PMP Mock Exam 2021

You are a project manager and as part of your monitor and control activities, you found a problem with your manufacturing process which is causing delays and increased costs. The problem can be fixed by a fairly simple modification to the assembly system. You issued a change request, which was approved. Which of the following is true? A. The change will be implemented via Direct and Manage Project Work. B. The change will be implemented via Monitor and Control Project Work. C. The change will be implemented via Perform Integrated Change Control. D. The change will require a modification to the Scope Baseline.

Answer: A Executing - Integration Management Approved change requests are implemented via Direct and Manage Project Work. D is incorrect because a simple modification like this should not affect the Scope Baseline.

As you are performing quality control on your project, you identify a defect in many of your deliverables, and issue a change request designed to correct the defect, which is approved. During which process will the changes be implemented? A. Direct and Manage Project Work B. Perform Integrated Change Control C. Control Quality D. Perform Quality Assurance

Answer: A Executing - Integration Management Approved change requests are implemented via the Direct and Manage Project Work process, further highlighting the fact that process groups overlap and inter-relate. Thus, even though the change request came about during the Monitor and Control process group, the implementation of the changes occurs in Execution.

In evaluating responses to requests for proposals, your company's evaluation committee is reviewing the potential seller's responses to certain criteria that were previously defined and communicated, and management will review their decision for approval. This describes which of the following? A. Proposal Evaluation B. Source Selection Criteria C. Seller Proposals D. Procurement Management Plan

Answer: A Executing - Procurement Management Proposal evaluations take into account source selection criteria and evaluate those criteria in light of the seller proposals. The evaluation is the key distinction. Source selection criteria are things that are important in choosing a seller, but there is no evaluation or analysis of seller responses being performed there. Thus, they are an input to Conduct Procurements while Proposal Evaluation Techniques are a tool and technique. Seller proposals are also inputs to this process.

Your project has SPI = 0.87 and CPI = 0.91. You and your team are reviewing the overall project performance on a regular basis to ensure that the project satisfies the relevant quality standards. Which process are you performing? A. Manage Quality B. Control Quality C. Plan Quality Planning D. Control costs

Answer: A Executing - Quality Management A) Manage Quality process deals with implementing the planned and systemic activities within the quality system to assure the project team and the external stakeholders that the quality standards are being met (hence the quality audits). B) Control quality involves monitoring specific project results to determine compliance to relevant quality standards. Thus, choice B is incorrect. C) Quality planning involves the identification of quality standards relevant to the project. Thus, choice C is incorrect. D) Control costs is the process of monitoring the status of the project to update project budget and manage changes to the cost baseline. Therefore, choice D is incorrect.

Michelle is a very capable team member, however, as project manager you have received some complaints about the loud personal phone conversations she has been having at her cubicle. This issue most likely arose as a result of the following: A. Failure to institute ground rules, which are a tool and technique of Manage Stakeholder Engagement B. Failure to institute ground rules, which are a tool and technique to Develop Team C. Michelle's failure to read and obey the Resource Management Plan D. The team's inability to move past the Storming phase

Answer: A Executing - Resource Management Ground rules establish clear expectations regarding team member behaviors and are written into the Team Charter. They are a tool and technique of Manage Stakeholder Engagement.

You are managing a major software upgrade project for your company, and to help ensure the work is done properly, the company designated Mary in advance to be part of the project team. Mary is the company's leading software developer. Which of the following is most accurate? A. This is an example of Pre-Assignment, and Mary's participation could be noted in the Project Charter. B. This is an example of Pre-Assignment, and Mary's participation would be noted in the Project Team Resource Management Plan. C. This is an example of Acquisition, which is a tool and technique of Acquire Resources. D. Mary's involvement in the project came about as a result of the Collect Requirements process.

Answer: A Executing - Resource Management Pre-assigned team members would typically be identified in the Project Charter. Note that the Project Team Resource Management Plan does not identify particular project team members, it says how team members will be defined, staffed, managed and released.

All of the following are true regarding Team Assessments except for which one? A. They are a tool and technique of Control Resources B. Staff turnover rate is part of the assessment C. Improvement in professional competencies is part of the assessment D. They may result in recommendations for how to improve team performance

Answer: A Executing - Resource Management Team Performance Assessments are an output of Develop Team (along with EEF updates) but it is not part of Control Resources

Which of the following is not an objective of the Develop Team process? A. Tracks the performance of the project team members to identify areas for improvement and provide feedback B. Improves team competencies C. Improving the team environment in order to enhance project performance D. Should result in improved teamwork

Answer: A Executing - Resource Management This process is not used to track individual team members performance, but rather, focuses on improving the competencies of the team.

Which of the following choices places the team development stages in the correct order? A. Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing Adjourning B. Forming, Norming, Storming, Performing Adjourning C. Forming, Storming, Performing, Norming, Adjourning D. Norming, Forming, Storming Performing, Adjourning

Answer: A Executing - Resource Management You might use the following mnemonic device to remember the first letters of each stage and the order they follow: Freddy Sailed North Past Alaska

Key stakeholder risk attitudes drive a project's risk strategy. When preparing to implement a risk response, which of the following should you use to define the acceptable target of your implementation? A.Risk threshold B.Risk appetite C.Risk tolerance D.Risk attitude

Answer: A Executing - Risk Management A risk threshold is the level of risk exposure above which risks are addressed and below which risks may be accepted, and is therefore the best target for the implementation of a risk response.

A sequential type of phase-to-phase relationship is characterized by which of the following? A. A phase can only start once the previous phase is complete. B. The successor phase begins before the prior phase completes. C. Only one phase is planned at a time, with the next phase being planned as the work progresses on the current phase and deliverables. D. Project iterations are created fairly quickly, then the results are reviewed by the customer before the next iteration occurs

Answer: A Initiating - Framework B describes an overlapping relationship while C describes an iterative phase relationship. A accurately describes the sequential type of phase to phase relationship. This is known as a Predictive life cycle. D describes an Adaptive life cycle.

You are the project manager of a new 3-D printer implementation. As key project deliverables are being completed, the customer is unwilling to accept them, and is unsure of what they are reviewing and validating. What could you have done better to help prevent this situation? A. Identify and communicate the key deliverables during the Develop Project Charter B. Identify and communicate the project risks during the Risk Management Planning C. Ensure all of the stakeholders were identified with key attribute information D. Develop the Quality Management Plan in more detail

Answer: A Initiating - Integration Management During project initiating, identifying and communicating key deliverables with key stakeholders including the customer creates a common understanding of what the project will deliver to meet the goals and objectives of the project.

Which of the following are tools and techniques used in the Develop Project Charter process? A. Expert Judgment B. Expert Judgment and NPV calculations C. Expert Judgment, NPV calculations and focus groups D. Stakeholder analysis and Benefit Measurement Methods

Answer: A Initiating - Integration Management Expert judgment and facilitation techniques are the only tools used in this process. Note that the benefit measurement methods, such as NPV, would already have been employed to decide upon the project which is now being kicked off with the charter. Stakeholder analysis is a tool and technique of Identify Stakeholders, but not of Develop Charter.

Which of the following processes are most closely aligned in terms of their objectives? A. Perform Integrated Change Control and Control Scope B. Control Schedule and Control Costs C. Conduct Procurements and Control Procurements D. Estimate Costs and Control Costs

Answer: A Initiating - Integration Management Perform Integrated Change Control and Control Scope are very closely aligned in terms of their objectives. Both seek to prevent unauthorized change and ensure that approved changes are properly implemented.

Which of the following are outputs from the Develop Project Charter process? A. Project Charter B. Project Charter and Feasibility Study C. Project Charter and Project Management Plan D. Stakeholder Registry and Stakeholder Management Strategy

Answer: A Initiating - Integration Management Project Charter and the Assumption Log are the only two outputs of this process making A the only correct option.

Which type of stakeholder needs to be managed most closely? A. Those with a high level of power and high level of interest B. Those with a high level of power and low level of interest C. Those with a high level of interest but low amount of power D. Negative stakeholders with a high level of interest

Answer: A Initiating - Stakeholder Management These are the most crucial stakeholders, and could potentially kill a project. They should be managed closely and frequently apprised of project status.

You are managing the development of a residential neighborhood comprised of 12 homes of equal value, and your cost baseline is $2.4 million. To date, you have completed 4 homes, with a value of $200,000 each. By this time, you had planned to have 6 homes completed. You have spent $1,000,000 to complete the 4 homes, and you believe your original budget is still viable. What is the TCPI? A. 1.14 B. 0.97 C. 1.23 D. 1

Answer: A Monitoring - Cost Management TCPI = (BAC-EV) / (BAC-AC) . In this case, that works out to ($2.4M - $800,000) / ($2.4M - $1M) or $1.6M / $1.4M or 1.14

Which of the following measurements show the best overall project performance? A. SV of 0 and CPI of 1.2 B. VAC of ($10,000) C. TCPI of 1.2 D. SV of 1 and CPI of 0.4

Answer: A Monitoring - Cost Management This tells you that you are exactly on schedule and are under budget by 20%. B and C both reflect poor cost performance. D reflects a project that is over budget and on schedule.

Which of the following is a list of people who are part of the project team? A. Resource Calendars B. Activity Resource Requirements C. Staffing Management Plan

Answer: D Executing - Resource Management Project Team Assignments show who is part of the project team.

All of the following are accomplished using change requests except for which one? A. Arranging the work breakdown structure so that phases of the project are shown as level one entries, as opposed to deliverables B. Instituting a new training program for team members, in order to help minimize defects in the deliverables C. Replacing a team member whose poor performance has impacted the project D. Correcting defects which have been discovered in the deliverables

Answer: A Monitoring - Integration Management The team has discretion as to how they organize the WBS. All other items will require a change request.

Which of the following processes is primarily concerned with verifying the correctness of the deliverables and ensuring the quality requirements were met? A. Control Quality B. Manage Quality C. Validate Scope D. Control Scope

Answer: A Monitoring - Quality Management Control Quality addresses these concerns.

All of the following are true except for which one? A. Control Quality is performed after Manage Quality and before Validate Scope. B. Control Quality examines both the deliverables and the project processes. C. Cause and Effect Diagrams are a tool and technique of Control Quality. D. Control Quality helps identify the cause of poor product quality results.

Answer: A Monitoring - Quality Management Quality Control is performed throughout the project and focuses both on the deliverables and the effectiveness of the processes. When a defect is located in a product of the project, root cause analysis is performed to determined the underlying causes.

What theories did Joseph Juran and W. Edwards Deming advocate, respectively? A. Juran - fitness for use Deming - 85% of quality issues are management related. B. Juran - 85% of quality issues are management related. Deming - fitness for use C. Juran - fitness for use Deming - 80/20 principle D. Juran - Plan Do Check Act Deming - 85% of quality issues are management related.

Answer: A Monitoring - Quality Management Remember Juran along with fitness for use. The 80/20 principle, which holds that 80% of defects typically stem from only 20% of the potential causes, was set forth by Pareto. Shewhart and Deming created and revised the Plan Do Check Act model.

Which of the following is not part of Monitor Risk? A. Forming Risk Response Strategies B. Tracking identified risks C. Audits D. Evaluating risk process effectiveness

Answer: A Monitoring - Risk Management In Monitor Risk, risks are watched. Risk responses are implemented in Implement Risk Responses. They were formed during the Plan Risk Responses process.

Which of the following is most correct regarding risk management? A. It should be performed throughout the project and a wide range of people, from the project team to end users, may be involved. B. It should be performed after estimates have been completed, and involves both the project manager and project team. C. It should be done from the Plan Risk Management process to the end of the project, and involves the project team, all stakeholders and end users. D. None of the Above

Answer: A Monitoring - Risk Management Risk management is an iterative, ongoing process that should occur from project inception to project closure. A wide range of people may be involved in risk management activities - not just the project team and stakeholders. Rarely are ALL stakeholders involved in any one process or group of processes.

As the project manager you are examining and documenting the effectiveness of risk responses in dealing with specific risks and their causes. Which of the following best describes this activity? A. Risk Audit B. Risk Reassessment C. Root Cause Analysis D. Assumptions Analysis

Answer: A Monitoring - Risk Management This describes a risk audit, which will help ensure the appropriate response/mitigation plans are being implemented. Risk reassessment examines risk that has changed, new risks, and risks that may have expired (PMBOK Guide, page 456).

You are managing the development of a residential neighborhood comprised of 12 homes of equal cost ($200,000 each). To date, you have completed 4 homes. Your progress has been hindered by a labor strike which left you short of construction workers, however, the labor issues have been resolved and you now have all of the workers you need. By this time, you had planned to have 6 homes completed. You have spent $900,000 to complete the 4 homes. What is the SV? A. -400000 B. 400000 C. 600000 D. 0.67

Answer: A Monitoring - Schedule Management SV= EV-PV, which in this case equals $800,000 - $1,200,000.

You are monitoring your project's progress and are particularly concerned with the schedule. There is a chance that one of your key suppliers may be late providing certain items that are needed to complete your deliverables. On the other hand, there is a chance that additional resources may be allocated to your project because another large project is about to complete early. You are considering the impact of each of these possibilities, with respect to the schedule. Which of the following tools and techniques are you utilizing? A. What-If Scenario Analysis B. Resource Leveling C. Variance Analysis D. Schedule Compression

Answer: A Monitoring - Schedule Management What-if Scenario Analysis is used to consider possible scenarios such as those described in the facts, to determine their potential impact on the schedule (PMBOK Guide, page 213).

Which of the following is true? A. For some projects, Control Quality and Validate Scope could be performed together as one process. B. Control Quality and Validate Scope have the same outputs. C. Control Quality occurs in the Monitoring and Controlling process group while Validate Scope occurs in the Closing process group. D. None of the Above

Answer: A Monitoring - Scope Management The two processes could be combined into one, and in practice this may happen often.

Which of the following is true? A. Interactive communication is the most efficient way to ensure all participants share a common understanding of the topics discussed. B. Pull communication is a communication technology which allows recipients to access information on their own, i.e. from an online document repository. C. Push communication involves sending material out to specified recipients and confirming that it reaches those people. D. None of the above.

Answer: A Planning - Communications Management B is incorrect because pull communications are not a communication technology, but rather, a communication method. C is wrong because push communications affords no such confirmation.

