Practice Test

Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults? Select one: a. 5 or 6 sets b. 3 or 4 sets c. 1 or 2 sets d. 6 to 8 sets

1 or 2 sets

How many different core training movements should be used in each training session of Phase 1?

1-4 core-stabilization movements

With SAQ training, what is the recommended number of sets of each drill for young athletes to perform? Select one: a. 0 sets b. 1 to 4 sets c. 7 to 9 sets d. 5 or 6 sets

1-4 sets

Current sports nutrition guidelines from the International Society of Sports Nutrition recommend what range of protein for most exercising individuals? Select one: a. 1.5 to 2.5 g/kg of body weight b. 1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight c. 1.0 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight d. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight

1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight

What is autogenic inhibition?

A process where tension impulses are greater than contraction impulses, leading to relaxation of the muscle

Heavy battle rope training is an ideal training modality for which of the following phases? Select one: a. Phases 4 and 5 b. Phases 2 and 3 c. Phases 1 and 3 d. Phases 3 and 4

Phases 4 and 5

Which component of SAQ involves the ability to react to a stimulus (i.e., reaction time) and appropriately change the motion of the body in response to that stimulus (such as hitting a baseball)? Select one: a. Agility b. Quickness c. Stride rate d. Speed

Quickness

Which structures of the body does osteoporosis commonly affect? Select one: a. Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae b. Scapula and humerus c. Cranium and facial bones d. Sternum and clavicle

Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae

Which resistance training system is most appropriate for hypertensive clients? Select one: a. Drop set b. Pyramid system c. Complex training d. Peripheral heart action system

Peripheral heart action system

Resistance band exercises are best utilized in which phases of the OPT model? Select one: a. Phase 2 and 3 b. Phase 2 and 5 c. Phase 1 and Phase 4 d. Phases 3 and 4

Phase 2 and 5

In which of the following phases of the OPT model is suspended bodyweight training considered ideal? Select one: a. Phases 1 and 3 b. Phases 3 and 4 c. Phases 1 and 2 d. Phases 4 and 5

Phases 1 and 2

Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface. Select one: a. Somatosensation b. Vestibular c. Vision d. Sensorimotor function

Somatosensation

Posture uses which anatomical landmark in comparison to other positions of the body? Select one: a. Knees b. Ankles c. Shoulders d. Spine

Spine

When progressing a client to more-dynamic plyometric exercises, what is the first element that should be increased? Select one: a. Explosiveness b. Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing c. Speed d. Rate of force production

Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing

In which training stage would you utilize work intervals performed just above VT1 and recovery intervals performed below VT1? Select one: a. Stage 2 training b. Stage 3 training c. Stage 4 training d. Stage 1 training

Stage 2

Which of the following best describes quickness?

The ability to react with velocity to a stimulus and appropriately change the motion of the body

In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases? Select one: a. Zone 1 b. Zone 2 c. Zone 3 d. Zone 4

Zone 3

According to current research, what is the optimal range of daily protein intake to maximize muscle protein synthesis? Select one: a. 3.5 to 5.0 g/kg of body weight b. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight c. 2.4 to 3.5 g/kg of body weight d. 0.8 to 1.0 g/kg of body weight

1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight

You have a client seeking weight loss. What range of sets is most appropriate for SAQ drills? Select one: a. 7 to 8 sets b. 3 or 4 sets c. 5 or 6 sets d. 1 or 2 sets

3 or 4 sets

How many repetitions of each SAQ drill is appropriate for youth athletes? Select one: a. 6 to 8 reps b. 8 to 10 reps c. 1 or 2 reps d. 3 to 5 reps

3 to 5 reps

From the choices provided, what would be most recommended for SAQ drills per session with beginner clients? Select one: a. 9 or 10 drills b. 7 to 9 drills c. 1 or 2 drills d. 4 to 6 drills

4 to 6 drills

What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy? Select one: a. 6 to 8 drills allowing greater horizontal inertia but limited unpredictability, such as 5-10-5, T-drill, box drill, and stand-up to figure 8 b. 6 to 10 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills c. 10 to 12 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills d. 4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills

4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills

You are working with an intermediate client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best choice for drills per session? Select one: a. 2 to 4 drills b. 9 or 10 drills c. 6 to 8 drills d. 4 to 5 drills

6 to 8 drills

How many B vitamins are there? Select one: a. 8 b. 3 c. 21 d. 12

8

Which is the primary reason that certification is an important component of becoming a personal trainer?

