Practice Test
Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults? Select one: a. 5 or 6 sets b. 3 or 4 sets c. 1 or 2 sets d. 6 to 8 sets
1 or 2 sets
How many different core training movements should be used in each training session of Phase 1?
1-4 core-stabilization movements
With SAQ training, what is the recommended number of sets of each drill for young athletes to perform? Select one: a. 0 sets b. 1 to 4 sets c. 7 to 9 sets d. 5 or 6 sets
1-4 sets
Current sports nutrition guidelines from the International Society of Sports Nutrition recommend what range of protein for most exercising individuals? Select one: a. 1.5 to 2.5 g/kg of body weight b. 1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight c. 1.0 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight d. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight
1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight
What is autogenic inhibition?
A process where tension impulses are greater than contraction impulses, leading to relaxation of the muscle
Heavy battle rope training is an ideal training modality for which of the following phases? Select one: a. Phases 4 and 5 b. Phases 2 and 3 c. Phases 1 and 3 d. Phases 3 and 4
Phases 4 and 5
Which component of SAQ involves the ability to react to a stimulus (i.e., reaction time) and appropriately change the motion of the body in response to that stimulus (such as hitting a baseball)? Select one: a. Agility b. Quickness c. Stride rate d. Speed
Quickness
Which structures of the body does osteoporosis commonly affect? Select one: a. Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae b. Scapula and humerus c. Cranium and facial bones d. Sternum and clavicle
Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae
Which resistance training system is most appropriate for hypertensive clients? Select one: a. Drop set b. Pyramid system c. Complex training d. Peripheral heart action system
Peripheral heart action system
Resistance band exercises are best utilized in which phases of the OPT model? Select one: a. Phase 2 and 3 b. Phase 2 and 5 c. Phase 1 and Phase 4 d. Phases 3 and 4
Phase 2 and 5
In which of the following phases of the OPT model is suspended bodyweight training considered ideal? Select one: a. Phases 1 and 3 b. Phases 3 and 4 c. Phases 1 and 2 d. Phases 4 and 5
Phases 1 and 2
Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface. Select one: a. Somatosensation b. Vestibular c. Vision d. Sensorimotor function
Somatosensation
Posture uses which anatomical landmark in comparison to other positions of the body? Select one: a. Knees b. Ankles c. Shoulders d. Spine
Spine
When progressing a client to more-dynamic plyometric exercises, what is the first element that should be increased? Select one: a. Explosiveness b. Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing c. Speed d. Rate of force production
Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing
In which training stage would you utilize work intervals performed just above VT1 and recovery intervals performed below VT1? Select one: a. Stage 2 training b. Stage 3 training c. Stage 4 training d. Stage 1 training
Stage 2
Which of the following best describes quickness?
The ability to react with velocity to a stimulus and appropriately change the motion of the body
In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases? Select one: a. Zone 1 b. Zone 2 c. Zone 3 d. Zone 4
Zone 3
According to current research, what is the optimal range of daily protein intake to maximize muscle protein synthesis? Select one: a. 3.5 to 5.0 g/kg of body weight b. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight c. 2.4 to 3.5 g/kg of body weight d. 0.8 to 1.0 g/kg of body weight
1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight
You have a client seeking weight loss. What range of sets is most appropriate for SAQ drills? Select one: a. 7 to 8 sets b. 3 or 4 sets c. 5 or 6 sets d. 1 or 2 sets
3 or 4 sets
How many repetitions of each SAQ drill is appropriate for youth athletes? Select one: a. 6 to 8 reps b. 8 to 10 reps c. 1 or 2 reps d. 3 to 5 reps
3 to 5 reps
From the choices provided, what would be most recommended for SAQ drills per session with beginner clients? Select one: a. 9 or 10 drills b. 7 to 9 drills c. 1 or 2 drills d. 4 to 6 drills
4 to 6 drills
What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy? Select one: a. 6 to 8 drills allowing greater horizontal inertia but limited unpredictability, such as 5-10-5, T-drill, box drill, and stand-up to figure 8 b. 6 to 10 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills c. 10 to 12 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills d. 4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills
4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills
You are working with an intermediate client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best choice for drills per session? Select one: a. 2 to 4 drills b. 9 or 10 drills c. 6 to 8 drills d. 4 to 5 drills
6 to 8 drills
How many B vitamins are there? Select one: a. 8 b. 3 c. 21 d. 12
8
Which is the primary reason that certification is an important component of becoming a personal trainer?