You are a project manager at a large technology company. This is your first experience managing a technology project and will be relying on subject matter experts throughout your project. In which process are Subject Matter Experts (SMEs) first used? A.Identify Stakeholders B.Develop Project Charter C.Define Scope D.Collect Requirements

Answer: B Initiating - Integration Management Answer B is correct. Subject Matter Experts are first consulted for their expert judgment in the Develop Project Charter process.

You are managing a project to develop and market a new line of laptop computers. You are working to create the project budget and are trying to estimate your costs. Which of the following costs are most properly considered here? A. Costs of honoring the product warranties after the computers reach the customers B. The monthly lease for the building in which your company is headquartered C. The opportunity cost of not pursuing a different project which had greater sales potential. D. The monthly premiums for your company's umbrella insurance policy

Answer: A Planning - Cost Management A correctly considers costs to be incurred after the project is technically completed, but within a timeframe where additional costs may (and likely will) be incurred via warranty work to the computers. This is a direct cost to the project, unlike B and D which are more suggestive of general overhead. Opportunity costs of not pursuing other projects are not considered here.

All of the following would be incorporated into the Project Management Plan except for which one? A. Project Charter B. Development Approach C. Risk Management Plan D. Schedule Management Plan

Answer: A Planning - Integration Management B, C and D are all items that would be contained in the Project Management Plan. The Project Charter itself would not be part of the Project Management Plan.

Which of the following is a tool and technique used in developing the project management plan? A. Expert Judgment B. Expert Judgment and Product Analysis C. Project Charter D. Stakeholder register

Answer: A Planning - Integration Management Expert Judgment is a tool and technique used in this process, along with facilitation techniques. Note that Expert Judgment is a tool for every process within the Integration knowledge area. Product Analysis is used in the Define Scope process. Project Charter and Stakeholder Register are wrong because they are inputs to Develop Project Management Plan and Plan Stakeholder Engagement respectively and are not tools and techniques. Be careful not to mistake inputs from tools and techniques on the exam. Remember a tool and technique is some process you would apply to something in order to get an output.

All of the following are true regarding the Configuration Management System and change control processes except for which one? A. Configuration control is focused on identifying, documenting and controlling changes to the project and the product baselines, while change control focuses on the specifications of both the deliverables and the processes. B. They provide an opportunity to continuously validate and improve the project by considering the impact of each change. C. They provide the mechanism by which the project management team can consistently communicate all approved and rejected changes to the stakeholders. D. They provide a way to consistently identify and request changes to established baselines.

Answer: A Planning - Integration Management The terms are mismatched in A. Configuration focuses on the specifications of the deliverables and processes while change control focuses on identifying, documenting and controlling changes to the project and product baselines.

You are managing a project which requires the procurement of various raw materials, and are planning how to go about making these procurements. Your company has a written policy in place which requires you to consult with the in-house attorneys before sending out any requests for bids. Which of the following best describes this policy? A. It is an input to the Plan Procurement Management process. B. It is a tool and technique used in the Plan Procurement Management process. C. It is an internal constraint. D. It should be noted in the Project Charter

Answer: A Planning - Procurement Management A corporate policy such as this is an OPA, and OPA's are an input to the Plan Procurements process.

Which of the following items helps evaluate the reasonableness of the bids received from potential seller as an input to Conduct Procurements? A. Independent Cost Estimates B. Make-or-Buy Analysis C. Cost Baseline D. Sprint Cost Estimates

Answer: A Planning - Procurement Management Inputs to Conduct Procurements are listed on p. 482 Independent cost estimates is a type of Procurement Documentation discussed on p.485

Your organization is strongly averse to risk, and thus you must reduce the risk to the company in selecting the type of procurement contract to be used. Which of the following is most accurate? A. Your contract decision is driven by an Enterprise Environmental Factor, and you should choose a FFP contract. B. Your contract decision is driven by an Organizational Process Asset, and you should choose an FFP contract. C. Your contract decision is driven by your Qualitative Risk Analysis, and you should choose an FFP contract. D. Your contract decision is driven by your Risk Response Strategy, and you should choose a CPIF contract.

Answer: A Planning - Procurement Management Risk tolerance is an EEF, and in this case is dictating the type of contract you will choose. Firm Fixed Price affords the highest level of protection to the buyer, instead shifting the risk to the seller (making it the riskiest contract type for a seller, because the seller must pay for any cost overruns). Remember that you must memorize the contract types, preferably in order of the riskiest to the least riskiest to the buyer. Unless otherwise stated in the question, you should assume you are the buyer in a contractual relationship. 2008-2021© Educate 360

Which of the following is true? A. Each individual procurement item requires a SOW B. Multiple products or services cannot be grouped as one procurement item within a single SOW. C. A procurement statement of work can be written either broadly or in detail. D. The procurement SOW, once written and transmitted, cannot be changed.

Answer: A Planning - Procurement Management While each procurement item needs a SOW, multiple services or products can be grouped together into one procurement item. A SOW must be written in detail so that the seller knows exactly what it needs to provide. Finally, a SOW can and often will be modified, up to the point where the contract is signed.

In order to have the most effective quality control, your biggest focus should be on which of the following aspects? A. Quality Planning B. Inspection and Testing C. Creating a complete and detailed WBS D. Identifying all Stakeholders

Answer: A Planning - Quality Management Quality should be built in to the project, and this requires you to plan each quality management element carefully. Inspection and testing are certainly important, but A is a better answer because having a comprehensive quality plan will help eliminate quality problems even before they occur (hence, the notion of "building in" quality). C and D are also both important processes to follow, but are not your primary focus when it comes to quality.

You are writing the quality management plan for a complex project you are managing, which involves the development of a new space satellite. Quality control is obviously very critical. You want to ensure you have assigned each quality control task to a responsible party, and that all project items have been accounted for. Which of the following would be the most helpful reference? A. WBS B. Requirements Documentation C. Lessons Learned Documentation from a prior, similar project D. Project Management Plan

Answer: A Planning - Quality Management The WBS allows you to see all work items or groupings of work items, and would help facilitate your assignment of quality control items to particular people while ensuring that all items are captured.

Which of the following is considered when conducting Plan Resource Management? A. Requirements Documentation B. Activity Resource Requirements, which are derived as part of the Cost Management Knowledge Area. C. The Staffing Management Plan, which is an input to Develop Human Resources D. Stakeholder Register, which is an output of Identify Stakeholders

Answer: A Planning - Resource Management Requirements documentation, is listed as an example of a Project Document that is an input to this process on p.314 This document would detail the type and amount of resources needed.

All of the following are inputs to Estimate Activity Resources except for which one? A. Resource Breakdown Structure B. Activity List C. Activity Attributes D. Resource Calendars

Answer: A Planning - Resource Management Resource Breakdown Structure is an output of this process. B-D are all inputs to Estimate Activity Resources.

You and your project team are mapping out acceptable behavior for the project team members, giving all team members clear guidelines to decrease misunderstanding and increase productivity. Which of the following is true? A. You are working on the Team Charter, which is an output of the Plan Resource Management process. B. You are working on the Recognition Plan, and the legal requirements are inputs to the process you are performing. C. The inputs to the process you are performing include organizational charts and position descriptions. D. All of the above

Answer: A Planning - Resource Management The team charter is a document that establishes the team values, agreements, and operating guidelines for the team. It is an output of Plan Resource Management (PMBOK Guide, p.319).

All of the following are true regarding the Risk Management Plan except for which one? A. It sets out the roles and responsibilities of project team members relative to each designated risk. B. It defines the approaches, tools and data sources used to manage risk. C. It is a subset of the Project Management Plan. D. It may contain a breakdown of identifiable project risks grouped by categories and subcategories.

Answer: A Planning - Risk Management While roles and responsibilities are set forth in the Risk Management Plan regarding specific types of risk management activities, they are not established here for specific risks. Keep in mind that, at this point, we have not yet performed the Identify Risks process, so we are looking at assigning risk management activities and not specific risks.

Which of the following is true regarding the Risk Management Plan? A. It provides definitions of risk probability and impact. B. It assigns numeric values associated with each risk. C. It is created during the Executing process group. D. It is often accompanied by a Risk Breakdown Structure, which is a separate output from Plan Risk Management.

Answer: A Planning - Risk Management While the Risk Management Plan does not rate the probability and impact of any risk (that would be done via Qualitative Analysis), it does provide definitions to be used during this process. For example, you might decide that, for purposes of this project, a Low rating for a cost risk could mean that the cost increases by up to 10%. D is wrong because the Risk Breakdown Structure would be included in the Risk Management Plan and is not a separate output.

You have proceeded through the Sequence Activities process and now have mapped out which activities must come before others. In which of the following would you document these relationships? A. Activity Attributes B. Milestone Lists C. Activity List D. Dependencies Log

Answer: A Planning - Schedule Management Activity Attributes, an output to the Define Activities, is there to flesh out details for each activity on the Activities List, and dependencies would be something that it would contain. Note that Activity Attributes will be updated and supplemented as more planning is performed and more information becomes known.

You are developing a project schedule and have just determined the critical path. Which of the following statements is true? A. You calculated early and late start times, early and late finish times, as well as float times for each activity. B. You calculated early and late start times, early and late finish times, and you have applied reserve buffers. C. You calculated early and late start times, early and late finish times, and the optimistic and pessimistic completion dates for each activity. D. You have calculated early and late start times, total float, and your next step will be to estimate activity resources.

Answer: A Planning - Schedule Management B is incorrect because critical path analysis does not consider reserve buffers (as they are already contained within each activity duration). C is wrong because optimistic and pessimistic estimates are not involved in the critical path process (though you may use them earlier on, with your PERT analysis, when estimating activity durations). D is wrong because you have already estimated activity resources (after sequencing activities and before estimating activity durations).

You are managing a project to deploy new stoplights throughout the city and have determined that, to allow sufficient time, you will include buffer times equal to 10% of each activity's durations. Which of the following accurately describes this process? A. You have performed Reserve Analysis, which is a tool and technique of Estimate Activity Durations. B. You have performed Reserve Analysis, which is an input to Estimate Activity Durations. C. You must now go back to the Project Schedule and update it to include the buffer times. D. You must obtain approval from the project sponsor for the 10% schedule buffer.

Answer: A Planning - Schedule Management Note that C is wrong because you have not yet created your Project Schedule - you are still estimating activity durations. D is also wrong because sponsor approval would not be needed in order to build in schedule reserves. This falls within the project manager's discretion (but note that the final schedule will need approval, at which point it becomes the Schedule Baseline).

To which of the following items are unique identifier codes attached? A. WBS elements B. WBS elements and Activity Lists C. WBS elements and Stakeholder Register D. WBS elements and Milestone Lists

Answer: B Planning - Schedule Management Both of these would contain unique identifier codes, which can be used to track time and costs incurred.

Which of the following is not true regarding Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)? A. It displays the time periods on the boxes, or nodes, and the activity on the arrows connecting the nodes. B. It uses both arrows and boxes (nodes) to set forth the sequence in which activities must be performed. C. It is also called AON, or Activity on Node. D. It allows for dependency relationships other than finish to start.

Answer: A Planning - Schedule Management PDM displays the activity in the box (or node) and the arrow indicates the dependency. Answer A describes Activity on Arrow, or Arrow Diagramming Method, which is a lesser used method that would only allow for finish to start dependencies to be shown, and which shows the activity on the arrow instead of in the node.

Which of the following is not a tool and technique used in Develop Schedule? A. Reserve Analysis B. Schedule Network Analysis C. Critical Path Method D. Agile Release Planning

Answer: A Planning - Schedule Management Reserve Analysis is a tool and technique of a prior process, Estimate Activity Durations, which is a predecessor activity to Develop Schedule. For questions about inputs, tools and techniques, and outputs, always pay close attention to where you are in the process.

The Schedule Baseline includes which of the following items? A. Approved Project Schedule B. Approved Project Schedule and Schedule Data C. Approved Project Schedule and Milestone List D. Approved Project Schedule and Activity List

Answer: A Planning - Schedule Management The approved schedule model alone becomes the Schedule Baseline. Note that its being approved is the key element in its becoming the baseline. Anytime you have baselines, such as scope baseline, schedule baseline, cost baseline, you will know that those items have been approved by key stakeholders. The baseline becomes the standard by which actual project performance will later be measured.

An office building construction project calls for a fountain to be constructed in the office lobby, however, the materials for the fountain would not fit through the door once the lobby is completed. Thus, the builder must begin installing the large fountain components before the lobby itself is completed. The relationship between these activities (constructing the fountain and building the lobby) is best described how? A. A start to finish relationship B. A start to start relationship C. A finish to start relationship D. A finish to finish relationship

Answer: A Planning - Schedule Management The installation of the fountain must at least start before the construction of the lobby can be completed. This is the rarest of the dependency relationships. One way to clarify these relationships in your mind is to insert the words, in order, into the phrase, i.e. start in order to finish. This may help clarify the ordering of tasks in your mind.

You are managing a project to install solar power panels to your company's office buildings. Using PERT analysis, you estimate the project should take 30 days. Your pessimistic estimate is 44 days and your optimistic estimate is 20 days. Your project sponsors have asked for a range of expected completion times, and the range must be accurate to within a 99.73% probability. What range will you provide them? A. 18 to 42 days B. 22 to 40 days C. 20 to 44 days D. 30 to 44 days

Answer: A Planning - Schedule Management To perform this calculation, you must first establish the value of one standard deviation, so you subtract the optimistic value from the pessimistic value and divide that result by 6. Here, that gives you a standard deviation of 4. Because we need a 99.73% probability, we must allow for 3 standard deviations on each side of our original estimate. In this case, that results in an 18-42 day range. Remember, one standard deviation yields a 68.26% probability, two yields a 95.45% probability, and three yields a 99.73% probability. Six standard deviations, or six sigmas, yields a 99.999% probability. You should know the probabilities for one, two, three and six standard deviation (sigmas) for the exam.

