Project MGMT Final
Psychologist David Merril describes ____ as reactive and people-oriented. a. "Expressives" c. "Analyticals" b. "Drivers" d. "Amiables"
"Amiables" COMPLETION
Psychologist David Merril describes ____ as reactive and task-oriented. a. "Expressives" c. "Analyticals" b. "Drivers" d. "Amiables"
"Analyticals"
An October 2005 Information Technology Association of America (ITAA)-sponsored report stated that total savings from offshore resources during the 2005-2010 period are estimated to grow from $8.7 billion to ____. a. $10.2 billion c. $50.4 billion b. $20.4 billion d. $107.9 billion
$20.4 billion
Using simplified percentage complete amounts for a one-year project with weekly reporting and an average task or work packet size of one week, you can expect about a(n) ____ percent error rate. a. 1 c. 11 b. 5 d. 15
1 COMPLETION
Abraham Maslow, a highly respected psychologist, rejected the dehumanizing negativism of psychology in the ____. a. 1940s c. 1960s b. 1950s d. 1970s
1950s
An October 2005 Information Technology Association of America (ITAA)-sponsored report stated that spending for global sources of computer software and services is expected to grow at a compound annual rate of about ____ percent. a. 10 c. 30 b. 20 d. 40
20
Six Sigma's target for perfection is the achievement of no more than ____ defects, errors, or mistakes per million opportunities. a. 1.34 c. 34 b. 3.4 d. 340
3.4
Three separate surveys of software project cost overruns found that the average cost overrun for all of the projects in their survey samples (not just unsuccessful projects) were ____ percent. a. 13-14 c. 33-34 b. 23-24 d. 43-44
33-34
There are ____________________ main types of power, based on French and Raven's classic study, "The Bases of Social Power."
5
The Standish Group's CHAOS studies reported an average cost overrun for unsuccessful IT projects ranged from 180 percent in 1994 to ____ percent in 2004. a. 28 c. 56 b. 43 d. 73
56
Many people cite research that says in a face-to-face interaction, ____ percent of communication is through body language. a. 10 c. 58 b. 25 d. 85
58
KLCI Research Group's 2001 survey revealed that ____ percent of the organizations surveyed had a Project Management Office. a. 64 c. 85 b. 75 d. 94
64
KLCI Research Group's 2001 survey revealed that ____ percent identified anticipating and avoiding problems as the primary benefit of risk management. a. 60 c. 89 b. 80 d. 99
80
A certainty factor of 1.960 is used for ____ percent desired certainty. a. 75 c. 96 b. 95 d. 99
95
KLCI Research Group's 2001 survey revealed that ____ percent of the participants said they had procedures in place to identify and assess risk. a. 75 c. 97 b. 87 d. 99
97
In any normal distribution, ____ percent of the population is within three standard deviations of the mean. a. 95.5 c. 99.7 b. 99.0 d. 99.9
99.7
____ involves allocating the overall cost estimate to individual work items to establish a baseline for measuring performance. a. Determining the budget c. Controlling costs b. Consolidation of costs d. Estimating costs
A
The ____ is the total direct and indirect costs incurred in accomplishing work on an activity during a given period. a. AC c. RP b. EV d. PV
AC
____ is best known for developing a hierarchy of needs. a. Frederick Herzberg c. Abraham Maslow b. David McClelland d. Douglas McGregor
Abraham Maslow
____determine(s) if the products or services produced as part of the project will be accepted or rejected. a. Process adjustments c. Acceptance decisions b. Rework d. Auditing
Acceptance decisions
"Organizations can gain access to specific skills and technologies when they are required by using outside resources." refers to the ____ benefit of outsourcing. a. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs b. Provide flexibility c. Access skills and technologies d. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business
Access skills and technologies
____________________ should receive frequent performance feedback, and although money is not an important motivator to them, it is an effective form of feedback.
Achievers
____ involves getting the needed personnel assigned to and working on the project. a. Developing the human resource plan c. Acquiring the project team b. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team
Acquiring the project team
____ involves managing relationships with sellers, monitoring contract performance, and making changes as needed. a. Closing procurements c. Requesting seller responses b. Selecting sellers d. Administering procurements
Administering procurements
"Most organizations are not in business to provide information technology services, yet many have spent valuable time and resources on information technology functions when they should have focused on core competencies such as marketing, customer service, and new product design." refers to the ____ benefit of outsourcing. a. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs b. Provide flexibility c. Access skills and technologies d. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business
Allow the client organization to focus on its core business
____ use the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. a. Actual estimates c. Bottom-up estimates b. Parametric estimates d. Analogous estimates
Analogous estimates
____ is the cost of evaluating processes and their outputs to ensure that a project is error-free or within an acceptable error range. a. Prevention cost c. Internal failure cost b. Appraisal cost d. External failure cost
Appraisal cost
What is the first step in a Monte Carlo analysis? a. Determine the probability distribution of each variable. b. For each variable, such as the time estimate for a task, select a random value based on the probability distribution for the occurrence of the variable. c. Assess the range for the variables being considered. d. Run a deterministic analysis or one pass through the model using the combination of values selected for each one of the variables.
Assess the range for the variables being considered.
____ generates ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products within or outside the performing organization. a. Design of experiments c. Testing b. Quality auditing d. Benchmarking
Benchmarking
____ involve estimating individual work items or activities and summing them to get a project total. a. Actual estimates c. Bottom-up estimates b. Parametric estimates d. Analogous estimates
Bottom-up estimates
____________________ is a technique by which a group attempts to generate ideas or find a solution for a specific problem by amassing ideas spontaneously and without judgment.
Brainstorming
____ occur when two or more activities follow a single node. a. Combinations c. Merges b. Conflicts d. Bursts
Bursts
The ____ is the ratio of earned value to actual cost and can be used to estimate the projected cost of completing the project. a. SV c. CPI b. CV d. SPI
C
____ helps integrate traditionally separate organizational functions, set process improvement goals and priorities, provide guidance for quality processes, and provide a point of reference for appraising current processes. a. SQFD c. SQMMI b. CMM d. CMMI
CMMI COMPLETION
With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs plus a fixed fee payment usually based on a percentage of estimated costs. a. CPFF c. CPPC b. CPIF d. CPPF
CPFF
The ____ is the ratio of earned value to planned value and can be used to estimate the projected time to complete the project. a. SV c. CPI b. CV d. SPI
CPI
____________________ and SPI less than one or less than 100 percent indicate problems.
CPI - Cost performance index - Cost performance index (CPI)
With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs along with a predetermined fee and an incentive bonus. a. CPFF c. CPPC b. CPIF d. CPPF
CPIF
From the supplier's perspective, there is the least risk with a(n) ____ contract. a. CPFF c. CPPC b. FFP d. CPFF
CPPC
With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs along with a predetermined percentage based on total costs. a. CPFF c. CPPC b. CPIF d. CPPF
CPPC
____ is the earned value minus the actual cost. a. SV c. CPI b. CV d. SPI
CV
____ is a method for determining the estimated annual costs and benefits for a project and the resulting annual cash flow. a. Life cycle costing c. Cost estimating b. Profit margin analysis d. Cash flow analysis
Cash flow analysis
____________________ diagrams trace complaints about quality problems back to the responsible production operations.
Cause-and-effect - Fishbone - Ishikawa
____________________ based on risks that have been encountered in previous projects provide a meaningful template for understanding risks in a current project.
Checklists
____ involves completion and settlement of each contract, including resolution of any open items. a. Exiting procurements c. Closing procurements b. Closing out accounts d. Ending procurements
Closing procurements
____________________ involves completion and settlement of each contract, including resolution of any open items.
Closing procurements
____ involves using punishment, threats, or other negative approaches to get people to do things they do not want to do. a. Legitimate power c. Reward power b. Coercive power d. Referent power
Coercive power
Outputs to the ____ process include selected sellers, procurement contract awards, resource calendars, change requests, and updates to the project management plan and other project documents. a. Closing the contract c. Requesting seller responses b. Conducting procurements d. Administering the contract
Conducting procurements
____ involves obtaining seller responses, selecting sellers, and awarding contracts. a. Conducting procurements c. Requesting seller responses b. Selecting sellers d. Planning purchases and acquisitions
Conducting procurements
____ means the project's processes and products meet written specifications. a. Conformance to requirements c. Quality conformance b. Fitness for use d. Documentation matching
Conformance to requirements
____ change orders are oral or written acts or omissions by someone with actual or apparent authority that can be construed to have the same effect as a written change order. a. Direct c. Destructive b. Constructive d. Instructive
Constructive COMPLETION
____ are predefined actions that the project team will take if an identified risk event occurs. a. Fallback plans c. Contingency plans b. Contingency reserves d. Contingency allowances
Contingency plans
____ allow for future situations that may be partially planned for. a. Contingency reserves c. Unknown unknowns b. Management reserves d. Direct reserves
Contingency reserves
_________________________ are provisions held by the project sponsor or organization to reduce the risk of cost or schedule overruns to an acceptable level.
Contingency reserves - Contingency allowances
____ involves controlling and managing changes to the project schedule. a. Estimating activity durations c. Controlling the schedule b. Developing the schedule d. Estimating activity resources
Controlling the schedule
____ involve payment to the supplier for direct and indirect actual costs. a. CPFF contracts c. Cost-reimbursable contracts b. Lump sum contracts d. Time and material contracts
Cost-reimbursable contracts
____ is a technique for making cost and schedule trade-offs to obtain the greatest amount of schedule compression for the least incremental cost. a. Crushing c. Fast tracking b. Crashing d. Expediting
Crashing
____ is a method of scheduling that considers limited resources when creating a project schedule and includes buffers to protect the project completion date. a. A Gantt chart c. Critical chain scheduling b. Critical path analysis d. PERT analysis
Critical chain scheduling
____ is a network diagramming technique used to predict total project duration. a. A Gantt chart c. Critical chain scheduling b. Critical path analysis d. PERT analysis
Critical path analysis
____ wrote Quality Is Free in 1979 and is best known for suggesting that organizations strive for zero defects. a. Juran c. Crosby b. Ishikawa d. Deming
Crosby
____ is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any immediately following activities. a. Total slack c. Free time b. Total float d. Free slack
DFree slack
Projects that use Six Sigma principles for quality control normally follow a five-phase improvement process called ____________________.
