oven cleaner, water C) drain cleaner, air D) battery acid, water
A) fireworks, air
Signs and symptoms of retinal detachment include: A) flashing lights, specks, or floaters in the field of vision. B) double vision and partial or complete loss of peripheral vision. C) immediate pain and total loss of vision following blunt eye trauma. D) paralysis of upward gaze and greater than 50% loss of central vision.
A) flashing lights, specks, or floaters in the field of vision.
All of the following factors contribute to heat cramps, EXCEPT: A) gender. B) dehydration. C) salt depletion. D) muscle fatigue.
A) gender.
Aging brings a widespread decrease in bone mass, especially: A) in postmenopausal women. B) in men over 50 years of age. C) if the person falls frequently. D) in the presence of hypertension.
A) in postmenopausal women.
Fractures of the lower rib cage should make you MOST suspicious for injuries to the: A) liver or spleen. B) urinary bladder. C) ascending aorta. D) kidneys or pancreas.
A) liver or spleen.
Prehospital treatment of the patient with a traumatic brain injury must focus primarily on: A) maintaining cerebral perfusion pressure. B) hyperventilating the patient at 20 breaths/min. C) maintaining a systolic BP of at least 120 mm Hg. D) taking measures to decrease intracranial pressure.
A) maintaining cerebral perfusion pressure.
Cerebral palsy is a: A) nonprogressive, bilateral neuromuscular disorder in which voluntary muscles are poorly controlled. B) degenerative, unilateral neuromuscular disorder in which control of autonomic functions is impaired. C) chronic dysfunction of the endocrine system that primarily targets the respiratory and digestive systems. D) progressive weakening of the body's voluntary muscles that leaves the patient confined to a wheelchair.
A) nonprogressive, bilateral neuromuscular disorder in which voluntary muscles are poorly controlled.
When fever is suspected in the newborn, you should: A) observe for the presence of a rash. B) assist ventilations with a bag-mask device. C) administer acetaminophen or ibuprofen. D) quickly lower the newborn's body temperature.
A) observe for the presence of a rash.
The MOST immediate treatment to prevent placental hypoperfusion in a pregnant woman who is lying on her back is to: A) place the woman in a left lateral recumbent position. B) keep the woman supine and elevate her legs 12 inches. C) manually displace the gravid uterus to the right side. D) administer 1 to 2 L of isotonic crystalloid solution.
A) place the woman in a left lateral recumbent position.
Afterload is defined as the: A) pressure in the aorta against which the left ventricle must pump. B) amount of resistance to blood flow offered by the heart valves. C) amount of blood ejected from the ventricle with each contraction. D) volume of blood remaining in the ventricles following contraction.
A) pressure in the aorta against which the left ventricle must pump.
Structural protection afforded to a motorcycle rider during a crash comes from: A) protective gear worn by the rider. B) the main frame of the motorcycle. C) side foot pedals and the handlebars. D) the handlebars and large engine block.
A) protective gear worn by the rider.
Traumatic injuries to the aorta are MOST commonly the result of: A) shearing forces. B) rear-end collisions. C) penetrating trauma. D) motorcycle crashes.
A) shearing forces.
Dysarthria is: A) the inability to make speech sounds correctly. B) a speech disorder that primarily affects adults. C) the loss of ability to communicate in speech or writing. D) caused by damage to the language center of the brain.
A) the inability to make speech sounds correctly.
The MOST significant fall occurs from a height greater than: A) 10 feet. B) 15 feet. C) 1.5 times the patient's height. D) 2 times the patient's height.
B) 15 feet.
What is the pathophysiology of decompression sickness? A) Diffusion of nitrogen out of the tissues during too slow of an ascent B) An imbalance of nitrogen in the tissues and alveoli due to rapid ascent C) Increasing quantities of nitrogen and oxygen in the blood during descent D) Excess carbon dioxide accumulation in the muscles due to a rapid ascent
B) An imbalance of nitrogen in the tissues and alveoli due to rapid ascent
Which of the following statements regarding a pericardial tamponade is correct? A) Most pericardial tamponades are caused by blunt chest trauma during an automobile crash. B) In a pericardial tamponade, blood collects between the visceral and parietal pericardium. C) Pericardial tamponade is characterized by a marked increase in preload and flat jugular veins. D) The parietal pericardium stretches easily, so significant blood accumulation is required before signs appear.