You are managing a project for an outside customer that has proceeded into the execution process group when the customer hires on a new COO. The COO comes to you and wants to get up to speed on your project. She wants to know specifically what her company will be getting when the project is complete and what work will be done in order to complete the project. The most informative document for her to review would be which of the following? A. The Project Scope Statement B. The Project Charter C. The Requirements Documentation D. The Deliverables Management Plan

Answer: A Planning - Scope Management The Project Scope Statement would state what the desired outcomes or deliverables were, and describe what work will be done to attain them. The Project Charter would speak broadly about this, but the Scope Statement is much better defined and detailed. The Requirements Documentation would not be nearly as helpful, since it documents requirements for the final product or outcome, but does not describe the outcome itself the way the Scope Statement does. There is no Deliverables Management Plan, so D is wrong.

All of the following are negative consequences which might result from not creating an accurate and thorough WBS, except for which one? A. Some stakeholder requirements may not be taken into account. B. Some items of necessary work may not be performed C. Certain pieces of work may not be properly assigned to a responsible owner(s) D. Costs of particular work packages or groups of work will be difficult to track.

Answer: A Planning - Scope Management The risk described in A stems from a failure in the Collect Requirements process and not the creation of the WBS per se. The remaining choices are all risks associated with not preparing a complete and accurate WBS.

All of the following should be included in the WBS Dictionary except for which one? A. The business need to which the work package pertains B. Acceptance Criteria C. Schedule Milestones D. Cost Estimates

Answer: A Planning - Scope Management This answer confuses the WBS with the Requirements Traceability Matrix, which traces requirements (not packages of work) to actual business needs.

In control procurements, you are reviewing the entire procurements process, from the Plan Procurement Management process onward. You are performing which of the following? A. Performance Review B. Audit C. Lessons Learned Documentation D. Control Quality

Answer: B Closing - Procurement Management An Audit examines the entire procurement effort by the project team, from planning to closure. A performance review would examine the successes and failures of individual procurement relationships.

Mary is a project manager on a new highway development project. Her company wants to track costs incurred for specific packages of work. Mary has included in her WBS unique numerical identifiers for each particular WBS item. What are these identifiers called? A. Control Accounts B. Code of Accounts C. Chart of Accounts D. Key Accounts

Answer: B Planning - Scope Management Collectively, each unique identifier is referred to as the code of accounts.

While managing a large manufacturing project, you realize that the deliverables contain defects which are attributable to a flaw in one of the stamping machines being used. You issue a change request and then have the machine in question replaced. Which of the following best describes the action you have taken? A. Defect Repair B. Corrective Action C. Preventive Action D. Re-Work

Answer: B Executing - Integration Management Corrective actions are taken following some sort of a failure or defect discovery, and their purpose is to bring future project performance back in line with the project management plan, which is what the facts describe. Defect Repair and Re-Work focus on fixing the defect in the deliverable itself, not the systems in place to produce that deliverable. Preventive actions are taken on the front end, before failures occur, to reduce the possibility of defects occurring.

All of the following are true regarding Procurement Agreements except for which one? A. They include items such as price, scope of work, and time for performance. B. They should be formal documents, as opposed to mere purchase orders. C. They are an output of Conduct Procurements. D. They may contain mandatory procedures the parties must follow in the event of contract disputes.

Answer: B Executing - Procurement Management The agreements need not be especially formal or complex, and a purchase order would suffice so long as it contained the key terms and was signed by the parties.

Which of the following is not true regarding affinity diagrams? A. They are used to group together those ideas which logically relate to each other. B. They are included in the outputs of Plan Quality Management. C. They are often used in conjunction with Brainstorming. D. They are included in the tools and techniques of Manage Quality.

Answer: B Executing - Quality Management Affinity Diagrams are a tool and technique under Data Representation for Manage Quality.

You are reviewing a document which includes quality management issues, recommendations for product and process improvements, as well as the rework performed. Which of the following is true? A. You are reviewing the Quality Control Measurements, which is an input to Control Quality. B. You are reviewing a Quality Report, which is an output of Manage Quality. C. Both A and B D. Defect Log

Answer: B Executing - Quality Management Quality Reports are an output of Manage Quality. These reports can be graphical, numerical or qualitative and may include all quality management issues escalated by the team, recommendations for process, project and product improvements; corrective action recommendations (including rework, defect/bugs repair, 100% inspection, etc.); and a summary of findings from the Control Quality Process. Quality control measurements are an output of Control Quality, not an input. There is no such thing as a defect log in the PMBOK Guide.

You are a project manager and have determined that you will measure the rate of defects in your deliverables, the deviation from the budget, and the degree to which you adhere to the project schedule. All of the following are true except which one? A. These are quality metrics. B. These are tools and techniques of the Manage Quality process C. These are inputs to the Manage Quality process. D. These are outputs from Plan Quality Management.

Answer: B Executing - Quality Management Quality metrics are an input to Manage Quality, but not a tool and technique.

You are examining problems and constraints that have arisen in your project, and are identifying those activities that have not been productive. In doing so, you have also used root cause analysis. Which of the following is true? A. You are working on the Process Improvement Plan. B. You are performing Process Analysis. C. You are performing Qualitative Risk Analysis. D. You are performing Quantitative Risk Analysis.

Answer: B Executing - Quality Management This describes Process Analysis, a tool and technique of Manage Quality. You would use the steps outlined in the Quality Management Plan to accomplish this.

As a result of your feedback and guidance, one of your team members, John, has improved his overall skill set and now performs better in a team environment. This result is best described as which of the following? A. A deliverable B. Enterprise Environmental Factor Update C. Organizational Process Asset Update D. Individual and Team Assessments

Answer: B Executing - Resource Management John's skills have been enhanced as a result of the Develop Team process, and this enhancement becomes an update to the organization's EEFs. While a Individual and Team Assessments would have been used, this is a tool and technique of the process and not the result of the process.

One of your project team members, Claire, needs to take maternity leave at a critical time in the project. Where should this be documented? A. In the Resource Calendar, which is an input to Acquire Resources B. In the Resource Calendar, which is an output of Acquire Resources C. In the Risk Register D. It does not need to be documented

Answer: B Executing - Resource Management The Resource Calendar shows the availability of project resources and lists times when they will not be available. It is both an input to Develop Schedule and an output of Acquire Resources. This information would not be documented in the Risk Register because risk involves uncertainty, and here we know that she will need the time off so it is not a risk.

You are in the process of evaluating a particular team member, Jonathan, and are providing feedback to him regarding strengths and areas of improvement. As part of this effort, you have outlined steps for Jonathan to follow to enhance his performance as a team member. Which of the following are you performing? A. Develop Team B. Manage Team C. Team Building D. Confronting/Problem Solving

Answer: B Executing - Resource Management While Individual performance reviews and Team Assessments are performed during Develop Team, the question states you are providing feedback, which is done during the Manage Team Process.

Project phases can be characterized by all of the following except: A. The phase structure allows a project to be segmented into logical subsets for ease of management B. Examples of project phases are Initiating and Planning C. A project phase will result in some type of deliverable being provided D. Each of the process groups are invoked in a project phase

Answer: B Initiating - Framework A phase is not a project management process group and should not be confused with one. Indeed, each process group will be applied to a phase, making D true. A and C are likewise true (keep in mind the deliverable from a phase may be tangible as in a product component, or intangible such as a feasibility determination). You might think of phases as mini-projects because every process group is employed for each phase, and each phase will result in a deliverable.

The project steering committee is considering which project they should invest capital in. Bob's project promises to be worth $175,000 in four years. The project steering committee is interested in Bob's project, but they would like to know the present value of the return if the interest rate is 6 percent. What is the present value of Bob's project? A. $175,000 B. $139,000 C. $220,000 D. $43,750

Answer: B Initiating - Integration Management The formula for Present Value (PV) is FV / (1 + i) ^n, where FV is the future value, i is the interest rate, and n is the number of periods. PV = 175,000 / (1.06 * 1.06 * 1.06 * 1.06), PV = $139,000.

You are managing the development of a residential neighborhood comprised of 12 homes of equal cost ($200,000 each). To date, you have completed 4 homes. Your progress has been hindered by a labor strike which left you short of construction workers, however, the labor issues have been resolved and you now have all of the workers you need. By this time, you had planned to have 6 homes completed. You have spent $900,000 to complete the 4 homes. How much more money will you spend to complete the project? A. 1500000 B. 1600000 C. 1800000 D. You do not have enough information to answer this question.

Answer: B Monitoring - Cost Management The question asks you to calculate ETC, the formula for which is EAC-AC. You must first calculate EAC, and since the facts tell you that the variances you have encountered to date are atypical (the labor issues are no longer a problem) you will use AC+(BAC-EV). Here, actual costs are $900,000. BAC (original cost estimate) is $2.4 million and earned value is $800,000. Thus, your EAC is $2.5 million. Subtract your actual costs ($900,000) from that and you have your ETC of $1.6 million.

Which of the following are the 3 key items which EVM monitors for each work package and control account? A. Planned Value, Earned Value and Schedule Variance B. Planned Value, Earned Value and Actual Costs C. Cost Performance Index, Variance at Completion and Schedule Variance D. Cost Performance Index, To-Complete Performance Index and Schedule Variance

Answer: B Monitoring - Cost Management These are the three key items being developed and monitored by EVM. These items will then be used to calculate measurements such as CPI, SV, etc.

All of the following are true regarding Perform Integrated Change Control except for which one? A. It is designed to ensure that only approved changes are implemented. B. It is conducted in the Monitor and Control process group only. C. It helps ensure that the complete impact of change requests is documented. D. It is part of the Integration Management Knowledge Area.

Answer: B Monitoring - Integration Management According to the PMBOK Guide, this process is conducted from inception of the project to completion.

Which of the following is true regarding Change Requests? A. They are an output of every process in the Executing process group. B. They are an output of every process in the Monitor and Control process group, except for Perform Integrated Change Control. C. They are an output of some processes in the Closing process group. D. If approved, they will require changes to Schedule Baseline or Scope Baseline.

Answer: B Monitoring - Integration Management Change Requests are outputs from every Monitor and Control process except for Perform Integrated Change Control. Remember, not all changes will require baseline updates.

You have just received an invoice from a supplier for your project, and you are reviewing the invoice and the items provided to ensure payment is in order. Which of the following processes are you performing? A. Conduct Procurements B. Control Procurements C. Control Costs D. Determine Budget

Answer: B Monitoring - Procurement Management Control Procurements involves overseeing the procurement relationship, which includes paying for services.

You performed two tasks as part of your quality control activities. Task A was focused on keeping errors out of the project processes, while Task B focused on keeping errors out of the hands of customers. What are Task A and Task B? A. Task A - Process Improvement; Task B - Random Sampling B. Task A - Prevention; Task B - Inspection C. Task A - Quality Assurance; Task B - Quality Improvement D. Task A - Quality Planning; Task B - Quality Assurance

Answer: B Monitoring - Quality Management Prevention helps keep defects out of the system while inspection keeps them from reaching a customer (PMBOK Guide, page 274).

All of the following are true regarding Quality Control Measurements except which one? A. They are the documented results of quality control activities displayed in the format designated during the Plan Quality Management process. B. They are an output of Plan Quality Management. C. They are used to analyze and evaluate the quality standards and processes of the performing organization. D. They are an input to Perform Quality Assurance.

Answer: B Monitoring - Quality Management Quality Control Measurements are an output of Control Quality, not of Plan Quality.

When using control charts, the upper and lower control limits are usually set at how many standard deviations? A. 2 B. 3 C. 6 D. 1

Answer: B Monitoring - Quality Management Three standard deviations in either direction typically are used to establish upper and lower control limits. Some industries may require tighter limits in some cases.

Unfortunately, risk analysis was not done regularly by the previous manager of a project you inherited. As you are performing the project work, you and your team are reviewing all potential risk events, and analyzing their current probability and impact. Which of the following best describes what you are doing? A.Critical path method (CPM) B.Risk re-assessment C.Sensitivity analysis D.Expert judgment

Answer: B Monitoring - Risk Management Risk re-assessment involves reviewing the various risk events to determine whether their probability or impact has changed since your initial assessment (done during planning). This is an important part of Monitor Risks, and should be performed regularly throughout the project.

You are managing a major new marketing campaign for a new drug launch, which includes thousands of pages of scientific and other clinical information. Many changes have been made to the marketing materials throughout the process, but you find that you and your team are often referring to outdated versions of the documents and you therefore cannot all get on the same page. What area did you most likely overlook? A. Scope Management B. Configuration Management C. Change Control D. Process Improvement

Answer: B Planning - Integration Management Configuration management is focused on the specification of the deliverables in the context of integrated change control, and as such, would be a primary focus when it comes to version control.

You are a project manager overseeing the development of a new software package to be unveiled at a trade show in less than nine months. You have had a couple setbacks and you are concerned that the product may not be completed in time for the trade show. The project sponsor has made it clear that the software must not only be ready, but entirely bug free, by the time of the trade show, and that budget concerns must be subordinate to those. Which of the following would be the best option in this case? A. Fast-tracking B. Crashing C. Schedule Compression D. A reduction of the project scope

Answer: B Monitoring - Schedule Management Crashing, or adding more resources to the project, is the appropriate response here, as time is the primary constraint and budget comes second. Fast-tracking, or performing otherwise sequential activities in parallel, would not be best here because the risk of defects increases and the product must be bug-free. Crashing is hard on the budget, but here budget is subordinate to time and quality in terms of your constraints. C is not specific enough - A and B are both methods for compressing the schedule. D could perhaps be used as a last resort, but you should clearly look to schedule compression techniques first.

You are working on the Control Schedule process. Which of the following measurements are you focusing on? A. SV and CPI B. SV and SPI C. BAC and CPI D. SV and AC

Answer: B Monitoring - Schedule Management Schedule Variance and Schedule Performance Index are the measurements which would be most critical to the Control Schedule process.

You have run into some delays on your project and you need to shorten your schedule. To which activities should you ideally direct your fast-tracking efforts? A. Those with mandatory dependencies B. Those with discretionary dependencies C. Those with the highest float D. Those with the highest cost estimates

Answer: B Monitoring - Schedule Management When you must either re-sequence activities, or start one activity before its predecessor activity concludes (fast-tracking), then you will want to focus on those with discretionary dependencies if possible, because these are not hard requirements, but rather the preferred order your company likes to follow. A is the opposite - the order of these activities cannot be changed because the dependency is mandatory. C would not help you, because if the activity has the highest float, or slack, then there is no need to fast-track it because there is cushion there already. D is wrong because cost has no bearing on the scheduling concerns raised here.

