Project MGMT Final

Psychologist David Merril describes ____ as reactive and people-oriented. a. "Expressives" c. "Analyticals" b. "Drivers" d. "Amiables"

"Amiables" COMPLETION

Psychologist David Merril describes ____ as reactive and task-oriented. a. "Expressives" c. "Analyticals" b. "Drivers" d. "Amiables"

"Analyticals"

An October 2005 Information Technology Association of America (ITAA)-sponsored report stated that total savings from offshore resources during the 2005-2010 period are estimated to grow from $8.7 billion to ____. a. $10.2 billion c. $50.4 billion b. $20.4 billion d. $107.9 billion

$20.4 billion

Using simplified percentage complete amounts for a one-year project with weekly reporting and an average task or work packet size of one week, you can expect about a(n) ____ percent error rate. a. 1 c. 11 b. 5 d. 15

1 COMPLETION

Abraham Maslow, a highly respected psychologist, rejected the dehumanizing negativism of psychology in the ____. a. 1940s c. 1960s b. 1950s d. 1970s

1950s

An October 2005 Information Technology Association of America (ITAA)-sponsored report stated that spending for global sources of computer software and services is expected to grow at a compound annual rate of about ____ percent. a. 10 c. 30 b. 20 d. 40

20

Six Sigma's target for perfection is the achievement of no more than ____ defects, errors, or mistakes per million opportunities. a. 1.34 c. 34 b. 3.4 d. 340

3.4

Three separate surveys of software project cost overruns found that the average cost overrun for all of the projects in their survey samples (not just unsuccessful projects) were ____ percent. a. 13-14 c. 33-34 b. 23-24 d. 43-44

33-34

There are ____________________ main types of power, based on French and Raven's classic study, "The Bases of Social Power."

5

The Standish Group's CHAOS studies reported an average cost overrun for unsuccessful IT projects ranged from 180 percent in 1994 to ____ percent in 2004. a. 28 c. 56 b. 43 d. 73

56

Many people cite research that says in a face-to-face interaction, ____ percent of communication is through body language. a. 10 c. 58 b. 25 d. 85

58

KLCI Research Group's 2001 survey revealed that ____ percent of the organizations surveyed had a Project Management Office. a. 64 c. 85 b. 75 d. 94

64

KLCI Research Group's 2001 survey revealed that ____ percent identified anticipating and avoiding problems as the primary benefit of risk management. a. 60 c. 89 b. 80 d. 99

80

A certainty factor of 1.960 is used for ____ percent desired certainty. a. 75 c. 96 b. 95 d. 99

95

KLCI Research Group's 2001 survey revealed that ____ percent of the participants said they had procedures in place to identify and assess risk. a. 75 c. 97 b. 87 d. 99

97

In any normal distribution, ____ percent of the population is within three standard deviations of the mean. a. 95.5 c. 99.7 b. 99.0 d. 99.9

99.7

____ involves allocating the overall cost estimate to individual work items to establish a baseline for measuring performance. a. Determining the budget c. Controlling costs b. Consolidation of costs d. Estimating costs

A

The ____ is the total direct and indirect costs incurred in accomplishing work on an activity during a given period. a. AC c. RP b. EV d. PV

AC

____ is best known for developing a hierarchy of needs. a. Frederick Herzberg c. Abraham Maslow b. David McClelland d. Douglas McGregor

Abraham Maslow

____determine(s) if the products or services produced as part of the project will be accepted or rejected. a. Process adjustments c. Acceptance decisions b. Rework d. Auditing

Acceptance decisions

"Organizations can gain access to specific skills and technologies when they are required by using outside resources." refers to the ____ benefit of outsourcing. a. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs b. Provide flexibility c. Access skills and technologies d. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business

Access skills and technologies

____________________ should receive frequent performance feedback, and although money is not an important motivator to them, it is an effective form of feedback.

Achievers

____ involves getting the needed personnel assigned to and working on the project. a. Developing the human resource plan c. Acquiring the project team b. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team

Acquiring the project team

____ involves managing relationships with sellers, monitoring contract performance, and making changes as needed. a. Closing procurements c. Requesting seller responses b. Selecting sellers d. Administering procurements

Administering procurements

"Most organizations are not in business to provide information technology services, yet many have spent valuable time and resources on information technology functions when they should have focused on core competencies such as marketing, customer service, and new product design." refers to the ____ benefit of outsourcing. a. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs b. Provide flexibility c. Access skills and technologies d. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business

Allow the client organization to focus on its core business

____ use the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. a. Actual estimates c. Bottom-up estimates b. Parametric estimates d. Analogous estimates

Analogous estimates

____ is the cost of evaluating processes and their outputs to ensure that a project is error-free or within an acceptable error range. a. Prevention cost c. Internal failure cost b. Appraisal cost d. External failure cost

Appraisal cost

What is the first step in a Monte Carlo analysis? a. Determine the probability distribution of each variable. b. For each variable, such as the time estimate for a task, select a random value based on the probability distribution for the occurrence of the variable. c. Assess the range for the variables being considered. d. Run a deterministic analysis or one pass through the model using the combination of values selected for each one of the variables.

Assess the range for the variables being considered.

____ generates ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products within or outside the performing organization. a. Design of experiments c. Testing b. Quality auditing d. Benchmarking

Benchmarking

____ involve estimating individual work items or activities and summing them to get a project total. a. Actual estimates c. Bottom-up estimates b. Parametric estimates d. Analogous estimates

Bottom-up estimates

____________________ is a technique by which a group attempts to generate ideas or find a solution for a specific problem by amassing ideas spontaneously and without judgment.

Brainstorming

____ occur when two or more activities follow a single node. a. Combinations c. Merges b. Conflicts d. Bursts

Bursts

The ____ is the ratio of earned value to actual cost and can be used to estimate the projected cost of completing the project. a. SV c. CPI b. CV d. SPI

C

____ helps integrate traditionally separate organizational functions, set process improvement goals and priorities, provide guidance for quality processes, and provide a point of reference for appraising current processes. a. SQFD c. SQMMI b. CMM d. CMMI

CMMI COMPLETION

With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs plus a fixed fee payment usually based on a percentage of estimated costs. a. CPFF c. CPPC b. CPIF d. CPPF

CPFF

The ____ is the ratio of earned value to planned value and can be used to estimate the projected time to complete the project. a. SV c. CPI b. CV d. SPI

CPI

____________________ and SPI less than one or less than 100 percent indicate problems.

CPI - Cost performance index - Cost performance index (CPI)

With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs along with a predetermined fee and an incentive bonus. a. CPFF c. CPPC b. CPIF d. CPPF

CPIF

From the supplier's perspective, there is the least risk with a(n) ____ contract. a. CPFF c. CPPC b. FFP d. CPFF

CPPC

With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs along with a predetermined percentage based on total costs. a. CPFF c. CPPC b. CPIF d. CPPF

CPPC

____ is the earned value minus the actual cost. a. SV c. CPI b. CV d. SPI

CV

____ is a method for determining the estimated annual costs and benefits for a project and the resulting annual cash flow. a. Life cycle costing c. Cost estimating b. Profit margin analysis d. Cash flow analysis

Cash flow analysis

____________________ diagrams trace complaints about quality problems back to the responsible production operations.

Cause-and-effect - Fishbone - Ishikawa

____________________ based on risks that have been encountered in previous projects provide a meaningful template for understanding risks in a current project.

Checklists

____ involves completion and settlement of each contract, including resolution of any open items. a. Exiting procurements c. Closing procurements b. Closing out accounts d. Ending procurements

Closing procurements

____________________ involves completion and settlement of each contract, including resolution of any open items.

Closing procurements

____ involves using punishment, threats, or other negative approaches to get people to do things they do not want to do. a. Legitimate power c. Reward power b. Coercive power d. Referent power

Coercive power

Outputs to the ____ process include selected sellers, procurement contract awards, resource calendars, change requests, and updates to the project management plan and other project documents. a. Closing the contract c. Requesting seller responses b. Conducting procurements d. Administering the contract

Conducting procurements

____ involves obtaining seller responses, selecting sellers, and awarding contracts. a. Conducting procurements c. Requesting seller responses b. Selecting sellers d. Planning purchases and acquisitions

Conducting procurements

____ means the project's processes and products meet written specifications. a. Conformance to requirements c. Quality conformance b. Fitness for use d. Documentation matching

Conformance to requirements

____ change orders are oral or written acts or omissions by someone with actual or apparent authority that can be construed to have the same effect as a written change order. a. Direct c. Destructive b. Constructive d. Instructive

Constructive COMPLETION

____ are predefined actions that the project team will take if an identified risk event occurs. a. Fallback plans c. Contingency plans b. Contingency reserves d. Contingency allowances

Contingency plans

____ allow for future situations that may be partially planned for. a. Contingency reserves c. Unknown unknowns b. Management reserves d. Direct reserves

Contingency reserves

_________________________ are provisions held by the project sponsor or organization to reduce the risk of cost or schedule overruns to an acceptable level.

Contingency reserves - Contingency allowances

____ involves controlling and managing changes to the project schedule. a. Estimating activity durations c. Controlling the schedule b. Developing the schedule d. Estimating activity resources

Controlling the schedule

____ involve payment to the supplier for direct and indirect actual costs. a. CPFF contracts c. Cost-reimbursable contracts b. Lump sum contracts d. Time and material contracts

Cost-reimbursable contracts

____ is a technique for making cost and schedule trade-offs to obtain the greatest amount of schedule compression for the least incremental cost. a. Crushing c. Fast tracking b. Crashing d. Expediting

Crashing

____ is a method of scheduling that considers limited resources when creating a project schedule and includes buffers to protect the project completion date. a. A Gantt chart c. Critical chain scheduling b. Critical path analysis d. PERT analysis

Critical chain scheduling

____ is a network diagramming technique used to predict total project duration. a. A Gantt chart c. Critical chain scheduling b. Critical path analysis d. PERT analysis

Critical path analysis

____ wrote Quality Is Free in 1979 and is best known for suggesting that organizations strive for zero defects. a. Juran c. Crosby b. Ishikawa d. Deming

Crosby

____ is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any immediately following activities. a. Total slack c. Free time b. Total float d. Free slack

DFree slack

Projects that use Six Sigma principles for quality control normally follow a five-phase improvement process called ____________________.

