Prep U: Health Assessment- Assessing Eyes

The functional reflex that allows the eyes to focus on near objects is termed

Accommodation Explanation: Accommodation is a functional reflex allowing the eyes to focus on near objects. This is accomplished through movement of the ciliary muscles, causing an increase in the curvature of the lens.

The nurse selects the chart shown here to assess a client's vision. Which client characteristic caused the nurse to select this chart?

Does not speak English Explanation: The Snellen E chart can be used for clients who do not speak English. This chart is not used for clients being treated for glaucoma, color blindness, or recovering from cataract surgery.

When performing the cover test, a nurse notices that the client's left eye turns outward. How should the nurse document this finding in the client's record?

Exotropia

When assessing risk factors for eye and vision problems, the nurse knows that genetics can play a role. What major eye problem are clients most likely at increased risk for if a first-degree relative has it?

Glaucoma

On a health history, a client reports no visual disturbances, last eye exam being 2 years ago, and not wearing glasses. The nurse notices that the client squints when signing the consent for treatment form and holds the paper close to the face. What should the nurse do next?

Perform both the distant and near visual acuity tests Explanation: The first thing the nurse should do is perform both the distant and near visual acuity exams to assess for loss of far and near vision. Testing the pupil is important to assess reaction to light. The findings must be documented in the client's record. If abnormalities are found upon assessment, the client should be referred for a complete eye examination.

A client is diagnosed with a scotoma. What question is appropriate for the nurse to ask to obtain more data about this condition?

"Are the blind spots constant or intermittent?" Explanation: A scotoma is the presence of blind spots that can be constant or intermittent. If they are constant it may indicate retinal detachment. Intermittent blind spots may be due to vascular spasm or pressure on the optic nerve. Floaters are a common finding in individuals with myopia or in person over the age of 40 years and are a sign of normal aging. Redness or tearing is associated with allergies or inflammation of the eye. Night blindness is associated with optic nerve atrophy, glaucoma, or vitamin A deficiency.

The nurse is assessing cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. Which instructions should the nurse provide to the client in order to perform this assessment?

"Follow my finger with only your eyes."

A 6-year-old boy has come to the clinic with his mother because of recent eye redness and discharge. The nurse's assessment has suggested a diagnosis of conjunctivitis. What should the nurse tell the mother about her son's eye?

"This might have been the result of an allergy, but most likely it was caused by a bacteria or virus." Explanation: Conjunctivitis usually has an infectious etiology. Severe pain and vision damage are not common consequences.

A patient comes to the clinic, reporting that he woke up this morning with a painful right eye. What would be the most appropriate response from the nurse?

"You will need to see the doctor to have your eye checked."

The nurse is teaching about the importance of regular eye examinations and should include information about which conditions that place clients at highest risk for blindness? (Select all that apply.)

-Diabetes -Hypertension Explanation: Diabetic retinopathy is the most common cause of blindness in the United States. Hypertensive retinopathy is another high risk factor for blindness over hypothyroidism, hyperlipidemia, and osteoarthritis.

A comprehensive physical examination of the eye includes tests for which of the following? Select all that apply.

-Visual acuity -Eye muscle function -Internal ocular structures -The external eye

A patient in the clinic where you work is considered legally blind. The nurse knows that this means the vision in his better eye, corrected by glasses, is what?

20/200 or less Explanation: In the United States, a person is usually considered legally blind when vision in the better eye, corrected by glasses, is 20/200 or less.

Which of the following assessment findings suggests a problem with the client's cranial nerves?

A client's extraocular movements are asymmetrical and she complains of diplopia. Explanation: Deficits in cranial nerves III, IV, and VI can manifest as impaired extraocular movements or diplopia. Flashes of light are associated with retinal detachment, while intraocular bleeding and cataracts do not have a neurological etiology.