A certification indicates knowledge of proper assessment and instruction for safe and effective workouts
For an individual training in stage 1, what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage 2? Select one: a. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 45 minutes, 4 times per week b. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 5 times per week c. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week d. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 60 minutes, 2 times per week
Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week
Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise? Select one: a. The inability to talk at all during exercise with breathlessness in the average untrained individual b. Inability to talk comfortably during exercise with some breathlessness in the average untrained individual c. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual d. Ability to talk easily during exercise without any indication of breathlessness in the average untrained individual
Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual
Anterior Oblique Subsystem (AOS)
Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators
What involves reacting to a stimulus and then changing the body's sprinting direction in response to that stimulus? Select one: a. Power b. Agility c. Quickness d. Speed
Agility
The PAR-Q+ and preparticipation process reflects what three health indicators? Select one: a. An individual's habits related to exercise, diet, and sleep b. An individual's desired exercise intensity, body composition, and gender c. An individual's current level of physical activity, the presence of signs and symptoms of disease, and the individual's desired exercise intensity d. An individual's current level of physical activity, age, and weight
An individual's current level of physical activity, the presence of signs and symptoms of disease, and the individual's desired exercise intensity
What is another term for the preparatory period in a traditional periodization model?
Anatomic adaptation
Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%? Select one: a. Concussions b. Ankle sprains c. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries d. Medial collateral ligament injuries
Ankle sprains
Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol? Select one: a. Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, and suprailiac b. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac c. Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, and chest d. Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh
Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac
Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to arthritis? Select one: a. Physical activity tends to aggravate arthritic symptoms. b. Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax). c. High-intensity resistance training is appropriate to improve joint integrity. d. Plyometric training alleviates arthritic symptoms.
Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax).
What type of muscle action would expend the highest amount of energy at a fixed resistance level over a comparable duration? Select one: a. Isotonic b. Eccentric c. Isometric d. Concentric
Concentric
Posterior Oblique Subsystem (POS)
Contralateral gluteus maximus, latissimus dorsi, and thoracolumbar fascia
Which of the following is the best example of a complete protein source? Select one: a. Dairy foods b. Legumes c. Grains d. Beans
Dairy foods
Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress? Select one: a. Overload principle b. Davis's law c. Archimedes' principle d. Wolff's law
Davis's law
What term is defined as the generic modifiable factors that impact behavior? Select one: a. Self-efficacy b. Behavior change techniques c. Attitudes d. Determinants
Determinants
All of the following flexibility exercises are recommended for pregnant women except:
Dynamic stretching
What concept allows a person to jump higher during plyometric exercises? Select one: a. Ankle stability b. Concentric contractions c. Eccentric loading d. Increased amortization
Eccentric loading
Pronation of the foot describes what multiplanar movements? Select one: a. Eversion, plantar flexion, and ankle abduction b. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction c. Inversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction d. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction
Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction
What surrounds the skeletal muscles and connects them to other surrounding muscles? Select one: a. Connective tissues b. Tendons c. Fascia d. Muscle spindles
Fascia
What type of lever could be described as having a fulcrum in the middle like a seesaw? Select one: a. First class b. Third class c. Second class d. Fourth class
First class
Lateral Subsystem (LS)
Gluteus medius, tensor fascia latae, adductor complex, and quadratus lumborum
Which mechanoreceptor is sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of that tension change, causing the muscle to relax, which prevents the muscle from excessive stress and possible injury? Select one: a. Joint receptors b. Muscle spindles c. Golgi tendon organs d. Interneurons
Golgi tendon organs
The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups? Select one: a. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators b. Hamstrings and erector spinae c. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus d. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum
Hamstrings and erector spinae
Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function? Select one: a. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency b. Lumbopelvic stability, intervertebral stability, movement efficiency c. Movement efficiency, intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability d. Lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency, intervertebral stability
Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency
What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques? Select one: a. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis b. Cancer and bleeding disorders c. Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension d. Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis
Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs? Select one: a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Pulmonary veins d. Left ventricle
Left atrium
Improving frontside running mechanics is associated with which of the following? Select one: a. Less speed b. Less braking force c. Less forward drive d. Less stability
Less braking force
Which of the following is magnesium classified as? Select one: a. Macronutrient b. Trace mineral c. Vitamin d. Macromineral
Macromineral
Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training? Select one: a. Movement assessments b. PAR-Q+ c. Strength assessments d. Body composition assessments
Movement assessments
Which of the following solutions would allow an individual to achieve a greater depth during the lowering phase of the squat if ankle stiffness is the cause? Select one: a. Stretch the ankle dorsiflexor musculature b. Place a small board under the toes c. Stretch the ankle eversion musculature d. Place a small board under the heels
Place a small board under the heels
What types of foods contain carbohydrates? Select one: a. Animal and plant foods b. Plant foods and dairy c. Proteins d. All foods
Plant foods and dairy
In which stage of the Stages of Change model would it be beneficial for a client to build a social support network?
Preparation
What might a Certified Personal Trainer do for someone in the precontemplation stage of change? Select one: a. Encourage them to make plans to exercise b. Provide them with education and knowledge c. Help them identify barriers to exercise d. Tell them to exercise with a friend
Provide them with education and knowledge
Which of the following nutrition professionals is nationally recognized by the Commission on Dietetic Registration to provide clinical, community, food service, and nutrition education? Select one: a. Registered dietitian nutritionist b. Licensed dietitian c. Certified dietitian nutritionist d. Certified nutrition specialist
Registered dietitian nutritionist
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise? Select one: a. Hip extension, knee extension, and plantar flexion b. Shoulder horizontal adduction and internal rotation c. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press d. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press
What kind of flexibility work should be used in Phase 4?