DMAIC

____ proposed that an individual's specific needs are acquired or learned over time and shaped by life experiences. a. Frederick Herzberg c. Abraham Maslow b. David McClelland d. Douglas McGregor

David McClelland

____ involves identifying the specific activities that the project team members and stakeholders must perform to produce the project deliverables. a. Defining activities c. Estimating activity resources b. Sequencing activities d. Estimating activity durations

Defining activities

____ results in supporting detail to document important product information as well as assumptions and constraints related to specific activities. a. Defining activities c. Estimating activity resources b. Sequencing activities d. Estimating activity duration

Defining activities

____________________ e-mail that you do not need to save or respond to.

Delete

The basic concept of the ____________________ is to derive a consensus among a panel of experts who make predictions about future developments.

Delphi technique

One of ____ 14 Points for Management states that an organization should cease dependence on inspection to achieve quality. a. Deming's c. Crosby's b. Juran's d. Ishikawa's

Deming's

____ fill in for project managers in their absence and assist them as needed. a. Deputy project managers c. Assistant project managers b. Subproject managers d. Second-tier project managers

Deputy project managers

____________________ is a quality planning technique that helps identify which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome of a process.

Design of experiments

____ involves identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships. a. Developing the human resource plan c. Acquiring the project team b. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team

Developing the human resource plan

____ involves building individual and group skills to enhance project performance. a. Developing the human resource plan c. Acquiring the project team b. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team

Developing the project team

____ involves analyzing activity sequences, activity resource estimates, and activity duration estimates to create the project schedule. a. Estimating activity durations c. Controlling the schedule b. Developing the schedule d. Estimating activity resources

Developing the schedule

____ dependencies are sometimes referred to as soft logic and should be used with care since they may limit later scheduling options. a. Mandatory c. External b. Discretionary d. Internal

Discretionary

____ involves making needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner. a. Reporting performance c. Managing stakeholder expectations b. Distributing information d. Planning communications

Distributing information

____ is best known for developing Theory X and Theory Y. a. Frederick Herzberg c. Abraham Maslow b. David McClelland d. Douglas McGregor

Douglas McGregor

A ____ person achieves a balance between risk and payoff. a. risk-seeking c. risk-fearing b. risk-averse d. risk-neutral

Drisk-neutral

____________________ have no duration and no resources but are occasionally needed on AOA network diagrams to show logical relationships between activities.

Dummy activities

The ____ is an estimate of what it will cost to complete the project based on performance to date. a. CPI c. EAC b. SV d. SPI

EAC

The cost performance index can be used to calculate the ____________________.

EAC - estimate at completion - estimate at completion (EAC)

______________________________ is the product of a risk event probability and the risk event's monetary value.

EMV - Expected monetary value - Expected monetary value (EMV)

The ____ is an estimate of the value of the physical work actually completed. a. AC c. RP b. EV d. PV

EV

Variances are calculated by subtracting the actual cost or planned value from ____. a. EV c. PV b. AC d. RP

EV

____ is a project performance measurement technique that integrates scope, time, and cost data. a. Cost baseline c. Constructive cost modeling b. Earned value management d. Parametric modeling

Earned value management

____________________ is the number of workdays or work hours required to complete a task.

Effort

____________________ is listening with the intent to understand.

Empathic listening

____ involves estimating the number of work periods that are needed to complete individual activities. a. Defining activities c. Estimating activity resources b. Sequencing activities d. Estimating activity durations

Estimating activity durations

____________________ involves estimating how many people, equipment, and materials a project team should use to perform project activities

Estimating activity resources

____ involves developing an approximation or estimate of the costs of the resources needed to complete a project. a. Determining the budget c. Controlling costs b. Consolidation of costs d. Estimating costs

Estimating costs

____ dependencies involve relationships between project and non-project activities. a. Mandatory c. External b. Discretionary d. Internal

External

____ is a cost that relates to all errors not detected and not corrected before delivery to the customer. a. Prevention cost c. Internal failure cost b. Appraisal cost d. External failure cost

External failure cost

____________________ causes people to do something for a reward or to avoid a penalty.

Extrinsic motivation

____ are developed for risks that have a high impact on meeting project objectives, and are put into effect if attempts to reduce the risk are not effective. a. Fallback plans c. Contingency plans b. Contingency reserves d. Contingency allowances

Fallback plans

A RAM should only be used to assign detailed work activities.

False

A contract SOW should not specify the location of the work.

False

A definitive estimate should be the least accurate of the three types of estimates.

False

A responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) is a matrix that maps the work of the project as described in the OBS to the people responsible for performing the work as described in the WBS.

False

A risk management review accomplishes one objective, it keeps management and the customer aware of the major influences that could prevent or enhance the project's success.

False

A simple approach to using probability/impact information is to calculate risk factors.

False

According to Herzberg, hygiene factors such as larger salaries, more supervision, or a more attractive work environment would motivate workers to do more if present.

False

According to a 2008 report on IT outsourceing trends in the U.S. and Canada, application development is the least popular form of IT outsourcing and was used by only 25 percent of organizations surveyed.

False

All of the Six Sigma principles are brand new.

False

Although information technology projects have a poor track record in meeting project goals, they have a good track record in meeting budget goals.

False

Assignment, budget, promotion, money, and penalty influence bases are automatically available to project managers as part of their position.

False

Continuous quality improvement is not a goal of quality assurance.

False

Control charts are one tool used in the analyze phase of the DMAIC process.

False

Databases are a common tool for cost estimating, cost budgeting, and cost control.

False

DeMarco and Lister found direct correlations between productivity and programming language, years of experience, and salary.

False

Design of experiments cannot be applied to project management issues such as cost and schedule trade-offs.

False

Direct costs cannot be directly attributed to a certain project.

False

Duration only includes the actual amount of time worked on an activity.

False

E-mail is always an appropriate medium for all types of communications.

False

Experts in source selection recommend that technical criteria should be given more weight than management or cost criteria.

False

Experts outside the company, including potential suppliers themselves, cannot provide expert judgment.

False

Extrinsic motivation causes people to participate in an activity for their own enjoyment.

False

Few organizations develop their own risk questionnaires.

False

Few organizations use some form of outsourcing to meet their information technology needs.

False

Getting project information to the right people at the right time and in a useful format is not as important as developing the information in the first place.

False

Good project risk management never goes unnoticed.

False

Hiring managers say interpersonal skills are the least important soft skill for information technology workers.

False

If cost variance is a positive number, it means that performing the work cost more than planned.

False

If the cost performance index is less than one or less than 100 percent, the project is under budget.

False

In TQC, product quality is less important than production rates, and workers are not allowed to stop production whenever a quality problem occurs.

False

In a Pareto chart, the variables described by the histogram are ordered chronologically.

False

In an earned value chart, when the actual cost line is right on or above the earned value line, costs are less than or equal to planned.

False

Instead of knowing the people working on their projects and developing a trusting relationship with them, many colleagues and managers should want to focus on getting information by reading technical documents.

False

Integration testing replaces the other forms of testing with a single comprehensive test.

False

It is always less effective to hire skilled consultants to perform specific tasks for a short period of time than to hire or keep employees on staff full time.

False

It is common to find someone with a natural ability for both communication and technical skills.

False

It is important to use appropriate words in a contract SOW such as may instead of must.

False

It is not good practice to include time for informal meetings with customers to help develop relationships and provide staff to assist in relationship management.

False

It is not important to document any changes in technical specifications that might affect product performance.

False

It is uncommon for people to identify problems or opportunities without really understanding them.

False

Lead times for purchases and acquisitions should not be included in a procurement management plan.

False

Learning curve theory does not apply to the amount of time it takes to complete some tasks.

False

Legitimate power involves using personal knowledge and expertise to get people to change their behavior.

False

Many private companies use the term procurement instead of purchasing.

False

Maslow suggests that each level of the hierarchy of needs is not necessarily a prerequisite for the levels above.

False

Most information technology products can reach 100 percent reliability.

False

Most people view offshore outsourcing as being good.

False

Negative and positive risks should always be included in the same probability/impact matrix or chart.

False

Negative risk management is like investing in opportunities.

False

Only in-house auditors can perform quality audits.

False

Organizational policies related to quality, the particular project's scope statement and product descriptions, and related standards and regulations are all important input to the quality assurance process.

False

Organizations have a history of spending too much money in the early phases of information technology projects.

False

Parametric models are least reliable when historical information was used to create the model.

False

People have a tendency to want to report bad information.

False

People who believe in Theory Y assume that workers dislike and avoid work if possible, so managers must use coercion, threats, and various control schemes to get workers to make adequate efforts to meet objectives.

False

Potential risks can only be identified early in a project.

False

Preparing cost estimates is a job for accountants.

False

Project managers do not need to continually assess their team's performance.

False

Project managers must realize that all conflict is bad.

False

Project managers should limit the size of work teams to eight to ten members.

False

Project team members rarely need to see all project documentation.

False

Quality is a lower priority than project scope, time, and cost.

False

Quantitative risk analysis and qualitative risk analysis must be done together.

False

Risk events refer to specific, certain events that may occur to the detriment or enhancement of the project.

False

Smaller information technology projects usually have deputy project managers or subproject managers.

False

Team members often create consolidated progress reports based on the information received from team leaders.

False

Team-building skills are often not a challenge for many project managers.

False

The WBS is not a required input to the cost budgeting process.

False

The buyer absorbs less of the risk with cost-reimbursable contracts than they do with fixed-price contracts.

False

The communications management plan should not address frequency of communication.

False

The gap between users and developers decreases as technology advances.

False

The global job market for information technology workers is contracting.

False

The information technology field is relatively stable and unchanging.

False

The last step in project risk management is deciding how to address this knowledge area for a particular project by performing risk management planning.

False

The level of detail included in the risk management plan rarely varies across projects.

False

The lower the EMV, the better.

False

The main output of qualitative risk analysis is a decision tree.

False

The main outputs of estimating activity resources includes the activity list and attributes, project scope statement, milestone list, and organizational process assets.

False

The main sections of an RFP never include the statement of work and schedule information.

False

The outputs to schedule development include activity duration estimates and project document updates.

False

The people who develop software cost estimates often have a great deal of experience with cost estimation.

False

The project scope statement provides the basis for planning and managing project schedules, costs, resources, and changes.

False

The project's size, complexity, importance, and other factors will not affect how much effort is spent on collecting requirements for scope planning.

False

The psychology literature shows that individuals, working alone, produce fewer ideas than the same individuals produce through brainstorming in small, face-to-face groups.

False

The quality planning process involves taking responsibility for quality throughout the project's life cycle.

False

The scope of a project should be clear and specific from the start.

False

The success of many information technology projects that use outside resources is often due to good project cost management.