An adult client visits the outpatient clinic and tells the nurse that he has a throbbing aching pain in his right eye. The nurse should assess the client for

A foreign body in the eye. Explanation: Throbbing, stabbing, or deep, aching pain suggests a foreign body in the eye or changes within the eye.

You are assessing visual fields on a patient newly admitted for eye surgery. The patient's left eye repeatedly does not see your fingers until they have crossed the line of gaze. You would document that the patient has what?

A left temporal hemianopsia

The nurse practitioner is assessing the eyes of a client with long-standing uncontrolled hypertension. What might the nurse practitioner visualize during an assessment with an ophthalmoscope?

AV nicking

The nurse is inspecting the cornea and lens of an elderly client and notices a white arc around the limbus of the client's eye. The nurse recognizes this condition, common in older adults, as which of the following?

Arcus senilis Explanation: Arcus senilis, a normal condition in older clients, appears as a white arc around the limbus. The condition has no effect on vision. Presbyopia, which is impaired near vision, is caused by decreased accommodation and is a common condition in clients over 45 years of age. Ectropion is when the lower eyelids evert, causing exposure and drying of the conjunctiva. This is a normal finding in the older client. Myopia is impaired far vision.

A client performs the test for distant visual acuity and scores 20/50. How should the nurse most accurately interpret this finding?

At 20 feet from the chart, the client sees what a person with good vision can see at 50 feet. Explanation: The Snellen chart tests distant visual acuity by seeing how far the client can read the letters standing 20 feet from the chart. The top number is how far the client is from the chart and the bottom number refers to the last line the client can read. A reading of 20/50 means the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 50 feet. The minus number is the number of letters missed on the last line the client can distinguish.

A client presents to a primary care office with a complaint of double vision (diplopia). On questioning, the client claims to have not suffered any head injuries. Which of the following underlying conditions should the nurse most suspect in this client?

Brain tumor Explanation: Double vision (diplopia) may indicate increased intracranial pressure due to injury or a tumor. Vitamin A deficiency is a cause of night blindness. Allergies are usually indicated by burning or itching pain in the eye. Viral infection is usually indicated by redness or swelling of the eye.

The middle layer of the eye is known as the

Choroid layer

The thin mucous membrane that lines the inner eyelid and covers the sclera is known as what?

Conjunctiva

The nurse notes that the pupil of a client's left eye constricts when a light is shined into the right eye. How should the nurse document this finding?

Consensual light response present in left eye

While the nurse examines a patient's pupillary response to light in the right eye, the pupil in the left eye is constricted. What does this finding suggest to the nurse?

Consensual reaction

An adult client tells the nurse that his eyes are painful because he left his contact lenses in too long the day before yesterday. The nurse should instruct the client that prolonged wearing of contact lenses can lead to

Corneal Damage Explanation: Improper cleaning or prolonged wearing of contact lenses can lead to infection and corneal damage.

A client has been diagnosed with astigmatism. The nurse should be prepared to teach the client about which treatment for this condition?

Corrective lenses

A patient asks a nurse if any foods promote eye health. What food would the nurse include as a response?

Deep-water fish Explanation: Foods that promote eye health include deep-water fish, fruits, and vegetables (e.g., carrots, spinach).

A nurse examines a client's retina during the ophthalmic examination and notices light-colored spots on the retinal background. The nurse should ask the client about a history of what disease process?

Diabetes Explanation: Exudates appear as light-colored spots on the retinal background and occur in individuals with diabetes or hypertension. Anemia, renal insufficiency, and retinal detachment do not cause this appearance on the retina.

What eye function is the nurse preparing to assess when the patient is asked to stand 20 feet from a specific chart that is mounted on the examination room wall?

Distant vision

An elderly client presents to the health care clinic with reports of decreased tearing in both eyes. The nurse observes the presence of ectropion. What is an appropriate action by the nurse?

Document the finding as a normal sign of aging

What is a characteristic symptom of Graves hyperthyroidism?