DMAIC
____ proposed that an individual's specific needs are acquired or learned over time and shaped by life experiences. a. Frederick Herzberg c. Abraham Maslow b. David McClelland d. Douglas McGregor
David McClelland
____ involves identifying the specific activities that the project team members and stakeholders must perform to produce the project deliverables. a. Defining activities c. Estimating activity resources b. Sequencing activities d. Estimating activity durations
Defining activities
____ results in supporting detail to document important product information as well as assumptions and constraints related to specific activities. a. Defining activities c. Estimating activity resources b. Sequencing activities d. Estimating activity duration
Defining activities
____________________ e-mail that you do not need to save or respond to.
Delete
The basic concept of the ____________________ is to derive a consensus among a panel of experts who make predictions about future developments.
Delphi technique
One of ____ 14 Points for Management states that an organization should cease dependence on inspection to achieve quality. a. Deming's c. Crosby's b. Juran's d. Ishikawa's
Deming's
____ fill in for project managers in their absence and assist them as needed. a. Deputy project managers c. Assistant project managers b. Subproject managers d. Second-tier project managers
Deputy project managers
____________________ is a quality planning technique that helps identify which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome of a process.
Design of experiments
____ involves identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships. a. Developing the human resource plan c. Acquiring the project team b. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team
Developing the human resource plan
____ involves building individual and group skills to enhance project performance. a. Developing the human resource plan c. Acquiring the project team b. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team
Developing the project team
____ involves analyzing activity sequences, activity resource estimates, and activity duration estimates to create the project schedule. a. Estimating activity durations c. Controlling the schedule b. Developing the schedule d. Estimating activity resources
Developing the schedule
____ dependencies are sometimes referred to as soft logic and should be used with care since they may limit later scheduling options. a. Mandatory c. External b. Discretionary d. Internal
Discretionary
____ involves making needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner. a. Reporting performance c. Managing stakeholder expectations b. Distributing information d. Planning communications
Distributing information
____ is best known for developing Theory X and Theory Y. a. Frederick Herzberg c. Abraham Maslow b. David McClelland d. Douglas McGregor
Douglas McGregor
A ____ person achieves a balance between risk and payoff. a. risk-seeking c. risk-fearing b. risk-averse d. risk-neutral
Drisk-neutral
____________________ have no duration and no resources but are occasionally needed on AOA network diagrams to show logical relationships between activities.
Dummy activities
The ____ is an estimate of what it will cost to complete the project based on performance to date. a. CPI c. EAC b. SV d. SPI
EAC
The cost performance index can be used to calculate the ____________________.
EAC - estimate at completion - estimate at completion (EAC)
______________________________ is the product of a risk event probability and the risk event's monetary value.
EMV - Expected monetary value - Expected monetary value (EMV)
The ____ is an estimate of the value of the physical work actually completed. a. AC c. RP b. EV d. PV
EV
Variances are calculated by subtracting the actual cost or planned value from ____. a. EV c. PV b. AC d. RP
EV
____ is a project performance measurement technique that integrates scope, time, and cost data. a. Cost baseline c. Constructive cost modeling b. Earned value management d. Parametric modeling
Earned value management
____________________ is the number of workdays or work hours required to complete a task.
Effort
____________________ is listening with the intent to understand.
Empathic listening
____ involves estimating the number of work periods that are needed to complete individual activities. a. Defining activities c. Estimating activity resources b. Sequencing activities d. Estimating activity durations
Estimating activity durations
____________________ involves estimating how many people, equipment, and materials a project team should use to perform project activities
Estimating activity resources
____ involves developing an approximation or estimate of the costs of the resources needed to complete a project. a. Determining the budget c. Controlling costs b. Consolidation of costs d. Estimating costs
Estimating costs
____ dependencies involve relationships between project and non-project activities. a. Mandatory c. External b. Discretionary d. Internal
External
____ is a cost that relates to all errors not detected and not corrected before delivery to the customer. a. Prevention cost c. Internal failure cost b. Appraisal cost d. External failure cost
External failure cost
____________________ causes people to do something for a reward or to avoid a penalty.
Extrinsic motivation
____ are developed for risks that have a high impact on meeting project objectives, and are put into effect if attempts to reduce the risk are not effective. a. Fallback plans c. Contingency plans b. Contingency reserves d. Contingency allowances
Fallback plans
A RAM should only be used to assign detailed work activities.
False
A contract SOW should not specify the location of the work.
False
A definitive estimate should be the least accurate of the three types of estimates.
False
A responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) is a matrix that maps the work of the project as described in the OBS to the people responsible for performing the work as described in the WBS.
False
A risk management review accomplishes one objective, it keeps management and the customer aware of the major influences that could prevent or enhance the project's success.
False
A simple approach to using probability/impact information is to calculate risk factors.
False
According to Herzberg, hygiene factors such as larger salaries, more supervision, or a more attractive work environment would motivate workers to do more if present.
False
According to a 2008 report on IT outsourceing trends in the U.S. and Canada, application development is the least popular form of IT outsourcing and was used by only 25 percent of organizations surveyed.
False
All of the Six Sigma principles are brand new.
False
Although information technology projects have a poor track record in meeting project goals, they have a good track record in meeting budget goals.
False
Assignment, budget, promotion, money, and penalty influence bases are automatically available to project managers as part of their position.
False
Continuous quality improvement is not a goal of quality assurance.
False
Control charts are one tool used in the analyze phase of the DMAIC process.
False
Databases are a common tool for cost estimating, cost budgeting, and cost control.
False
DeMarco and Lister found direct correlations between productivity and programming language, years of experience, and salary.
False
Design of experiments cannot be applied to project management issues such as cost and schedule trade-offs.
False
Direct costs cannot be directly attributed to a certain project.
False
Duration only includes the actual amount of time worked on an activity.
False
E-mail is always an appropriate medium for all types of communications.
False
Experts in source selection recommend that technical criteria should be given more weight than management or cost criteria.
False
Experts outside the company, including potential suppliers themselves, cannot provide expert judgment.
False
Extrinsic motivation causes people to participate in an activity for their own enjoyment.
False
Few organizations develop their own risk questionnaires.
False
Few organizations use some form of outsourcing to meet their information technology needs.
False
Getting project information to the right people at the right time and in a useful format is not as important as developing the information in the first place.
False
Good project risk management never goes unnoticed.
False
Hiring managers say interpersonal skills are the least important soft skill for information technology workers.
False
If cost variance is a positive number, it means that performing the work cost more than planned.
False
If the cost performance index is less than one or less than 100 percent, the project is under budget.
False
In TQC, product quality is less important than production rates, and workers are not allowed to stop production whenever a quality problem occurs.
False
In a Pareto chart, the variables described by the histogram are ordered chronologically.
False
In an earned value chart, when the actual cost line is right on or above the earned value line, costs are less than or equal to planned.
False
Instead of knowing the people working on their projects and developing a trusting relationship with them, many colleagues and managers should want to focus on getting information by reading technical documents.
False
Integration testing replaces the other forms of testing with a single comprehensive test.
False
It is always less effective to hire skilled consultants to perform specific tasks for a short period of time than to hire or keep employees on staff full time.
False
It is common to find someone with a natural ability for both communication and technical skills.
False
It is important to use appropriate words in a contract SOW such as may instead of must.
False
It is not good practice to include time for informal meetings with customers to help develop relationships and provide staff to assist in relationship management.
False
It is not important to document any changes in technical specifications that might affect product performance.
False
It is uncommon for people to identify problems or opportunities without really understanding them.
False
Lead times for purchases and acquisitions should not be included in a procurement management plan.
False
Learning curve theory does not apply to the amount of time it takes to complete some tasks.
False
Legitimate power involves using personal knowledge and expertise to get people to change their behavior.
False
Many private companies use the term procurement instead of purchasing.
False
Maslow suggests that each level of the hierarchy of needs is not necessarily a prerequisite for the levels above.
False
Most information technology products can reach 100 percent reliability.
False
Most people view offshore outsourcing as being good.
False
Negative and positive risks should always be included in the same probability/impact matrix or chart.
False
Negative risk management is like investing in opportunities.
False
Only in-house auditors can perform quality audits.
False
Organizational policies related to quality, the particular project's scope statement and product descriptions, and related standards and regulations are all important input to the quality assurance process.
False
Organizations have a history of spending too much money in the early phases of information technology projects.
False
Parametric models are least reliable when historical information was used to create the model.
False
People have a tendency to want to report bad information.
False
People who believe in Theory Y assume that workers dislike and avoid work if possible, so managers must use coercion, threats, and various control schemes to get workers to make adequate efforts to meet objectives.
False
Potential risks can only be identified early in a project.
False
Preparing cost estimates is a job for accountants.
False
Project managers do not need to continually assess their team's performance.
False
Project managers must realize that all conflict is bad.
False
Project managers should limit the size of work teams to eight to ten members.
False
Project team members rarely need to see all project documentation.
False
Quality is a lower priority than project scope, time, and cost.
False
Quantitative risk analysis and qualitative risk analysis must be done together.
False
Risk events refer to specific, certain events that may occur to the detriment or enhancement of the project.
False
Smaller information technology projects usually have deputy project managers or subproject managers.
False
Team members often create consolidated progress reports based on the information received from team leaders.
False
Team-building skills are often not a challenge for many project managers.
False
The WBS is not a required input to the cost budgeting process.
False
The buyer absorbs less of the risk with cost-reimbursable contracts than they do with fixed-price contracts.
False
The communications management plan should not address frequency of communication.
False
The gap between users and developers decreases as technology advances.
False
The global job market for information technology workers is contracting.
False
The information technology field is relatively stable and unchanging.
False
The last step in project risk management is deciding how to address this knowledge area for a particular project by performing risk management planning.
False
The level of detail included in the risk management plan rarely varies across projects.
False
The lower the EMV, the better.
False
The main output of qualitative risk analysis is a decision tree.
False
The main outputs of estimating activity resources includes the activity list and attributes, project scope statement, milestone list, and organizational process assets.
False
The main sections of an RFP never include the statement of work and schedule information.
False
The outputs to schedule development include activity duration estimates and project document updates.
False
The people who develop software cost estimates often have a great deal of experience with cost estimation.
False
The project scope statement provides the basis for planning and managing project schedules, costs, resources, and changes.
False
The project's size, complexity, importance, and other factors will not affect how much effort is spent on collecting requirements for scope planning.
False
The psychology literature shows that individuals, working alone, produce fewer ideas than the same individuals produce through brainstorming in small, face-to-face groups.
False
The quality planning process involves taking responsibility for quality throughout the project's life cycle.
False
The scope of a project should be clear and specific from the start.
False
The success of many information technology projects that use outside resources is often due to good project cost management.