SMR and active flexibility with 1-2 sets of 5-10 repetitions with 1-2 second holds
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise? Select one: a. Hip adduction, flexion, and internal rotation b. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra c. Wrist flexion, elbow flexion, and shoulder flexion d. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as? Select one: a. Amortization phase b. Unloading phase c. Loading phase d. Stretch-shortening cycle
Stretch-shortening cycle
The difference between the end-diastolic and end-systolic volumes is referred to as what? Select one: a. Stroke volume b. Venous return c. Resting heart rate d. Cardiac output
Stroke volume
The standard Jackson and Pollock 3-Site protocol for women requires skinfold measurements at which of the following sites? Select one: a. Abdomen, thigh, and suprailiac b. Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps c. Chest, suprailiac, and abdomen d. Triceps, abdomen, and thigh
Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps
What does the electron transport chain (ETC) do? Select one: a. The ETC uses proteins to create ADP. b. The ETC uses proteins to create hydrogen ions. c. The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP. d. The ETC uses an oxygen gradient to create ATP.
The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.
What is a kilocalorie (kcal)? Select one: a. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 pound of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie. b. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie. c. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is equal to 1,000 food calories. d. Unlike 1 food calorie, this is the amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius.
The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.
What is an example of an external factor that may influence the risk of falling in older adults? Select one: a. The environment b. Joint stability c. Muscle strength d. Ligament integrity
The environment
Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic? Select one: a. The exercise targets large muscle groups. b. The exercise is intense. c. The exercise is continuous in nature. d. The exercise is rhythmic.
The exercise is intense.
How is osteopenia best described? Select one: a. A bone weakness disease caused by vitamin D deficiency. b. The loss of bone density related to the aging process. c. An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults. d. A disease characterized by low bone density.
The loss of bone density related to the aging process.
What is the ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1)? Select one: a. The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise b. The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise c. The point at which a person can no longer talk during exercise d. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise
The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise
Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurate? Select one: a. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max. b. The total duration of the workout is 20 minutes long and performed at near maximal effort. c. The work-to-recovery intervals are 1:2 (20 sec work + 40 sec recovery) for a total of 10 intervals. d. The work-to-recovery intervals are 3:1 (30 sec work + 10 sec recovery) for a total of 12 intervals.
The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.
Performing a biceps curl with a dumbbell in the hand is an example of which type of lever? Select one: a. Third class b. Second class c. Fourth class d. First class
Third class
What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema? Select one: a. Those with emphysema frequently display knee valgus and pes planus. b. Those with emphysema are frequently overweight and may exhibit atrophied neck muscles. c. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles. d. Those with emphysema frequently display high oxygen content in the blood.
Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.
Iodine has a major role in which bodily process? Select one: a. Kidney function b. Liver function c. Heart function d. Thyroid function
Thyroid function
Shorter reaction times during amortization may help reduce which of the following? Select one: a. Functional movement b. Tissue overload c. Motor unit recruitment d. Force production
Tissue overload
Ergogenic aids are typically consumed for what purpose? Select one: a. To correct nutrient imbalances b. To mitigate the side effects of medication c. For general well-being d. To improve athletic performance and/or body composition
To improve athletic performance and/or body composition
Which of the following would be the recommended source of hydration after 40 to 45 minutes of exercise with minimal perspiration? Select one: a. An isotonic sports drink b. Water c. A hypertonic sports drink d. Fruit juice
Water
What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training? Select one: a. To increase the capacity of the anaerobic energy system for high-level athletes and fitness enthusiasts seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power b. To introduce individuals to exercise and improve general health and fitness, or to provide recovery following higher-intensity exercise sessions c. To increase the capacity of aerobic and anaerobic energy systems for clients seeking further improvements in exercise capacity d. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness
To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness
In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur? Select one: a. Frontal b. Dorsal c. Sagittal d. Transverse
Transverse
Which muscle acts to increase intra-abdominal pressure? Select one: a. Diaphragm b. Transverse abdominis c. Quadratus lumborum d. Pelvic floor musculature
Transverse abdominis
Which sense provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space? Select one: a. Hearing system b. Vestibular system c. Somatosensory system d. Visual system
Visual system
Which vitamin has an increased risk of causing toxicity? Select one: a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B6 c. Vitamin B12 d. Vitamin C
Vitamin A
Which of the following waist-to-hip ratios (WHRs) places Amy (a female) in the high-risk category for cardiovascular disease? Select one: a. WHR of 0.78 b. WHR of 0.72 c. WHR of 0.83 d. WHR of 0.88
WHR of 0.88