A certification indicates knowledge of proper assessment and instruction for safe and effective workouts

For an individual training in stage 1, what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage 2? Select one: a. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 45 minutes, 4 times per week b. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 5 times per week c. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week d. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 60 minutes, 2 times per week

Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week

Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise? Select one: a. The inability to talk at all during exercise with breathlessness in the average untrained individual b. Inability to talk comfortably during exercise with some breathlessness in the average untrained individual c. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual d. Ability to talk easily during exercise without any indication of breathlessness in the average untrained individual

Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual

Anterior Oblique Subsystem (AOS)

Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators

What involves reacting to a stimulus and then changing the body's sprinting direction in response to that stimulus? Select one: a. Power b. Agility c. Quickness d. Speed

Agility

The PAR-Q+ and preparticipation process reflects what three health indicators? Select one: a. An individual's habits related to exercise, diet, and sleep b. An individual's desired exercise intensity, body composition, and gender c. An individual's current level of physical activity, the presence of signs and symptoms of disease, and the individual's desired exercise intensity d. An individual's current level of physical activity, age, and weight

An individual's current level of physical activity, the presence of signs and symptoms of disease, and the individual's desired exercise intensity

What is another term for the preparatory period in a traditional periodization model?

Anatomic adaptation

Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%? Select one: a. Concussions b. Ankle sprains c. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries d. Medial collateral ligament injuries

Ankle sprains

Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol? Select one: a. Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, and suprailiac b. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac c. Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, and chest d. Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh

Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac

Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to arthritis? Select one: a. Physical activity tends to aggravate arthritic symptoms. b. Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax). c. High-intensity resistance training is appropriate to improve joint integrity. d. Plyometric training alleviates arthritic symptoms.

Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax).

What type of muscle action would expend the highest amount of energy at a fixed resistance level over a comparable duration? Select one: a. Isotonic b. Eccentric c. Isometric d. Concentric

Concentric

Posterior Oblique Subsystem (POS)

Contralateral gluteus maximus, latissimus dorsi, and thoracolumbar fascia

Which of the following is the best example of a complete protein source? Select one: a. Dairy foods b. Legumes c. Grains d. Beans

Dairy foods

Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress? Select one: a. Overload principle b. Davis's law c. Archimedes' principle d. Wolff's law

Davis's law

What term is defined as the generic modifiable factors that impact behavior? Select one: a. Self-efficacy b. Behavior change techniques c. Attitudes d. Determinants

Determinants

All of the following flexibility exercises are recommended for pregnant women except:

Dynamic stretching

What concept allows a person to jump higher during plyometric exercises? Select one: a. Ankle stability b. Concentric contractions c. Eccentric loading d. Increased amortization

Eccentric loading

Pronation of the foot describes what multiplanar movements? Select one: a. Eversion, plantar flexion, and ankle abduction b. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction c. Inversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction d. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction

Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction

What surrounds the skeletal muscles and connects them to other surrounding muscles? Select one: a. Connective tissues b. Tendons c. Fascia d. Muscle spindles

Fascia

What type of lever could be described as having a fulcrum in the middle like a seesaw? Select one: a. First class b. Third class c. Second class d. Fourth class

First class

Lateral Subsystem (LS)

Gluteus medius, tensor fascia latae, adductor complex, and quadratus lumborum

Which mechanoreceptor is sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of that tension change, causing the muscle to relax, which prevents the muscle from excessive stress and possible injury? Select one: a. Joint receptors b. Muscle spindles c. Golgi tendon organs d. Interneurons

Golgi tendon organs

The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups? Select one: a. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators b. Hamstrings and erector spinae c. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus d. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum

Hamstrings and erector spinae

Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function? Select one: a. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency b. Lumbopelvic stability, intervertebral stability, movement efficiency c. Movement efficiency, intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability d. Lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency, intervertebral stability

Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency

What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques? Select one: a. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis b. Cancer and bleeding disorders c. Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension d. Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis

Joint hypermobility and scoliosis

Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs? Select one: a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Pulmonary veins d. Left ventricle

Left atrium

Improving frontside running mechanics is associated with which of the following? Select one: a. Less speed b. Less braking force c. Less forward drive d. Less stability

Less braking force

Which of the following is magnesium classified as? Select one: a. Macronutrient b. Trace mineral c. Vitamin d. Macromineral

Macromineral

Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training? Select one: a. Movement assessments b. PAR-Q+ c. Strength assessments d. Body composition assessments

Movement assessments

Which of the following solutions would allow an individual to achieve a greater depth during the lowering phase of the squat if ankle stiffness is the cause? Select one: a. Stretch the ankle dorsiflexor musculature b. Place a small board under the toes c. Stretch the ankle eversion musculature d. Place a small board under the heels

Place a small board under the heels

What types of foods contain carbohydrates? Select one: a. Animal and plant foods b. Plant foods and dairy c. Proteins d. All foods

Plant foods and dairy

In which stage of the Stages of Change model would it be beneficial for a client to build a social support network?

Preparation

What might a Certified Personal Trainer do for someone in the precontemplation stage of change? Select one: a. Encourage them to make plans to exercise b. Provide them with education and knowledge c. Help them identify barriers to exercise d. Tell them to exercise with a friend

Provide them with education and knowledge

Which of the following nutrition professionals is nationally recognized by the Commission on Dietetic Registration to provide clinical, community, food service, and nutrition education? Select one: a. Registered dietitian nutritionist b. Licensed dietitian c. Certified dietitian nutritionist d. Certified nutrition specialist

Registered dietitian nutritionist

What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise? Select one: a. Hip extension, knee extension, and plantar flexion b. Shoulder horizontal adduction and internal rotation c. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press d. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra

Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press

What kind of flexibility work should be used in Phase 4?