False

The term sigma means median.

False

There does not need to be a change control system to define procedures for changing the cost baseline.

False

To obtain valid statistics, it is important to study every member of a population.

False

When an information system does not function correctly, it is generally a slight inconvenience.

False

When deciding what projects to invest in or continue, you should include sunk costs.

False

When developing an estimate for a large software project, estimates cannot be made before clear system requirements have been produced.

False

When justifying investments in new information systems and technology, the focus should only be on revenues or expenses.

False

When resources are used on a more constant basis, they require more management.

False

You can assume that a task originally scheduled to take two months of one person's time can be done in one month by two people.

False

You can separate technical skills and soft skills when working on information technology projects.

False

____ involves doing activities in parallel that you would normally do in sequence. a. Crushing c. Fast tracking b. Crashing d. Expediting

Fast tracking

____ are the system's special characteristics that appeal to users. a. Features c. Properties b. System outputs d. Functions

Features

"Will the project meet NPV, ROI, and payback estimates?" applies to which risk category? a. Financial risk c. Structure/process risk b. Technology risk d. Market risk

Financial risk

____________________ means a product can be used as it was intended.

Fitness for use

____ predict future project status and progress based on past information and trends. a. Progress reports c. Forecasts b. Status reports d. Updates

Forecasts

____ is best known for distinguishing between motivational factors and hygiene factors when considering motivation in work settings. a. Frederick Herzberg c. Abraham Maslow b. David McClelland d. Douglas McGregor

Frederick Herzberg

____ is the degree to which a system performs its intended function. a. Reliability c. Maintainability b. Performance d. Functionality

Functionality

____ provide(s) a standard format for displaying project schedule information by listing project activities and their corresponding start and finish dates in a calendar format. a. Gantt charts c. Critical chain scheduling b. Critical path analysis d. PERT analysis

Gantt charts

____ found that people were motivated to work mostly by feelings of personal achievement and recognition. a. Maslow c. McClelland b. McGregor d. Herzberg

Herzberg

Poor conflict management, poor project organization and definition of responsibilities, and absence of leadership are risk conditions associated with the ____ project management knowledge area. a. Integration c. Time b. Quality d. Human Resources

Human Resources

____, a quality system standard developed by the ISO, is a three-part, continuous cycle of planning, controlling, and documenting quality in an organization. a. IEEE 15504 c. IEEE 9000 b. ISO 9000 d. ISO 15504

ISO 9000

____ involves determining which risks are likely to affect a project and documenting the characteristics of each. a. Identifying risks c. Performing qualitative risk analysis b. Planning risk management d. Performing quantitative risk analysis

Identifying risks

____ are costs that are not directly related to the products or services of the project, but are indirectly related to performing the project. a. Intangible costs c. Direct costs b. Tangible costs d. Indirect costs

Indirect costs

____ employees are also more likely to enroll voluntarily in classes on the latest technology than those on developing their soft skills. a. Individual c. Groups of b. Service d. Team

Individual

____________________ often perform quality audits by helping to design specific quality metrics for a project and then applying and analyzing the metrics throughout the project.

Industrial engineers

____________________ costs or benefits are costs or benefits that are difficult to measure in monetary terms.

Intangible

____ is a fact-finding technique for collecting information in face-to-face, phone, e-mail, or instant-messaging discussions. a. Brainstorming c. The Delphi technique b. SWOT analysis d. Interviewing

Interviewing

____ uses highly organized and intensive workshops to bring together project stakeholders—the sponsor, users, business analysts, programmers, and so on—to jointly define and design information systems. a. Prototyping c. RAD b. JAD d. Use case modeling

JAD COMPLETION

One of ____ ten steps states that an organization should build awareness of the need and opportunity for improvement. a. Deming's c. Juran's b. Crosby's d. Ishikawa's

Juran's

____________________ costs are often much higher for contractors.

Labor

____________________ states that when many items are produced repetitively, the unit cost of those items decreases in a regular pattern as more units are produced.

Learning curve theory

____________________ is getting people to do things based on a position of authority.

Legitimate power

____ helps you develop an accurate projection of a project's financial costs and benefits. a. Profit cycle costing c. Life cycle costing b. Financial costing d. Profit margin costing

Life cycle costing

____________________ allows you to see a big-picture view of the cost of a project throughout its life cycle.

Life cycle costing

____________________ considers the total cost of ownership, or development plus support costs, for a project.

Life cycle costing

The ____________________ is a popular tool for determining personality preferences.

MBTI - Myers-Briggs Type Indicator - Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)

____ addresses the ease of performing maintenance on a product. a. Reliability c. Maintainability b. Performance d. Functionality

Maintainability

____ allow for future situations that are unpredictable. a. Contingency reserves c. Known unknowns b. Management reserves d. Indirect reserves

Management reserves

_________________________ involves managing communications to satisfy the needs and expectations of project stakeholders and to resolve issues.

Managing stakeholder expectations

____ involves tracking team member performance, motivating team members, providing timely feedback, resolving issues and conflicts, and coordinating changes to help enhance project performance. a. Developing the human resource plan c. Acquiring the project team b. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team

Managing the project team

____ dependencies are inherent in the nature of the work being performed on a project. a. Mandatory c. External b. Discretionary d. Internal

Mandatory

"If the information technology project is to produce a new product or service, will it be useful to the organization or marketable to others?" applies to which risk category? a. Financial risk c. Structure/process risk b. Technology risk d. Market risk

Market risk

____ is matching certain behaviors of the other person. a. Empathic listening c. Synergy b. Rapport d. Mirroring

Mirroring

____ involves monitoring identified and residual risks, identifying new risks, carrying out risk response plans, and evaluating the effectiveness of risk strategies throughout the life of the project. a. Performing quantitative risk analysis c. Monitoring and controlling risk b. Planning risk responses d. Performing qualitative risk analysis

Monitoring and controlling risk

____ analysis simulates a model's outcome many times to provide a statistical distribution of the calculated results. a. Decision tree c. Monte Carlo b. EMV d. Watch list

Monte Carlo

____________________ occurs when a resource works on more than one task at a time.

Multitasking

____________________ states that if something can go wrong, it will.

Murphy's Law

A(n) ____________________ is a specific type of organizational chart that shows which organizational units are responsible for which work items.

OBS - organizational breakdown structure - organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

____________________ means more resources than are available are assigned to perform work at a given time.

Overallocation

The ____ is a network diagramming technique in which boxes represent activities. a. PDM c. ADM b. AOA d. POA

PDM

____ use(s) probabilistic time estimates—duration estimates based on using optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates of activity durations—instead of one specific or discrete duration estimate. a. Critical Path Analysis c. Critical Chain Scheduling b. Gantt charts d. PERT

PERT

The ____ is that portion of the approved total cost estimate planned to be spent on an activity during a given period. a. AC c. RP b. EV d. PV

PV

____________________ uses project characteristics in a mathematical model to estimate project costs.

Parametric modeling

A(n) ____________________ is a histogram that can help you identify and prioritize problem areas.

Pareto chart - Pareto diagram

____ help(s) you identify the vital few contributors that account for most quality problems in a system. a. Statistical sampling c. Six Sigma b. Pareto charts d. Quality control charts

Pareto charts

____ states that work expands to fill the time allowed. a. Murphy's Law c. Parkinson's Law b. Newton's Law d. Moore's Law

Parkinson's Law

"Is there a project champion?" applies to which risk category? a. Financial risk c. Structure/process risk b. Technology risk d. People risk

People risk

____ addresses how well a product or service performs the customer's intended use. a. Reliability c. Maintainability b. Performance d. Functionality

Performance

_________________________ keeps stakeholders informed about how resources are being used to achieve project objectives.

Performance reporting

____ involves prioritizing risks based on their probability and impact of occurrence. a. Performing qualitative risk analysis c. Planning risk responses b. Planning risk management d. Performing quantitative risk analysis

Performing qualitative risk analysis

____ involves periodically evaluating overall project performance to ensure that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards. a. Performing quality assurance c. Checking quality b. Performing quality control d. Planning quality

Performing quality assurance

____ involves monitoring specific project results to ensure that they comply with the relevant quality standards while identifying ways to improve overall quality. a. Performing quality assurance c. Checking quality b. Performing quality control d. Planning quality

Performing quality control

____ involves numerically estimating the effects of risks on project objectives. a. Performing qualitative risk analysis c. Planning risk management b. Planning risk responses d. Performing quantitative risk analysis

Performing quantitative risk analysis

____ involves determining the information and communications needs of the stakeholders. a. Reporting performance c. Managing stakeholder expectations b. Distributing information d. Planning communications

Planning communications

____ involves determining what to procure, when, and how. a. Planning contracting c. Conducting procurements b. Administrating procurements d. Planning procurements

Planning procurements

____ includes identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and how to satisfy those standards. a. Performing quality assurance c. Checking quality b. Performing quality control d. Planning quality

Planning quality

____ involves deciding how to approach and plan the risk management activities for the project. a. Identifying risks c. Performing qualitative risk analysis b. Planning risk management d. Performing quantitative risk analysis

Planning risk management

____ involves taking steps to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to meeting project objectives. a. Performing quantitative risk analysis c. Monitoring and controlling risk b. Planning risk responses d. Performing qualitative risk analysis

Planning risk responses

____________________ is the potential ability to influence behavior to get people to do things they would not otherwise do.

Power

____ correct(s) or prevent(s) further quality problems based on quality control measurements. a. Process adjustments c. Acceptance decisions b. Rework d. Auditing

Process adjustments

Unenforceable conditions or contract clauses, and adversarial relations are risk conditions associated with the ____ project management knowledge area. a. Integration c. Procurement b. Quality d. Human Resources

Procurement

____________________ means acquiring goods and/or services from an outside source.

Procurement

____________________ are often done during contract closure to identify lessons learned in the entire procurement process.

Procurement audits

____ is the ratio of revenues to profits. a. Profit c. Cost structure b. Profit margin d. Cost margin

Profit margin

____________________ are revenues minus expenditures.

Profits

____ describe what the project team has accomplished during a certain period. a. Progress reports c. Forecasts b. Status reports d. Updates

Progress reports

____________________ has many cost management features to help you enter budgeted costs, set a baseline, enter actuals, calculate variances, and run various cost reports.