False
The term sigma means median.
False
There does not need to be a change control system to define procedures for changing the cost baseline.
False
To obtain valid statistics, it is important to study every member of a population.
False
When an information system does not function correctly, it is generally a slight inconvenience.
False
When deciding what projects to invest in or continue, you should include sunk costs.
False
When developing an estimate for a large software project, estimates cannot be made before clear system requirements have been produced.
False
When justifying investments in new information systems and technology, the focus should only be on revenues or expenses.
False
When resources are used on a more constant basis, they require more management.
False
You can assume that a task originally scheduled to take two months of one person's time can be done in one month by two people.
False
You can separate technical skills and soft skills when working on information technology projects.
False
____ involves doing activities in parallel that you would normally do in sequence. a. Crushing c. Fast tracking b. Crashing d. Expediting
Fast tracking
____ are the system's special characteristics that appeal to users. a. Features c. Properties b. System outputs d. Functions
Features
"Will the project meet NPV, ROI, and payback estimates?" applies to which risk category? a. Financial risk c. Structure/process risk b. Technology risk d. Market risk
Financial risk
____________________ means a product can be used as it was intended.
Fitness for use
____ predict future project status and progress based on past information and trends. a. Progress reports c. Forecasts b. Status reports d. Updates
Forecasts
____ is best known for distinguishing between motivational factors and hygiene factors when considering motivation in work settings. a. Frederick Herzberg c. Abraham Maslow b. David McClelland d. Douglas McGregor
Frederick Herzberg
____ is the degree to which a system performs its intended function. a. Reliability c. Maintainability b. Performance d. Functionality
Functionality
____ provide(s) a standard format for displaying project schedule information by listing project activities and their corresponding start and finish dates in a calendar format. a. Gantt charts c. Critical chain scheduling b. Critical path analysis d. PERT analysis
Gantt charts
____ found that people were motivated to work mostly by feelings of personal achievement and recognition. a. Maslow c. McClelland b. McGregor d. Herzberg
Herzberg
Poor conflict management, poor project organization and definition of responsibilities, and absence of leadership are risk conditions associated with the ____ project management knowledge area. a. Integration c. Time b. Quality d. Human Resources
Human Resources
____, a quality system standard developed by the ISO, is a three-part, continuous cycle of planning, controlling, and documenting quality in an organization. a. IEEE 15504 c. IEEE 9000 b. ISO 9000 d. ISO 15504
ISO 9000
____ involves determining which risks are likely to affect a project and documenting the characteristics of each. a. Identifying risks c. Performing qualitative risk analysis b. Planning risk management d. Performing quantitative risk analysis
Identifying risks
____ are costs that are not directly related to the products or services of the project, but are indirectly related to performing the project. a. Intangible costs c. Direct costs b. Tangible costs d. Indirect costs
Indirect costs
____ employees are also more likely to enroll voluntarily in classes on the latest technology than those on developing their soft skills. a. Individual c. Groups of b. Service d. Team
Individual
____________________ often perform quality audits by helping to design specific quality metrics for a project and then applying and analyzing the metrics throughout the project.
Industrial engineers
____________________ costs or benefits are costs or benefits that are difficult to measure in monetary terms.
Intangible
____ is a fact-finding technique for collecting information in face-to-face, phone, e-mail, or instant-messaging discussions. a. Brainstorming c. The Delphi technique b. SWOT analysis d. Interviewing
Interviewing
____ uses highly organized and intensive workshops to bring together project stakeholders—the sponsor, users, business analysts, programmers, and so on—to jointly define and design information systems. a. Prototyping c. RAD b. JAD d. Use case modeling
JAD COMPLETION
One of ____ ten steps states that an organization should build awareness of the need and opportunity for improvement. a. Deming's c. Juran's b. Crosby's d. Ishikawa's
Juran's
____________________ costs are often much higher for contractors.
Labor
____________________ states that when many items are produced repetitively, the unit cost of those items decreases in a regular pattern as more units are produced.
Learning curve theory
____________________ is getting people to do things based on a position of authority.
Legitimate power
____ helps you develop an accurate projection of a project's financial costs and benefits. a. Profit cycle costing c. Life cycle costing b. Financial costing d. Profit margin costing
Life cycle costing
____________________ allows you to see a big-picture view of the cost of a project throughout its life cycle.
Life cycle costing
____________________ considers the total cost of ownership, or development plus support costs, for a project.
Life cycle costing
The ____________________ is a popular tool for determining personality preferences.
MBTI - Myers-Briggs Type Indicator - Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)
____ addresses the ease of performing maintenance on a product. a. Reliability c. Maintainability b. Performance d. Functionality
Maintainability
____ allow for future situations that are unpredictable. a. Contingency reserves c. Known unknowns b. Management reserves d. Indirect reserves
Management reserves
_________________________ involves managing communications to satisfy the needs and expectations of project stakeholders and to resolve issues.
Managing stakeholder expectations
____ involves tracking team member performance, motivating team members, providing timely feedback, resolving issues and conflicts, and coordinating changes to help enhance project performance. a. Developing the human resource plan c. Acquiring the project team b. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team
Managing the project team
____ dependencies are inherent in the nature of the work being performed on a project. a. Mandatory c. External b. Discretionary d. Internal
Mandatory
"If the information technology project is to produce a new product or service, will it be useful to the organization or marketable to others?" applies to which risk category? a. Financial risk c. Structure/process risk b. Technology risk d. Market risk
Market risk
____ is matching certain behaviors of the other person. a. Empathic listening c. Synergy b. Rapport d. Mirroring
Mirroring
____ involves monitoring identified and residual risks, identifying new risks, carrying out risk response plans, and evaluating the effectiveness of risk strategies throughout the life of the project. a. Performing quantitative risk analysis c. Monitoring and controlling risk b. Planning risk responses d. Performing qualitative risk analysis
Monitoring and controlling risk
____ analysis simulates a model's outcome many times to provide a statistical distribution of the calculated results. a. Decision tree c. Monte Carlo b. EMV d. Watch list
Monte Carlo
____________________ occurs when a resource works on more than one task at a time.
Multitasking
____________________ states that if something can go wrong, it will.
Murphy's Law
A(n) ____________________ is a specific type of organizational chart that shows which organizational units are responsible for which work items.
OBS - organizational breakdown structure - organizational breakdown structure (OBS)
____________________ means more resources than are available are assigned to perform work at a given time.
Overallocation
The ____ is a network diagramming technique in which boxes represent activities. a. PDM c. ADM b. AOA d. POA
PDM
____ use(s) probabilistic time estimates—duration estimates based on using optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates of activity durations—instead of one specific or discrete duration estimate. a. Critical Path Analysis c. Critical Chain Scheduling b. Gantt charts d. PERT
PERT
The ____ is that portion of the approved total cost estimate planned to be spent on an activity during a given period. a. AC c. RP b. EV d. PV
PV
____________________ uses project characteristics in a mathematical model to estimate project costs.
Parametric modeling
A(n) ____________________ is a histogram that can help you identify and prioritize problem areas.
Pareto chart - Pareto diagram
____ help(s) you identify the vital few contributors that account for most quality problems in a system. a. Statistical sampling c. Six Sigma b. Pareto charts d. Quality control charts
Pareto charts
____ states that work expands to fill the time allowed. a. Murphy's Law c. Parkinson's Law b. Newton's Law d. Moore's Law
Parkinson's Law
"Is there a project champion?" applies to which risk category? a. Financial risk c. Structure/process risk b. Technology risk d. People risk
People risk
____ addresses how well a product or service performs the customer's intended use. a. Reliability c. Maintainability b. Performance d. Functionality
Performance
_________________________ keeps stakeholders informed about how resources are being used to achieve project objectives.
Performance reporting
____ involves prioritizing risks based on their probability and impact of occurrence. a. Performing qualitative risk analysis c. Planning risk responses b. Planning risk management d. Performing quantitative risk analysis
Performing qualitative risk analysis
____ involves periodically evaluating overall project performance to ensure that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards. a. Performing quality assurance c. Checking quality b. Performing quality control d. Planning quality
Performing quality assurance
____ involves monitoring specific project results to ensure that they comply with the relevant quality standards while identifying ways to improve overall quality. a. Performing quality assurance c. Checking quality b. Performing quality control d. Planning quality
Performing quality control
____ involves numerically estimating the effects of risks on project objectives. a. Performing qualitative risk analysis c. Planning risk management b. Planning risk responses d. Performing quantitative risk analysis
Performing quantitative risk analysis
____ involves determining the information and communications needs of the stakeholders. a. Reporting performance c. Managing stakeholder expectations b. Distributing information d. Planning communications
Planning communications
____ involves determining what to procure, when, and how. a. Planning contracting c. Conducting procurements b. Administrating procurements d. Planning procurements
Planning procurements
____ includes identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and how to satisfy those standards. a. Performing quality assurance c. Checking quality b. Performing quality control d. Planning quality
Planning quality
____ involves deciding how to approach and plan the risk management activities for the project. a. Identifying risks c. Performing qualitative risk analysis b. Planning risk management d. Performing quantitative risk analysis
Planning risk management
____ involves taking steps to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to meeting project objectives. a. Performing quantitative risk analysis c. Monitoring and controlling risk b. Planning risk responses d. Performing qualitative risk analysis
Planning risk responses
____________________ is the potential ability to influence behavior to get people to do things they would not otherwise do.
Power
____ correct(s) or prevent(s) further quality problems based on quality control measurements. a. Process adjustments c. Acceptance decisions b. Rework d. Auditing
Process adjustments
Unenforceable conditions or contract clauses, and adversarial relations are risk conditions associated with the ____ project management knowledge area. a. Integration c. Procurement b. Quality d. Human Resources
Procurement
____________________ means acquiring goods and/or services from an outside source.
Procurement
____________________ are often done during contract closure to identify lessons learned in the entire procurement process.
Procurement audits
____ is the ratio of revenues to profits. a. Profit c. Cost structure b. Profit margin d. Cost margin
Profit margin
____________________ are revenues minus expenditures.
Profits
____ describe what the project team has accomplished during a certain period. a. Progress reports c. Forecasts b. Status reports d. Updates
Progress reports
____________________ has many cost management features to help you enter budgeted costs, set a baseline, enter actuals, calculate variances, and run various cost reports.