Exopthalamus Explanation: In exophthalmos the eyeball protrudes forward. When bilateral, it suggests the infiltrative ophthalmopathy of Graves hyperthyroidism.

A nurse assesses the parallel alignment of a client's eyes by testing the corneal light reflex. Where should the nurse shine the penlight to obtain an accurate result?

Focused on the bridge of the nose Explanation: When testing the corneal light reflex, the nurse should shine the light toward the bridge of the nose. At the same time, the client is instructed to stare straight ahead. This facilitates a parallel image on the cornea. The eye response upon shining the light toward the eye may interfere with the assessment. The light should not be shined toward the forehead or on an object on the wall.

An adult client tells the nurse that her peripheral vision is not what it used to be and she has a blind spot in her left eye. The nurse should refer the client for evaluation of possible

Glaucoma

A nurse begins the eye examination on a client who presents to the health care clinic for a routine examination. What is the correct action by the nurse to perform the test for near visual acuity?

Have the client hold Jaeger card 14 inches from the face & read with one eye at a time Explanation: Near vision is tested with a Jaeger card, Snellen card, or comparable card), held 14 inches from the face. Have the client cover one eye with an opaque card before reading from top to bottom. Sitting the client in front of the examiner, extending one arm, and slowly move one finger upward until it is seen by both the client and the examiner is a test for gross peripheral vision. If the client wears glasses, they should be left on for the test. Placing the client 20 feet from the chart and record the smallest line the client can read is the test for distant acuity.

A client presents to the emergency department after being hit in the head with a baseball bat during a game. The nurse should assess for which condition?

Hyphema Explanation: Hyphema is blood in the anterior chamber of the eye, usually caused by blunt trauma. Blepharitis is inflammation of the margin of the eyelid. Chalazion is a cyst in the eyelid. Iris nevus is a rare condition affecting one eye. The latter 3 conditions are not commonly attributed to blunt force trauma to the head as hyphema is.

The nurse is using the ophthalmoscope to examine the patient's eyes. The nurse holds the scope

In the right hand for the right eye and in the left hand for the left eye

A patient is diagnosed with an obstruction of the canal of Schlemm affecting the left eye. What assessment data concerning the left noted in the patient's medical record supports this diagnosis?

Increased intraocular pressure

A middle-aged client reports difficulty in reading. Which action by the nurse is appropriate to test the near visual acuity using a Jaeger reading card?

Instruct the client hold the chart 14 inches from the eyes

A middle-aged client reports difficulty in reading. Which action by the nurse is appropriate to test near visual acuity using a Jaeger reading card?

Instruct the client to hold the chart 14 inches from the eyes Explanation: To test near visual acuity, the nurse should have the client hold the chart 14 inches from the eyes. The Snellen chart should be kept at eye level, 20 feet away on the wall when testing for distant vision. An arms length is an arbitrary length depending on the size of the client and is not an accurate method for testing. The chart should not be placed on a table 17 inches away from the client.

A client frequently experiences dry, irritated eyes. These findings are consistent with a problem in what part of the eye?

Lacrimal apparatus Explanation: The lacrimal apparatus (which consists of the lacrimal gland, punctum, lacrimal sac, and nasolacrimal duct) protects and lubricates the cornea and conjunctiva by producing and draining tears.

A patient complains of feeling like he is slowly losing his central vision. The nurse knows this symptom could represent

Mascular Degeneration

When examining the eye with an ophthalmoscope, where would the nurse look to visualize the optic disc?

Medially toward the nose Explanation: Follow the blood vessels as they get wider. Follow the vessels medially toward the nose and look for the round yellowish orange structure which is the optic disc.

On a health history, a client reports no visual disturbances, last eye exam two years ago, and does not wear glasses. The nurse notices that the client squints when signing the consent for treatment form and holds the paper close to the face. What should the nurse do next?