Project 2007 - Microsoft Project - Microsoft Project 2007

____ are a complete set of organized project records that provide an accurate history of the project. a. Project archives c. Project databases b. Project backups d. Project notes

Project archives COMPLETION

____ includes the processes required to ensure that a project team completes a project within an approved budget. a. Cost budgeting c. Cost control b. Cost estimating d. Project cost management

Project cost management

____, with assistance from financial experts in their organizations, should create estimates of the costs and benefits of the project for its entire life cycle. a. Financial mangers c. Budget managers b. Project managers d. System managers

Project managers

______________________________ includes the processes required to acquire goods and services for a project from outside the performing organization.

Project procurement management

____________________ involves the processes required to ensure timely completion of a project.

Project time management

"Outsourcing to provide extra staff during periods of peak workloads can be much more economical than trying to staff entire projects with internal resources." refers to the ____ benefit. a. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs b. Provide flexibility c. Access skills and technologies d. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business

Provide flexibility

____________________ are groups of non-supervisors and work leaders in a single company department who volunteer to conduct group studies on how to improve the effectiveness of work in their department.

Quality circles

Some organizations use ____________________ to show Responsibility, Accountability, Consultation, and Informed roles for project stakeholders.

RACI charts

The ____________________ allocates work to responsible and performing organizations, teams, or individuals, depending on the desired level of detail.

RAM - responsibility assignment matrix - responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

A(n) ____ is a document used to solicit proposals from prospective suppliers. a. RFQ c. COW b. RFP d. SOW

RFP

A(n) ____________________ or draft contract often provides the basis for defining and finalizing work requirements.

RFP - Request for Proposal - Request for Proposal (RFP)

A(n) ____ is a document used to solicit quotes or bids from prospective suppliers. a. RFQ c. COW b. RFP d. SOW

RFQ

The ____ is the ratio of actual work completed to the percentage of work planned to have been completed at any given time during the life of the project or activity. a. AC c. RP b. EV d. PV

RP

____________________ is a relation of harmony, conformity, accord, or affinity.

Rapport

"Outsourcing suppliers are often able to use economies of scale that may not be available to the client alone, especially for hardware and software." refers to the ____ benefit of outsourcing. a. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs b. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business c. Access skills and technologies d. Provide flexibility

Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs

____ is based on an individual's personal charisma. a. Legitimate power c. Reward power b. Coercive power d. Referent power

Referent power

____ is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under normal conditions. a. Reliability c. Maintainability b. Performance d. Functionality

Reliability

____ involves collecting and disseminating performance information, including status reports, progress measurement, and forecasting. a. Reporting performance c. Managing stakeholder expectations b. Distributing information d. Planning communications

Reporting performance

____________________ risks are risks that remain after all of the response strategies have been implemented.

Residual

____ is a technique for resolving resource conflicts by delaying tasks. a. Resource loading c. Resource allocation b. Resource leveling d. Resource requesting

Resource leveling

____ refers to the amount of individual resources an existing schedule requires during specific time periods. a. Resource loading c. Resource allocation b. Resource leveling d. Resource requesting

Resource loading

____ involves using incentives to induce people to do things. a. Legitimate power c. Reward power b. Coercive power d. Referent power

Reward power

____ is action taken to bring rejected items into compliance with product requirements or specifications or other stakeholder expectations. a. A process adjustment c. An acceptance decision b. Rework d. Auditing

Rework

____________________ often results in requested changes and validated defect repair, resulting from recommended defect repair or corrective or preventive actions.

Rework

____ applies to positive risks when the project team cannot or chooses not to take any actions toward a risk. a. Risk enhancement c. Risk sharing b. Risk acceptance d. Risk exploitation

Risk acceptance

____ involves eliminating a specific threat, usually by eliminating its causes. a. Risk avoidance c. Risk transference b. Risk acceptance d. Risk mitigation

Risk avoidance

____ involves changing the size of the opportunity by identifying and maximizing key drivers of the positive risk. a. Risk exploitation c. Risk enhancement b. Risk sharing d. Risk acceptance

Risk enhancement

____ involves doing whatever you can to make sure the positive risk happens. a. Risk exploitation c. Risk enhancement b. Risk sharing d. Risk acceptance

Risk exploitation

____________________ are numbers that represent the overall risk of specific events, based on their probability of occurring and the consequences to the project if they do occur.

Risk factors

____ involves reducing the impact of a risk event by reducing the probability of its occurrence. a. Risk avoidance c. Risk transference b. Risk acceptance d. Risk mitigation

Risk mitigation

____ involves allocating ownership of the risk to another party. a. Risk exploitation c. Risk enhancement b. Risk sharing d. Risk acceptance

Risk sharing

____ involves shifting the consequence of a risk and responsibility for its management to a third party. a. Risk avoidance c. Risk transference b. Risk acceptance d. Risk mitigation

Risk transference

____________________ is the amount of satisfaction or pleasure received from a potential payoff.

Risk utility - Risk tolerance

____________________ design methods focus on eliminating defects by substituting scientific inquiry for trial-and-error methods.

Robust

To make milestones meaningful, some people use the ____________________ criteria to help define them.

SMART

The ____ is a description of the work required for the procurement. a. RFQ c. COW b. RFP d. SOW

SOW

After you total the EV, AC, and PV data for all activities on a project, you can use the CPI and ____________________ to project how much it will cost and how long it will take to finish the project based on performance to date.

SPI - schedule performance index - schedule performance index (SPI)

The ____________________ model focuses on defining user requirements and planning software projects.

SQFD - Software Quality Function Deployment - Software Quality Function Deployment (SQFD)

____ is the earned value minus the planned value. a. SV c. CPI b. CV d. SPI

SV

____ issues cause the most conflicts over the project life cycle. a. Project priority c. Cost b. Staffing d. Schedule

Schedule

____ risks are a direct result of implementing a risk response. a. Tertiary c. Residual b. Primary d. Secondary

Secondary COMPLETION

Which of Covey's habits does Douglas Ross suggest differentiates good project managers from average or poor project managers? a. Think win/win b. Seek first to understand, then to be understood c. Begin with the end in mind d. Synergize

Seek first to understand, then to be understood

____ is at the top of Maslow's structure. a. Esteem c. Physiological b. Self-actualization d. Social

Self-actualization

In the MBTI, the ____ dimension relates to the manner in which you gather information. a. Extrovert/Introvert c. Judgment/Perception b. Thinking/Feeling d. Sensation/Intuition

Sensation/Intuition

____ involves evaluating the reasons for dependencies and the different types of dependencies. a. Defining activities c. Estimating activity resources b. Sequencing activities d. Estimating activity duration

Sequencing activities

____ involves identifying and documenting the relationships between project activities. a. Defining activities c. Estimating activity resources b. Sequencing activities d. Estimating activity durations

Sequencing activities

____ are often more effective particularly for sensitive information. a. Electronic communications c. Telephone conversations b. Short face-to-face meetings d. Long face-to-face meetings

Short face-to-face meetings

____________________ is a measure of quality control equal to 1 fault in 1 million opportunities.

Six 9s of quality

____ is a comprehensive and flexible system for achieving, sustaining and maximizing business success. a. Statistical sampling c. Six Sigma b. Pareto analysis d. Quality control charting

Six Sigma

____________________ measures how much variation exists in a distribution of data.

Standard deviation

____ involves choosing part of a population of interest for inspection. a. Statistical sampling c. Six Sigma b. Pareto analysis d. Quality control charting

Statistical sampling

____ describe where the project stands at a specific point in time. a. Progress reports c. Forecasts b. Status reports d. Updates

Status reports

____ are a good way to highlight information provided in important project documents, empower people to be accountable for their work, and have face-to-face discussions about important project issues. a. Information retreats c. Information review meetings b. Status planning meetings d. Status review meetings

Status review meetings

____________________ are responsible for managing the subprojects into which a large project might be divided.

Subproject managers

____________________ cost is money that has been spent in the past.

Sunk

____ should be forgotten. a. Sunk costs c. Direct costs b. Indirect costs d. Intangible costs

Sunk costs

____________________ is the concept that the whole is equal to more than the sum of its parts.

Synergy

____________________ are the screens and reports the system generates.

System outputs

The ____ presents subjects with a series of ambiguous pictures and asks them to develop a spontaneous story for each picture, assuming they will project their own needs into the story. a. RAM c. TAT b. MBTI d. RACI

TAT

The ____________________ is a tool to measure the individual needs of different people using McClelland's categories.

TAT - Thematic Apperception Test - Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)

The ____________________ is based on the fact that, like a chain with its weakest link, any complex system at any point in time often has only one aspect or constraint that limits its ability to achieve more of its goal.

TOC - Theory of Constraints - Theory of Constraints (TOC)

____ are those costs that an organization can easily measure in dollars. a. Intangible costs c. Tangible costs b. Direct costs d. Indirect costs

Tangible costs

____________________ can facilitate the process of distributing information, when used properly.

Technology

People who believe in ____ assume that the average worker wants to be directed and prefers to avoid responsibility. a. Theory W c. Theory Y b. Theory X d. Theory Z

Theory X

Managers who believe in McGregor's ____________________ assume that individuals do not inherently dislike work, but consider it as natural as play or rest.

Theory Y

____ emphasizes things such as job rotation, broadening of skills, generalization versus specialization, and the need for continuous training of workers. a. Theory W c. Theory Y b. Theory X d. Theory Z

Theory Z

____________________ is the one variable in project scheduling that has the least amount of flexibility.

Time

______________________________ contracts are a hybrid of both fixed-price and cost-reimbursable contracts.

Time and material (T&M) - Time and material - T&M

____ are/is a qualitative risk analysis tool, and in addition to identifying risks, it maintains an awareness of risks throughout the life of a project. a. Risk factor analysis c. Risk registering b. Probability/impact matrices or charts d. Top Ten Risk Item Tracking

Top Ten Risk Item Tracking

____ is the amount of time an activity can be delayed from its early start without delaying the planned project finish date. a. Total slack c. Total time b. Free float d. Free slack

Total slack

A(n) ____________________ Gantt chart compares planned and actual project schedule information.

Tracking

Project managers often illustrate progress with a ____ showing key deliverables and activities. a. Tracking Gantt chart c. network diagram b. Gantt chart d. PERT chart

Tracking Gantt chart

____________________ are indicators or symptoms of actual risk events.

Triggers

A key factor in evaluating bids, particularly for projects involving information technology, is the past performance record of the bidder.

True

A large percentage of total project costs are often labor costs.

True

A potential response to the risk event of a defective server might be the inclusion of a clause in a contract with the supplier to replace a defective server within a certain time period at a negotiated cost.

True

A probability/impact matrix or chart lists the relative probability of a risk occurring on one side of a matrix or axis on a chart and the relative impact of the risk occurring on the other.