You are a project manager and have reached the point in the project where the deliverables are ready to be approved and accepted. To what document would you refer to determine who needs to sign off on the deliverables? A. Project Scope Statement B. Project Charter C. Requirements Documentation D. Scope Management Plan

Answer: B Monitoring - Scope Management The Project Charter sets forth, among other things, what will constitute project success and who will sign off on the deliverables.

Support for your project has been waning amongst stakeholders, as your project is behind schedule and over budget. You are reaching out to the stakeholders most critical of your project, to try to bring them back on board. To which of the following should you be referring? A. Requirements Documentation B. Stakeholder Engagement Plan C. Project Charter D. All of the Above

Answer: B Monitoring - Stakeholder Management You are managing stakeholder engagement, and the only input to that process that is shown as an answer choice is the Stakeholder Engagement Plan.

Which of the following techniques is best used to provide a cost estimate at the kickoff phase? A. Bottom-Up Estimating B. Analogous Estimating C. PERT D. Budget documents from a prior, similar project your company completed

Answer: B Planning - Cost Management Analogous Estimating, is the only method that really makes sense at this early phase because you have not yet determined requirements, defined scope, etc. Bottom-Up Estimating would not work at this early phase because you haven't identified all the detailed work which would be counted in a Bottom-Up estimate. PERT, which uses optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely scenarios, is similarly unhelpful because you haven't defined enough of the work to be able to attach PERT estimates to the items. Answer D says budget documents and is therefore not explicit enough to know if these are the actuals or the estimates.

Which of the following processes is most closely associated with the Estimate Costs process? A. Estimate Activity Durations B. Estimate Activity Resources C. PERT D. Define Activities

Answer: B Planning - Cost Management Because resources (human resources, materials, equipment, etc.) are the greatest source of costs incurred, the estimation of resources and costs are closely linked. Note that C is not a process, but rather a tool and technique used in processes. You must be able to distinguish between inputs, tools and techniques, and outputs on the exam, and also know which items are actual processes unto themselves. This will help you eliminate many incorrect answer options on the exam.

Which of the following is not a tool and technique of Estimate Costs? A. Decision Making B. Critical Path Method C. Reserve Analysis D. Expert Judgment

Answer: B Planning - Cost Management Critical Path Method is a tool and technique of Develop Schedule, a prior process we had to go through to get to the budget. Again, always keep in mind where you are chronologically and that will help you eliminate incorrect answers.

You are reviewing a document which establishes the units of measure to be used for the budget, sets forth the amount of acceptable variance between the planned and actual costs incurred, and identifies the level of the WBS at which control accounts will be placed. Which document are you reviewing? A. Code of Accounts B. Cost Management Plan C. Funding Limit Reconciliation D. Budget Forecasts

Answer: B Planning - Cost Management The Cost Management Plan, a subsidiary of the Project Management Plan, sets forth these items, and others, in establishing a framework by which costs are to be managed.

Which of the following is used to determine which of the processes and process groups should be performed for a specific project? A. Progressive Elaboration B. Tailoring C. Rolling Wave Planning D. Expert Judgment

Answer: B Planning - Framework Determining which processes and process groups to be employed in a given project is called tailoring. In general, all five process groups should be applied to projects, though in some smaller projects, tailoring allows the project manager to bypass some processes which may not be needed. For the exam, do not assume that any processes or process groups should be bypassed, but you should know about tailoring nonetheless as the scale and scope of each test question may leverage various aspects of it.

John is a project manager overseeing a large construction project. He knows that the actual building portion of the project will require many additional workers than he currently has. Because there are many properly-trained people looking for construction work in that locale, John believes he will have access to the people when they are needed and can simply hire them on at that time. Which of the following best describes this situation? A. John is using rolling wave planning because he is deferring the hiring of the workers to a later point in time. B. John is making an assumption regarding worker availability, and should document and continue to verify this assumption until there is no longer a need for such workers. C. John is making an assumption regarding worker availability, and should document the assumption and verify it throughout the project planning process. D. John is dealing with a project constraint.

Answer: B Planning - Integration Management John has made an assumption regarding future worker availability, and he must continue to verify that assumption until it ceases to be relevant, i.e. when the work is done. Otherwise, the facts underlying his assumption could change, leaving him without access to the laborers he needs, which would seriously disrupt the project. D is incorrect because John is not dealing with a project constraint per se. The need for labor, in and of itself, would not be considered a constraint, but if workers were in short supply then that shortage would be a constraint. But the facts don't tell us that here. A is incorrect because, while the hiring may have been deferred to a later time, the planning itself is not being deferred. John is simply deferring the actual hiring, and in any event, his assumption is the most relevant concern.

Which of the following consists of the tools and techniques used to gather, integrate and disseminate the outputs of project management processes? A. Project Management Plan B. Project Management Information System C. Work Performance Reports D. Project Charter

Answer: B Planning - Integration Management The PMIS performs these functions. Note the PMIS is used to support all aspects of the project, from initiating to closing, and it can include both manual and automated systems. The PMIS is one of the few items which can be both an input (because it is considered an EEF) as well as a tool and technique (as in Direct and Manage Project Work).

You are managing a major software upgrade for your company's payroll department. Your project team is capable of performing the necessary testing in-house, but you are considering using independent contractors to perform this task, as it would create too much of a strain on your team given their other responsibilities. Which of the following best describes this? A. Benefit-Cost Analysis B. Make or Buy Analysis C. Source Selection Criteria D. Risk-Related Contract Decision

Answer: B Planning - Procurement Management B is the best answer because this is a decision about whether to perform a function in-house, or use procurements to achieve the objective. Make or Buy Analysis is a tool and technique of Plan Procurements (and Make or Buy Decisions are an input to Conduct Procurements). Benefit-Cost Analysis is not an input to, or a tool and technique of, any procurement process.

Senior management at your company has defined a set of quality standards governing all work done by the company. Which of the following best describes these standards? A. Quality Management Plan B. Quality Policy C. Scope of Quality documents D. Six Sigma

Answer: B Planning - Quality Management B is most correct as the example is best described as a quality policy. On page 271, the PMBOK Guide defines the Project Quality Management Knowledge Area as a way to incorporate the organizations quality policy etc.

You are managing a project and you have determined that the cost to produce each particular unit of deliverables will be tracked, and should not exceed the budgeted amounts by more than 10%. This is an example of which of the following: A. A project requirement B. A Quality Metric, which is an output of Plan Quality Management C. A Quality Metric, which is a tool and technique of Plan Quality Management D. Cost of Quality

Answer: B Planning - Quality Management Quality Metrics include tolerance levels, or amounts by which the values can deviate from planned levels. The budget control scenario used here is one such example. Quality Metrics are an output of Plan Quality Management, and will become inputs to performing quality assurance and quality control.

All of the following are costs of conformance except for which one? A. Costs incurred to plan quality B. Re-work of non-conforming deliverables C. Destructive testing D. Training

Answer: B Planning - Quality Management Re-work and scrap are caused by a failure that has been discovered while the product is still in your possession, and thus are nonconformance costs. The remaining options are all conformance costs, or costs incurred on the front end in an effort to avoid failures later.

You manage a project that calls for the production of many special alloy screws which must adhere to very particular standards for use in the aerospace industry. Each screw is measured and weighed, and a notation is made to show that value in relation to the mean you have established. What are you using? A. Benchmarking B. Control Chart C. Ishikawa Diagram D. Pareto Diagram

Answer: B Planning - Quality Management This describes a Control Chart, which is a tool and technique for Plan Quality Management, Perform Quality Assurance and Control Quality.

All of the following are tools and techniques of the Plan Resource Management process except for which one? A. Expert Judgment B. Pre-Assignment C. Meetings D. Organizational Theory

Answer: B Planning - Resource Management Pre-Assignment is a tool and technique of Acquire Resources.

You are managing a project and have used Microsoft's scheduling software to assist you. Which of the following is true? A. This is an example of an OPA. B. The software is a tool and technique of Develop Schedule. C. The software is a tool and technique of all Schedule Management processes. D. The software is a tool and technique of Estimate Activity Durations

Answer: B Planning - Schedule Management A is wrong because software packages would be considered EEFs, and in any event this answer is not as complete as B. C and D are wrong because the software, known as a scheduling tool which is a subset of the PMIS, a tool and technique of Develop Schedule and Control Schedule only. It is not an input to anything. Again, be on the lookout for tools and techniques disguised as inputs, or vice versa, and you will be able to eliminate many more wrong answers on the exam.

All of the following are outputs of the Define Activities process except for which one? A. Activity List B. Project Schedule Network Diagrams C. Activity Attributes D. Milestone List

Answer: B Planning - Schedule Management Answer B is an output from the Sequence Activities process. The remaining choices are all outputs from Define Activities.

Which of the following is not true regarding Define Activities? A. It uses decomposition and rolling-wave planning as tools and techniques B. It is the last step of the Create WBS process C. It involves taking the work listed in the WBS and identifying activities needed to accomplish each item or work package. D. The inputs to this process are Scope Baseline, EEF's and OPA's.

Answer: B Planning - Schedule Management Define Activities is not part of the Create WBS process. Instead, it takes the items from the work package level and decomposes them even further to identify each particular activity that must be performed. Remember to keep these processes separate, even though there is some overlap in the two.

You are managing a construction project and you know that, physically speaking, it is not possible to begin framing a building until the foundation has been completed. This is an example of which of the following? A. A Mandatory Dependency, also called a Firm Dependency B. A Mandatory Dependency, also called Hard Logic C. An External Dependency D. A Discretionary Dependency, also called Hard Logic

Answer: B Planning - Schedule Management Mandatory Dependencies are also called hard logic. When things simply must be done in a certain order, be it because of physics, a contractual requirement or otherwise, then these terms apply. There is no "Firm Dependency," so A is incorrect. External Dependencies may look like Mandatory Dependencies insofar as they require the completion of one item before the next (think FDA trials preceding the launch of a new drug). But, these dependencies are external to the project, and thus are distinguishable from Mandatory Dependencies.

You are managing a project to re-landscape a city park, and when creating your project schedule network diagram you and your team notice that there is one additional step needed to finish the installation of the sprinkler system which you had missed previously. How should you respond? A. Submit a change request form B. Include the new item in the schedule network diagram and then update the Activities List C. Prepare a new WBS reflecting the new task D. Create a new scope statement

Answer: B Planning - Schedule Management One of the outputs of this process is project document updates, and to the extent you identified a new activity, you need to update the Activities List.

Which of the following show the most accurate and least accurate methods of estimating, respectively? A. Analogous Estimating and Parametric Estimating using a three-point approach B. Parametric using a bottom-up approach and Analogous Estimating C. Three-point estimating using an analogous approach and Bottom-Up Estimating D. Parametric estimating using a three-point approach and Three-point estimating using an analogous approach

Answer: B Planning - Schedule Management Parametric estimating using a bottom-up is considered the most accurate because it uses historical information and starts at the lowest component level of work, but it is also the most costly and time-consuming method. Analogous Estimating is a gross estimating technique, more of a quick and easy estimation using past experience, thus is considered the least accurate (but also the cheapest and quickest), but is also used when there is little information known. The accuracy of three-point estimating depends on the validity of the assumptions about the risk involved. Three-point estimates can also be derived from either bottom-up or analogous approaches.

Which of the following is not true regarding the critical path? A. It is normally the path which all activities have a zero float B. The critical path will always remain the same throughout the Develop Schedule process. C. The critical path can be compressed. D. The critical path and total float are discovered by performing a forward pass and a backward pass throughout the schedule network.

Answer: B Planning - Schedule Management The critical path may change during the Develop Schedule process, and can also change during the project if another sequence of activities runs late and uses up all its float. Note that the critical path will be the one you seek to compress, insofar as it is the one where you need to add some slack. It would not help you that much to compress an activity which already has slack (or float).

You are managing the development of a new residential neighborhood. Through expert judgment and analysis of past similar projects, you have determined that the most likely completion time is 22 months, the optimistic estimate is 18 months, and the pessimistic estimate is 28 months. Using PERT, what is the expected total duration of this project? A. 22 B. 22.33 C. 26 D. 24.55

Answer: B Planning - Schedule Management The formula for PERT is 4x most likely value + the pessimistic value + the optimistic value, all divided by 6.

Which of the following is the critical path where the activity durations are as follows: A= 8 days; B= 10 days; C= 6 days; D= 11 days and E= 4 days? A. A-C-D B. B-C-D C. A-D-E D. B-D-E

Answer: B Planning - Schedule Management This path yields the longest total duration (27 days), so you know this will be the critical path. You will then confirm this by doing a forward and backward pass to calculate float, whereupon you will find that each activity along this path has a float of 0.

Which of the following is true regarding work assignments? A. They show what person or group is responsible for completing a particular body of work, and they refer to the work package level of the WBS. B. They show what person or group is responsible for completing a particular body of work, and they may refer to any level of the WBS. C. Work assignments are closely linked with the Requirements Documentation and show what person or group is responsible for completing a particular body of work. D. Work assignments are not typically used when performing a project for an outside customer.

Answer: B Planning - Scope Management A primary reason for having a WBS is to ensure each piece of work, whether large or small, can be assigned to a person or group who will ensure it is done. These assignments need not come from the work package level, but can relate to any level of the WBS (i.e. one team member may be responsible for all work included in a broad category such as manage legal affairs/permits). They may also be self-assigned in an Agile environment as teams become more mature and self-managing over time.

Which of the following tools and techniques involves pre-qualified stakeholders coming together to discuss requirements and to better learn about their attitudes and expectations of a final outcome or product? A. Facilitated Workshops B. Focus Groups C. Benchmarking D. Interviews

Answer: B Planning - Scope Management Bringing together prequalified stakeholders is the hallmark of focus groups, which is a tool and technique of Collect Requirements (as are the other answer choices). This might be used, for example, when creating a new software application which will impact various departments within a company, i.e. R&D experts, Human Resources specialists, etc.