Perform both the distant and near visual acuity tests

The nurse is preparing to examine an adult client's eyes, using a Snellen chart. The nurse should

Position the client 609.6cm (20ft) away from the chart

The nurse observes a middle-aged colleague fully extending her arm to read the label on a vial of medication. Which of the following age-related changes is the nurse likely to have observed?

Presbyopia Explanation: Prebyopia denotes an age-related deficit in close vision. It is less likely that cataracts, macular degeneration, or loss of convergence underlie the colleague's visual changes.

When testing the near reaction, an expected finding includes which of the following?

Pupillary constriction on near gaze; dilation on distant gaze Explanation: During accommodation, pupils constrict with near gaze and dilate with far gaze.

The nurse is examining an adult client's eyes. The nurse has explained the positions test to the client. The nurse determines that the client needs further instructions when the client says that the positions test

Requires the covering of each eye separately.

On visual confrontation testing, a client with a recent stroke cannot see the examiner's fingers on the entire right side with either eye covered. Which of the terms would describe this finding?

Right homonymous hemianopsia

A client presents to the health care clinic and reports pain in the eyes when working on the computer for long periods of time. Client states he almost ran into a parked car yesterday because he misjudged the distance from the bumper of his own car. He works for a computer software company and has noticed he is experiencing difficulty reading the manuals that accompany the software he installs for companies. What nursing diagnosis can the nurse confirm based on this data?

Risk for injury

Which of the following is a symptom of the eye?

Scotomas Explanation: Scotomas are specks in the vision or areas where the client cannot see; therefore, this is a common and concerning symptom of the eye. Tinnitus is a ringing in the ears, dysphagia is difficulty swallowing, and rhinorrhea is a "runny nose."

A client is assigned a visual acuity of 20/100 in her left eye. Which of the following is true?

She can see at 20 feet what a normal person could see at 100 feet Explanation: The denominator of an acuity score represents the line on the chart the client can read. In the example above, the client could read the larger letters corresponding with what a normal person could see at 100 feet.

The nurse is caring for a 63-year-old client who can neither read nor speak English. What would be the appropriate chart to use to assess this patient's vision?

Snellen E

A 12-year-old presents to the clinic with his father for evaluation of a painful lump in the left eye. It started this morning. The client denies any trauma or injury. There is no visual disturbance. Upon physical examination, there is a red raised area at the margin of the eyelid that is tender to palpation; no tearing occurs with palpation of the lesion. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?

Stye Explanation: A hordeolum or stye is a painful, tender, erythematous infection in a gland at the margin of the eyelid.

A nurse performs the Snellen test on a client and obtains these results: OD 20/40, OS 20/30. What conclusion can the nurse make in regards to the client's vision based on these results?

The larger the bottom number, the worse the visual acuity

The nurse tests the six cardinal directions to test extraocular movement of the eye.

True

How can a nurse accurately assess the distant visual acuity of a client who is non-English-speaking?

Use a Snellen E chart to perform the examination Explanation: If a client does not speak English, is unable to read, or has a verbal communication problem, the Snellen E chart can be used to test the client's distant visual acuity. With this test, the client is asked to indicate by pointing which way the E is open on the chart. The six cardinal positions of gaze test eye muscle function and cranial nerve function. The Jaeger chart tests near visual acuity. Confrontation test is used to test visual fields for peripheral vision.

A teenager is brought to the clinic for a sports physical examination. The client states plans to play goalie on the community soccer team. What is the most important teaching opportunity presented for this client?

Use of safety equipment Explanation: The nurse should assess with each client the use of safety equipment when playing sports. Proper eye protection can prevent many sports-related eye injuries. All options are points for client teaching for this client; however, the most important opportunity involves the use of safety equipment.