True

A staffing management plan describes when and how people will be added to and taken off the project team.

True

Adding more people to a project that is falling behind schedule often causes more setbacks because of the increased complexity of communications.

True

Any new technology or business process is untested and has inherent risks.

True

Any type of contract should include specific clauses that take into account issues unique to the project.

True

As the job market changes, people should upgrade their skills to remain marketable and flexible.

True

Before you can improve project risk management, you must understand what risk is.

True

By analyzing stakeholder communications needs, you can avoid wasting time or money on creating or disseminating unnecessary information.

True

By reviewing the project scope statement, cost, schedule, and communications management plans, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets, project teams can discuss and analyze risk management activities for their particular projects.

True

Communicating badly exponentially increases the possibility of making fatal mistakes.

True

Consistent communication helps organizations improve project communications, especially for programs composed of multiple projects.

True

Contents of the procurement management plan will vary with project needs.

True

Cost budgeting provides information for project funding requirements.

True

Different cultures may have different perceptions of work ethic.

True

Do not have a meeting if there is a better way of achieving the objective at hand.

True

Emotional conflict, which stems from personality clashes and misunderstandings, often depresses team performance.

True

Estimates are usually done at various stages of a project and should become more accurate as time progresses.

True

Every cost estimate is unique.

True

Expectations can vary based on an organization's culture or geographic region.

True

ISO 9000 provides minimum requirements needed for an organization to meet its quality certification standards.

True

If a certain resource is overallocated, the project manager can change the schedule to remove resource overallocation.

True

If a project manager gets sick for two weeks or an important supplier goes out of business, management reserve could be set aside to cover the resulting costs.

True

If companies plan their projects well, they can avoid the need for overtime, or they can make it clear that overtime is optional.

True

If products are accepted, they are considered to be validated deliverables.

True

If there is no need to buy any products or services from outside the organization, then there is no need to perform any of the other procurement management processes.

True

Increasing the project manager's authority is a strategy for mitigating technical and cost risks.

True

It is customary to have contract negotiations during the source selection process.

True

It is important to clarify what functions and features the system must perform, and what functions and features are optional.

True

Make-or-buy analysis involves estimating the internal costs of providing a product or service and comparing that estimate to the cost of outsourcing.

True

Many WBSs include a section for project communications to ensure that reporting key information is a project deliverable.

True

Many companies are realizing that they can use offshore outsourcing and create more jobs at home.

True

Many highly qualified information technology workers lost their jobs in the past few years.

True

Many projects have each team member prepare a monthly or sometimes weekly progress report.

True

Many projects that are started never finish because of cost management problems.

True

Many projects, particularly information technology projects, do not have good planning information, so tracking performance against a plan might produce misleading information.

True

Many quality experts believe the main cause of quality problems is the lack of leadership.

True

Maslow's hierarchy of needs states that people's behaviors are guided or motivated by a sequence of needs.

True

Mind mapping allows people to write and even draw pictures of ideas in a nonlinear format.

True

Minimizing defects does not matter if an organization is making a product that no one wants to buy.

True

Modern quality management requires customer satisfaction, prefers prevention to inspection, and recognizes management responsibility for quality.

True

Most educational systems for information technology graduates promote strong technical skills over strong communication and social skills.

True

Most organizations have a well-established process for preparing budgets.

True

Most people simply accept poor quality from many information technology products.

True

Most project managers agree that managing human resources effectively is one of the toughest challenges they face.

True

Not understanding how to communicate effectively with other cultures and people of diverse backgrounds hurts projects and businesses.

True

One innovative approach to hiring and retaining information technology staff is to offer existing employees incentives for helping recruit and retain personnel.

True

People who need institutional power or social power want to organize others to further the goals of the organization.

True

Project managers are ultimately responsible for quality management on their projects.

True

Project managers must conduct cash flow analysis to determine net present value.

True

Project managers often do not have control over project staff who report to them.

True

Project managers often recommend that people take specific training courses to improve individual and team development.

True

Project managers should lead their teams in developing norms for dealing with various types of conflicts that might arise on their projects.

True

Project risk management does not stop with the initial risk analysis.

True

Quality planning implies the ability to anticipate situations and prepare actions that bring about the desired outcome.

True

ROM estimates can be referred to as a ballpark estimate, a guesstimate, a swag, or a broad gauge.

True

Rarely does the receiver interpret a message exactly as the sender intended.

True

Resource leveling results in fewer problems for project personnel and accounting departments.

True

Risk management is a frequently overlooked aspect of project management.

True

SWOT analysis can be used during risk identification by having project teams focus on the broad perspectives of potential risks for particular projects.

True

Schedules tend to focus primarily on time rather than on both time and resources.

True

Selecting the most experienced project manager is recommended for reducing schedule risks.

True

Several PC-based software packages are available that perform Monte Carlo simulations.

True

Some termination clauses state that the buyer can terminate a contract for any reason and give the supplier only 24 hours' notice.

True

Status reports can take various formats depending on the stakeholders' needs.

True

Testing needs to be done during almost every phase of the systems development life cycle.

True

Thamhain and Wilemon found that when project managers used work challenge and expertise to influence people, projects were more likely to succeed.

True

The Delphi technique is a systematic, interactive forecasting procedure based on independent and anonymous input regarding future events.

True

The Microsoft Solution Framework (MSF) includes a risk management model that includes developing and monitoring a top-ten master list of risks.

True

The Monte Carlo analysis can predict the probability of finishing by a certain date or the probability that the cost will be equal to or less than a certain value.

True

The arrows in a network diagram represent the activity sequencing or relationships between tasks.

True

The communications management plan will vary with the needs of the project.

True

The cost for risk management should not exceed the potential benefits.

True

The cost management plan is part of the overall project management plan.

True

The cost savings and use of offshore resources lower inflation, increase productivity, and lower interest rates.

True

The first dimension of psychological type in the MBTI signifies whether people draw their energy from other people (extroverts) or from inside themselves (introverts).

True

The formulas for variances and indexes start with EV, the earned value.

True

The majority of people in the United States use the Internet.

True

The term "e-procurement" often describes various procurement functions that are now done electronically.

True

The total value of the contract is a function of the quantities needed to complete the work.

True

Understanding which variables affect outcome is a very important part of quality planning.

True

Using Six Sigma principles is an organization-wide commitment.

True

When an organization outsources work, it often does not have as much control over those aspects of projects that suppliers carry out.

True

When using the confrontation mode, project managers directly face a conflict using a problem-solving approach that allows affected parties to work through their disagreements.

True

You can break down the technology risk category into hardware, software, and network technology.

True

____________________ can be used in various types of contracts to require the buyer to pay the supplier a predetermined amount per unit of product or service.

Unit pricing

____ is an independent test performed by end users prior to accepting the delivered system. a. Integration testing c. User acceptance testing b. Unit testing d. System testing

User acceptance testing

It is helpful to analyze the total dollar value as well as the percentage of the total amount for each major ____________________ category.

WBS - work breakdown structure - work breakdown structure (WBS)

According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) ____ is the only inappropriate method for expressing support/appreciation. a. phone call c. meeting b. e-mail d. Web site

Web site

Risk ____________________ involves accepting the consequences should a risk occur.

acceptance

People who need personal ____ want to direct others and can be seen as bossy. a. affiliation c. power b. advancement d. achievement

achievement

People with a high need for ____ seek to excel and tend to avoid both low-risk and high-risk situations to improve their chances for achieving something worthwhile. a. affiliation c. power b. money d. achievement

achievement

Key outputs of ____ process are project staff assignments, resource calendars, and project management plan updates. a. managing the project team c. developing the project team b. acquiring the project team d. developing the human resource plan

acquiring the project team

The ____ provide(s) schedule-related information about each activity, such as predecessors, successors, logical relationships, leads and lags, resource requirements, constraints, imposed dates, and assumptions related to the activity. a. activity list c. activity descriptions b. milestones d. activity attributes

activity attributes

In the activity definition process, the project team should review the ____________________ and activity attributes with project stakeholders before moving on to the next step in project time management.

activity list

The ____________________ is a tabulation of activities to be included on a project schedule.

activity list

People with a high need for ____ desire harmonious relationships with other people and need to feel accepted by others. a. affiliation c. power b. money d. achievement

affiliation

Some professionals refuse to attend meetings if they do not have a(n) ____________________ ahead of time.

agenda

An important tool used in the ____ phase of the DMAIC process is the fishbone or Ishikawa diagram. a. define c. analyze b. measure d. improve

analyze

KLCI Research Group's 2001 survey revealed that the most frequently cited benefit from software risk management practices is to ____. a. prevent surprises c. meet customer commitments b. improve ability to negotiate d. anticipate/avoid problems

anticipate/avoid problems

According to Thamhain and Wilemon, ____ is the legitimate hierarchical right to issue orders. a. authority c. expertise b. assignment d. promotion

authority

It is important to put information in context, especially if it is ____________________ news.

bad

A(n) ____________________ is the original project plan plus approved changes.

baseline

A(n) ____________________ is a document prepared by sellers providing pricing for standard items that have been clearly defined by the buyer.

bid - tender - quote - quotation

A(n) ____________________ conference is a meeting with prospective sellers prior to preparation of their proposals or bids.

bidders' - bidders - supplier - pre-bid

In the ____________________ approach, team members first identify as many specific tasks related to the project as possible.

bottom-up

Project managers often use the ____ approach for projects that represent entirely new systems or approaches to doing a job, or to help create buy-in and synergy with a project team. a. analogy c. top-down b. bottom-up d. mind mapping

bottom-up

The ____ approach involves refining the work into greater and greater levels of detail. a. analogy c. top-down b. bottom-up d. mind mapping

bottom-up

A ____ is used to allocate money into an organization's budget. a. budgetary estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate b. definitive estimate d. final estimate

budgetary estimate

In a risk breakdown structure, competitors, suppliers, and cash flow are categories that fall under ____ risk. a. business c. organizational b. technical d. project management

business

Sample size = 0.25 * (____________________/acceptable error)2

certainty factor

Many experts agree that the greatest threat to the success of any project, especially information technology projects, is a failure to ____________________.

communicate

A(n) ______________________________ is a document that guides project communications.

communications management plan

With the ____, project managers use a give-and-take approach to resolving conflicts. a. confrontation mode c. smoothing mode b. compromise mode d. forcing mode

compromise mode

When the stakes are high, ____________________ is never far away.