SMR and active flexibility with 1-2 sets of 5-10 repetitions with 1-2 second holds

What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise? Select one: a. Hip adduction, flexion, and internal rotation b. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra c. Wrist flexion, elbow flexion, and shoulder flexion d. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation

Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra

What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as? Select one: a. Amortization phase b. Unloading phase c. Loading phase d. Stretch-shortening cycle

Stretch-shortening cycle

The difference between the end-diastolic and end-systolic volumes is referred to as what? Select one: a. Stroke volume b. Venous return c. Resting heart rate d. Cardiac output

Stroke volume

The standard Jackson and Pollock 3-Site protocol for women requires skinfold measurements at which of the following sites? Select one: a. Abdomen, thigh, and suprailiac b. Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps c. Chest, suprailiac, and abdomen d. Triceps, abdomen, and thigh

Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps

What does the electron transport chain (ETC) do? Select one: a. The ETC uses proteins to create ADP. b. The ETC uses proteins to create hydrogen ions. c. The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP. d. The ETC uses an oxygen gradient to create ATP.

The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.

What is a kilocalorie (kcal)? Select one: a. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 pound of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie. b. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie. c. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is equal to 1,000 food calories. d. Unlike 1 food calorie, this is the amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius.

The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.

What is an example of an external factor that may influence the risk of falling in older adults? Select one: a. The environment b. Joint stability c. Muscle strength d. Ligament integrity

The environment

Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic? Select one: a. The exercise targets large muscle groups. b. The exercise is intense. c. The exercise is continuous in nature. d. The exercise is rhythmic.

The exercise is intense.

How is osteopenia best described? Select one: a. A bone weakness disease caused by vitamin D deficiency. b. The loss of bone density related to the aging process. c. An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults. d. A disease characterized by low bone density.

The loss of bone density related to the aging process.

What is the ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1)? Select one: a. The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise b. The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise c. The point at which a person can no longer talk during exercise d. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise

The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise

Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurate? Select one: a. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max. b. The total duration of the workout is 20 minutes long and performed at near maximal effort. c. The work-to-recovery intervals are 1:2 (20 sec work + 40 sec recovery) for a total of 10 intervals. d. The work-to-recovery intervals are 3:1 (30 sec work + 10 sec recovery) for a total of 12 intervals.

The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.

Performing a biceps curl with a dumbbell in the hand is an example of which type of lever? Select one: a. Third class b. Second class c. Fourth class d. First class

Third class

What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema? Select one: a. Those with emphysema frequently display knee valgus and pes planus. b. Those with emphysema are frequently overweight and may exhibit atrophied neck muscles. c. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles. d. Those with emphysema frequently display high oxygen content in the blood.

Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.

Iodine has a major role in which bodily process? Select one: a. Kidney function b. Liver function c. Heart function d. Thyroid function

Thyroid function

Shorter reaction times during amortization may help reduce which of the following? Select one: a. Functional movement b. Tissue overload c. Motor unit recruitment d. Force production

Tissue overload

Ergogenic aids are typically consumed for what purpose? Select one: a. To correct nutrient imbalances b. To mitigate the side effects of medication c. For general well-being d. To improve athletic performance and/or body composition

To improve athletic performance and/or body composition

Which of the following would be the recommended source of hydration after 40 to 45 minutes of exercise with minimal perspiration? Select one: a. An isotonic sports drink b. Water c. A hypertonic sports drink d. Fruit juice

Water

What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training? Select one: a. To increase the capacity of the anaerobic energy system for high-level athletes and fitness enthusiasts seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power b. To introduce individuals to exercise and improve general health and fitness, or to provide recovery following higher-intensity exercise sessions c. To increase the capacity of aerobic and anaerobic energy systems for clients seeking further improvements in exercise capacity d. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness

To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness

In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur? Select one: a. Frontal b. Dorsal c. Sagittal d. Transverse

Transverse

Which muscle acts to increase intra-abdominal pressure? Select one: a. Diaphragm b. Transverse abdominis c. Quadratus lumborum d. Pelvic floor musculature

Transverse abdominis

Which sense provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space? Select one: a. Hearing system b. Vestibular system c. Somatosensory system d. Visual system

Visual system

Which vitamin has an increased risk of causing toxicity? Select one: a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B6 c. Vitamin B12 d. Vitamin C

Vitamin A

Which of the following waist-to-hip ratios (WHRs) places Amy (a female) in the high-risk category for cardiovascular disease? Select one: a. WHR of 0.78 b. WHR of 0.72 c. WHR of 0.83 d. WHR of 0.88

WHR of 0.88