All of the following are true regarding the WBS except for which one? A. The WBS will be used throughout the remaining planning processes, and involves the process of decomposition. B. The WBS will be used only in the Scope Management portion of the Planning process group, and involves the process of decomposition. C. The WBS helps to identify all the work that is needed to attain a given outcome or deliverable. D. The WBS can be used to track costs for a given piece of work or portion of the project.

Answer: B Planning - Scope Management The WBS will be used in the remaining planning processes - not merely those related to scope management. You should be skeptical when you see terms like only, never, always, must, etc. Such absolute terms are often, though not always, a sign of a false answer choice.

Along with requirements documentation, the other output of the Collect Requirements process is ______? A. Stakeholder Engagement Plan B. Requirements Traceability Matrix C. Project Scope Statement D. WBS

Answer: B Planning - Scope Management The outputs from Collect Requirements are the Requirements Documentation and Requirements Traceability Matrix .

All of the following are accomplished via Close Project or Phase except for which one? A. Collect project records B. Transfer of the project's deliverables to operations C. Identify successes and failures in the procurement processes D. Release project team

Answer: C Closing - Integration Management Answer C describes and Procurement Audit, which is part of Control Procurements.

Your project finished on-time and within budget. As part of closing the project, in addition to updating project documents and organizational process assets, you must also prepare a final report. This report provides a summary of the project performance and can include all of the following information except: A.The criteria used to evaluate the project and product quality B.A summary level description of the project or phase C.Lessons learned on the project D.Summary of any risks or issues encountered on the project and how they were addressed

Answer: C Closing - Integration Management It is vital to record lessons learned for each project. However, they do not belong in the final report. Lessons from projects get captured in the lessons learned register. All lessons learned from all projects should ultimately wind up in an organizational process asset called a lessons learned repository.

The Close Project or Phase process, like other processes, is formal and certain activities must be carried out. Specifically, during administrative closure, you must do all of the following except: A.Deal with excess project material B.Manage knowledge sharing and transfer C.Hold a final team meeting D.Close project accounts

Answer: C Closing - Integration Management The key word here is administrative. You can, and perhaps should, hold a final team meeting. But it is not an administrative activity.

All of the following are true regarding Bidder Conferences except for which one? A. They occur prior to the submission of the sellers' bids. B. All questions and all answers must be heard by each potential seller. C. They are an output of Conduct Procurements. D. Responses to sellers' questions can be incorporated as amendments to procurement documents.

Answer: C Executing - Procurement Management Bidder Conferences are a tool and technique of Conduct Procurements, not an output.

You are managing a project which requires the purchase of certain raw materials. You are beginning to receive and evaluate responses to your procurement documents, but have not yet chosen your seller. What process are you performing? A. Plan Procurement Management B. Control Procurements C. Conduct Procurements D. Collect Requirements

Answer: C Executing - Procurement Management Conduct Procurements involves collecting the proposal documents from the prospective sellers. It ends with a selected seller and a contract award (Agreement).

As the project manager for a new aircraft development, you have scheduled a third party to review your team's work to ensure that the project quality activities comply with organizational and project processes, policies and procedures. All of the following statements are true except for which one? A. This is a Quality Audit. B. This can be used to ensure the implementation of your Quality Management Plan. C. This is an input to Manage Quality. D. This helps identify the best practices being implemented as well as shortcomings in the quality processes.

Answer: C Executing - Quality Management Quality Audits are a type of Audit listed in the tools and techniques of Manage Quality, not an input.

The team is presently compiling a project team directory. In which process is the team most likely engaged? A. Resource planning B. Develop Team C. Acquire Resources D. Plan Resource Management

Answer: C Executing - Resource Management A project team directory lists all the project team members and their contact information. This means that the team has been assembled, or is currently being assembled, making C correct.

Which of the following lists the Resource Management processes in the correct order? A. Plan Resource Management, Acquire Team, Develop Team, Manage Team, Implement Resource Plan, Control Resources B. Estimate Activity Resources, Acquire Resources, Plan Resource Management, Manage Team, Develop Team, Monitor Resource Usage C. Plan Resource Management, Estimate Activity Resources, Acquire Resources, Develop Team, Manage Team, Control Resources D. Estimate Activity Resources, Plan Project Resource Management, Acquire Project Team, Manage Project Team, Develop Project Team, Control Resources

Answer: C Executing - Resource Management First, you must develop the Resource Management Plan, which sets forth how you will go about performing resource activities. Then, you estimate, acquire, develop and manage the team. Control Resources is all about controlling the utilization of physical resources, not the team.

Your project manager, Sandy, is working on developing the project team. Your fellow team members have widely differing personalities and sentiments toward the workplace, as well as differing cultural backgrounds and norms, but otherwise function well as a team and are highly competent in their roles. Which of the following will be most important for Sandy to utilize? A. Team Building Activities B. Training C. Interpersonal and Team Skills D. Rewards and Recognition

Answer: C Executing - Resource Management Interpersonal and team skills, also called Soft Skills according to the PMBOK Guide, are a tool and technique of Manage Team. These include emotional intelligence, which acknowledges varying sentiments among team members, understanding their concerns, etc. These skills are often the hardest for project managers to master.

You are putting together your project team and are negotiating with functional managers to secure the human resources necessary to complete the project. The functional managers are reluctant to make available all of the people you need, but have so far agreed to release some of them to you. Which of the following best describes this situation? A. You are in a weak matrix organization, and you should approach the project sponsor for assistance. B. You are in a strong matrix organization, and you should try to make do with the resources made available to you before seeking assistance from the sponsor. C. You are in a balanced matrix organization, and should continue to negotiate with the functional managers to secure the resources you need. D. You are in a functional organization and must proceed with the resources you are able to secure.

Answer: C Executing - Resource Management The fact that you are negotiating with the functional managers should tip you off that you are in a balanced matrix organization, for if you were in a weak matrix organization you would hold little if any power to do so. By contrast, if you were in a strong matrix organization you would have a higher level of authority and thus should not have any problems securing needed resources. You should continue to negotiate with the functional managers, as the facts suggest that negotiations are ongoing and have not reached an impasse. Remember, as a project manager your goal is to resolve all issues yourself, to the extent possible, and so you want to avoid escalating issues whenever you can.

You are assembling a project team for a complex, multi-year project and need to utilize the best and most reliable people available. You have found that the best people for this project are geographically dispersed, and cannot re-locate to a common area. Which of the following tools and techniques of Acquire Resources would be most helpful? A. Pre-Assignment B. Communications Technology, such as e-mail, videoconferencing, etc. C. Virtual Teams D. Acquisition

Answer: C Executing - Resource Management Virtual Teams are the tool and technique of Acquire Resources to which this question refers. Note that communication technology may be used, but is not a tool and technique of Acquire Resources.

Which of the following would be considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor? A. Budget templates B. Lessons Learned from prior similar projects C. Project management software tool, i.e. Microsoft Project D. Progressive Elaboration

Answer: C Initiating - Framework Because A and B refer to actual written documents, they are considered Organizational Process Assets. D is a technique used in project planning and thus is neither an EEF nor an OPA. C is considered an internal EEF as used by the organization to provide an information technology software working environment which supports project planning files.

Which of the following are considered project constraints? A. Resources B. Resources and budget C. Resources, schedule and budget D. Resources and third-party contractors

Answer: C Initiating - Framework C is the best answer because it is the most inclusive. D is incorrect - the presence of a third-party contractor, in and of itself, should not materially limit project management options, though it could affect other constraints such as budget and scheduling. In any event, it does not incorporate the 3 very important constraints set out in C.

You are the project manager for a health care company. There are 3 phases on your software. You just completed the first phase of your project and are ready for phase 2. Which process groups must you pass through for the second phase? A.Whichever process groups are necessary to meet the objectives of Phase 2 B.Executing and Monitoring & Controlling C.Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring & Controlling, and Closing D.Planning, Executing, and Monitoring & Controlling

Answer: C Initiating - Framework The correct answer is choice C. You must follow through all 5 process groups for each and every phase of a project.

Which is true regarding the project life cycle? A. As time goes by, stakeholder influence over a project increases. B. As time goes by, project risk increases along with stakeholder influence. C. As time goes by, project risk decreases. D. Costs are at their highest near the very end of the project.

Answer: C Initiating - Framework The opposite is true with respect to A and B. D is incorrect because costs are highest near the middle of the project, as the level of work hits its peak. This is shown using an S-curve. Had option D said - Cost of CHANGE is highest at the end of the project - then it would have been a viable response.

Which of the following best describes progressive elaboration? A. Planning near-term items in more detail than those occurring further down the road B. Meeting with one group of stakeholders right away, and then establishing set times to meet with other stakeholders later in time as the project work is being done C. Starting with a high-level scope description and then refining the project management plan to include more detail through incremental steps as more information is gathered or made available D. Adding additional features to the deliverables which were not part of the scope baseline but which enhance their value nonetheless

Answer: C Initiating - Framework This is the definition of progressive elaboration. Subject matter experts and stakeholders will help provide the information necessary to put the finer touches on the project deliverables/scope, and should be brought on board as early on as possible - not in phases as B suggests. Choice A describes rolling-wave planning and D describes gold plating.

1. Which of the following is least likely to be considered a project? A. The creation of a new automated call-control system which will be deployed alongside the existing live-operator system the company already has in place B. Performing a marketing survey, then compiling, analyzing and presenting the results of the survey responses C. Modifying a security-related sign-in feature for the company's internal email system D. Organizing and executing a new diversity training day for all company employees

Answer: C Initiating - Framework This suggests a mere tweak to an existing system. The email system is part of the company operations, and while it is true that it may be receiving a new feature, it does not describe a new and unique result or outcome as clearly as the remaining selections do, and is, therefore, least likely to be a project. Remember to look for something new and unique, and try to distinguish that from a mere change or adjustment to existing operations.

The project charter would most appropriately be signed by which of the following?

Answer: C Initiating - Integration Management The project sponsor or initiator, being both a key stakeholder and the source of funding, would be the best person of the options listed to sign off on the project charter. The project charter should be signed by someone independent of the project team, ruling out (A) and (B). D is incorrect because, while some key stakeholders may well sign the charter, there are too many potential stakeholders for this to be feasible or useful.

You are in a supportive PMO and giving a class on Earned Value Management. The concept is difficult for some of your junior project managers to grasp. You have explained EV, PV and AC and are currently discussing schedule variance (SV) and schedule performance index. A schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.76 means which of the following, and what can you expect of your schedule variance? A.You are over budget and SV > 0 B.You are ahead of schedule and SV > 0 C.You are behind schedule and SV < 0 D.You are only progressing at 24 percent of the rate originally planned and SV < 0

Answer: C Monitoring - Cost Management An SPI greater than 1 means that you are ahead of schedule, but an SPI less than 1 means that you are behind schedule.

You are reviewing all costs actually spent on the project to date, and are comparing that to the amount work completed with that money. Which of the following are you performing? A. Forecasting B. Trend Analysis C. Cost Variance D. Process Improvement

Answer: C Monitoring - Cost Management Cost Variance looks backwards in time to evaluate actual performance against the Performance Measurement Baseline, also known as the cost baseline. Forecasting looks forward to establish a new, revised Estimate at Completion (EAC).

You have reported to the stakeholders that your actual expenditures to date are lower than expected, but they are unhappy with the status of the project nonetheless. Which of the following items most likely accounts for their dissatisfaction? A. Actual Costs B. Planned Value C. Earned Value D. Cost Performance Baseline

Answer: C Monitoring - Cost Management Of the choices listed, this is the only one that would show a deficiency in the project status under these facts. Your actual expenditures could be lower than expected, but if your Earned Value is lower than the actual costs then your project is still not proceeding well.

All of the following are done as part of Monitor and Control Project Work except for which one? A. Identifying new risks, and analyzing and tracking previously-identified risks B. Providing updated cost and schedule information C. Comparing the specifications of the products being produced to the Project Management Plan D. Revising prior plans to correct issues that have occurred

Answer: C Monitoring - Integration Management Product specifications are compared to Product Requirements, not the Project Management Plan. If the deliverable were something other than a product, then it would be gauged against the Project Management Plan. Be prepared to see this mismatch on the exam.

Which of the following is true? A. Every project must have a change control board to approve or reject changes. B. Approved change requests will require new or revised cost estimates. C. The roles and responsibilities of a Change Control Board are agreed upon by appropriate stakeholders and outlined in the Change Management Plan. D. The change control procedures are set forth in the Scope Statement.

Answer: C Monitoring - Integration Management The Change Management Plan will identify the members of the Change Control Board and its roles and responsibilities. Many organizations provide for a multi-tiered board structure, and separate responsibilities amongst the tiers. For some projects, the project manager may have the authority to approve certain types of changes unilaterally.

All of the following are true regarding Control Procurements except for which of the following? A. It results in Work Performance Information B. It involves evaluating the overall procurement relationship to identify successes and failures. C. It begins once the sellers provide their bid documents D. Many organizations treat this process as an administrative function separate from the project organization.

Answer: C Monitoring - Procurement Management Procurements are administered only after a seller is chosen and the contractual relationship begins.

You are a project manager and are having a disagreement with a seller regarding the scope of work provided versus what was requested, and the amount of payment that is owed for the work. To which of the following should you turn to determine a method for resolving this dispute? A. Project Management Plan B. Project Sponsor C. The contract with the seller D. The company attorney

Answer: C Monitoring - Procurement Management The contract should be consulted as it will often contain pre-determined methods for resolving the dispute, i.e. arbitration or mediation. Note that you would not want to escalate the issue before trying to resolve it yourself. Litigation is always a last resort.

The following are all tools and techniques of Control Quality except for which one? A. Data Representation B. Testing/Product Evaluations C. Expert Judgment D. Inspection

Answer: C Monitoring - Quality Management Data Representation leverages some of the basic quality tools. They include Cause and Effect Diagrams, Control Charts, Flowcharts, Histograms, Check Sheets and Scatter Diagrams. Expert Judgment is not a tool and technique used in Control Quality.

All of the following are true regarding Scatter Diagrams except for which one? A. They are used to document the relationship between two variables. B. When the plots on the chart form a diagonal line, the two variables are closely related. C. They are a tool and technique of Collect Requirements. D. They are a tool and technique of Manage Quality.

Answer: C Monitoring - Quality Management Scatter Diagrams are a tool and technique of Manage Quality, but not of Collect Requirements.