The nurse should make it a priority to assess which client for papilledema?

a 45-year-old suspected of experiencing a subarachnoid hemorrhage Explanation: Papilledema describes swelling of the optic disc and anterior bulging of the physiologic cup. Increased intracranial pressure is transmitted to the optic nerve, causing edema of the optic nerve. Papilledema often signals serious disorders of the brain, such as meningitis, subarachnoid hemorrhage, trauma, and mass lesions. An enlarged physiological cup suggests chronic open-angle glaucoma. If cranial nerve IV is paralyzed, the left eye will deviate from its normal position in that direction of gaze, and the eyes will no longer appear conjugate, or parallel. Diplopia in adults may arise from a lesion in the brainstem or cerebellum, or from weakness or paralysis of one or more extraocular muscles, as in horizontal diplopia from palsy of cranial nerve (CN) III or VI, or vertical diplopia from palsy of CN III or IV.

The meibomian glands secrete

an oily substance to lubricate the eyes. Explanation: Meibomian glands secrete an oily substance that lubricates the eyelid.

The conjunctiva of the eye is divided into the palpebral portion and the

bulbar portion. Explanation: The conjunctiva is a thin, transparent, continuous membrane that is divided into two portions: a palpebral and a bulbar portion. The palpebral conjunctiva lines the inside of the eyelids, and the bulbar conjunctiva covers most of the anterior eye, merging with the cornea at the limbus.

The nurse notes that the pupil of a client's left eye constricts when a light is shined into the right eye. How should the nurse document this finding?

consensual light response present in left eye Explanation: The consensual light response occurs when one eye is exposed to light and the pupil of the other eye constricts. Since the light was shined in the right eye, the left pupil constricted. The left eye was not exposed to direct light. There is not enough information to determine if the pupils are equal or reacting to accommodation.

The nurse has tested an adult client's visual fields and determined that the temporal field is 90 degrees in both eyes. The nurse should

document the findings in the client's records. Explanation: Validate the eye assessment data that you have collected. This is necessary to verify that the data are reliable and accurate. Document the assessment data following the health care facility or agency policy.

The nurse observes an inward turning of the lower lid in a 77-year-old patient. The nurse documents

entropion

While assessing the eye of an adult client, the nurse observes an inward turning of the client's left eye. The nurse should document the client's

esotropia. Explanation: Esotropia is an inward turn of the eye.

When assessing the fundus of the eye, the nurse recognizes which normal characteristic represented in dark-skinned individuals?

fundus is grayish brown with a purplish cast Explanation: An eye assessment of a dark-skinned person would include the grayish brown, almost purplish cast to the normal fundus. The remaining options are noted in an eye assessment of the normal fundus of a fair-skinned person.

The nurse is planning to assess a client's near vision. Which technique should be used?

have the client read newspaper print held 14 inches from the eyes Explanation: Near vision is tested by asking the client to read newspaper print held 14 inches from the eyes. Shining a light on the bridge of the nose tests the corneal light reflex. Moving the eyes in the direction of a moving finger tests for extraocular movements. Having the client read letters on a wall chart tests for central and distance vision.

The optic nerves from each eyeball cross at the

optic chiasma Explanation: At the point where the optic nerves from each eyeball cross—the optic chiasma—the nerve fibers from the nasal quadrant of each retina (from both temporal visual fields) cross over to the opposite side.

Photoreceptors of the eye are located in the eye's

retina. Explanation: The innermost layer, the retina, extends only to the ciliary body anteriorly. It receives visual stimuli and sends it to the brain. The retina consists of numerous layers of nerve cells, including the cells commonly called rods and cones. These specialized nerve cells are often referred to as "photoreceptors" because they are responsive to light

An adult client tells the nurse that his father had cataracts. He asks the nurse about risk factors for cataracts. The nurse should instruct the client that a potential risk factor is

ultraviolet light exposure. Explanation: Exposure to ultraviolet radiation puts the client at risk for the development of cataracts (opacities of the lenses of the eyes). Consistent use of sunglasses during exposure minimizes the client's risk.

An older client asks why vision is not as sharp as it used to be when the eyes are focused forward. What should the nurse realize this client is describing?