Project 2007 - Microsoft Project - Microsoft Project 2007
____ are a complete set of organized project records that provide an accurate history of the project. a. Project archives c. Project databases b. Project backups d. Project notes
Project archives COMPLETION
____ includes the processes required to ensure that a project team completes a project within an approved budget. a. Cost budgeting c. Cost control b. Cost estimating d. Project cost management
Project cost management
____, with assistance from financial experts in their organizations, should create estimates of the costs and benefits of the project for its entire life cycle. a. Financial mangers c. Budget managers b. Project managers d. System managers
Project managers
______________________________ includes the processes required to acquire goods and services for a project from outside the performing organization.
Project procurement management
____________________ involves the processes required to ensure timely completion of a project.
Project time management
"Outsourcing to provide extra staff during periods of peak workloads can be much more economical than trying to staff entire projects with internal resources." refers to the ____ benefit. a. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs b. Provide flexibility c. Access skills and technologies d. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business
Provide flexibility
____________________ are groups of non-supervisors and work leaders in a single company department who volunteer to conduct group studies on how to improve the effectiveness of work in their department.
Quality circles
Some organizations use ____________________ to show Responsibility, Accountability, Consultation, and Informed roles for project stakeholders.
RACI charts
The ____________________ allocates work to responsible and performing organizations, teams, or individuals, depending on the desired level of detail.
RAM - responsibility assignment matrix - responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
A(n) ____ is a document used to solicit proposals from prospective suppliers. a. RFQ c. COW b. RFP d. SOW
RFP
A(n) ____________________ or draft contract often provides the basis for defining and finalizing work requirements.
RFP - Request for Proposal - Request for Proposal (RFP)
A(n) ____ is a document used to solicit quotes or bids from prospective suppliers. a. RFQ c. COW b. RFP d. SOW
RFQ
The ____ is the ratio of actual work completed to the percentage of work planned to have been completed at any given time during the life of the project or activity. a. AC c. RP b. EV d. PV
RP
____________________ is a relation of harmony, conformity, accord, or affinity.
Rapport
"Outsourcing suppliers are often able to use economies of scale that may not be available to the client alone, especially for hardware and software." refers to the ____ benefit of outsourcing. a. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs b. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business c. Access skills and technologies d. Provide flexibility
Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs
____ is based on an individual's personal charisma. a. Legitimate power c. Reward power b. Coercive power d. Referent power
Referent power
____ is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under normal conditions. a. Reliability c. Maintainability b. Performance d. Functionality
Reliability
____ involves collecting and disseminating performance information, including status reports, progress measurement, and forecasting. a. Reporting performance c. Managing stakeholder expectations b. Distributing information d. Planning communications
Reporting performance
____________________ risks are risks that remain after all of the response strategies have been implemented.
Residual
____ is a technique for resolving resource conflicts by delaying tasks. a. Resource loading c. Resource allocation b. Resource leveling d. Resource requesting
Resource leveling
____ refers to the amount of individual resources an existing schedule requires during specific time periods. a. Resource loading c. Resource allocation b. Resource leveling d. Resource requesting
Resource loading
____ involves using incentives to induce people to do things. a. Legitimate power c. Reward power b. Coercive power d. Referent power
Reward power
____ is action taken to bring rejected items into compliance with product requirements or specifications or other stakeholder expectations. a. A process adjustment c. An acceptance decision b. Rework d. Auditing
Rework
____________________ often results in requested changes and validated defect repair, resulting from recommended defect repair or corrective or preventive actions.
Rework
____ applies to positive risks when the project team cannot or chooses not to take any actions toward a risk. a. Risk enhancement c. Risk sharing b. Risk acceptance d. Risk exploitation
Risk acceptance
____ involves eliminating a specific threat, usually by eliminating its causes. a. Risk avoidance c. Risk transference b. Risk acceptance d. Risk mitigation
Risk avoidance
____ involves changing the size of the opportunity by identifying and maximizing key drivers of the positive risk. a. Risk exploitation c. Risk enhancement b. Risk sharing d. Risk acceptance
Risk enhancement
____ involves doing whatever you can to make sure the positive risk happens. a. Risk exploitation c. Risk enhancement b. Risk sharing d. Risk acceptance
Risk exploitation
____________________ are numbers that represent the overall risk of specific events, based on their probability of occurring and the consequences to the project if they do occur.
Risk factors
____ involves reducing the impact of a risk event by reducing the probability of its occurrence. a. Risk avoidance c. Risk transference b. Risk acceptance d. Risk mitigation
Risk mitigation
____ involves allocating ownership of the risk to another party. a. Risk exploitation c. Risk enhancement b. Risk sharing d. Risk acceptance
Risk sharing
____ involves shifting the consequence of a risk and responsibility for its management to a third party. a. Risk avoidance c. Risk transference b. Risk acceptance d. Risk mitigation
Risk transference
____________________ is the amount of satisfaction or pleasure received from a potential payoff.
Risk utility - Risk tolerance
____________________ design methods focus on eliminating defects by substituting scientific inquiry for trial-and-error methods.
Robust
To make milestones meaningful, some people use the ____________________ criteria to help define them.
SMART
The ____ is a description of the work required for the procurement. a. RFQ c. COW b. RFP d. SOW
SOW
After you total the EV, AC, and PV data for all activities on a project, you can use the CPI and ____________________ to project how much it will cost and how long it will take to finish the project based on performance to date.
SPI - schedule performance index - schedule performance index (SPI)
The ____________________ model focuses on defining user requirements and planning software projects.
SQFD - Software Quality Function Deployment - Software Quality Function Deployment (SQFD)
____ is the earned value minus the planned value. a. SV c. CPI b. CV d. SPI
SV
____ issues cause the most conflicts over the project life cycle. a. Project priority c. Cost b. Staffing d. Schedule
Schedule
____ risks are a direct result of implementing a risk response. a. Tertiary c. Residual b. Primary d. Secondary
Secondary COMPLETION
Which of Covey's habits does Douglas Ross suggest differentiates good project managers from average or poor project managers? a. Think win/win b. Seek first to understand, then to be understood c. Begin with the end in mind d. Synergize
Seek first to understand, then to be understood
____ is at the top of Maslow's structure. a. Esteem c. Physiological b. Self-actualization d. Social
Self-actualization
In the MBTI, the ____ dimension relates to the manner in which you gather information. a. Extrovert/Introvert c. Judgment/Perception b. Thinking/Feeling d. Sensation/Intuition
Sensation/Intuition
____ involves evaluating the reasons for dependencies and the different types of dependencies. a. Defining activities c. Estimating activity resources b. Sequencing activities d. Estimating activity duration
Sequencing activities
____ involves identifying and documenting the relationships between project activities. a. Defining activities c. Estimating activity resources b. Sequencing activities d. Estimating activity durations
Sequencing activities
____ are often more effective particularly for sensitive information. a. Electronic communications c. Telephone conversations b. Short face-to-face meetings d. Long face-to-face meetings
Short face-to-face meetings
____________________ is a measure of quality control equal to 1 fault in 1 million opportunities.
Six 9s of quality
____ is a comprehensive and flexible system for achieving, sustaining and maximizing business success. a. Statistical sampling c. Six Sigma b. Pareto analysis d. Quality control charting
Six Sigma
____________________ measures how much variation exists in a distribution of data.
Standard deviation
____ involves choosing part of a population of interest for inspection. a. Statistical sampling c. Six Sigma b. Pareto analysis d. Quality control charting
Statistical sampling
____ describe where the project stands at a specific point in time. a. Progress reports c. Forecasts b. Status reports d. Updates
Status reports
____ are a good way to highlight information provided in important project documents, empower people to be accountable for their work, and have face-to-face discussions about important project issues. a. Information retreats c. Information review meetings b. Status planning meetings d. Status review meetings
Status review meetings
____________________ are responsible for managing the subprojects into which a large project might be divided.
Subproject managers
____________________ cost is money that has been spent in the past.
Sunk
____ should be forgotten. a. Sunk costs c. Direct costs b. Indirect costs d. Intangible costs
Sunk costs
____________________ is the concept that the whole is equal to more than the sum of its parts.
Synergy
____________________ are the screens and reports the system generates.
System outputs
The ____ presents subjects with a series of ambiguous pictures and asks them to develop a spontaneous story for each picture, assuming they will project their own needs into the story. a. RAM c. TAT b. MBTI d. RACI
TAT
The ____________________ is a tool to measure the individual needs of different people using McClelland's categories.
TAT - Thematic Apperception Test - Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
The ____________________ is based on the fact that, like a chain with its weakest link, any complex system at any point in time often has only one aspect or constraint that limits its ability to achieve more of its goal.
TOC - Theory of Constraints - Theory of Constraints (TOC)
____ are those costs that an organization can easily measure in dollars. a. Intangible costs c. Tangible costs b. Direct costs d. Indirect costs
Tangible costs
____________________ can facilitate the process of distributing information, when used properly.
Technology
People who believe in ____ assume that the average worker wants to be directed and prefers to avoid responsibility. a. Theory W c. Theory Y b. Theory X d. Theory Z
Theory X
Managers who believe in McGregor's ____________________ assume that individuals do not inherently dislike work, but consider it as natural as play or rest.
Theory Y
____ emphasizes things such as job rotation, broadening of skills, generalization versus specialization, and the need for continuous training of workers. a. Theory W c. Theory Y b. Theory X d. Theory Z
Theory Z
____________________ is the one variable in project scheduling that has the least amount of flexibility.
Time
______________________________ contracts are a hybrid of both fixed-price and cost-reimbursable contracts.
Time and material (T&M) - Time and material - T&M
____ are/is a qualitative risk analysis tool, and in addition to identifying risks, it maintains an awareness of risks throughout the life of a project. a. Risk factor analysis c. Risk registering b. Probability/impact matrices or charts d. Top Ten Risk Item Tracking
Top Ten Risk Item Tracking
____ is the amount of time an activity can be delayed from its early start without delaying the planned project finish date. a. Total slack c. Total time b. Free float d. Free slack
Total slack
A(n) ____________________ Gantt chart compares planned and actual project schedule information.
Tracking
Project managers often illustrate progress with a ____ showing key deliverables and activities. a. Tracking Gantt chart c. network diagram b. Gantt chart d. PERT chart
Tracking Gantt chart
____________________ are indicators or symptoms of actual risk events.
Triggers
A key factor in evaluating bids, particularly for projects involving information technology, is the past performance record of the bidder.
True
A large percentage of total project costs are often labor costs.
True
A potential response to the risk event of a defective server might be the inclusion of a clause in a contract with the supplier to replace a defective server within a certain time period at a negotiated cost.