You are a project manager on an especially successful project and are recording your final EVM values as efficiency indicators for other projects across your company's portfolio. This will be most helpful when performing which of the following tasks for other projects? A. Forecasting EAC B. Developing Process Improvement Plan C. Establishing Quality Metrics D. Controlling Costs

Answer: C Monitoring - Quality Management The amount of acceptable deviation from the cost or schedule baseline is an example of a quality metric. Here you would be using the successful project as a benchmark for future quality planning by adopting or referring to these values.

You are mapping out all potential causes which may have contributed to a particular defect and asking how each could have caused the problem as you proceed through each. To what are you referring? A. Probability and Impact Matrix B. Control Chart C. Cause and Effect Diagram D. Scatter Diagram

Answer: C Monitoring - Quality Management This describes a Cause and Effect Diagram, also called an Ishikawa, Why-Why or Fishbone Diagram. These are designed to uncover root causes of problems.

All of the following are inputs to Acquire Resources except for which one? A. Resource Calendars B. Project Resource Management Plan C. Hiring Policies D. Pre-Assignment

Answer: D Executing - Resource Management Pre-Assignment is a tool and technique of Acquire Resources, not an input. A is an input to Estimate Activity Resources while C is an OPA to be considered.

You are 8 months into a 2-year project and your risk register has already been completed. You are meeting with your team for a regularly-scheduled status meeting when one of your team members identifies a potential risk that has arisen due to the way in which the project work has unfolded. Which process are you in? A. Plan Risk Management B. Identify Risk C. Monitor Risks D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Answer: C Monitoring - Risk Management Here you have already created your Risk Register, which is the output of Identify Risk (a planning process). You do not stop identifying risk there, however, since that is an ongoing effort throughout the project. Part of Control Risk (a Monitor/Control process) is looking out for new risks, which is what is being described here.

The Control Schedule process is most closely associated with which of the following processes? A. Estimate Activity Durations B. Direct and Manage Project Work C. Perform Integrated Change Control D. Manage Schedule

Answer: C Monitoring - Schedule Management Control Schedule can be directly affected by the Perform Integrated Change Control process. It involves, among other things, influencing the factors that create schedule changes and managing changes as they occur. While the estimates will have some impact on how the schedule is developed, the process of estimating does not really intersect with the control schedule process. There is no such process named Manage Schedule.

You are managing a project to manufacture a new line of automobiles, with a value of $10,000 each. At the present time, you have produced 50 cars. You had planned on producing 75 cars by this time, however. What is your SPI? A. 250000 B. 1.67 C. 0.67 D. You do not have enough information to calculate SPI.

Answer: C Monitoring - Schedule Management SPI = EV/PV, or in this case, $500,000/$750,000. Remember that for an index, you need to divide and for a variance, you would subtract.

In which process are the completed deliverables formally accepted? A. Close Project or Phase B. Monitor and Control Project Work C. Validate Scope D. Close Procurements

Answer: C Monitoring - Scope Management Formal acceptance occurs during Validate Scope.

Who is the appropriate person to request a change to the project? A. Project Manager B. Project Sponsor C. Any stakeholder involved in the project D. A and B only

Answer: C Monitoring - Stakeholder Management Changes may be requested by any stakeholder involved in the project. See page 96 of the PMBOK Guide.

You are managing a project and it appears you will end up going over budget unless the scope is changed. There is no room to adjust the scope however, without eliminating key requirements. As the project manager, what should your next step be? A. Issue a change request to reduce the scope of the project so as to stay within budget B. Consider the impact of the change request, and generate options before presenting the request C. Notify the stakeholders of the potential issue and try to influence them to accept the possible cost overruns D. Proceed with the project as per the Project Management Plan, and notify the stakeholders if and when the budget is exceeded

Answer: C Monitoring - Stakeholder Management Controlling stakeholder engagement includes addressing concerns that have not yet become issues, which is what the facts describe. A scope reduction in this case would be highly detrimental to the project's success, so your first step should be to discuss the concern and influence the stakeholders to accept the potential overruns. Addressing the concern early on will go a long way towards satisfying stakeholders (as opposed to merely waiting until the issue occurs and then informing the stakeholders).

Which of the following is least accurate? A. Project resources should be expended to communicate information that contributes to success. B. Project resources should be expended to communicate information necessary to prevent failures. C. Project resources should be expended to communicate all project information to stakeholders. D. Communication Requirements Analysis requires consideration of both the type and format of information needed along with the value of that information.

Answer: C Planning - Communications Management According to the PMBOK Guide, project resources are only expended to communicate information that leads to success or prevents failures.

All of the following are examples of noise in the communication model except for which one? A. One project team member has difficulty understanding another's verbal communications because of a heavy accent. B. An email server went down, and a message did not reach its recipient. C. A company's policy forbidding the use of email for project communications D. A fax machine malfunctioned and as a result you were unable to read the letter being faxed to you.

Answer: C Planning - Communications Management Noise is anything that interferes with the transmission and/or understanding of the message. C does not refer to any particular message, so it cannot be considered noise.

You are a project manager working on the development of a residential complex. You are trying to determine how much you will spend for the lumber needed to complete the project and you are speaking with potential suppliers regarding price quotes. Which of the following best describes this situation? A. You are using Data Analysis which is a tool and technique of Determine Budget. B. You are using Independent Cost Estimates, which is a tool and technique of Estimate Costs. C. You are relying upon both an input and a tool and technique of Estimate Costs D. You are employing one of the tools and techniques of Estimate Costs.

Answer: C Planning - Cost Management Here, you are conducting Data Analysis (specifically Alternatives analysis), which is a tool and technique of Estimate Costs (not of Determine Budget, as A states). Independent Cost Estimates, while somewhat similar to Data Analysis, is not a tool and technique of Estimate Costs, and the facts show that you are trying to estimate your costs. Independent Cost Estimates is an output of Plan Procurements. D is correct, but not the best answer. You are employing a tool and technique of Estimate Costs (Data Analysis), but you are also relying upon an important input to the process (market conditions, which is an EEF).

Which of the following processes is concerned with defining, coordinating and integrating the various subsidiary project plans? A. Collect Requirements B. Direct and Manage Project Work C. Develop Project Management Plan D. Monitor and Control Project Work

Answer: C Planning - Integration Management Develop Project Management Plan involves identifying and documenting the processes which will be used to manage the project. It is the first step in the planning process, however, the outputs of later planning processes will be incorporated back into the Project Management Plan. Thus, the Project Management Plan begins as a relatively bare-bones document, but becomes more comprehensive as the other planning processes are completed.

You have chosen to employ a FFP contract for a particular procurement and you know that the price you pay to the seller will not exceed the designated amount, unless which of the following happens? A. An unanticipated increase in the cost of necessary raw materials occurs B. The SOW is modified before the contract is signed C. You change the specifications of the items being procured after work has begun D. The seller completes the work in advance of the predetermined due dates, thus earning a bonus payment.

Answer: C Planning - Procurement Management Firm Fixed Price Contracts afford the buyer the most protection, in that the price to be paid will not exceed the agreed-upon fixed price, except where the buyer changes the scope of work after (not before) the contract is executed. Bonus payments would not be part of an FFP contract. An increase in the price of materials would not change the contract price either.

In which of the following processes would potential sellers be identified? A. Conduct Procurements B. Control Procurements C. Plan Procurement Management

Answer: C Planning - Procurement Management Plan Procurement Management involves documenting project purchasing decisions, specifying the procurement approach to be taken, and identifying potential sellers.

You are working on the quality management plan for a construction project you are managing. You have referred to past similar projects in order to get a sense of how long the project should take, and you have set your goals accordingly. Which of the following best describes what you have done? A. Analogous Estimating B. Parametric Estimating C. Benchmarking D. Three Point Estimating

Answer: C Planning - Quality Management Benchmarking involves comparing actual or planned project practices to those of comparable projects to identify best practices, generate ideas for improvement, and (as here) provide a basis for measuring performance. Do not confuse this with estimating, where we are concerned with obtaining numbers for our calculations and projections. The key distinction with Benchmarking is that we are not trying to obtain figures for our calculations, but rather, are looking for a past number to which we will compare our performance (i.e. set your goals). This is useful in developing a Quality Management Plan, and thus, Benchmarking is a tool and technique of that process.

You are near completion of a project to manufacture state of the art solar panels. One of the major draws for this type of panel is its light-weight and durable frame, which makes it much easier to ship. Unfortunately, you are experiencing problems with the deliverables because they are often not matching the strict weight requirements, and you are having to scrap a lot of them. One member of your team, John, insists that another team member, Gina, was responsible for ensuring this particular requirement was met, but Gina denies this. Which of the following is most accurate? A. The loss of the scrapped deliverables is an appraisal cost. B. The loss of the scrapped deliverables is an external failure cost. C. The Quality Management Plan was not properly completed. D. The Quality Metrics were not appropriately established during the Plan Quality phase.

Answer: C Planning - Quality Management Had the Quality Management Plan been properly completed, this disagreement over who had responsibility for overseeing this quality aspect likely would not be occurring, since that document describes how the team will meet quality objectives. A and B are both false statements. D is incorrect because there are no facts suggesting that the quality metrics were not adequately stated here - we just know that the final products weren't always meeting the quality requirements. C is therefore the most accurate response.

Which of the following is not true regarding Six Sigma? A. It aspires to reduce defects to no more than 3.4 per million B. It is often used to optimize efficiency of frequently-repeated processes C. It is an input to Plan Quality D. It strives for 99.999% accuracy, which is roughly equal to six standard deviations.

Answer: C Planning - Quality Management Six Sigma is a popular quality management methodology, but it is not an input or output for anything.

You managed a project to develop a new rotor blade for a military helicopter. It went pretty smoothly with no surprises, and you met all the product requirements. Most likely, your highest cost incurred in meeting the quality requirements for this project came in the form of which of the following? A. Accurately defining the scope B. Accurately collecting stakeholder requirements C. Performing Quality Management Activities D. Conducting procurements

Answer: C Planning - Quality Management The PMBOK Guide notes that Quality Management Activities will be your primary cost in meeting quality requirements. It also makes sense logically. A and B should not necessarily be expensive in order to be done properly. D is easily eliminated since we don't contract out quality control, even if we do use a lot of procurements.

You are working on acquiring your project team and have just found that the only qualified people belong to a union which severely limits the hours its members can work, and completely bars overtime. Which of the following is true? A. You may have failed to consider carefully all the inputs to the Plan Resource Management process. B. The Project Schedule may need to be modified to account for this. C. Both A and B

Answer: C Planning - Resource Management The union rules are a very important EEF, which makes them an input to Plan Resource Management. Because you are now in the acquisition process and have just learned of these union restrictions, you likely did not consider them during the Plan Resource Management process. Moreover, your schedule will likely need to be adjusted to account for the hourly restrictions.

You are a project manager overseeing a new underwater oil exploration effort in the Gulf of Mexico. You are estimating the number of people you will need to conduct risk management activities and also the amount of time they will need. Which of the following best describes what you are doing? A. Performing Qualitative Risk Analysis B. Performing Quantitative Risk Analysis C. Planning Risk Management D. Identifying Risks

Answer: C Planning - Risk Management Here you are not looking at any particular risks, but rather, determining the resources and time needed to conduct risk management activities, which is a key part of Plan Risk Management.

Which of the following is true regarding Plan Risk Management? A. It should begin soon after the Initiation processes are performed. B. It continues until the project is complete. C. It begins when the project is conceived. D. It is an ongoing process which is performed throughout the project.

Answer: C Planning - Risk Management The key here is distinguishing Plan Risk Management from other risk management processes. The PMBOK Guide states that the Plan Risk Management process should begin as a project is conceived and should be completed early during project planning. Thus, it is not an ongoing process (like monitor and control risk, which is ongoing). Because it should begin at project inception, one should not wait until after the Initiation phase to begin.

Which of the following is true regarding Project Schedule Management processes? A. Defining activities, Sequencing Activities, and Estimating Activity Durations all employ the same tools and techniques. B. The first three processes, in order, are Define Activities, Estimate Activity Durations and Sequence Activities. C. On projects of smaller scope, all planning processes from the Project Schedule Management Knowledge Area can be viewed as a single process, which can be performed over a fairly short period of time. D. All Project Schedule Management processes are contained within the Planning process group.

Answer: C Planning - Schedule Management A is wrong because different tools and techniques are used in these processes. B is wrong because Sequence Activities precedes Estimate Activity Durations, and D is wrong because Control Schedule belongs to the Monitoring and Controlling process group. C is relevant because of the concept of Tailoring.

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Define Activities process? A. To take a large piece of work and break it down into more manageable pieces B. To ensure that each stakeholder need is being accounted for C. To further decompose work packages, thus allowing for better estimating of time and resources needed D. To provide official authorization for work on a project to proceed

Answer: C Planning - Schedule Management Answers A, B and D refer to the WBS, Requirements Traceability Matrix and Project Charter, respectively.

You are leading a project which involves installing new operating software for each of the 2,000 computers your company and its employees use. You know from past project files that this was done 5 years ago, when the company had only 1,000 computers to update. You come up with an estimate of time required to complete this task. Which tool have you used? A. Analogous Estimating B. Reserve Analysis C. Parametric Estimating D. Organizational Process Asset

Answer: C Planning - Schedule Management Because the past project only involved updating 1,000 computers and you are now projecting those figures out for 2,000 computers, that means you have used parametric estimating. If the number being updated now was the same or very nearly the same as before then you would simply adopt that past figure (other factors being equal as well), and that is analogous estimating. Remember, the word parametric contains the letters - per. So, we think about the past project and have to project that out to a different number, thus asking ourselves, how many hours did we spend per computer?

Which of the following relationships is most frequently used? A. A start to finish relationship B. A start to start relationship C. A finish to start relationship D. A finish to finish relationship

Answer: C Planning - Schedule Management For the PMP exam at least, you should know that finish to start is the most common dependency relationship.

