Prep-U Chapter 36

A client diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) asks the nurse about numbness in the fingers and pain in the wrist. What is the best response by the nurse?

"CTS is a neuropathy that is characterized by compression of the median nerve at the wrist." Explanation: Carpal tunnel syndrome is an entrapment neuropathy that occurs when the median nerve at the wrist is compressed by a thickened flexor tendon sheath, skeletal encroachment, edema, or a soft tissue mass.

A nurse is teaching a client who was recently diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. Which statement should the nurse include?

"Ergonomic changes can be incorporated into your workday to reduce stress on your wrist." Explanation: Ergonomic changes, such as adjusting keyboard height, can help clients with carpal tunnel syndrome avoid hyperextension of the wrist. This condition is associated with repetitive tasks such as clerical work, not sports. The condition may be managed with medications, yoga, acupuncture, and wrist (not arm) splints.

The nurse has educated a patient with low back pain about techniques to relieve the back pain and prevent further complications. What statement by the patient shows understanding of the education the nurse provided?

"I will avoid prolonged sitting or walking." Explanation: The nurse encourages the patient to alternate lying, sitting, and walking activities frequently, and advises the patient to avoid sitting, standing, or walking for long periods.

A nurse is educating a client diagnosed with osteomalacia. Which statement by the nurse is appropriate?

"You may need to be evaluated for an underlying cause, such as renal failure." Explanation: The client may need to be evaluated for an underlying cause. If an underlying cause is discovered, that will guide the medical treatment. The client needs to maintain an adequate to increased supply of calcium, phosphorus, and vitamin D. Dairy products are a good source of calcium. The client is at risk for pathological fractures and therefore should not engage in vigorous exercise.

A nurse is planning discharge instructions for the client with osteomyelitis. What instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

"You will receive IV antibiotics for 3 to 6 weeks." Explanation: Treatment of osteomyelitis requires IV antibiotics for 3 to 6 weeks. Continuous passive range of motion is used for clients with osteoarthritis. Weight-bearing exercises are used with clients who have osteoporosis. Limiting protein and calcium is not part of the plan of care for clients with osteomyelitis.

A client is admitted with acute osteomyelitis that developed after an open fracture of the right femur. When planning this client's care, the nurse should anticipate which measure?

Administering large doses of I.V. antibiotics as ordered Explanation: Treatment of acute osteomyelitis includes large doses of I.V. antibiotics (after blood cultures identify the infecting organism). Surgical drainage may be indicated, and the affected bone is immobilized. The client usually requires I.V. fluids to maintain hydration, but oral intake isn't necessarily prohibited.

The nurse is caring for a client with a hip fracture. The physician orders the client to start taking a bisphosphonate. Which medication would the nurse document as given?

Alendronate Explanation: Alendronate is a bisphosphonate medication. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator. Teriparatide is an anabolic agent, and denosumab is a monoclonal antibody agent.

The nurse is preparing a client for a surgical procedure that will allow visualization of the extent of joint damage of the knee for a client with rheumatoid arthritis and also obtain a sample of synovial fluid. What procedure will the nurse prepare the client for?

Arthroscopy Explanation: Arthroscopic examination may be carried out to visualize the extent of joint damage as well as to obtain a sample of synovial fluid. An open reduction would be used for the treatment of a fracture. Needle aspiration will not allow visualization of the joint damage but will allow obtaining the sample of synovial fluid. Arthroplasty is the restructure of the joint surface after diagnosis is made.

While the nurse is performing a physical assessment, the client reports numbness, tingling, and pain when the nurse percusses lightly over the median nerve. What should this assessment indicate to the nurse?

Carpal tunnel syndrome Explanation: Tinel's sign (numbness, tingling, and pain in response to light percussion over the median nerve) is a positive finding for carpal tunnel syndrome. Morton's neuroma is assessed as a painful condition that affects the ball of the foot. Dupuytren's contracture is when knots of tissue beneath the skin cause one or more fingers stay bent toward the palm. Impingement syndrome is a shoulder condition.

A nurse is caring for a client with eczema. Which medication would be prescribed when an allergy is a factor causing the skin disorder?

Chlorpheniramine Explanation: Antihistamines such as chlorpheniramine are frequently prescribed when an allergy is a factor in causing a skin disorder. Antihistamines relieve itching and shorten the duration of allergic reaction. Corticosteroids such as dexamethasone are used to relieve inflammatory or allergic symptoms. Antibiotics such as dicloxacillin are used to treat infectious disorders. Local anesthetics such as bupivacaine are used to relieve minor skin pain and itching.

What clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to find in a client who has had osteoporosis for several years?

Decreased height Explanation: Clients with osteoporosis become shorter over time.

A client comes to the emergency department complaining of pain in the right leg. When obtaining the history, the nurse learns that the client has a history of obesity and hypertension. Based on this information the nurse anticipates the client having which musculoskeletal disorder?