conflict

Research indicates that project managers favor using ____ for conflict resolution over the other four modes. a. compromise c. confrontation b. smoothing d. forcing

confrontation

The ____ mode is also called the problem-solving mode. a. confrontation c. smoothing b. compromise d. forcing

confrontation

A well-written ____________________—a mutually binding agreement that obligates the seller to provide the specified products or services and obligates the buyer to pay for them—can clarify responsibilities and sharpen focus on key deliverables of a project.

contract

If a SOW is used as part of a contract to describe only the work required for that particular contract, it is called a(n) ____________________ statement of work.

contract

The communications management plan can be part of the team ____. a. WBS c. plan b. contract d. guidelines

contract

A ____ is a graphic display of data that illustrates the results of a process over time. a. statistical sampling chart c. Six Sigma chart b. Pareto chart d. control chart

control chart

The project management plan, project funding requirements, work performance data, and organizational process assets are inputs for the process of ____. a. controlling costs c. consolidating costs b. budgeting costs d. estimating costs

controlling costs

Outputs from ____ include performance measurements, organizational process assets updates, change requests, project management plan updates, and project document updates. a. estimating activity durations c. controlling the schedule b. developing schedules d. estimating activity resources

controlling the schedule

Many studies define project success as meeting project scope, time, and ____________________ goals.

cost

A ____ is a time-phased budget that project managers use to measure and monitor cost performance. a. budget baseline c. cost baseline b. ledger d. cost line

cost baseline

In addition to providing input for budgetary estimates, cost budgeting provides a(n) ____________________.

cost baseline

The main goal of the ____ process is to produce a cost baseline for measuring project performance and project funding requirements. a. cost budgeting c. cost control b. cost consolidation d. cost estimating

cost budgeting

The main outputs of the ____________________ process are a cost performance baseline, project funding requirements, and project document updates.

cost budgeting

The main outputs of the ____________________ process are work performance measurements, budget forecasts, organizational process asset updates, change requests, project management plan updates, and project document updates.

cost control

In practice, many people find that using a combination or hybrid approach involving analogous, bottom up, and/or parametric modeling provides the best ____________________.

cost estimates

The main outputs of the ____________________ process are activity cost estimates, basis of estimates, and project document updates.

cost estimating

A(n) ____________________ is a document that describes how the organization will manage cost variances on the project.

cost management plan

The ____________________ means taking responsibility for failures or not meeting quality expectations.

cost of nonconformance

A(n) ____________________ for a project is the series of activities that determine the earliest time by which the project can be completed.

critical path

The ____ ultimately decides if quality is acceptable. a. project team c. project manager b. CEO d. customer

customer

A(n) ____ is a diagramming analysis technique used to help select the best course of action in situations in which future outcomes are uncertain. a. decision tree c. Monte Carlo analysis b. EMV d. watch list

decision tree

A(n) ____ is any instance where the product or service fails to meet customer requirements. a. defect c. error b. failure d. recall

defect

Only after meeting ____________________ needs can individuals act upon growth needs.

deficiency

The bottom four needs in Maslow's structure are referred to as ____ needs. a. self-actualization c. safety b. deficiency d. growth

deficiency

Important tools used in the ____ phase of the DMAIC process include a project charter, a description of customer requirements, process maps, and Voice of the Customer (VOC) data. a. define c. analyze b. measure d. improve

define

The goal of ____ is to ensure that the project team has complete understanding of all the work they must do as part of the project scope so they can start scheduling the work. a. defining activities c. estimating activity resources b. sequencing activities d. estimating activity durations

defining activities

The main outputs of the ____ process are an activity list, activity attributes, milestone list, and requested changes. a. defining activities c. resource estimating activities b. sequencing activities d. duration estimating activities

defining activities

A ____ is used for making many purchasing decisions for which accurate estimates are required and for estimating final project costs. a. budgetary estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate b. definitive estimate d. final estimate

definitive estimate

If the cost estimate will be the basis for contract awards and performance reporting, it should be a ____ and as accurate as possible. a. budgetary estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate b. definitive estimate d. final estimate

definitive estimate

The term ____ describes a product produced as part of a project. a. end-product c. deliverable b. scope d. outcome

deliverable

According to the guideline governing ____, many meetings are most effective with the minimum number of participants possible. a. determining if a meeting can be avoided b. determining who should attend the meeting c. defining the purpose and intended outcome of the meeting d. running the meeting professionally

determining who should attend the meeting

The main outputs of ____ process are team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factors update. a. managing the project team c. developing the project team b. acquiring the project team d. human resource planning

developing the project team

The ultimate goal of ____ is to create a realistic project schedule that provides a basis for monitoring project progress for the time dimension of the project. a. defining activities c. developing the schedule b. sequencing activities d. estimating activity duration

developing the schedule

Project managers should focus on ____, since they can control them. a. sunk costs c. direct costs b. indirect costs d. intangible costs

direct costs

It's important for the team to ____________________ assumptions they made when developing the cost baseline and have several experts review it.

document

Since organizations depend on reliable information technology, there are also huge costs associated with ____. a. work time c. uptime b. technical planning d. downtime

downtime

One of the first reality checks on scheduling that a project manager should make is to review the ____________________ usually included in the project charter.

draft schedule

The activity list, activity attributes, activity resource requirements, resource calendars, project scope statement, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets all include information that affect ____. a. definitions c. resource estimates b. sequences d. duration estimates

duration estimates

According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) ____ is the only method that is "excellent" for encouraging creative thinking. a. phone call c. meeting b. e-mail d. Web Site

e-mail

Outputs of ____________________ include activity duration estimates and project documentation updates.

estimating activity durations

Experts in source selection highly recommend that buyers use formal proposal ____________________ sheets during source selection.

evaluation

Understanding the stakeholders' ____________________ can help in managing issues.

expectations

Project sponsors can usually rank scope, time, and cost goals in order of importance in a(n) ____. a. expectations management matrix c. issue log b. responsibility assignment matrix d. priority matrix

expectations management matrix

The ______________________________ includes a list of measures of success as well as priorities, expectations, and guidelines related to each measure.

expectations management matrix

Many users prefer ____ to learn how to use a new system. a. phone conversations c. e-mail conversations b. face-to-face meetings d. reading user guides

face-to-face meetings

Critical chain scheduling protects tasks on the critical chain from being delayed by using ____, which consist of additional time added before tasks on the critical chain that are preceded by non-critical-path tasks. a. critical paths c. dummy activities b. feeding buffers d. fast tracking

feeding buffers

The first step in the framework for defining and assigning work is ____. a. defining how the work will be accomplished b. breaking down the work into manageable elements c. finalizing the project requirements d. assigning work responsibilities

finalizing the project requirements

Information technology project managers need to be able to present and discuss project information in ____________________ terms as well as in technical terms.

financial

In a ____ relationship, one task cannot finish before another finishes. a. start-to-start c. finish-to-finish b. finish-to-start d. start-to-finish

finish-to-finish

In a ____ relationship, the "from" activity must finish before the "to" activity can start. a. start-to-start c. finish-to-finish b. finish-to-start d. start-to-finish

finish-to-start

A(n) _________________________ contract has the least amount of risk for the buyer.

firm-fixed price (FFP) - firm-fixed price - FFP

It took only ____ years for 50 million people to use the Internet compared to 25 years for 50 million people to use telephones. a. three c. seven b. five d. nine

five

There are ____ main processes involved in project scope management. a. three c. five b. four d. six

five

System or process ____________________ are diagrams that show how different parts of a system interrelate.

flowcharts

When using the ____, project managers exert their viewpoint at the potential expense of another viewpoint. a. confrontation mode c. smoothing mode b. compromise mode d. forcing mode

forcing mode

A(n) ____________________ determines the early start and early finish dates for each activity.

forward pass

Human resource management includes ____ processes. a. three c. five b. four d. six

four

There are ____ main processes in project communications management. a. two c. four b. three d. five

four

There are ____ main processes of project procurement management. a. three c. five b. four d. six

four

Tom DeMarco, a well-known author on software development, suggests ____ reasons for the inaccuracies of many information technology project cost estimates and some ways to overcome them. a. three c. five b. four d. six

four

Project team members may become stagnant or develop ____________________—conformance to the values or ethical standards of a group—if there are no conflicting viewpoints on various aspects of a project.

groupthink

The highest level of needs in Maslow's structure is referred to as a ____ need. a. deficiency c. safety b. growth d. physiological

growth

Often, many non-technical professionals—from colleagues to managers—prefer to ____ about project information to try to find pertinent information. a. read detailed reports c. read Web pages b. read e-mails d. have a two-way conversation

have a two-way conversation

If organizations want to be successful at implementing information technology projects, they need to understand the importance of project ____________________ and take actions to make effective use of people.

human resource management

The ____________________ often includes an organizational chart for the project, detailed information on roles and responsibilities, and a staffing management plan.

human resource plan

The main output of the ____________________ process is the start of a risk register.

identifying risks

As the number of people involved in a project ____, the complexity of communications ____. a. increases, decreases c. increases, stays constant b. decreases, increases d. increases, increases

increases, increases

A(n) ____ represents decision problems by displaying essential elements, including decisions, uncertainties, causality, and objectives, and how they influence each other. a. risk breakdown structure c. process flow chart b. influence diagram d. system flow chart

influence diagram

William Ibbs and Young H. Kwak's study revealed that the ____ industry had the lowest level of project management maturity in the area of quality management. a. engineering/construction c. information systems b. telecommunications d. high-tech manufacturing

information systems

William Ibbs and Young H. Kwak's study revealed that the ____ industry had the lowest level of project management maturity in the area of risk management. a. engineering/construction c. information systems b. telecommunications d. high-tech manufacturing

information systems

Inadequate planning, poor resource allocation, poor integration management, and lack of post-project review are risk conditions associated with the ____________________ project management knowledge area.

integration

Many project managers keep a(n) ____________________ to document, monitor, and track issues that need to be resolved for the project team to work effectively.

issue log

The ____ for an activity is the latest possible time an activity might begin without delaying the project finish date. a. early entry date c. late start date b. late entry date d. early start date

late start date

It takes ____ to help improve communication. a. timing c. leadership b. highly skilled employees d. outside consultants

leadership

A(n) _________________________ is a reflective statement documenting important things they have learned from working on the project.

lessons-learned report

Some items discussed in a(n) ____ include reflections on whether project goals were met, whether the project was successful or not, the causes of variances on the project, the reasoning behind corrective actions chosen, the use of different project management tools and techniques, and personal words of wisdom based on team members' experiences. a. final project report c. audit report b. design document d. lessons-learned report

lessons-learned report

Resource ____________________ aims to minimize period-by-period variations in resource loading by shifting tasks within their slack allowances.