B) In a pericardial tamponade, blood collects between the visceral and parietal pericardium.
Which of the following conditions would MOST likely impair pulmonary function by limiting lung volume and maximal inspiratory pressure? A) Asthma B) Kyphosis C) Spondylosis D) Osteoporosis
B) Kyphosis
What membranous tissue functions as the point of attachment for the various abdominal organs? A) Pleura B) Mesentery C) Peritoneum D) Ligamentum arteriosum
B) Mesentery
Appropriate management for a patient with severe epistaxis, tachycardia, and diaphoresis following an injury to the face includes: A) positioning the patient supine and elevating his or her legs 12 to 18 inches. B) administering enough IV crystalloid fluids to maintain adequate perfusion. C) pinching the patient's nares together and instructing him or her to lean back. D) applying direct pressure to the bridge of the nose and keeping the patient calm.
B) administering enough IV crystalloid fluids to maintain adequate perfusion.
When a patient's leg is entrapped under a crushing object for a prolonged period of time, toxic metabolic waste products are released into the systemic circulation: A) and result in low serum potassium levels. B) after the patient's leg is freed from entrapment. C) after the leg has been entrapped for 2 hours. D) only if the renal system is functioning properly.
B) after the patient's leg is freed from entrapment.
Proper treatment for an open wound to the neck includes: A) administering 2 L of IV crystalloid solution. B) sealing the wound with an occlusive dressing. C) prompt transportation to a hyperbaric chamber. D) applying a circumferential pressure dressing.
B) sealing the wound with an occlusive dressing.
Respiratory distress in a premature infant is MOST often the result of: A) a pneumothorax. B) surfactant deficiency. C) pneumonia at birth. D) intracranial hemorrhage.
B) surfactant deficiency.
According to the American College of Surgeons, an injured patient should be transported to a Level I trauma center if his or her: A) heart rate is greater than 100 beats/min. B) systolic blood pressure is less than 90 mm Hg. C) respiratory rate is less than 14 breaths/min. D) Glasgow Coma Scale score is less than 15.
B) systolic blood pressure is less than 90 mm Hg.
During true labor: A) analgesics often abolish the pain from contractions. B) the interval between contractions gradually shortens. C) the intensity of uterine contractions remains constant. D) contractions are irregularly spaced from one to the next.
B) the interval between contractions gradually shortens.
The skin helps regulate body temperature through: A) peripheral vasodilation, which shunts cool blood to the core of the body. B) the production of sweat, which evaporates from the surface of the skin. C) increased elastin production, which provides insulation to the epidermis. D) cutaneous vasoconstriction, which brings warm blood to the skin's surface.
B) the production of sweat, which evaporates from the surface of the skin.
Naloxone is NOT indicated for use in newborns: A) who weigh less than 5.5 lbs. B) who are born to narcotic-addicted mothers. C) unless the umbilical vein has been cannulated. D) with shallow breathing and persistent bradycardia.
B) who are born to narcotic-addicted mothers.
Which of the following general statements regarding trauma is correct? A) Bullet impact is less if the energy in the bullet is applied to a small area. B) The position of the patient at the time of the event is considered to be an internal factor. C) Blunt trauma is difficult to diagnose by paramedics in the field and is often more lethal than penetrating trauma. D) Rapidly applied amounts of energy are better tolerated than a similar amount of energy applied over a longer period.
C) Blunt trauma is difficult to diagnose by paramedics in the field and is often more lethal than penetrating trauma.
The heart hypertrophies with age, MOST likely in response to: A) a progressive increase in preload and chronic myocardial stretching. B) left-sided heart failure that results in chronic pulmonary hypertension. C) a chronically increased afterload caused by arteriosclerotic blood vessels. D) a significant decline in cardiac output due to a reduction in stroke volume.
C) a chronically increased afterload caused by arteriosclerotic blood vessels.
A 63-year-old diabetic woman presents with an open wound to her forearm that she experienced when she fell a week ago. She tells you that the wound has been draining purulent fluid, but has not been bleeding. The wound itself is red, inflamed, and warm to the touch. You should: A) carefully irrigate the wound with sterile water for 5 minutes. B) apply a moist, sterile dressing and transport to the hospital. C) apply a dry, sterile dressing and transport her to the hospital. D) apply a light coat of antibiotic ointment and cover the wound.