Macular degeneration Explanation: Macular degeneration causes a loss of central vision. Risk factors for macular degeneration are age, smoking history, obesity, family history, and female gender. Cataracts are characterized by cloudiness of the eye lenses. Glaucoma is an increase in intraocular pressure that places pressure on eye structures and affecting vision. A detached retina is the sudden loss of vision in one eye. This health problem may be precipitated by the appearance of blind spots.

The nurse is caring for a 63-year-old client who can neither read nor speak English. What would be the appropriate chart to use to assess this patient's vision?

Snellen E Explanation: The Snellen E chart can be used for people who cannot read or speak English.

Which statement demonstrates the safest way to document assessment findings of drainage noted in both eyes of a client?

Thick, purulent drainage is noted at inner corner of both eyes. Explanation: The abbreviations OD (right eye), OS (left eye), and OU (both eyes) are no longer used due to the potential for order errors. Instead, it is recommended to use "right eye," "left eye," or "both eyes."

Which action by the nurse demonstrates correct assessment of the corneal reflex of a client during an eye examination?

Touch the cornea with a wisp of cotton

When the client reports a problem associated with the drainage of tears from the left eye, the nurse would focus the eye assessment on which eye structure?

lacrimal puncta Explanation: The lacrimal gland lies mostly within the bony orbit, above and lateral to the eyeball. The tear fluid spreads across the eye and drains medially through two tiny holes called lacrimal puncta. The nurse can easily find a punctum atop the small elevation of the lower lid medially. The tears then pass into the lacrimal sac and into the nose through the nasolacrimal duct.

A 52-year-old patient with myopia calls the ophthalmology clinic very upset. She tells the nurse, "I keep seeing semi-clear spots floating across my vision. What is wrong with me?" What would be the most appropriate response by the nurse?

"It is not an uncommon finding in people older than 40 years for this to happen. They are called 'floaters'." Explanation: Floaters (translucent specks that drift across the visual field) are common in people older than 40 years of age and nearsighted patients; no additional follow-up is needed.

When a client reports a sudden but painless loss of vision in the right eye, which question should the nurse ask?

"Do you have a history of diabetes?" Explanation: If sudden visual loss is unilateral and painless, the nurse should consider vitreous hemorrhage from diabetes or trauma, macular degeneration, retinal detachment, retinal vein occlusion, or central retinal artery occlusion. Corneal ulcers and acute angle closure glaucoma are painful. Steroids can cause bilateral vision problems.

Which vision acuity reading indicates blindness?

20/200 Explanation: The reading of 20/200 on a vision acuity test indicates blindness. The reading of 20/20 is considered normal vision. This means that the client being tested can distinguish what a person with normal vision can distinguish from 20 feet away. The top or first number is always 20, indicating the distance from the client to the chart. The bottom or second number refers to the last full line the client could read. The higher the second number, the poorer the vision. 20/40 and 20/100 also denote poor vision.

You are assessing visual fields on a patient newly admitted for eye surgery. The patient's left eye repeatedly does not see your fingers until they have crossed the line of gaze. You would document that the patient has what?

A left temporal hemianopsia Explanation: When the patient's left eye repeatedly does not see your fingers until they have crossed the line of gaze, a left temporal hemianopsia is present.

Diplopia present with one eye covered can be caused by which of the following problems?

An irregularity in the cornea or lens Explanation: Double vision in one eye alone points to a problem in "processing" the light rays of an incoming image. The other causes of diplopia result in a misalignment of the two eyes.

Which technique by the nurse demonstrates proper use of the ophthalmoscope?

Asks the client to fix the gaze upon an object and look straight ahead Explanation: After turning on the ophthalmoscope, the nurse should ask the client to gaze straight ahead and slightly upward. Ask the client to remove glasses but keep contact lens in place. The nurse should use the right eye to examine the right eye & left eye to examine the client's left eye. This allows the nurse to get as close as possible to the client's eye. Begin about 10-15 inches from the client at a 15 degree angle. The nurse should keep the ophthalmoscope still & ask the client to look into the light to view the fovea and macula.