leveling

Project managers should try to ____________________ the size of teams or sub teams to avoid making communications too complex.

limit

Many experts believe that the difference between good project managers and excellent project managers is their ability to nurture relationships and use empathic ____________________ skills.

listening

The critical path is the ____ path through a network diagram, and it represents the ____ time it takes to complete a project. a. longest; longest c. shortest; longest b. longest; shortest d. shortest; shortest

longest; shortest

Juran's final step to quality improvement is ____. a. organize to reach the goals (establish a quality council, identify problems, select projects, appoint teams, designate facilitators) b. keep score c. report progress d. maintain momentum by making annual improvement part of the regular systems and processes of the company

maintain momentum by making annual improvement part of the regular systems and processes of the company

A(n) ____________________ decision is one in which an organization decides if it is in its best interests to make certain products or perform certain services inside the organization, or if it is better to buy them from an outside organization.

make-or-buy

According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) ____ is the most appropriate method for giving complex instructions. a. phone call c. meeting b. e-mail d. Web Site

meeting

Examples of common ____________________ include failure rates of products produced, availability of goods and services, and customer satisfaction ratings.

metrics

A(n) ____________________ on a project is a significant event that normally has no duration.

milestone

Examples of risk ____________________ include using proven technology, having competent project personnel, using various analysis and validation techniques, and buying maintenance or service agreements from subcontractors.

mitigation

Managers like to see progress made on projects approximately each ____________________.

month

Psychosocial issues that affect how people work and how well they work include ____________________, influence and power, and effectiveness.

motivation

Herzberg called factors that cause job satisfaction ____________________.

motivators

In general, ____________________ numbers for cost and schedule variance indicate problems in those areas.

negative

A(n) ____________________ is a schematic display of the logical relationships among, or sequencing of, project activities.

network diagram

In a network diagram, a(n) ____________________ is simply the starting and ending point of an activity.

node

A ____ is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical regarding the average value of the population (the data being analyzed). a. skewed distribution c. polynomial distribution b. normal distribution d. symmetrical distribution

normal distribution

Two people have ____ communications channel(s). a. zero c. two b. one d. three

one

For many projects, properly ____ some information technology functions can be a great investment. a. outsourcing c. increasing b. scaling d. planning

outsourcing

____ contracts involve a fixed total price for a well-defined product or service. a. CPFF c. Cost-reimbursable b. Lump sum d. Time and material

outsourcing

A(n) ____ might provide an estimate of $50 per line of code for a software development project based on the programming language the project is using, the level of expertise of the programmers, the size and complexity of the data involved, and so on. a. analogous cost estimate c. bottom-up estimate b. parametric model d. reserve analysis

parametric model

In the Tuckman model, ____ occurs when the emphasis is on reaching the team goals, rather than working on team process. a. performing c. forming b. norming d. storming

performing

At the bottom of Maslow's structure are ____ needs. a. esteem c. physiological b. self-actualization d. social

physiological

The output of the ____ process is a communications management plan. a. reporting performance c. managing stakeholder expectations b. distributing information d. planning communications

planning communications

Many organizations now collect and control an entire suite of projects or investments as one set of interrelated activities in one place, called a(n) ____________________.

portfolio

Risk management can have a(n) ____________________ impact on selecting projects, determining the scope of projects, and developing realistic schedules and cost estimates.

positive

Covey, like Maslow, believes that people have the ability to be ____________________ and choose their responses to different situations.

proactive

A project manager can chart the probability and impact of risks on a ____. a. risk ranking chart c. probability/impact matrix b. risk probability table d. risk assessment matrix

probability/impact matrix

The term ____________________ is widely used in government.

procurement

Tools to assist in contract closure include ____________________ , negotiated settlements, and a records management system.

procurement audits

Team leaders often create consolidated ____________________ based on the information received from team members.

progress reports

Using good ____________________ can change the false perception that costs grow and failures are to be expected.

project cost management

Top management and ____________________ can have the greatest impact on the quality of projects by doing a good job of quality assurance.

project managers

The purpose of ____________________ is to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken.

project quality management - quality management

Project managers must use discipline to control ____. a. project bursts c. project critical paths b. project schedules d. project dependencies

project schedules

According to Thamhain and Wilemon, ____ is the ability to improve a worker's position. a. authority c. expertise b. assignment d. promotion

promotion

A(n) ____________________ is a document prepared by a seller when there are different approaches for meeting buyer needs.

proposal

All meetings should have a(n) ____________________ and intended outcome.

purpose

The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) defines ____________________ as "the totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs."

quality

Performing ____________________ involves periodically evaluating overall project performance to ensure that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.

quality assurance

A(n) ____________________ is a structured review of specific quality management activities that help identify lessons learned that could improve performance on current or future projects.

quality audit

Performing _________________________ involves monitoring specific project results to ensure that they comply with the relevant quality standards while identifying ways to improve overall quality.

quality control

The ____ process is often associated with the technical tools and techniques of quality management, such as Pareto charts, quality control charts, and statistical sampling. a. quality planning c. quality assurance b. quality certification d. quality control

quality control

The main outputs of ____ are a quality management plan, quality metrics, quality checklists, a process improvement plan, and project document updates. a. quality control c. quality assurance b. quality planning d. quality certification

quality planning

A(n) ____________________ system provides the ability to easily organize, find, and archive procurement-related documents.

records management

Project management software highlights the critical path in ____ on a network diagram. a. blue c. green b. yellow d. red

red COMPLETION

The outputs of the _________________________ process are performance reports, organizational process assets updates, and change requests.

reporting performance

A ____ is a hierarchical structure that identifies the project's resources by category and type. a. work breakdown structure c. network diagram b. resource breakdown structure d. critical path analysis

resource breakdown structure

A(n) ____ is a column chart that shows the number of resources assigned to a project over time. a. responsibility assignment matrix c. RACI charts b. resource histogram d. organizational breakdown structure

resource histogram

On a network diagram, all arrowheads should face toward the ____. a. top c. right b. left d. bottom

right

A project ____________________ is an uncertainty that can have a negative or positive effect on meeting project objectives.

risk

A(n) _________________________ is a hierarchy of potential risk categories for a project.

risk breakdown structure

A(n) ____________________ documents the procedures for managing risk throughout the project.

risk management plan

The ____________________ is the person who will own or take responsibility for the risk.

risk owner

A(n) ____________________ is a document that contains results of various risk management processes.

risk register

Utility rises at a decreasing rate for a ____ person. a. risk-seeking c. risk-neutral b. risk-averse d. risk-indifferent

risk-averse

Those who are ____ have a higher tolerance for risk, and their satisfaction increases when more payoff is at stake. a. risk-seeking c. risk-neutral b. risk-averse d. risk-indifferent

risk-seeking

Communication skills training usually includes ____________________ activities in which participants learn concepts such as building rapport.

role-playing - role playing

A ____ is done very early in a project or even before a project is officially started. a. budgetary estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate b. definitive estimate d. final estimate

rough order of magnitude estimate

A ____ provides an estimate of what a project will cost. a. budgetary estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate b. definitive estimate d. final estimate

rough order of magnitude estimate

According to the guideline governing ____, designate someone to take minutes and send the minutes out soon after the meeting. a. running the meeting professionally b. providing an agenda to participants before the meeting c. determining who should attend the meeting d. building relationships

running the meeting professionally

Many organizations use ____ and templates to generate SOWs. a. details c. plans b. outlines d. samples

samples

Many practitioners define project success as ____. a. meeting project scope goals c. satisfying the customer/sponsor b. meeting time goals d. meeting cost goals

satisfying the customer/sponsor

The goal of ____ is to know the status of the schedule, influence the factors that cause schedule changes, determine that the schedule has changed, and manage changes when they occur. a. activity duration estimating c. schedule control b. schedule development d. activity resource estimating

schedule control

The main outputs of ____________________ include work performance measurements, organizational process assets updates, such as lessons-learned reports related to schedule control, change requests, project management plan updates, and project document updates.

schedule control

The ____________________ statement clearly defines mandatory requirements and optional requirements.

scope

Many professionals use ____________________ to help make several common business decisions, such as determining break-even points based on different assumptions.

sensitivity analysis

The ____ states that if seven data points in a row are all below the mean, above the mean, or are all increasing or decreasing, then the process needs to be examined for non-random problems. a. ten run rule c. seven run rule b. six 9s of quality rule d. Six Sigma rule

seven run rule

Since information technology projects often require a lot of coordination, it is a good idea to have ____ meetings. a. long, frequent c. short, frequent b. short, infrequent d. long, infrequent

short, frequent

Four people have ____ communications channel(s). a. one c. six b. four d. eight

six

There are ____ main processes involved in project time management. a. two c. six b. four d. ten

six

There are ____ major processes involved in risk management. a. three c. five b. four d. six

six

A white diamond on the Tracking Gantt chart represents a(n) ____________________.

slipped milestone

When using the ____, the project manager deemphasizes or avoids areas of differences and emphasizes areas of agreement. a. confrontation mode c. smoothing mode b. withdrawal mode d. forcing mode

smoothing mode

Watts S. Humphrey defines a(n) ____________________ as anything that must be changed before delivery of the program.

software defect

Selecting suppliers or sellers, often called ____________________ selection, involves evaluating proposals or bids from sellers, choosing the best one, negotiating the contract, and awarding the contract.

source

The ______________________________ analysis includes information such as the contact person for the information, when the information is due, and the preferred format for the information.

stakeholder communications

The ____ serves as a good starting point for information distribution. a. stakeholder communications analysis c. communications management plan b. WBS d. status report

stakeholder communications analysis

Having ____ review and approve all stakeholder communications analysis will ensure that the information is correct and useful. a. stakeholders c. top management b. project team members d. customers

stakeholders

In a(n) ____________________ relationship, the "from" activity must start before the "to" activity can be finished.

start-to-finish

In a ____ relationship, the "from" activity cannot start until the "to" activity is started. a. start-to-start c. finish-to-finish b. finish-to-start d. start-to-finish

start-to-start

An important technique for performance reporting is the ____________________ review meeting.

status

In the Tuckman model, ____ occurs as team members have different opinions as to how the team should operate. a. performing c. forming b. norming d. storming

storming

The ____ line for any e-mail messages you write should clearly state the intention of the e-mail. a. to c. subject b. from d. cc

subject

Many organizations use samples and ____________________ to generate SOWs.