True
A probability/impact matrix or chart lists the relative probability of a risk occurring on one side of a matrix or axis on a chart and the relative impact of the risk occurring on the other.
True
A staffing management plan describes when and how people will be added to and taken off the project team.
True
Adding more people to a project that is falling behind schedule often causes more setbacks because of the increased complexity of communications.
True
Any new technology or business process is untested and has inherent risks.
True
Any type of contract should include specific clauses that take into account issues unique to the project.
True
As the job market changes, people should upgrade their skills to remain marketable and flexible.
True
Before you can improve project risk management, you must understand what risk is.
True
By analyzing stakeholder communications needs, you can avoid wasting time or money on creating or disseminating unnecessary information.
True
By reviewing the project scope statement, cost, schedule, and communications management plans, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets, project teams can discuss and analyze risk management activities for their particular projects.
True
Communicating badly exponentially increases the possibility of making fatal mistakes.
True
Consistent communication helps organizations improve project communications, especially for programs composed of multiple projects.
True
Contents of the procurement management plan will vary with project needs.
True
Cost budgeting provides information for project funding requirements.
True
Different cultures may have different perceptions of work ethic.
True
Do not have a meeting if there is a better way of achieving the objective at hand.
True
Emotional conflict, which stems from personality clashes and misunderstandings, often depresses team performance.
True
Estimates are usually done at various stages of a project and should become more accurate as time progresses.
True
Every cost estimate is unique.
True
Expectations can vary based on an organization's culture or geographic region.
True
ISO 9000 provides minimum requirements needed for an organization to meet its quality certification standards.
True
If a certain resource is overallocated, the project manager can change the schedule to remove resource overallocation.
True
If a project manager gets sick for two weeks or an important supplier goes out of business, management reserve could be set aside to cover the resulting costs.
True
If companies plan their projects well, they can avoid the need for overtime, or they can make it clear that overtime is optional.
True
If products are accepted, they are considered to be validated deliverables.
True
If there is no need to buy any products or services from outside the organization, then there is no need to perform any of the other procurement management processes.
True
Increasing the project manager's authority is a strategy for mitigating technical and cost risks.
True
It is customary to have contract negotiations during the source selection process.
True
It is important to clarify what functions and features the system must perform, and what functions and features are optional.
True
Make-or-buy analysis involves estimating the internal costs of providing a product or service and comparing that estimate to the cost of outsourcing.
True
Many WBSs include a section for project communications to ensure that reporting key information is a project deliverable.
True
Many companies are realizing that they can use offshore outsourcing and create more jobs at home.
True
Many highly qualified information technology workers lost their jobs in the past few years.
True
Many projects have each team member prepare a monthly or sometimes weekly progress report.
True
Many projects that are started never finish because of cost management problems.
True
Many projects, particularly information technology projects, do not have good planning information, so tracking performance against a plan might produce misleading information.
True
Many quality experts believe the main cause of quality problems is the lack of leadership.
True
Maslow's hierarchy of needs states that people's behaviors are guided or motivated by a sequence of needs.
True
Mind mapping allows people to write and even draw pictures of ideas in a nonlinear format.
True
Minimizing defects does not matter if an organization is making a product that no one wants to buy.
True
Modern quality management requires customer satisfaction, prefers prevention to inspection, and recognizes management responsibility for quality.
True
Most educational systems for information technology graduates promote strong technical skills over strong communication and social skills.
True
Most organizations have a well-established process for preparing budgets.
True
Most people simply accept poor quality from many information technology products.
True
Most project managers agree that managing human resources effectively is one of the toughest challenges they face.
True
Not understanding how to communicate effectively with other cultures and people of diverse backgrounds hurts projects and businesses.
True
One innovative approach to hiring and retaining information technology staff is to offer existing employees incentives for helping recruit and retain personnel.
True
People who need institutional power or social power want to organize others to further the goals of the organization.
True
Project managers are ultimately responsible for quality management on their projects.
True
Project managers must conduct cash flow analysis to determine net present value.
True
Project managers often do not have control over project staff who report to them.
True
Project managers often recommend that people take specific training courses to improve individual and team development.
True
Project managers should lead their teams in developing norms for dealing with various types of conflicts that might arise on their projects.
True
Project risk management does not stop with the initial risk analysis.
True
Quality planning implies the ability to anticipate situations and prepare actions that bring about the desired outcome.
True
ROM estimates can be referred to as a ballpark estimate, a guesstimate, a swag, or a broad gauge.
True
Rarely does the receiver interpret a message exactly as the sender intended.
True
Resource leveling results in fewer problems for project personnel and accounting departments.
True
Risk management is a frequently overlooked aspect of project management.
True
SWOT analysis can be used during risk identification by having project teams focus on the broad perspectives of potential risks for particular projects.
True
Schedules tend to focus primarily on time rather than on both time and resources.
True
Selecting the most experienced project manager is recommended for reducing schedule risks.
True
Several PC-based software packages are available that perform Monte Carlo simulations.
True
Some termination clauses state that the buyer can terminate a contract for any reason and give the supplier only 24 hours' notice.
True
Status reports can take various formats depending on the stakeholders' needs.
True
Testing needs to be done during almost every phase of the systems development life cycle.
True
Thamhain and Wilemon found that when project managers used work challenge and expertise to influence people, projects were more likely to succeed.
True
The Delphi technique is a systematic, interactive forecasting procedure based on independent and anonymous input regarding future events.
True
The Microsoft Solution Framework (MSF) includes a risk management model that includes developing and monitoring a top-ten master list of risks.
True
The Monte Carlo analysis can predict the probability of finishing by a certain date or the probability that the cost will be equal to or less than a certain value.
True
The arrows in a network diagram represent the activity sequencing or relationships between tasks.
True
The communications management plan will vary with the needs of the project.
True
The cost for risk management should not exceed the potential benefits.
True
The cost management plan is part of the overall project management plan.
True
The cost savings and use of offshore resources lower inflation, increase productivity, and lower interest rates.
True
The first dimension of psychological type in the MBTI signifies whether people draw their energy from other people (extroverts) or from inside themselves (introverts).
True
The formulas for variances and indexes start with EV, the earned value.
True
The majority of people in the United States use the Internet.
True
The term "e-procurement" often describes various procurement functions that are now done electronically.
True
The total value of the contract is a function of the quantities needed to complete the work.
True
Understanding which variables affect outcome is a very important part of quality planning.
True
Using Six Sigma principles is an organization-wide commitment.
True
When an organization outsources work, it often does not have as much control over those aspects of projects that suppliers carry out.
True
When using the confrontation mode, project managers directly face a conflict using a problem-solving approach that allows affected parties to work through their disagreements.
True
You can break down the technology risk category into hardware, software, and network technology.
True
____________________ can be used in various types of contracts to require the buyer to pay the supplier a predetermined amount per unit of product or service.
Unit pricing
____ is an independent test performed by end users prior to accepting the delivered system. a. Integration testing c. User acceptance testing b. Unit testing d. System testing
User acceptance testing
It is helpful to analyze the total dollar value as well as the percentage of the total amount for each major ____________________ category.
WBS - work breakdown structure - work breakdown structure (WBS)
According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) ____ is the only inappropriate method for expressing support/appreciation. a. phone call c. meeting b. e-mail d. Web site
Web site
Risk ____________________ involves accepting the consequences should a risk occur.
acceptance
People who need personal ____ want to direct others and can be seen as bossy. a. affiliation c. power b. advancement d. achievement
achievement
People with a high need for ____ seek to excel and tend to avoid both low-risk and high-risk situations to improve their chances for achieving something worthwhile. a. affiliation c. power b. money d. achievement
achievement
Key outputs of ____ process are project staff assignments, resource calendars, and project management plan updates. a. managing the project team c. developing the project team b. acquiring the project team d. developing the human resource plan
acquiring the project team
The ____ provide(s) schedule-related information about each activity, such as predecessors, successors, logical relationships, leads and lags, resource requirements, constraints, imposed dates, and assumptions related to the activity. a. activity list c. activity descriptions b. milestones d. activity attributes
activity attributes
In the activity definition process, the project team should review the ____________________ and activity attributes with project stakeholders before moving on to the next step in project time management.
activity list
The ____________________ is a tabulation of activities to be included on a project schedule.
activity list
People with a high need for ____ desire harmonious relationships with other people and need to feel accepted by others. a. affiliation c. power b. money d. achievement
affiliation
Some professionals refuse to attend meetings if they do not have a(n) ____________________ ahead of time.
agenda
An important tool used in the ____ phase of the DMAIC process is the fishbone or Ishikawa diagram. a. define c. analyze b. measure d. improve
analyze
KLCI Research Group's 2001 survey revealed that the most frequently cited benefit from software risk management practices is to ____. a. prevent surprises c. meet customer commitments b. improve ability to negotiate d. anticipate/avoid problems
anticipate/avoid problems
According to Thamhain and Wilemon, ____ is the legitimate hierarchical right to issue orders. a. authority c. expertise b. assignment d. promotion
authority
It is important to put information in context, especially if it is ____________________ news.
bad
A(n) ____________________ is the original project plan plus approved changes.
baseline
A(n) ____________________ is a document prepared by sellers providing pricing for standard items that have been clearly defined by the buyer.
bid - tender - quote - quotation
A(n) ____________________ conference is a meeting with prospective sellers prior to preparation of their proposals or bids.
bidders' - bidders - supplier - pre-bid
In the ____________________ approach, team members first identify as many specific tasks related to the project as possible.
bottom-up
Project managers often use the ____ approach for projects that represent entirely new systems or approaches to doing a job, or to help create buy-in and synergy with a project team. a. analogy c. top-down b. bottom-up d. mind mapping
bottom-up
The ____ approach involves refining the work into greater and greater levels of detail. a. analogy c. top-down b. bottom-up d. mind mapping
bottom-up
A ____ is used to allocate money into an organization's budget. a. budgetary estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate b. definitive estimate d. final estimate
budgetary estimate
In a risk breakdown structure, competitors, suppliers, and cash flow are categories that fall under ____ risk. a. business c. organizational b. technical d. project management
business
Sample size = 0.25 * (____________________/acceptable error)2
certainty factor
Many experts agree that the greatest threat to the success of any project, especially information technology projects, is a failure to ____________________.
communicate
A(n) ______________________________ is a document that guides project communications.
communications management plan
With the ____, project managers use a give-and-take approach to resolving conflicts. a. confrontation mode c. smoothing mode b. compromise mode d. forcing mode
compromise mode
When the stakes are high, ____________________ is never far away.