While managing a project, you note that certain members of your team are consistently working overtime while others are working less than 40 hours per week. You have a hard deadline for project completion which cannot be extended. Which of the following would you use to address this issue? A. Critical Chain Method B. Resource Leveling C. Resource Smoothing D. Resource Calendar

Answer: C Planning - Schedule Management Resource Leveling and Resource Smoothing are both Resource Optimization Techniques, which means you are altering activity start and end dates to account for limited resource availability. The difference, however, is that Resource Smoothing only allows activity durations to be extended within their float time, so that the critical path is not changed. But Resource Leveling allows the durations to change even beyond their present float times, which may delay the project completion.

Which of the following is true regarding the Schedule Management Plan? A. It is an output of the Develop Schedule process. B. It should be a formal and detailed document, which lists the scheduling methodology, the scheduling tool to be used, the criteria for developing and controlling the schedule. C. It is contained in, or a subsidiary part of, the Project Management Plan. D. It is an input to the Plan Schedule Management process.

Answer: C Planning - Schedule Management This document is created as part of the Project Management Plan and sets forth the ways in which the schedule will be developed and controlled. Choice A is wrong because it is an input of Develop Schedule, not an output. Choice D is wrong because it is an output to Plan Schedule Management, not an input. Choice B is wrong because the document can be informal and lack great detail, depending on the project. B is correct apart from this, however.

Requirements documentation may include all of the following except for which one? A. Quality Requirements B. Acceptance Criteria C. Organizational Charts and Position Descriptions D. Assumptions and Constraints

Answer: C Planning - Scope Management A, B and D may all be included in the requirements documentation, along with other items such as functional and non-functional requirements, business need, stakeholder needs, etc.

All of the following are inputs to the Define Scope process except for which one? A. Project Charter B. Requirements Documentation C. Requirements Management Plan D. Organizational Process Assets

Answer: C Planning - Scope Management Project Charter, Requirements Documentation, Scope Management Plan and OPA's are the inputs to Define Scope. The Requirements Management Plan would not be relevant here, because that documents how requirements will be analyzed, documented and managed throughout the project. This is not necessarily needed, however, in order to define the scope (though the Requirements Documentation itself is highly important to this process).

The Scope Baseline includes which of the following? A. Project Scope Statement and Scope Management Plan B. Project Scope Statement, Milestone List and Scope Management Plan C. Project Scope Statement, Planning Package, and WBS Dictionary D. WBS, WBS Dictionary and Activities List

Answer: C Planning - Scope Management Project Scope Statement, WBS and WBS Dictionary are the 3 components of the Scope Baseline.

You are managing a "green" building project which requires your team to create many of the items needed, such as special windows, etc. As the first windows are being completed, one of the stakeholders comes to you and says they are all the wrong size, and they are not double-paned as they were supposed to be. You feel the windows being produced are what was called for, and you want a document that will best prove this. To which document(s) should you refer? A. The Project Charter B. Requirements Management Plan C. The Project Scope Statement D. The Project Exclusions

Answer: C Planning - Scope Management The Project Scope Statement includes the product Deliverables, which would contain detailed information regarding each deliverable to be produced.

Your project is completed and you find that many of the requirements that you included did not really tie in with any particular business need. You most likely skipped over or did a poor job of creating which of the following? A. Scope Management Plan B. Project Charter C. Requirements Traceability Matrix D. Requirements Management Plan

Answer: C Planning - Scope Management The Requirements Traceability Matrix is expressly designed to tie each requirement to a particular business need, to ensure extraneous and needless requirements are not incorporated into the project.

You are managing a project which involves the design and creation of a flying car, and you have just completed all planning processes when the project sponsor informs you that the flying car must also be capable of driving under water. This is the first you have heard of this requirement, but it must be part of the final product. To which document would you look in order to determine how to proceed? A. Requirements Traceability Matrix B. Scope Statement C. Scope Management Plan D. Requirements Documentation

Answer: C Planning - Scope Management The Scope Management Plan sets forth, among other things, how to handle scope change requests. In this case, the scope needs to be changed, so the scope management plan would be the logical starting point.

The WBS includes all of the following except: A. Broad categories of work, which are then broken down into smaller categories and packages. B. Control accounts to monitor costs associated with a particular group of work. C. An activities list showing all activities that must be done to complete the larger work package. D. Unique numerical identifiers for each individual entry in the WBS

Answer: C Planning - Scope Management The activities list is not created until after the WBS has been completed. The work package level items will be decomposed further and will result in an Activities List, but not until the Define Activities process has been completed.

What is the best way to ensure stakeholder expectations are understood and managed throughout the project? A. Identify all stakeholders at the outset B. Perform integrated change control as per the processes set forth in the Project Management Plan C. Document the requirements for the project and obtain stakeholder approval of these documented requirements D. Create a Stakeholder Engagement Plan

Answer: C Planning - Scope Management While all choices reflect actions that should be taken, C is the best answer because it specifically pertains to the collected, documented, and approved requirements. When requirements are properly documented and approved by stakeholders, their expectations have been accounted for and should be fairly easily managed going forward.

A contract relationship can be terminated early under all of the following circumstances except for which one? A. Mutual agreement of the parties B. Convenience of the buyer, when provided for by the contract C. Default of either party D. Convenience of the seller, when provided for by the contract

Answer: D Closing - Procurement Management Such provisions are only available to buyers.

According to the PMBOK Guide which of the following is not a part of the Executing process group? A.Coordinating people and resources B.Developing and managing the project team C.Managing stakeholder expectations D.Integrating and performing the activities of the project as defined and outlined in the project charter

Answer: D Executing - Integration Management Choice D is the correct answer. As per the PMBOK Guide, the processes in the Executing Process Group are direct and manage project work, manage project knowledge, manage quality, acquire resources, develop team, manage team, manage communications, implement risk responses, manage stakeholder engagement, and conduct procurements. Choice D, is not a part of the Executing process group.

You are a project manager and are spending your time staffing, training and managing team members, working to create project deliverables, issuing change requests, and gathering work performance data. Which of the following processes are you performing? A. Develop Project Management Plan B. Develop Team C. Monitor and Control Project Work D. Direct and Manage Project Work

Answer: D Executing - Integration Management These are all tasks falling within the Direct and Manage Project Work process. In reality, C and D will overlap quite a bit and several tasks belong to both processes, but one of the distinguishing features of D is that you are creating deliverables (as opposed to tracking time, costs, quantity, etc., for such deliverables). Moreover, the resource functions referenced in the scenario are performed during the Executing process group, but as it is only a part of what we're doing, the strongest and most inclusive response is option D.

At an ERP Software convention, you are given tickets to a free lunch in an expensive restaurant by one of the vendors. The ticket states that the lunch is a courtesy and that during it you will see a demo of the latest version of their software. Should you go? A.No. This violates the appearance of impropriety. B.No. The lunch is a gift, and therefore should not be accepted. C.No. You do not want to see the demo. D.Yes. This is a typical custom at conventions, and there is no impropriety in attending the event since there is a legitimate business purpose for attending.

Answer: D Executing - Procurement Management Conventions are venues for sharing information. Because the lunch is not specific to you individually, and you will be seeing a demo, there is no ethics violation. Answer C might be true, but it is not the best answer. Answers A and B are incorrect because there is no impropriety in attending events such as this when attending a convention.

You are auditing the quality requirements and results of the quality control measurements to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are being used. Which of the following processes are you performing? A. Control Quality B. Plan Quality Management C. Develop Process Improvement Plan D. Manage Quality

Answer: D Executing - Quality Management This is the PMBOK Guide definition of Manage Quality. Plan Quality Management addresses how the team will define and implement quality standards, while Control Quality focuses on the deliverables and ensuring they meet quality requirements. Manage Quality Assurance does facilitate continuous process improvement, but there is no process designated as Develop Process Improvement Plan.

Which of the following conflict resolution techniques should never be used, according to the PMBOK Guide? A. Smoothing B. Forcing C. Collaborating D. Any of the above could be used, depending on the circumstanc

Answer: D Executing - Resource Management According to the PMBOK Guide, any of the conflict resolution techniques may be appropriate, depending on the circumstances.

You are reviewing the list of project team members which shows the periods in which they are available for the project. Which of the following is true? A. You are reviewing Project Team Assignments, which are an output of Acquire Resources. B. You are reviewing the Resource Management Plan, which is an output of Plan Resource Management. C. You are reviewing the Project Roles and Responsibilities, which is an output of Plan Human Resources. D. You are reviewing the Resource Calendar, which is an output of Acquire Resources.

Answer: D Executing - Resource Management Resource Calendars provide this information.

You are managing a project which involves excavation of large amounts of land. Your company owns two heavy-duty excavators but you are unsure if they will be available during the time period you will need them. You should consult which of the following? A. Resource Breakdown Structure B. Requirements Documentation C. Resource Requirements D. Resource Calendar

Answer: D Executing - Resource Management The Resource Calendar will show which resources are available for use on your project as well as the time in which they are available. This includes both human resources and other resources as well.

All of the following items may need to be changed or re-visited after the entire project team is acquired, except for which one? A. Risk Register B. Cost Baseline C. Project Schedule D. Project Charter

Answer: D Executing - Resource Management The competencies (or lack thereof) of the team members may necessitate update to risk planning, while increased staffing would likely cause an increase to the budget. Finally, once all team members are in place and their competencies evaluated, you may determine that some tasks may require more (or less) time to accomplish. The charter would not be changed due to a getting a team with different qualities and characteristics than you expected.

All of the following are outputs of Manage Team except for which one? A. Staffing changes B. Lessons Learned document updates C. Enhancements to personal skills D. Assessment of team productivity

Answer: D Executing - Resource Management The team's productivity assessment (Team Performance Assessment) is created from Develop Team, not Manage Team.

In which of the following would the project manager have the greatest level of authority with respect to staffing matters? A. Tight matrix organization B. Balanced matrix organization C. Functional (centralized) Organization D. Project-oriented Organization

Answer: D Initiating - Framework In a project-oriented organization, the project manager's authority is at its highest. In a balanced matrix organization, the project manager must negotiate with functional managers to acquire staff. In a functional organization, the resource allocation is decided by the functional manager. A tight matrix has nothing to do with the organizational structure, but instead is industry slang for when the project team is primarily located in the same physical location. This is more commonly known as co-location, which will be covered in Communications Management and Agile Teams.

Which of the following knowledge areas is utilized in every process group from initiation to closing? A. Project Resource Management B. Project Scope Management C. Schedule Management D. Project Integration Management

Answer: D Initiating - Framework Integration Management, which focuses on coordinating all aspects of the project plan, is the only knowledge area containing processes across each of the 5 process groups.

Which of the following is not true? A. Programs are a group of projects that have relationships and/or interdependencies amongst each other. B. The Project Management Office oversees the project manager and provides resources and support for projects. C. Senior management is responsible for overseeing the portfolio of programs. D. A portfolio consists of programs that have relationships/interdependencies amongst each other.

Answer: D Initiating - Framework Programs need not be related in order to be grouped into a company's portfolio. The portfolio encompasses all projects and programs the company has ongoing. As to the PMO, note that PMBOK identifies 3 types: Supportive, where the role is simply to provide useful information and consultation; Controlling, where the role is to provide support but also dictate certain practices be followed; and Directive, where the PMO directly manages projects.

During the project selection process for a new power plant infrastructure development, Roger learns about a project selection method that utilizes scoring models and a cost analysis to determine what projects he should work on and develop over time. This type of project selection method is an example of which of the following? A.Constrained optimization B.Earned value C.Standard deviation D.Benefit measurement methods

Answer: D Initiating - Integration Management This illustrates the utilization of a cost-benefit analysis. Answer A is incorrect because constrained optimization is a mathematical approach that uses math models and highly complex criteria in the selection process. Answer B is incorrect because earned value is the value of the work actually performed and not a project selection method. Answer C is incorrect because standard deviation evaluation is not a project selection method, although some of the standard deviation reports may be inputs to the project selection process.

Which of the following would least likely be considered a stakeholder in a project to build a new road in an uninhabited area? A. The project manager B. The people who plan to use that road when completed C. An environmental conservation group from the area D. The company's head of payroll

Answer: D Initiating - Stakeholder Management A stakeholder is anyone who is engaged in, or otherwise impacted by, the project. There is nothing to in this question that overtly suggests the company's head of payroll is either involved or affected. Note that answer choice C shows an example of a negative stakeholder, i.e. one whose interests will be adversely affected. The end users in B are also stakeholders, as their interests are being affected.

Which of the following includes a summary of how stakeholders will be handled? A. Stakeholder Register B. Stakeholder Summary C. Risk Register D. Stakeholder Engagement Plan

Answer: D Initiating - Stakeholder Management This document describes how stakeholders will be managed based on their involvement level and communication needs, while the stakeholders and their interests are documented in the Stakeholder Register (without reference to their required management strategy). There is no stakeholder summary document, and the Risk Register would not contain this information, making (B) and (C) incorrect.

You are working on providing updated figures to the stakeholders regarding costs and schedule, and you are basing this on the project's actual performance to date. What are you providing? A. Budget Estimates B. Funding Limit Reconciliation C. Rough Estimates D. Forecasts

Answer: D Monitoring - Cost Management Forecasts are the updated projections you create based on how the project is progressing. They may be higher than the original baselines if you are over budget or behind schedule, or lower than your original baselines if the project is progressing better than expected.

You are a project manager leading a large project for a transportation organization. Past projects have had significant cost over runs and schedule delays. You are under a lot of pressure to accurately report your performance metrics. You have had some minor variances but they are not anticipated to occur in the future. You project has the following EVM metrics: BAC =200; AC =120 ; EV =80 ; CPI =0.666. What is your estimate at the completion of the project? A.120 B.160 C.200 D.240

Answer: D Monitoring - Cost Management The EAC formula to employ when variances are atypical is: AC + (BAC-EV). Solved, that is: 120 + (200-80) = 240.

Which of the following may be affected by a schedule change? A. Cost B. Quality C. Risk D. All of the above

Answer: D Monitoring - Integration Management Schedule changes may directly impact cost, risk, quality and staffing requirements, as well as technical aspects of a project.Answer: D Monitoring - Integration Management Schedule changes may directly impact cost, risk, quality and staffing requirements, as well as technical aspects of a project.

Which of the following is not true? A. Change requests should always be documented in writing and entered into the change management/configuration management system. B. Change requests may be initiated verbally. C. Every documented change request must be either approved or rejected by some authority within the project management team or an external organization. D. If a project manager has the authority to approve change requests, that authority would be documented in the Stakeholder Register.