templates

Many project management software programs come with ____________________ or sample files.

templates

A(n) ____________________ is a contract clause that allows the buyer or supplier to end the contract.

termination clause

Project quality management involves ____ main processes. a. two c. four b. three d. five

three

Buyers typically develop a short list of the top ____ suppliers to reduce the work involved in selecting a source. a. one to two c. eight to ten b. three to five d. twelve to fifteen

three to five

Duration estimates are often provided as a discrete number, such as four weeks, or as a range, such as three to five weeks, or as a(n) ____________________.

three-point estimate

The idea of striving to balance risks and opportunities suggests that different organizations and people have different ____________________ for risk.

tolerances - tolerance

Given that all projects involve _____________________ that can have negative or positive outcomes, the question is how to decide which projects to pursue and how to identify and manage project risk throughout a project's life cycle.

uncertainties - uncertainty

A(n) ____ is done to test each individual component (often a program) to ensure that it is as defect-free as possible. a. integration test c. user acceptance test b. unit test d. system test

unit test

According to the Standish Group's success potential scoring sheet, ____ has the highest relative importance. a. executive management support c. proper planning b. clear statement of requirements d. user involvement

user involvement

Standard deviation and ____________________ are fundamental concepts for understanding quality control charts.

variability

Many information technology professionals work on ____________________ projects where they never meet their project sponsors, other team members, or other project stakeholders.

virtual

A(n) ____________________ is a list of risks that are low priority, but are still identified as potential risks.

watch list

The ____________________ approach is the least desirable conflict-handling mode.

withdrawal

When using the ____, project managers retreat or withdraw from an actual or potential disagreement. a. confrontation mode c. smoothing mode b. withdrawal mode d. forcing mode

withdrawal mode

Information regarding the content of essential project communications comes from the ____. a. organizational chart c. work breakdown structure (WBS) b. communications management plan d. expectations management matrix

work breakdown structure (WBS)

Project teams sometimes use ____________________—unplanned responses to risk events—when they do not have contingency plans in place.

workarounds

The ____________________ represents the number of units handled correctly through the process steps.

yield

____ involves defining and documenting the features and functions of the products produced during the project as well as the processes used for creating them. a. Collecting requirements c. Controlling scope b. Defining scope d. Verifying scope

Collecting requirements

____ involves controlling changes to project scope throughout the life of the project, which is a challenge on many information technology projects. a. Planning scope c. Controlling scope b. Defining scope d. Verifying scope

Controlling scope

____ involves reviewing the project charter, requirements documents, and organizational process assets to create a scope statement, adding more information as requirements are developed and change requests are approved. a. Planning scope c. Controlling scope b. Defining scope d. Verifying scope

Defining scope

A WBS is often depicted as a task-oriented pie chart.

False

A project team always organizes the WBS around project products.

False

A work package should always represent less than 80 hours of work.

False

Activity information is not a required input to the other time management processes.

False

By using the PERT weighted average for each activity duration estimate, the total project duration estimate does not account for the risk or uncertainty in the individual activity estimates.

False

Deliverables are only product-related, such as a piece of hardware or software.

False

Every item on the WBS needs to be on the network diagram.

False

It is easy to create a good WBS.

False

It is not necessary to complete all of the activities on the network diagram in order for the project to finish.

False

It only takes one activity to complete a milestone.

False

Managers often cite cost issues during the end phase of a project as one of their biggest challenges and the main cause of conflict.

False

Most managers are unfamiliar with any forms of scheduling.

False

Most projects have one path through a network diagram.

False

Network diagrams are the preferred technique for showing activity discretionary dependencies.

False

Project management software does not have the capacity to automatically generate network diagrams and calculate the critical path(s) for the project.

False

Project scope statements should include, at a minimum, a product scope description and detailed information on all project deliverables.

False

Start-to-finish relationships are the most common type of relationships.

False

The critical path always includes the most critical activities.

False

The executing tasks of the WBS remain constant from project to project.

False

The format of the WBS dictionary should be the same from project to project.

False

In the WBS, the name of the entire project is the top box, called Level ____. a. 0 c. 2 b. 1 d. 3

1

In the WBS, the main groupings for the work are listed in Level ____. a. 0 c. 2 b. 1 d. 3

2

____________________ can be used for developing WBSs using the top-down or bottom-up approach.

Mind mapping

____________________ is a technique that uses branches radiating out from a core idea to structure thoughts and ideas.

Mind mapping

____________________ involves controlling changes to the project scope.

Scope control

____________________ is the tendency for project scope to keep getting bigger and bigger.

Scope creep

____ involves formal acceptance of the completed project scope by the stakeholders. a. Scope verification c. Scope control b. Scope planning d. Scope definition

Scope verification

A Tracking Gantt chart is based on the percentage of work completed for project tasks or the actual start and finish dates.

True

A fast and easy way to determine early and late start and finish dates and free and total slack amounts for activities is by using project management software.

True

A unit of work should appear at only one place in the WBS.

True

A work package represents the level of work that the project manager monitors and controls.

True

After defining project activities, the next step in project time management is sequencing them or determining their dependencies.

True

Even though the delivery of new hardware may not be in the scope of a project, you should add an external dependency to it.

True

Fast tracking can end up lengthening the project schedule.

True

If you want some time-based flow for the work, you can create a WBS using the project management process groups of initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing as Level 2 in the WBS.

True

In a Gantt chart created in Microsoft Project, a black diamond symbol represents a milestone.

True

Individual work styles and cultural differences may cause schedule conflicts.

True

Information from the project charter provides a basis for further defining the project scope.

True

It is important that the people who help determine what resources are necessary include people who have experience and expertise in similar projects and with the organization performing the project.

True

Lack of user input leads to problems with managing scope creep and controlling change.

True

Many information technology projects also require detailed functional and design specifications for developing software, which also should be referenced in the detailed scope statement.

True

Many information technology projects are failures in terms of meeting scope, time, and cost projections.

True

Many organizations provide guidelines and templates for developing WBSs.

True

Many projects, especially in information technology, have very unrealistic schedule expectations.

True

One of PERT's main disadvantages is that it involves more work than CPM.

True

Project schedules grow out of the basic documents that initiate a project.

True

Project scope management includes the processes involved in defining and controlling what is or is not included in a project.

True

Schedule performance can be estimated by subtracting the original time estimate from how long it really took to complete the project.

True

Scope refers to all the work involved in creating the products of the project and the processes used to create them.

True

The project scope statement should reference supporting documents, such as product specifications that will affect what products are produced or purchased, or corporate policies, which might affect how products or services are produced.

True

The project scope statement, stakeholder requirements documentation, and organizational process assets are the primary inputs for creating a WBS.

True

The tasks in a WBS do not have to be developed as a sequential list of steps.

True

You can only enter duration estimates for work packages.

True

____ is a process for identifying and modeling business events, who initiated them, and how the system should respond to them. a. Prototyping c. RAD b. JAD d. Use case modeling

Use case modeling

____________________ is the difference between planned and actual performance.

Variance

____ involves formalizing acceptance of the project deliverables and during this phase the key project stakeholders, such as the customer and sponsor for the project, inspect and then formally accept the deliverables during this process. a. Planning scope c. Controlling scope b. Defining scope d. Verifying scope

Verifying scope

Creating the ____________________ involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components.

WBS - work breakdown structure - work breakdown structure (WBS)

Some project management experts believe that work should not be done on a project if it is not included in the ____________________.

WBS - work breakdown structure - work breakdown structure (WBS)

A(n) ____________________ is a document that describes detailed information about each WBS item.

WBS dictionary

In the ____, you use a similar project's WBS as a starting point. a. top-down approach c. mind-mapping approach b. bottom-up approach d. analogy approach

analogy approach

The ____ approach is best suited to project managers who have vast technical insight and a big-picture perspective. a. analogy c. top-down b. bottom-up d. mind mapping

bottom-up

The ____ tasks vary the most from project to project. a. closing c. planning b. monitoring and controlling d. executing

executing

If ____________________ for developing a WBS exist, it is very important to follow them.

guidelines

The main tool for performing scope verification is ____________________.

inspection

After discovering WBS items and structure using the ____ technique, you could then translate the information into chart or tabular form. a. analogy c. top-down b. bottom-up d. mind mapping

mind mapping

Key inputs for preparing the project scope statement include the ____________________, requirements documentation, and organizational process assets such as policies and procedures related to scope statements as well as project files and lessons learned from previous, similar projects.

project charter

Factors such as user involvement, clear business objectives, a minimized or clearly defined scope, and firm basic requirements, are elements of ____________________.

project scope management

An up-to-date ____ is an important document for developing and confirming a common understanding of the project scope. a. scope management plan c. WBS b. project scope statement d. decomposition

project scope statement

The main outputs of scope definition are the ____________________ and project document updates.

project scope statement

Of the following constraints, it is most difficult to describe, agree upon, and meet the ____ goal of many projects. a. scope c. cost b. time d. technical

scope

The approved project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary form the ____________________.

scope baseline

The goal of ____ is to influence the factors that cause scope changes, assure changes are processed according to procedures developed as part of integrated change control, and manage changes when they occur. a. scope verification c. scope planning b. scope control d. scope definition

scope control

Good ____ is very important to project success because it helps improve the accuracy of time, cost, and resource estimates, it defines a baseline for performance measurement and project control, and it aides in communicating clear work responsibilities. a. scope planning c. scope definition b. scope management d. scope verification

scope definition

The main outputs of ____________________ are the project scope statement and updates to project documents.

scope definition

The ____ should list and describe all of the deliverables required for the project. a. project charter c. WBS b. scope statement d. Gantt chart

scope statement

Many people confuse tasks on a WBS with ____. a. goals c. responsibilities b. objectives d. specifications

specifications

The project scope statement should reference ____________________, such as product specifications that will affect what products are produced or purchased, or corporate policies, which might affect how products or services are produced.

supporting documents

PMI uses the term "___________________" to describe each level of work in the WBS.

task

A(n) ____________________ project scope statement is an important document for developing and confirming a common understanding of the project scope.

up-to-date - up to date -

The main outputs of ____ are accepted deliverables and change requests. a. planning scope c. defining scope b. controlling scope d. verifying scope

verifying scope

A(n) ____ is a deliverable-oriented grouping of the work involved in a project that defines the total scope of the project. a. project charter c. project scope statement b. business case d. work breakdown structure

work breakdown structure

A(n) ____________________ is a task at the lowest level of the WBS.

work package