Degenerative joint disease Explanation: Obesity predisposes the client to degenerative joint disease. Obesity isn't a predisposing factor for muscular dystrophy, scoliosis, or Paget's disease.

The client diagnosed with osteosarcoma is scheduled for a surgical amputation. Which nursing diagnosis would be a priority for this client compared with other surgical clients?

Disturbed body image Explanation: Amputation of a body part can result in disturbances in body image.

Which term refers to a flexion deformity caused by a slowly progressive contracture of the palmar fascia?

Dupuytren's contracture Explanation: Dupuytren's disease results in a slowly progressive contracture of the palmar fascia, called Dupuytren's contracture. A callus is a discretely thickened area of skin that has been exposed to persistent pressure or friction. A hammertoe is a flexion deformity of the interphangeal joint, which may involve several toes. Hallux valgus is a deformity in which the great toe deviates laterally.

The community health nurse is assessing the risk factors for osteoporosis in a female client at a health fair. For each assessment finding, click to specify if the finding is a risk factor for osteoporosis or is not a risk factor for osteoporosis.

Explanation: After the identification of a client's risk factors for osteoporosis, the nurse can develop a plan of care to reduce or prevent osteoporosis. Risk factors for osteoporosis include older age (for women, the risk increases after age 50), Asian heritage, being a postmenopausal woman, and long-term corticosteroid use (such as fluticasone for the treatment of asthma). A small frame, not a large frame, increases the risk for osteoporosis. Being a nonsmoker does not increase the risk for osteoporosis. An alcohol intake of 3 or more drinks/day is a risk factor for osteoporosis; an intake of 3 alcoholic beverages/week does not increase the risk. A sedentary lifestyle also increases the risk for osteoporosis; however, walking 2 miles, 3 days/week is not considered sedentary.

During a routine physical examination of a client, the nurse observes a flexion deformity of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint of two toes on the right foot. How would the nurse document this finding?

Hammer toe Explanation: Hammer toe is a flexion deformity of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint and may involve several toes. Mallet toe is a flexion deformity of the distal interphalangeal joint (DIP), and also can affect several toes. Hallux valgus, also called a bunion, is a deformity of the great (large) toe at its metatarsophalangeal joint.

A client visits an orthopedic specialist because of pain beginning in the low back and radiating behind the right thigh and down below the right knee. The doctor suspects a diagnosis of sciatica. The nurse knows that the origin of the pain is between which intervertebral disks?

L4, L5, and S1 Explanation: The lower lumbar disks, L4-L5 and L5-S1, are subject to the greatest mechanical stress and the greatest degenerative changes. Disk protrusion (herniated nucleus pulposus) or facet joint changes can cause pressure on nerve roots as they leave the spinal canal, which results in pain that radiates along the nerve.

Assessment of a client reveals signs and symptoms of Paget's disease. Which of the following would be most likely?

Long bone bowing Explanation: Some clients with Paget's disease are asymptomatic with only some mild skeletal deformity. Other clients have marked skeletal deformities which may include enlargement of the skull, bowing of the long bones, and kyphosis.

Which area of the spinal column is subject to the greatest mechanical stress and degenerative changes?

Lower lumbar Explanation: The lower lumbar disks, L4 to L5 and L5 to S1, are subject to the greatest mechanical stress and greatest degenerative changes.

A client with carpal tunnel syndrome has had limited improvement with the use of a wrist splint. The nurse knows that which procedure will show the greatest improvement in treatment for this client?

Open nerve release Explanation: Evidence-based treatment of acute carpal tunnel syndrome includes the application of splints to prevent hyperextension and prolonged flexion of the wrist. Should this treatment fail, open nerve release is a common surgical management option. A variety of treatments may be tried by the client, however, they may fail to improve the condition. These treatments include laser therapy, ultrasound therapy, and the injection of substances such as lidocaine. Though these can be used, surgery to release nerves is the best option.

Which condition is a metabolic bone disease characterized by inadequate mineralization of bone?

Osteomalacia Explanation: Osteomalacia is a metabolic bone disease characterized by inadequate mineralization of bone. Osteoporosis is characterized by reduction of total bone mass and a change in bone structure that increases susceptibility to fracture. Osteomyelitis is an infection of bone that comes from extension of soft-tissue infection, direct bone contamination, or hematogenous spread. Osteoarthritis (OA), also known as degenerative joint disease, is the most common and frequently disabling of the joint disorders. OA affects the articular cartilage, subchondral bone, and synovium.

A client presents to the emergency department with fever, chills, restlessness, and limited movement of a fractured jaw. What complication should the nurse interpret as the findings?

Osteomyelitis Explanation: Clinical manifestations of osteomyelitis include signs and symptoms of sepsis and localized infection. A client with avascular necrosis does not have fever and chills. Clients with fat emboli will have a rash and breathing complications. A client with compartment syndrome will have numbness, not a fever.