Answer: D Monitoring - Integration Management Sometimes the project manager will have authority to approve change request, however, it would be documented in the Change Management Plan, not the Stakeholder Register. Note that B references only the initiation of a change request, which could be made verbally (but would then have to be documented in writing to proceed further through the change control process).

You have analyzed a seller's performance towards its contractual obligations and are passing this on to the stakeholders. Which of the following tools and techniques of Control Procurements are you using? A. Procurement Audit B. Inspections and Audits C. Claims Administration D. Performance Reviews

Answer: D Monitoring - Procurement Management The question states you are reporting to the stakeholders regarding the seller's effectiveness, which is the definition of Performance Reviews, which is a type of Data Analysis. A procurement audit is performed on the procurement processes themselves, not on how well the seller is performing. Answer B is a combination of two tools and techniques. Answer C occurs when there is a dispute between the buyer and seller.

You managed a project for your company, a large auto manufacturer, to develop and install a new line of safety brakes for passenger cars. The deliverables were all duly accepted as meeting requirements, and the project was considered successful. There has now been some customer problems reported with the brakes' performance and a recall will be needed. Which of the following best describes the situation? A. This is an example of failure appraisal costs B. Further attention and monies spent on appraisal costs and activities would have prevented this problem. C. It is an internal failure cost, because the cost of the failure must be borne internally. D. This is an external failure cost.

Answer: D Monitoring - Quality Management External failure costs are those incurred once the product leaves your control. Internal failure costs are those discovered while the product is still in your control (scrap, re-work). B is not true because further monies and attention for appraisal activities may not have helped - the problem could have been in the specs and your execution of the specs was flawless. There are no failure appraisal costs. Appraisal activities would include testing and inspection, but again, your execution could be flawless and this problem could still escape detection from appraisal activities.

You are a project manager and have found that the costs of the negative risk events that occurred exceeded the amount you had set aside for those risks in your budget. Which of the following did you most likely overlook or perform improperly? A. Assumptions Analysis B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis C. Identify Risks D. Reserve Analysis

Answer: D Monitoring - Risk Management The question states that you did identify the risks which proved so costly, however, you did not have sufficient reserves to cover the costs incurred. Reserve Analysis, a tool and technique of Monitor Risks, looks to the amount of reserves relative to the risks remaining to ensure that there are still sufficient reserves in place.

You are managing a project that you believe could possibly fall behind schedule. You are therefore analyzing your progress towards completion and determining if you have sufficient buffers in place to protect the critical path activities. Which of the following tools and techniques of Control Schedule are you utilizing? A. Reserve Analysis B. Resource Leveling C. Schedule Compression D. Performance Reviews

Answer: D Monitoring - Schedule Management While consideration of remaining time suggests Reserve Analysis, it is not a tool and technique of Control Schedule. Performance Reviews are used to analyze the actual project progress against the Project Management Plan and determine whether corrective actions may be needed to protect the schedule. This would include analyzing the remaining duration for any activities. See PMOBK Guide page 227).

Who amongst the following is responsible for managing stakeholder expectations? A. The project manager and project sponsor B. The whole project team C. The project manager and project champion D. The project manager

Answer: D Monitoring - Stakeholder Management The project manager is responsible for this critical task.

You are planning your project communications and are trying to determine which stakeholders need to receive which information. Which of the following should you consult and/or consider? A. Corporate Organizational Charts B. The number of total communication channels C. The needs of external entities to receive project information, such as legal entities D. All of the above

Answer: D Planning - Communications Management All of the above items (and others) are noted in the PMBOK Guide as being relevant to Communications Requirements Analysis, which is what you are performing here (page 370).

Which of the following is not an input to Estimate Costs? A. Project Schedule B. Risk Register C. Market Conditions D. Resource Documentation

Answer: D Planning - Cost Management The inputs to Estimate Costs include items such as the Scope Baseline, Project Schedule, Quality Management Plan, Risk Register, Cost Management Plan, EEFs and OPAs. Note that market conditions are an EEF and therefore are an input here.

Which of the following best describes Cost of Quality? A. It is the total cost of producing the project's deliverables according to the quality standards, and it is not specifically included in the Estimating Costs process. B. It focuses on the amount of costs incurred when a product or service fails, and re-work or scrap is required. C. For projects that are smaller in size or scope, it is generally not part of the cost management process. D. It includes both internal and external failure costs

Answer: D Planning - Cost Management The key here is the word includes rather than focuses on in B. Read carefully and pay close attention to the verbs used and you see these are totally different. Includes is meant to be slightly broad and not exhaustive by any means. Focuses on is asking you to zero in on something, and answer B asks you to zero in on and give special emphasis to just one particular type of quality cost (to the exclusion of front-end, preventative-type costs, which are highly important). Remember this exam is first and foremost a reading exam. So make very sure you have read closely and understand (to the fullest extent possible) precisely what it being asked (and offered as answer choices). Take the time to read everything twice if you think you need to.

Which of the following is true regarding project management responsibilities? A. The project sponsor has the primary responsibility to oversee day-to-day project operations. B. The project sponsor's involvement should be limited to funding matters only. C. The extent of the project manager's authority will be set forth in the Resource Management Plan. D. For smaller projects, the project management responsibilities can be shared by the project team or administered solely by the project manager.

Answer: D Planning - Integration Management The sponsor does not oversee day-to-day operations per se, but does assist the team with matters such as funding, scope control, monitoring progress, garnering support from others in the organization, etc. Finally, the extent of the project manager's authority would be set out in the Charter, not the Resource Management Plan.

You are planning your procurements approach for a project that requires demolition and other high-risk activities, and you are reviewing the division of risks between your organization and others who will perform part of the work. Which of the following items would best provide a common understanding between the parties as to these matters? A. Risk Register B. Risk Management Plan C. Probability and Impact Matrix D. Agreements

Answer: D Planning - Procurement Management Agreements are the results of our procurement negotiations, and include various types of contracts. In this case, the division of risks and the specific responsibilities of the parties would be spelled out in these Agreements, making them the best reference point for all parties involved.

You must procure an item of work for your project, however, you have no reliable way of estimating how much it should cost since it involves something fairly novel to both your organization and the seller. Which type of contract should you select? A. FFP B. FP-EPA C. CPFF D. T&M

Answer: D Planning - Procurement Management Time and Materials contracts are best used in situations where a precise statement of work cannot easily be generated, thus causing uncertainty as to time and cost. Note that the buyer may elect to include a Not to Exceed clause in such a contract to eliminate the possibility of incurring runaway costs.

You managed the development and marketing of a new washing machine for home use. Your company went to great time and expense to ensure it functioned properly and lasted a reasonable period of time. Nonetheless, after a successful project in which the machine met all requirements, the product had problems and your company now faces litigation from customers. Which of the following best defines the cost incurred for the product testing? A. External Failure Costs B. Internal Failure Costs C. Prevention Costs D. Appraisal Costs

Answer: D Planning - Quality Management The call of the question refers you to the trials and testing and those are appraisal costs. You do now have external failure costs because of the litigation, but that's not what the question is asking. Read the question and especially the last sentence very closely and take your time. Just because a question spends a lot of time and words on something does not mean those words have much or even any impact on the answer. It's a popular exam trick in general because it leads you one way then changes course quickly. Beware of the bait and switch.

You are anticipating the type of training needs and training programs that will be required for your project team. What process are you performing? A. Acquire Resources B. Develop Team C. Manage Team D. Plan Resource Management

Answer: D Planning - Resource Management The key word here is anticipating. Resource Management Plan, would address training needs as well as other items (acquisition and release, rewards and recognition, safety and regulatory matters, etc.) You may utilize these training methods in the Develop Team process, but here the facts indicate that you are planning and not yet implementing these training programs.

You are a project manager overseeing the installation of several underground pipelines which deliver fuel to various locations. You and your team had previously identified pipe leakage as a possible risk, but when it happened it was substantially more expensive to deal with than you had expected, and your contingency reserves were insufficient. In which of the following processes did you likely make a mistake? A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis B. Control Quality C. Perform Quality Assurance D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Answer: D Planning - Risk Management The failure here involved underestimating the monetary impact of the risk event (leakage). Quantitative Risk Analysis is designed to determine the amount of this impact, thus allowing for adequate reserves to be set. Qualitative Analysis is designed to provide a risk rating, i.e. high, medium or low. 2008-2021© Educate 360

In which of the following processes would you consider and document all risks that may affect your project? A. Plan Risk Management B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis D. Identify Risks

Answer: D Planning - Risk Management The potential risks are identified and documented in the Risk Register during the Identify Risk process. Once that is done, you perform Qualitative and Quantitative Risk Analysis to further analyze the particular risks you have identified. Plan Risk Management addresses how you will go about conducting risk management activities, but does not consider specific risks per se. 2008-2021© Educate 360

You are a project manager overseeing the construction of a large power plant. You are working on your Risk Management Plan. With whom should you be consulting as you prepare this document? A. The Project Team Members B. Project Team Members and Key Stakeholders C. Project Team Members and Project Sponsor D. Key Stakeholders and Project Team Members, plus other people from outside the project team who may be involved in risk planning and execution activities.

Answer: D Planning - Risk Management This question describes the Planning Meetings and Analysis tool and technique, and there is a broad group of people who could/should take part in this.

Which of the following are you least likely to rely upon in creating your optimistic, pessimistic and most likely scenarios when estimating activity durations? A. Expert Judgment B. Historical Information C. Organizational Process Assets D. Independent Cost Estimates

Answer: D Planning - Schedule Management Independent Cost Estimates are used as a tool and technique in the Conduct Procurements process (in the Execution process group) which essentially means you look to other service providers who are not bidding on your contract to determine what the work should reasonably cost. The remaining options would all be useful in determining these values. Note that B and C are similar insofar as historical information would be documented in an OPA (i.e. past project files).

Which of the following answers lists the processes in the correct order? A. Define activities, estimate activity durations, and sequence activities B. Define activities, estimate activity resources, estimate activity durations and sequence activities C. Define activities, estimate activity durations, estimate activity costs and sequence activities D. Define activities, sequence activities, and estimate activity durations

Answer: D Planning - Schedule Management Remember that after defining activities, we must sequence them next. Then, in order to estimate the time it will take to accomplish each (durations), keep in mind that we need to estimate the resources and costs (the Resource and Cost Knowledge Areas respectively) we will have available to us.

Which of the following is not true regarding Schedule Data? A. It is an output of the Develop Project Schedule process B. It contains milestones, schedule activities, assumptions and constraints C. It is closely associated with the Project Schedule D. It will be used as an input to all remaining planning processes

Answer: D Planning - Schedule Management The Schedule Data is used to flesh out details from the Project Schedule itself, but is not an input to the remaining planning activities. Think of it as a sidekick to the Project Schedule itself, much like the WBS dictionary is to the WBS.

In creating your Schedule Network Diagram, you have used a network template from a past, similar project. That template is best characterized as which of the following? A. Analogous Estimating B. Parametric Estimating C. Bottom-Up Estimating D. Organizational Process Asset

Answer: D Planning - Schedule Management There is no estimating being done here - you are simply using a document from a past project. This document is considered an OPA. Remember to read the last sentence of the question very carefully to understand exactly what is being asked. Here you are being baited for Answer A with the reference to past, similar project.

Which of the following is not true regarding the Acceptance Criteria? A. It is a component of the Project Scope Statement. B. It is used to determine whether the project was successful C. It describes the process by which stakeholders will accept the project's deliverables. D. It is an input to the Define Scope process

Answer: D Planning - Scope Management Acceptance Criteria is an element of the Project Scope Statement, which is an output from the Define Scope process.

You are working to collect requirements for a new software project you are managing. You know that a few of your stakeholders do not get along well with each other and you are concerned they might not be open to each other's ideas. Most of the team is geographically dispersed. You should use which of the following to address this concern: A. Smoothing B. Compromise C. Brainstorming D. Questionnaires & Surveys

Answer: D Planning - Scope Management Although the question mentions potential disagreements, the key concern is that the team members are widely dispersed. A survey or questionnaire can be useful since it may provide a way to gather information anonymously. It is also useful to gather information quickly from a geographically dispersed team. We would not use smoothing or compromise since the main concern is the dispersed team. Brainstorming would not be used in this situation either.

All of the following processes fall within the Project Scope Management knowledge area except for which one? A. Collect Requirements B. Validate Scope C. Define Scope D. Develop Project Management Plan

Answer: D Planning - Scope Management Develop Project Management Plan belongs to the Integration Management knowledge area, while the remaining choices all fall within scope management.

As the project manager for a new model of aircraft, you know that you must incorporate a fuel efficiency mechanism because your stakeholders want to market this new plane as eco-friendly and cost efficient. You don't have the budget to include the usual fuel reduction components in the design, so you and the stakeholders have a meeting to discuss different shapes and sizes for the aircraft that would help accomplish the same goal within the budget you have. Which of the following best describes this situation? A. You are in the Collect Requirements process, and you are using the data gathering technique. B. You are in the Collect Requirements process, and are employing the brainstorming technique. C. You are in the Define Scope process, and are performing stakeholder analysis. D. You are in the Define Scope process, and are performing product analysis.

Answer: D Planning - Scope Management Product analysis, which is used only for products (not services), involves techniques such as systems engineering, value engineering, product breakdown, etc. Product analysis is a T/T of Define Scope, and helps you create a product which will most effectively meet the requirements. You know you are in the Define Scope process here and not in the Collect Requirements process, because the fuel efficiency requirement has already been established - you are now focused on how you will achieve it, so you are defining scope.

Which of the following is true regarding the WBS? A. It must be organized such that major deliverables are listed at the top level, and the work needed to achieve those deliverables should be broken down further to the work package level. B. It must be organized such that major deliverables are listed at the top level, and the project manager may decide whether the items need to be broken down to the work package level. C. It must be formally signed off on by the project sponsor D. The project manager has the freedom to determine how it is categorized

Answer: D Planning - Scope Management The WBS can be categorized by major deliverable, phase, sub-project, etc. as the project manager sees fit. The key is to ensure that every piece of work is accounted for, so the particular organizational structure is not important so long as all of the work is captured.