conflict
Research indicates that project managers favor using ____ for conflict resolution over the other four modes. a. compromise c. confrontation b. smoothing d. forcing
confrontation
The ____ mode is also called the problem-solving mode. a. confrontation c. smoothing b. compromise d. forcing
confrontation
A well-written ____________________—a mutually binding agreement that obligates the seller to provide the specified products or services and obligates the buyer to pay for them—can clarify responsibilities and sharpen focus on key deliverables of a project.
contract
If a SOW is used as part of a contract to describe only the work required for that particular contract, it is called a(n) ____________________ statement of work.
contract
The communications management plan can be part of the team ____. a. WBS c. plan b. contract d. guidelines
contract
A ____ is a graphic display of data that illustrates the results of a process over time. a. statistical sampling chart c. Six Sigma chart b. Pareto chart d. control chart
control chart
The project management plan, project funding requirements, work performance data, and organizational process assets are inputs for the process of ____. a. controlling costs c. consolidating costs b. budgeting costs d. estimating costs
controlling costs
Outputs from ____ include performance measurements, organizational process assets updates, change requests, project management plan updates, and project document updates. a. estimating activity durations c. controlling the schedule b. developing schedules d. estimating activity resources
controlling the schedule
Many studies define project success as meeting project scope, time, and ____________________ goals.
cost
A ____ is a time-phased budget that project managers use to measure and monitor cost performance. a. budget baseline c. cost baseline b. ledger d. cost line
cost baseline
In addition to providing input for budgetary estimates, cost budgeting provides a(n) ____________________.
cost baseline
The main goal of the ____ process is to produce a cost baseline for measuring project performance and project funding requirements. a. cost budgeting c. cost control b. cost consolidation d. cost estimating
cost budgeting
The main outputs of the ____________________ process are a cost performance baseline, project funding requirements, and project document updates.
cost budgeting
The main outputs of the ____________________ process are work performance measurements, budget forecasts, organizational process asset updates, change requests, project management plan updates, and project document updates.
cost control
In practice, many people find that using a combination or hybrid approach involving analogous, bottom up, and/or parametric modeling provides the best ____________________.
cost estimates
The main outputs of the ____________________ process are activity cost estimates, basis of estimates, and project document updates.
cost estimating
A(n) ____________________ is a document that describes how the organization will manage cost variances on the project.
cost management plan
The ____________________ means taking responsibility for failures or not meeting quality expectations.
cost of nonconformance
A(n) ____________________ for a project is the series of activities that determine the earliest time by which the project can be completed.
critical path
The ____ ultimately decides if quality is acceptable. a. project team c. project manager b. CEO d. customer
customer
A(n) ____ is a diagramming analysis technique used to help select the best course of action in situations in which future outcomes are uncertain. a. decision tree c. Monte Carlo analysis b. EMV d. watch list
decision tree
A(n) ____ is any instance where the product or service fails to meet customer requirements. a. defect c. error b. failure d. recall
defect
Only after meeting ____________________ needs can individuals act upon growth needs.
deficiency
The bottom four needs in Maslow's structure are referred to as ____ needs. a. self-actualization c. safety b. deficiency d. growth
deficiency
Important tools used in the ____ phase of the DMAIC process include a project charter, a description of customer requirements, process maps, and Voice of the Customer (VOC) data. a. define c. analyze b. measure d. improve
define
The goal of ____ is to ensure that the project team has complete understanding of all the work they must do as part of the project scope so they can start scheduling the work. a. defining activities c. estimating activity resources b. sequencing activities d. estimating activity durations
defining activities
The main outputs of the ____ process are an activity list, activity attributes, milestone list, and requested changes. a. defining activities c. resource estimating activities b. sequencing activities d. duration estimating activities
defining activities
A ____ is used for making many purchasing decisions for which accurate estimates are required and for estimating final project costs. a. budgetary estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate b. definitive estimate d. final estimate
definitive estimate
If the cost estimate will be the basis for contract awards and performance reporting, it should be a ____ and as accurate as possible. a. budgetary estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate b. definitive estimate d. final estimate
definitive estimate
The term ____ describes a product produced as part of a project. a. end-product c. deliverable b. scope d. outcome
deliverable
According to the guideline governing ____, many meetings are most effective with the minimum number of participants possible. a. determining if a meeting can be avoided b. determining who should attend the meeting c. defining the purpose and intended outcome of the meeting d. running the meeting professionally
determining who should attend the meeting
The main outputs of ____ process are team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factors update. a. managing the project team c. developing the project team b. acquiring the project team d. human resource planning
developing the project team
The ultimate goal of ____ is to create a realistic project schedule that provides a basis for monitoring project progress for the time dimension of the project. a. defining activities c. developing the schedule b. sequencing activities d. estimating activity duration
developing the schedule
Project managers should focus on ____, since they can control them. a. sunk costs c. direct costs b. indirect costs d. intangible costs
direct costs
It's important for the team to ____________________ assumptions they made when developing the cost baseline and have several experts review it.
document
Since organizations depend on reliable information technology, there are also huge costs associated with ____. a. work time c. uptime b. technical planning d. downtime
downtime
One of the first reality checks on scheduling that a project manager should make is to review the ____________________ usually included in the project charter.
draft schedule
The activity list, activity attributes, activity resource requirements, resource calendars, project scope statement, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets all include information that affect ____. a. definitions c. resource estimates b. sequences d. duration estimates
duration estimates
According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) ____ is the only method that is "excellent" for encouraging creative thinking. a. phone call c. meeting b. e-mail d. Web Site
Outputs of ____________________ include activity duration estimates and project documentation updates.
estimating activity durations
Experts in source selection highly recommend that buyers use formal proposal ____________________ sheets during source selection.
evaluation
Understanding the stakeholders' ____________________ can help in managing issues.
expectations
Project sponsors can usually rank scope, time, and cost goals in order of importance in a(n) ____. a. expectations management matrix c. issue log b. responsibility assignment matrix d. priority matrix
expectations management matrix
The ______________________________ includes a list of measures of success as well as priorities, expectations, and guidelines related to each measure.
expectations management matrix
Many users prefer ____ to learn how to use a new system. a. phone conversations c. e-mail conversations b. face-to-face meetings d. reading user guides
face-to-face meetings
Critical chain scheduling protects tasks on the critical chain from being delayed by using ____, which consist of additional time added before tasks on the critical chain that are preceded by non-critical-path tasks. a. critical paths c. dummy activities b. feeding buffers d. fast tracking
feeding buffers
The first step in the framework for defining and assigning work is ____. a. defining how the work will be accomplished b. breaking down the work into manageable elements c. finalizing the project requirements d. assigning work responsibilities
finalizing the project requirements
Information technology project managers need to be able to present and discuss project information in ____________________ terms as well as in technical terms.
financial
In a ____ relationship, one task cannot finish before another finishes. a. start-to-start c. finish-to-finish b. finish-to-start d. start-to-finish
finish-to-finish
In a ____ relationship, the "from" activity must finish before the "to" activity can start. a. start-to-start c. finish-to-finish b. finish-to-start d. start-to-finish
finish-to-start
A(n) _________________________ contract has the least amount of risk for the buyer.
firm-fixed price (FFP) - firm-fixed price - FFP
It took only ____ years for 50 million people to use the Internet compared to 25 years for 50 million people to use telephones. a. three c. seven b. five d. nine
five
There are ____ main processes involved in project scope management. a. three c. five b. four d. six
five
System or process ____________________ are diagrams that show how different parts of a system interrelate.
flowcharts
When using the ____, project managers exert their viewpoint at the potential expense of another viewpoint. a. confrontation mode c. smoothing mode b. compromise mode d. forcing mode
forcing mode
A(n) ____________________ determines the early start and early finish dates for each activity.
forward pass
Human resource management includes ____ processes. a. three c. five b. four d. six
four
There are ____ main processes in project communications management. a. two c. four b. three d. five
four
There are ____ main processes of project procurement management. a. three c. five b. four d. six
four
Tom DeMarco, a well-known author on software development, suggests ____ reasons for the inaccuracies of many information technology project cost estimates and some ways to overcome them. a. three c. five b. four d. six
four
Project team members may become stagnant or develop ____________________—conformance to the values or ethical standards of a group—if there are no conflicting viewpoints on various aspects of a project.
groupthink
The highest level of needs in Maslow's structure is referred to as a ____ need. a. deficiency c. safety b. growth d. physiological
growth
Often, many non-technical professionals—from colleagues to managers—prefer to ____ about project information to try to find pertinent information. a. read detailed reports c. read Web pages b. read e-mails d. have a two-way conversation
have a two-way conversation
If organizations want to be successful at implementing information technology projects, they need to understand the importance of project ____________________ and take actions to make effective use of people.
human resource management
The ____________________ often includes an organizational chart for the project, detailed information on roles and responsibilities, and a staffing management plan.
human resource plan
The main output of the ____________________ process is the start of a risk register.
identifying risks
As the number of people involved in a project ____, the complexity of communications ____. a. increases, decreases c. increases, stays constant b. decreases, increases d. increases, increases
increases, increases
A(n) ____ represents decision problems by displaying essential elements, including decisions, uncertainties, causality, and objectives, and how they influence each other. a. risk breakdown structure c. process flow chart b. influence diagram d. system flow chart
influence diagram
William Ibbs and Young H. Kwak's study revealed that the ____ industry had the lowest level of project management maturity in the area of quality management. a. engineering/construction c. information systems b. telecommunications d. high-tech manufacturing
information systems
William Ibbs and Young H. Kwak's study revealed that the ____ industry had the lowest level of project management maturity in the area of risk management. a. engineering/construction c. information systems b. telecommunications d. high-tech manufacturing
information systems
Inadequate planning, poor resource allocation, poor integration management, and lack of post-project review are risk conditions associated with the ____________________ project management knowledge area.
integration
Many project managers keep a(n) ____________________ to document, monitor, and track issues that need to be resolved for the project team to work effectively.
issue log
The ____ for an activity is the latest possible time an activity might begin without delaying the project finish date. a. early entry date c. late start date b. late entry date d. early start date
late start date
It takes ____ to help improve communication. a. timing c. leadership b. highly skilled employees d. outside consultants
leadership
A(n) _________________________ is a reflective statement documenting important things they have learned from working on the project.
lessons-learned report
Some items discussed in a(n) ____ include reflections on whether project goals were met, whether the project was successful or not, the causes of variances on the project, the reasoning behind corrective actions chosen, the use of different project management tools and techniques, and personal words of wisdom based on team members' experiences. a. final project report c. audit report b. design document d. lessons-learned report
lessons-learned report
Resource ____________________ aims to minimize period-by-period variations in resource loading by shifting tasks within their slack allowances.