C) apply a dry, sterile dressing and transport her to the hospital.
You are treating a 20-year-old woman with a large laceration involving the brachial artery. The patient is confused, is pale, and has weak peripheral pulses. Your initial attempts to control the bleeding have failed. You should: A) administer high-flow oxygen, establish vascular access at the scene, transport, and apply a proximal tourniquet en route. B) administer high-flow oxygen, transport, and apply a proximal tourniquet and establish vascular access en route. C) apply a proximal tourniquet, administer high-flow oxygen, transport, and establish vascular access en route. D) control the bleeding by applying pressure to a proximal pressure point, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport.
C) apply a proximal tourniquet, administer high-flow oxygen, transport, and establish vascular access en route.
Signs of neurogenic shock include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) bradycardia. B) flushed skin. C) diaphoresis. D) hypothermia.
C) diaphoresis.
Grey Turner sign is defined as ecchymosis to the _________ and is indicative of _________. A) umbilicus, peritoneal bleeding B) epigastrium, stomach rupture C) flank, retroperitoneal bleeding D) back, traumatic aortic dissection
C) flank, retroperitoneal bleeding
You would MOST likely encounter the presence of a ventricular assist device in a patient who: A) has severe emphysema. B) has pulmonary hypertension. C) is awaiting a heart transplant. D) has transient right heart failure.
C) is awaiting a heart transplant.
Treatment for a patient with neurogenic shock may include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) a vagolytic medication. B) a vasopressor medication. C) prevention of hyperthermia. D) fluid volume to maintain perfusion.
C) prevention of hyperthermia.
You are assisting in the delivery of a baby. After the baby's head emerges from the vagina, you should quickly assess for the presence of a nuchal cord and then: A) assess for facial cyanosis. B) administer free-flow oxygen. C) suction its mouth and nose. D) dry its face to stimulate breathing.
C) suction its mouth and nose.
When a patient takes the out-and-over pathway during a head-on collision: A) the head takes a higher trajectory, striking the windshield and causing stretching injuries to the neck. B) secondary injuries as the patient is ejected are often less severe than the primary injuries. C) the anterior part of the neck may strike the steering wheel, resulting in a fractured larynx. D) injuries to the parietal aspect of the skull are common as the head strikes the side window.
C) the anterior part of the neck may strike the steering wheel, resulting in a fractured larynx.
Beta receptor stimulation results in all of the following effects, EXCEPT: A) positive cardiac inotropy. B) positive cardiac chronotropy. C) vascular smooth muscle contraction. D) relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle.
C) vascular smooth muscle contraction.
Alkali or strong acid burns to the eye should be irrigated continuously for at least ___ minutes. A) 10 B) 15 C) 20 D) 30
C. 20
________ radiation is very penetrating and easily passes through the body and solid materials. A) Alpha B) Beta C) Gamma D) Ionizing
C. Gamma
What type of injuries will MOST likely occur if a passenger is wearing his or her lap belt above the pelvic bone during a frontal impact? A) Pelvic and lumbar spine B) Femur and thoracic spine C) Kidney and thoracic spine D) Abdominal and lumbar spine
D) Abdominal and lumbar spine
Immediate pain from the heel to the calf and a sudden inability for plantar flexion of the foot is MOST indicative of: A) acute tendonitis. B) ligament disruption. C) a dislocated ankle. D) Achilles tendon rupture.
D) Achilles tendon rupture.
Which of the following factors would have the MOST negative effect on the body's process of hemostasis? A) Bradycardia B) Hyperthermia C) Chronic heroin use D) Anticoagulant use
D) Anticoagulant use
Which of the following burn injuries or patterns should make you the MOST suspicious for abuse? A) Burns to the forearm B) Splash burns to a leg C) An arc burn to the hand D) Burns with formed shapes
D) Burns with formed shapes
A dialysis patient requires pharmacologically assisted intubation. Which of the following medications should be avoided? A) Midazolam B) Etomidate C) Vecuronium D) Succinylcholine
D) Succinylcholine
An elderly person is at increased risk for aspiration, primarily from: A) atrophy of the epiglottis. B) a decreased ability to swallow. C) slowing of the ciliary mechanisms. D) decreased cough and gag reflexes.