A light is pointed at a client's pupil, which then contracts. It is also noted that the other pupil contracts as well, though it is not exposed to bright light. Which of the following terms describes this latter phenomenon?

Consensual Reaction Explanation: The constriction of the contralateral pupil is called the consensual reaction. The response of the ipsilateral eye is the direct response. The dilation of the pupil when focusing on a close object is the near reaction. Accommodation is the changing of the shape of the lens to sharply focus on an object.

A 29-year-old physical therapist presents for evaluation of an eyelid problem. On observation, the right eyeball appears to be protruding forward. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?

Exophthalmos Explanation: In exophthalmos, the eyeball protrudes forward. If it is bilateral, it suggests the presence of Graves' disease, although unilateral exophthalmos could still be caused by Graves' disease. Alternative causes include a tumour and inflammation in the orbit.

A nurse notices a middle-aged client in the waiting room pick up a magazine to read while she waits to be seen. She opens the magazine and then extends her arms to move it further from her eyes. Which condition does the nurse most suspect in this client?

Presbyopia Explanation: Presbyopia, which is impaired near vision, is indicated when the client moves a reading chart or other reading material away from the eyes to focus on the print. It is caused by decreased accommodation and is a common condition in clients over 45 years of age. With the cover test, the eyes of the client should remain fixed straight ahead. If the covered eye moves when uncovered to reestablish focus, it is abnormal. If the eye turns outward it is called exotropia. If the uncovered eye turns inward, it is called esotropia. Strabismus is constant malalignment of the eyes.

A client presents to the health care clinic and reports pain in the eyes when working on the computer for long periods of time. The client states that he almost ran into a parked car yesterday because he misjudged the distance from the bumper of his own car. He works for a computer software company and has noticed he is experiencing difficulty reading the manuals that accompany the software he installs for companies. What nursing diagnosis can the nurse confirm based on this data?

Risk for injury Explanation: The only nursing diagnosis that can be confirmed with these data is Risk for Injury. The client is aware of the dangers of driving due to changes in his vision. There is not enough data to support the other diagnoses.

As part of a physical assessment, the nurse performs the confrontation test to assess the client's peripheral vision. Which test result should a nurse recognize as indicating normal peripheral vision for a client using the confrontation test?

The client and the examiner see the examiner's finger at the same time Explanation: The observation that the client and examiner see the examiner's finger at the same time indicates normal peripheral vision. The client not seeing the examiner's finger or a delay in seeing it indicates reduced peripheral vision. Client's consensual pupils constricting in response to indirect light as well as direct light shown into the client's pupils resulting in constriction are observed when testing the pupils for reaction to light. Eyes converging on an object as it is moved towards the nose is a normal result for accommodation.

A client has an abnormal consensual pupillary reaction to light. A nurse understands that what reaction occurs in the client's eyes?

There is no reaction in the opposite pupil to light. Explanation: When a light is shone into the eyes, both the pupil that receives direct light and the consensual (opposite) pupil should constrict. An abnormal response to this test is if either or both pupils do not constrict in response to light. Pupils do not dilate in response to light shone into them. Convergence of the eyes is called accommodation and occurs when focus of vision is moved from a far object to a close object. Light reflection appearing at different spots on both eyes is an abnormal result of the corneal light reflex test, not of the consensual pupillary reaction to light test.

When preparing to examine a patient's sclera and conjunctiva during an eye examination, the nurse should instruct the patient to move both eyes to look in which direction?While the nurse examines a patient's pupillary response to light in the right eye, the pupil in the left eye is constricted. What does this finding suggest to the nurse?

Up Explanation: The correct technique to use when examining a patient's sclera and conjunctiva during an eye examination is to instruct the patient to look up. Having the patient look down, to the right, or to the left will not provide visualization of the sclera or conjunctiva during the examination.