leveling
Project managers should try to ____________________ the size of teams or sub teams to avoid making communications too complex.
limit
Many experts believe that the difference between good project managers and excellent project managers is their ability to nurture relationships and use empathic ____________________ skills.
listening
The critical path is the ____ path through a network diagram, and it represents the ____ time it takes to complete a project. a. longest; longest c. shortest; longest b. longest; shortest d. shortest; shortest
longest; shortest
Juran's final step to quality improvement is ____. a. organize to reach the goals (establish a quality council, identify problems, select projects, appoint teams, designate facilitators) b. keep score c. report progress d. maintain momentum by making annual improvement part of the regular systems and processes of the company
maintain momentum by making annual improvement part of the regular systems and processes of the company
A(n) ____________________ decision is one in which an organization decides if it is in its best interests to make certain products or perform certain services inside the organization, or if it is better to buy them from an outside organization.
make-or-buy
According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) ____ is the most appropriate method for giving complex instructions. a. phone call c. meeting b. e-mail d. Web Site
meeting
Examples of common ____________________ include failure rates of products produced, availability of goods and services, and customer satisfaction ratings.
metrics
A(n) ____________________ on a project is a significant event that normally has no duration.
milestone
Examples of risk ____________________ include using proven technology, having competent project personnel, using various analysis and validation techniques, and buying maintenance or service agreements from subcontractors.
mitigation
Managers like to see progress made on projects approximately each ____________________.
month
Psychosocial issues that affect how people work and how well they work include ____________________, influence and power, and effectiveness.
motivation
Herzberg called factors that cause job satisfaction ____________________.
motivators
In general, ____________________ numbers for cost and schedule variance indicate problems in those areas.
negative
A(n) ____________________ is a schematic display of the logical relationships among, or sequencing of, project activities.
network diagram
In a network diagram, a(n) ____________________ is simply the starting and ending point of an activity.
node
A ____ is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical regarding the average value of the population (the data being analyzed). a. skewed distribution c. polynomial distribution b. normal distribution d. symmetrical distribution
normal distribution
Two people have ____ communications channel(s). a. zero c. two b. one d. three
one
For many projects, properly ____ some information technology functions can be a great investment. a. outsourcing c. increasing b. scaling d. planning
outsourcing
____ contracts involve a fixed total price for a well-defined product or service. a. CPFF c. Cost-reimbursable b. Lump sum d. Time and material
outsourcing
A(n) ____ might provide an estimate of $50 per line of code for a software development project based on the programming language the project is using, the level of expertise of the programmers, the size and complexity of the data involved, and so on. a. analogous cost estimate c. bottom-up estimate b. parametric model d. reserve analysis
parametric model
In the Tuckman model, ____ occurs when the emphasis is on reaching the team goals, rather than working on team process. a. performing c. forming b. norming d. storming
performing
At the bottom of Maslow's structure are ____ needs. a. esteem c. physiological b. self-actualization d. social
physiological
The output of the ____ process is a communications management plan. a. reporting performance c. managing stakeholder expectations b. distributing information d. planning communications
planning communications
Many organizations now collect and control an entire suite of projects or investments as one set of interrelated activities in one place, called a(n) ____________________.
portfolio
Risk management can have a(n) ____________________ impact on selecting projects, determining the scope of projects, and developing realistic schedules and cost estimates.
positive
Covey, like Maslow, believes that people have the ability to be ____________________ and choose their responses to different situations.
proactive
A project manager can chart the probability and impact of risks on a ____. a. risk ranking chart c. probability/impact matrix b. risk probability table d. risk assessment matrix
probability/impact matrix
The term ____________________ is widely used in government.
procurement
Tools to assist in contract closure include ____________________ , negotiated settlements, and a records management system.
procurement audits
Team leaders often create consolidated ____________________ based on the information received from team members.
progress reports
Using good ____________________ can change the false perception that costs grow and failures are to be expected.
project cost management
Top management and ____________________ can have the greatest impact on the quality of projects by doing a good job of quality assurance.
project managers
The purpose of ____________________ is to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken.
project quality management - quality management
Project managers must use discipline to control ____. a. project bursts c. project critical paths b. project schedules d. project dependencies
project schedules
According to Thamhain and Wilemon, ____ is the ability to improve a worker's position. a. authority c. expertise b. assignment d. promotion
promotion
A(n) ____________________ is a document prepared by a seller when there are different approaches for meeting buyer needs.
proposal
All meetings should have a(n) ____________________ and intended outcome.
purpose
The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) defines ____________________ as "the totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs."
quality
Performing ____________________ involves periodically evaluating overall project performance to ensure that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.
quality assurance
A(n) ____________________ is a structured review of specific quality management activities that help identify lessons learned that could improve performance on current or future projects.
quality audit
Performing _________________________ involves monitoring specific project results to ensure that they comply with the relevant quality standards while identifying ways to improve overall quality.
quality control
The ____ process is often associated with the technical tools and techniques of quality management, such as Pareto charts, quality control charts, and statistical sampling. a. quality planning c. quality assurance b. quality certification d. quality control
quality control
The main outputs of ____ are a quality management plan, quality metrics, quality checklists, a process improvement plan, and project document updates. a. quality control c. quality assurance b. quality planning d. quality certification
quality planning
A(n) ____________________ system provides the ability to easily organize, find, and archive procurement-related documents.
records management
Project management software highlights the critical path in ____ on a network diagram. a. blue c. green b. yellow d. red
red COMPLETION
The outputs of the _________________________ process are performance reports, organizational process assets updates, and change requests.
reporting performance
A ____ is a hierarchical structure that identifies the project's resources by category and type. a. work breakdown structure c. network diagram b. resource breakdown structure d. critical path analysis
resource breakdown structure
A(n) ____ is a column chart that shows the number of resources assigned to a project over time. a. responsibility assignment matrix c. RACI charts b. resource histogram d. organizational breakdown structure
resource histogram
On a network diagram, all arrowheads should face toward the ____. a. top c. right b. left d. bottom
right
A project ____________________ is an uncertainty that can have a negative or positive effect on meeting project objectives.
risk
A(n) _________________________ is a hierarchy of potential risk categories for a project.
risk breakdown structure
A(n) ____________________ documents the procedures for managing risk throughout the project.
risk management plan
The ____________________ is the person who will own or take responsibility for the risk.
risk owner
A(n) ____________________ is a document that contains results of various risk management processes.
risk register
Utility rises at a decreasing rate for a ____ person. a. risk-seeking c. risk-neutral b. risk-averse d. risk-indifferent
risk-averse
Those who are ____ have a higher tolerance for risk, and their satisfaction increases when more payoff is at stake. a. risk-seeking c. risk-neutral b. risk-averse d. risk-indifferent
risk-seeking
Communication skills training usually includes ____________________ activities in which participants learn concepts such as building rapport.
role-playing - role playing
A ____ is done very early in a project or even before a project is officially started. a. budgetary estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate b. definitive estimate d. final estimate
rough order of magnitude estimate
A ____ provides an estimate of what a project will cost. a. budgetary estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate b. definitive estimate d. final estimate
rough order of magnitude estimate
According to the guideline governing ____, designate someone to take minutes and send the minutes out soon after the meeting. a. running the meeting professionally b. providing an agenda to participants before the meeting c. determining who should attend the meeting d. building relationships
running the meeting professionally
Many organizations use ____ and templates to generate SOWs. a. details c. plans b. outlines d. samples
samples
Many practitioners define project success as ____. a. meeting project scope goals c. satisfying the customer/sponsor b. meeting time goals d. meeting cost goals
satisfying the customer/sponsor
The goal of ____ is to know the status of the schedule, influence the factors that cause schedule changes, determine that the schedule has changed, and manage changes when they occur. a. activity duration estimating c. schedule control b. schedule development d. activity resource estimating
schedule control
The main outputs of ____________________ include work performance measurements, organizational process assets updates, such as lessons-learned reports related to schedule control, change requests, project management plan updates, and project document updates.
schedule control
The ____________________ statement clearly defines mandatory requirements and optional requirements.
scope
Many professionals use ____________________ to help make several common business decisions, such as determining break-even points based on different assumptions.
sensitivity analysis
The ____ states that if seven data points in a row are all below the mean, above the mean, or are all increasing or decreasing, then the process needs to be examined for non-random problems. a. ten run rule c. seven run rule b. six 9s of quality rule d. Six Sigma rule
seven run rule
Since information technology projects often require a lot of coordination, it is a good idea to have ____ meetings. a. long, frequent c. short, frequent b. short, infrequent d. long, infrequent
short, frequent
Four people have ____ communications channel(s). a. one c. six b. four d. eight
six
There are ____ main processes involved in project time management. a. two c. six b. four d. ten
six
There are ____ major processes involved in risk management. a. three c. five b. four d. six
six
A white diamond on the Tracking Gantt chart represents a(n) ____________________.
slipped milestone
When using the ____, the project manager deemphasizes or avoids areas of differences and emphasizes areas of agreement. a. confrontation mode c. smoothing mode b. withdrawal mode d. forcing mode
smoothing mode
Watts S. Humphrey defines a(n) ____________________ as anything that must be changed before delivery of the program.
software defect
Selecting suppliers or sellers, often called ____________________ selection, involves evaluating proposals or bids from sellers, choosing the best one, negotiating the contract, and awarding the contract.
source
The ______________________________ analysis includes information such as the contact person for the information, when the information is due, and the preferred format for the information.
stakeholder communications
The ____ serves as a good starting point for information distribution. a. stakeholder communications analysis c. communications management plan b. WBS d. status report
stakeholder communications analysis
Having ____ review and approve all stakeholder communications analysis will ensure that the information is correct and useful. a. stakeholders c. top management b. project team members d. customers
stakeholders
In a(n) ____________________ relationship, the "from" activity must start before the "to" activity can be finished.
start-to-finish
In a ____ relationship, the "from" activity cannot start until the "to" activity is started. a. start-to-start c. finish-to-finish b. finish-to-start d. start-to-finish
start-to-start
An important technique for performance reporting is the ____________________ review meeting.
status
In the Tuckman model, ____ occurs as team members have different opinions as to how the team should operate. a. performing c. forming b. norming d. storming
storming
The ____ line for any e-mail messages you write should clearly state the intention of the e-mail. a. to c. subject b. from d. cc
subject
Many organizations use samples and ____________________ to generate SOWs.