A patient had hand surgery to correct a Dupuytren's contracture. What nursing intervention is a priority postoperatively?

Performing hourly neurovascular assessments for the first 24 hours Explanation: Hourly neurovascular assessment of the exposed fingers for the first 24 hours following surgery is essential for monitoring function of the nerves and perfusion.

Which term refers to a disease of a nerve root?

Radiculopathy Explanation: When the client reports radiating pain down the leg, the client is describing radiculopathy. Involucrum refers to new bone growth around the sequestrum. Sequestrum refers to dead bone in an abscess cavity. Contracture refers to abnormal shortening of muscle or fibrosis of joint structures.

A client diagnosed with osteoporosis is being discharged home. Which priority education should the nurse should provide?

Remove all small rugs from the home Explanation: A client with osteoporosis is at risk for fractures related to falls. The home environment needs to be evaluated for safety issues, such as rugs and other objects that could cause a fall. All other education is important in educating the client, but the risk for injury from a fall and potential for a fracture makes safety in the home environment a priority.

A client with Paget's disease comes to the hospital and reports difficulty urinating. The emergency department health care provider consults urology. What should the nurse suspect is the most likely cause of the client's urination problem?

Renal calculi Explanation: Renal calculi commonly occur with Paget's disease, causing pain and difficulty when urinating. A UTI commonly causes fever, urgency, burning, and hesitation with urination. Benign prostatic hyperplasia is common in men older than age 50; however, because the client has Paget's disease, the nurse should suspect renal calculi, not benign prostatic hyperplasia. Dehydration causes a decrease in urine production, not a problem with urination.

A client has Paget's disease. An appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client is:

Risk for falls Explanation: The client with Paget's disease is at risk for falls secondary to pathological fractures and impaired gait/mobility.

Which is a risk-lowering strategy for osteoporosis?

Smoking cessation Explanation: Risk-lowering strategies include increased dietary calcium and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation, and outdoor activity. Individual risk factors include low initial bone mass and increased age. A lifestyle risk factor is a diet low in calcium and vitamin D.

A client is diagnosed with osteomyelitis. This is most commonly caused by which of the following?

Staphylococcus aureus Explanation: Staphylococcus aureus causes over 50% of bone infections. Other organisms include Proteus vulgaris and Pseudomonas aeruginosa, as well as E. coli.

A patient is having low back pain. What position can the nurse suggest to relieve this discomfort?

Supine, with the knees slightly flexed and the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees Explanation: A medium to firm, not sagging mattress (a bed board may be used) is recommended; there is no evidence to support the use of a firm mattress (National Guideline Clearinghouse, 2010). Lumbar flexion is increased by elevating the head and thorax 30 degrees by using pillows or a foam wedge and slightly flexing the knees supported on a pillow. Alternatively, the patient can assume a lateral position with knees and hips flexed (curled position) with a pillow between the knees and legs and a pillow supporting the head (Fig. 42-1). A prone position should be avoided because it accentuates lordosis.

Morton neuroma is exhibited by which clinical manifestation?

Swelling of the third (lateral) branch of the median plantar nerve Explanation: Morton neuroma is swelling of the third branch of the median plantar nerve. Pes cavus refers to a foot with an abnormally high arch and a fixed equinus deformity of the forefoot. Flatfoot is a common disorder in which the longitudinal arch of the foot is diminished. Plantar fasciitis is an inflammation of the foot-supporting fascia.

A nurse is performing discharge teaching for an elderly client with osteoporosis. Which instruction about a calcium supplement should the nurse include?

Take the supplement with meals or with orange juice. Explanation: Calcium supplements should be taken with meals or with a beverage high in vitamin C for increased absorption. Calcium supplements are taken daily, not weekly. There are no special instructions about staying upright when taking calcium supplements.

The nurse teaches the client with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies, including which action?

Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises outdoors Explanation: Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising outdoors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen, increasing dietary calcium and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, and consuming alcohol and caffeine in moderation.

Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include

lack of exposure to sunshine. Explanation: Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include lack of exposure to sunshine, a diet low in calcium and vitamin D, cigarette smoking, consumption of alcohol and/or caffeine, and lack of weight-bearing exercise. Lack of weight-bearing exercise, not lack of aerobic exercise, is a lifestyle risk factor for osteoporosis. A diet low in calcium and vitamin D, not a low-protein, high-fat diet, is a lifestyle risk factor for osteoporosis. An estrogen deficiency or menopause is an individual risk factor for osteoporosis.

The nurse is educating a client with low back pain on proper lifting techniques. The nurse recognizes that the education was effective when the client

places the load close to the body. Explanation: Instructions for the client with low back pain should include that, when lifting, the client should avoid overreaching. The client should also keep the load close to the body, bend the knees, and tighten the abdominal muscles; use a wide base of support; and use a back brace to protect the back. Bending at the hips increases the strain on the back muscles when lifting.