D) decreased cough and gag reflexes.
If the mechanism of injury does not appear to be significant, you should consider transporting an injured patient to a Level I trauma center if he or she: A) is older than 45 years of age. B) takes any kind of medication. C) is emotionally upset or angry. D) has a known bleeding disorder.
D) has a known bleeding disorder.
The purpose of estimating a patient's total body surface area burns in the prehospital setting is to: A) obtain an accurate calculation of how severe the patient's burns are. B) determine whether the patient should be transported via a helicopter. C) ascertain how much IV fluid the patient should receive during transport. D) help the paramedic determine the most appropriate destination hospital.
D) help the paramedic determine the most appropriate destination hospital.
A partial-thickness burn is considered to be a major burn in a 40-year-old person if it: A) occurs in any patient over the age of 45 years. B) is located to the proximal aspect of an extremity. C) is rated as at least a 5 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. D) involves more than 25% of the body surface area.
D) involves more than 25% of the body surface area.
Seizures during pregnancy should be treated with: A) diazepam. B) valproic acid. C) phenobarbital. D) magnesium sulfate.
D) magnesium sulfate.
If you discover minor external bleeding during your primary assessment of a patient, you should: A) stop your assessment and take the patient's blood pressure. B) establish a large-bore IV line immediately. C) stop your assessment and control the bleeding. D) make note of it and continue your assessment.
D) make note of it and continue your assessment
Compartment syndrome occurs when: A) metabolic waste products accumulate within a large hematoma that develops near a fracture site. B) yellow and red bone marrow seep from a fractured bone, resulting in excessive soft tissue swelling. C) blood accumulates in the medullary canal of a bone, resulting in decreased oxygenation of the bone tissue. D) pressure in the fascial compartment leads to impaired circulation, sensory changes, and progressive muscle death.
D) pressure in the fascial compartment leads to impaired circulation, sensory changes, and progressive muscle death.
Agents such as Celox, HemCon, and QuikClot are used to: A) repair damaged vessels. B) replace lost blood. C) raise blood pressure. D) promote hemostasis.
D) promote hemostasis.
The MOST important treatment for a patient experiencing heat stroke involves: A) antipyretic administration and high-flow oxygen. B) rehydration with IV fluids and ice water submersion. C) rapid transport and cooling to the point of shivering. D) removal from the hot environment and rapid cooling.
D) removal from the hot environment and rapid cooling.
A newborn with a pulse rate of 80 beats/min: A) requires ventilations and chest compressions. B) should be treated with 0.02 mg/kg of atropine. C) is likely under the influence of maternal opiates. D) requires immediate positive pressure ventilation.
D) requires immediate positive pressure ventilation.
Osteoporosis is MOST accurately defined as a(n): A) progressive loss of bone marrow. B) reduced range of motion in the joints. C) estrogen-related change in bone strength. D) significant decrease in bone density.
D) significant decrease in bone density.
A positive Babinski reflex is observed when the: A) toes curve or move downward when the sole of the foot is touched. B) patient responds to pain by flexing the arms and extending the legs. C) patient's reflexes are hyperactive in response to an external stimulus. D) toes move upward in response to stimulation of the sole of the foot.
D) toes move upward in response to stimulation of the sole of the foot.
During a lateral impact collision: A) the far-side occupant, even if properly restrained, experiences double the amount of force as the driver. B) the patient's head moves away from the object causing the impact, resulting in stretching injuries. C) properly worn seat belts protect the passenger from pelvic trauma at the time of impact. D) trauma to the upper extremities depends on the spatial orientation of the arms upon impact.
D) trauma to the upper extremities depends on the spatial orientation of the arms upon impact
The physiologic process of hemostasis is achieved through: A) an increased production of red blood cells. B) the destruction of fibrin and platelets. C) the use of anticoagulants such as Coumadin. D) vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation.
D) vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation.
The transfer of heat from a hotter object to a cooler object by direct physical contact is called: A) radiation. B) convection. C) conduction. D) evaporation.
c. conduction
In a cold environment, the body produces and conserves heat through all of the following mechanisms, EXCEPT: A) shivering. B) vasoconstriction. C) hyperventilation. D) thermogenesis.
c. hyperventilation