templates
Many project management software programs come with ____________________ or sample files.
templates
A(n) ____________________ is a contract clause that allows the buyer or supplier to end the contract.
termination clause
Project quality management involves ____ main processes. a. two c. four b. three d. five
three
Buyers typically develop a short list of the top ____ suppliers to reduce the work involved in selecting a source. a. one to two c. eight to ten b. three to five d. twelve to fifteen
three to five
Duration estimates are often provided as a discrete number, such as four weeks, or as a range, such as three to five weeks, or as a(n) ____________________.
three-point estimate
The idea of striving to balance risks and opportunities suggests that different organizations and people have different ____________________ for risk.
tolerances - tolerance
Given that all projects involve _____________________ that can have negative or positive outcomes, the question is how to decide which projects to pursue and how to identify and manage project risk throughout a project's life cycle.
uncertainties - uncertainty
A(n) ____ is done to test each individual component (often a program) to ensure that it is as defect-free as possible. a. integration test c. user acceptance test b. unit test d. system test
unit test
According to the Standish Group's success potential scoring sheet, ____ has the highest relative importance. a. executive management support c. proper planning b. clear statement of requirements d. user involvement
user involvement
Standard deviation and ____________________ are fundamental concepts for understanding quality control charts.
variability
Many information technology professionals work on ____________________ projects where they never meet their project sponsors, other team members, or other project stakeholders.
virtual
A(n) ____________________ is a list of risks that are low priority, but are still identified as potential risks.
watch list
The ____________________ approach is the least desirable conflict-handling mode.
withdrawal
When using the ____, project managers retreat or withdraw from an actual or potential disagreement. a. confrontation mode c. smoothing mode b. withdrawal mode d. forcing mode
withdrawal mode
Information regarding the content of essential project communications comes from the ____. a. organizational chart c. work breakdown structure (WBS) b. communications management plan d. expectations management matrix
work breakdown structure (WBS)
Project teams sometimes use ____________________—unplanned responses to risk events—when they do not have contingency plans in place.
workarounds
The ____________________ represents the number of units handled correctly through the process steps.
yield
____ involves defining and documenting the features and functions of the products produced during the project as well as the processes used for creating them. a. Collecting requirements c. Controlling scope b. Defining scope d. Verifying scope
Collecting requirements
____ involves controlling changes to project scope throughout the life of the project, which is a challenge on many information technology projects. a. Planning scope c. Controlling scope b. Defining scope d. Verifying scope
Controlling scope
____ involves reviewing the project charter, requirements documents, and organizational process assets to create a scope statement, adding more information as requirements are developed and change requests are approved. a. Planning scope c. Controlling scope b. Defining scope d. Verifying scope
Defining scope
A WBS is often depicted as a task-oriented pie chart.
False
A project team always organizes the WBS around project products.
False
A work package should always represent less than 80 hours of work.
False
Activity information is not a required input to the other time management processes.
False
By using the PERT weighted average for each activity duration estimate, the total project duration estimate does not account for the risk or uncertainty in the individual activity estimates.
False
Deliverables are only product-related, such as a piece of hardware or software.
False
Every item on the WBS needs to be on the network diagram.
False
It is easy to create a good WBS.
False
It is not necessary to complete all of the activities on the network diagram in order for the project to finish.
False
It only takes one activity to complete a milestone.
False
Managers often cite cost issues during the end phase of a project as one of their biggest challenges and the main cause of conflict.
False
Most managers are unfamiliar with any forms of scheduling.
False
Most projects have one path through a network diagram.
False
Network diagrams are the preferred technique for showing activity discretionary dependencies.
False
Project management software does not have the capacity to automatically generate network diagrams and calculate the critical path(s) for the project.
False
Project scope statements should include, at a minimum, a product scope description and detailed information on all project deliverables.
False
Start-to-finish relationships are the most common type of relationships.
False
The critical path always includes the most critical activities.
False
The executing tasks of the WBS remain constant from project to project.
False
The format of the WBS dictionary should be the same from project to project.
False
In the WBS, the name of the entire project is the top box, called Level ____. a. 0 c. 2 b. 1 d. 3
1
In the WBS, the main groupings for the work are listed in Level ____. a. 0 c. 2 b. 1 d. 3
2
____________________ can be used for developing WBSs using the top-down or bottom-up approach.
Mind mapping
____________________ is a technique that uses branches radiating out from a core idea to structure thoughts and ideas.
Mind mapping
____________________ involves controlling changes to the project scope.
Scope control
____________________ is the tendency for project scope to keep getting bigger and bigger.
Scope creep
____ involves formal acceptance of the completed project scope by the stakeholders. a. Scope verification c. Scope control b. Scope planning d. Scope definition
Scope verification
A Tracking Gantt chart is based on the percentage of work completed for project tasks or the actual start and finish dates.
True
A fast and easy way to determine early and late start and finish dates and free and total slack amounts for activities is by using project management software.
True
A unit of work should appear at only one place in the WBS.
True
A work package represents the level of work that the project manager monitors and controls.
True
After defining project activities, the next step in project time management is sequencing them or determining their dependencies.
True
Even though the delivery of new hardware may not be in the scope of a project, you should add an external dependency to it.
True
Fast tracking can end up lengthening the project schedule.
True
If you want some time-based flow for the work, you can create a WBS using the project management process groups of initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing as Level 2 in the WBS.
True
In a Gantt chart created in Microsoft Project, a black diamond symbol represents a milestone.
True
Individual work styles and cultural differences may cause schedule conflicts.
True
Information from the project charter provides a basis for further defining the project scope.
True
It is important that the people who help determine what resources are necessary include people who have experience and expertise in similar projects and with the organization performing the project.
True
Lack of user input leads to problems with managing scope creep and controlling change.
True
Many information technology projects also require detailed functional and design specifications for developing software, which also should be referenced in the detailed scope statement.
True
Many information technology projects are failures in terms of meeting scope, time, and cost projections.
True
Many organizations provide guidelines and templates for developing WBSs.
True
Many projects, especially in information technology, have very unrealistic schedule expectations.
True
One of PERT's main disadvantages is that it involves more work than CPM.
True
Project schedules grow out of the basic documents that initiate a project.
True
Project scope management includes the processes involved in defining and controlling what is or is not included in a project.
True
Schedule performance can be estimated by subtracting the original time estimate from how long it really took to complete the project.
True
Scope refers to all the work involved in creating the products of the project and the processes used to create them.
True
The project scope statement should reference supporting documents, such as product specifications that will affect what products are produced or purchased, or corporate policies, which might affect how products or services are produced.
True
The project scope statement, stakeholder requirements documentation, and organizational process assets are the primary inputs for creating a WBS.
True
The tasks in a WBS do not have to be developed as a sequential list of steps.
True
You can only enter duration estimates for work packages.
True
____ is a process for identifying and modeling business events, who initiated them, and how the system should respond to them. a. Prototyping c. RAD b. JAD d. Use case modeling
Use case modeling
____________________ is the difference between planned and actual performance.
Variance
____ involves formalizing acceptance of the project deliverables and during this phase the key project stakeholders, such as the customer and sponsor for the project, inspect and then formally accept the deliverables during this process. a. Planning scope c. Controlling scope b. Defining scope d. Verifying scope
Verifying scope
Creating the ____________________ involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components.
WBS - work breakdown structure - work breakdown structure (WBS)
Some project management experts believe that work should not be done on a project if it is not included in the ____________________.
WBS - work breakdown structure - work breakdown structure (WBS)
A(n) ____________________ is a document that describes detailed information about each WBS item.
WBS dictionary
In the ____, you use a similar project's WBS as a starting point. a. top-down approach c. mind-mapping approach b. bottom-up approach d. analogy approach
analogy approach
The ____ approach is best suited to project managers who have vast technical insight and a big-picture perspective. a. analogy c. top-down b. bottom-up d. mind mapping
bottom-up
The ____ tasks vary the most from project to project. a. closing c. planning b. monitoring and controlling d. executing
executing
If ____________________ for developing a WBS exist, it is very important to follow them.
guidelines
The main tool for performing scope verification is ____________________.
inspection
After discovering WBS items and structure using the ____ technique, you could then translate the information into chart or tabular form. a. analogy c. top-down b. bottom-up d. mind mapping
mind mapping
Key inputs for preparing the project scope statement include the ____________________, requirements documentation, and organizational process assets such as policies and procedures related to scope statements as well as project files and lessons learned from previous, similar projects.
project charter
Factors such as user involvement, clear business objectives, a minimized or clearly defined scope, and firm basic requirements, are elements of ____________________.
project scope management
An up-to-date ____ is an important document for developing and confirming a common understanding of the project scope. a. scope management plan c. WBS b. project scope statement d. decomposition
project scope statement
The main outputs of scope definition are the ____________________ and project document updates.
project scope statement
Of the following constraints, it is most difficult to describe, agree upon, and meet the ____ goal of many projects. a. scope c. cost b. time d. technical
scope
The approved project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary form the ____________________.
scope baseline
The goal of ____ is to influence the factors that cause scope changes, assure changes are processed according to procedures developed as part of integrated change control, and manage changes when they occur. a. scope verification c. scope planning b. scope control d. scope definition
scope control
Good ____ is very important to project success because it helps improve the accuracy of time, cost, and resource estimates, it defines a baseline for performance measurement and project control, and it aides in communicating clear work responsibilities. a. scope planning c. scope definition b. scope management d. scope verification
scope definition
The main outputs of ____________________ are the project scope statement and updates to project documents.
scope definition
The ____ should list and describe all of the deliverables required for the project. a. project charter c. WBS b. scope statement d. Gantt chart
scope statement
Many people confuse tasks on a WBS with ____. a. goals c. responsibilities b. objectives d. specifications
specifications
The project scope statement should reference ____________________, such as product specifications that will affect what products are produced or purchased, or corporate policies, which might affect how products or services are produced.
supporting documents
PMI uses the term "___________________" to describe each level of work in the WBS.
task
A(n) ____________________ project scope statement is an important document for developing and confirming a common understanding of the project scope.
up-to-date - up to date -
The main outputs of ____ are accepted deliverables and change requests. a. planning scope c. defining scope b. controlling scope d. verifying scope
verifying scope
A(n) ____ is a deliverable-oriented grouping of the work involved in a project that defines the total scope of the project. a. project charter c. project scope statement b. business case d. work breakdown structure
work breakdown structure
A(n) ____________________ is a task at the lowest level of the WBS.
work package