Questions from class
A noncompliant diabetic with consistent glucoscan readings of over 300 would be at risk for what type of acute kidney disease? a. pre renal b. intra renal c. post renal
A
The nurse monitoring a patient's peritoneal dialysis outflow is less than the inflow. Which actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply a. Check the level of the drainage bag b. Reposition the client to his or her side c. Contact the health care provider d. Place the client in good body alignment e. Check the peritoneal dialysis system for kinks f. Increase the flow rate of the peritoneal dialysis solution
A, B, D, E
What are some key features of chronic kidney disease? Select all that apply a. Osteodystrophy b. Pruritis c. Good appetite noted d. Steady gait e. Ecchymosis
A, B, E
Detrol - Tolterodine is a medication used for overactive bladder what are 3 side effects of this medication? a. Blurred vision b. Watery eyes c. Diarrhea d. Urinary retention e. Confusion in older clients
A, C, D
What factors can lead to an elevated BUN? Select all that apply a. Dehydration b. Good renal perfusion c. High protein diet d. GI bleeding e. Stress
A, C, D, E
The nurse is assessing the patency of the clients left arm AV fistula. Which finding indicates patency? A. Palpation of a thrill over the fistula B. Visualization of enlarged blood vessels at fistula site C. Presence of a radial pulse in left wrist D. Capillary refill less than 3 seconds in nail beds left hand
A. Palpation of a thrill over the fistula
A client comes to the ER, lower abdominal pain, hematuria, is afebrile. What may be wrong? A. Trauma to bladder or abdomen B. Renal cancer in family C. Pyelonephritis D. Glomerulonephritis
A. Trauma to bladder or abdomen
From the list, which medications are nephrotoxic? SATA A. Vancomycine B. Methotrexate C. Ibuprofen D. Neosporin
A. Vancomycine B. Methotrexate C. Ibuprofen
what action should nurse take if the PD patient's outflow is less than inflow? SATA A. check the level of the drainage bag B. check PD system tubing for any kinks C. reposition patient to their side D. increase the flow rate of PD solution
A. check the level of the drainage bag B. check PD system tubing for any kinks C. reposition patient to their side
Which lab value result correlated the best with a patient that has chronic kidney disease? A. elevated creatinine level B. decrease RBC count C. decreased hemoglobin D. increased number of WBCs in urine
A. elevated creatinine level
What are the steps of putting in a foley catheter? ___Gather supplies ___Assess labs ___Obtain order ___Perform pericare ___Insert foley
Assess labs Obtain order Gather supplies Perform pericare Insert foley
Post-renal
Bladder cancer kidney stone/uretolithiasis prostate cancer blood clots
A client with a UTI is receiving ciprofloxacin (Cipro) by IV route. Which things about administering this medication don't fit giving this medication? Select all that apply a. Infusing slowly over 60 minutes b. Infusing in a light-protective bag c. Infusing only through a central line d. Infusing rapidly as a direct IV push medication
C, D
What are signs that the patient receiving peritoneal dialysis may have a problem that needs addressed with the health care provider?
Cloudy urine Swelling Fibrin Leaking Crackles in lungs
The nurse is collecting data from the patient, which symptoms would be an early symptom of BPH? A. Nocturia B. Occasional conception C. Scrotal edema D. Decreased force in stream of urine
D. Decreased force in stream of urine
pre-renal
DKA MI Severe burns
How do we assess the AV fistula and how often?
Listen to bruit and palpate for thrill done every shift
When do we weigh the patient receiving peritoneal dialysis? Why?
Weigh them "dry" 1. Drain fluid 2. Clamp 3. WEIGH THEM 4. New bag
what is not a post renal cause of AKI? a. dehydration b. calculi c. bladder cancer d. bladder neck obstruction
a. dehydration
What are the main side effects of Lasix? (Select all that apply) a. hypotension b. hypokalemia c. hyperkalemia d. hypertension
a. hypotension b. hypokalemia
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is having an x-ray of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder (KUB). Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? a. contrast dye is given during the procedure b. an enema is necessary before the procedure c. you will need to lie in a prone position during the procedure d. the procedure determines whether a kidney stone is present
d. the procedure determines whether a kidney stone is present
Intrarenal
infection inflammation
Immunosupressant drugs
prograf imaruan cyclosporin tacrollmus
The following medications are used to prevent organ rejection Select all that apply a. Imuran - Azathioprine b. Prednisone c. Prograf - Tacrolimus d. Levaquin - Levofloxacin e. Neoral - Cyclosporine
A, C, E
8. Oliguric phase of Acute Kidney Injury includes all the following? Select all that apply a. Increased creatinine clearance b. Hypovolemia c. Hyponatremia d. Hyperkalema e. Decrease BUN
A, D
A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory results would indicate a therapeutic effect of the medication? Select all that apply a. Hematocrit of 32% b. Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm c. BUN level of 15 d. Red blood cell count of 6.7 e. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm
A, D
Which three things might a patient with polycystic kidneys need in their future care? SATA A. Hemodialysis B. Peritoneal Dialysis C. Kidney Transplant D. Bilateral nephrectomy
A. Hemodialysis C. Kidney Transplant D. Bilateral nephrectomy
A patient with diabetes receiving PD needs the following proper dwell times for PD because of risk: A. Hyperglycemia B. Disequilibrium Syndrome C. Peritonitis D. Hyperphosphatemia
A. Hyperglycemia
AKI what is happening in oliguric phase? SATA A. Hypocalcemia B. decrease GFR and creatinine clearance C. Hyperkalemia D. decrease bun and creatinine levels
A. Hypocalcemia B. decrease GFR and creatinine clearance C. Hyperkalemia
Functions of the kidney include all the following? Select all that apply a. Synthesize vit B b. Maintain acid base balance c. Excrete end products of body metabolism d. Secrete aldosterone e. Control fluid and electrolyte balance
B, C, D, E
A creatinine clearance test is ordered for a hospitalized patient with possible renal insufficiency. Which equipment will the nurse need to obtain? A. Sterile specimen cup B. Large container for urine C. Foley catheter and drainage bag D. Towelettes for perineal cleaning
B-This requires a 24hour urine collection
What two treatments may a patient with severe back pain, hematuria, and a diagnosis of hydronephritis and urolithihiasis? A. Peritoneal dialysis B. Insertion of nephrostomy tube C. IV opiod analgesics D. Placement of urethral stent with uretheroscopy
B. Insertion of nephrostomy tube D. Placement of urethral stent with uretheroscopy
A client is admitted for treatment of chronic renal failure (CRF). The nurse knows that this disorder increases the client's risk of: a) a decreased serum phosphate level secondary to kidney failure. b) an increased serum calcium level secondary to kidney failure. c) water and sodium retention secondary to a severe decrease in the glomerular filtration rate. d) metabolic alkalosis secondary to retention of hydrogen ions.
C
The nurse uses auscultation during assessment of the urinary system to A. check for ureteral peristalsis. B. assess for bladder distention. C. identify renal artery or aortic bruits. D. determine the position of the kidneys.
C
When reviewing the results of a patient's urinalysis, which information indicates that the nurse should notify the health care provider? A. pH 6.2 B. Trace protein C. WBC: 20-28 billion cells/L D. Specific gravity: 1.021
C
Which information will the nurse include when teaching the patient with a urinary tract infection (UTI) about the use of phenazopyridine (Pyridium)? a. Take the medication for at least 7 days. b. Use sunscreen while taking the Pyridium. c. The urine may turn a reddish-orange color. d. Use the Pyridium before sexual intercourse.
C
10. You are the nurse doing diet teaching for a chronic kidney disease patient. What type of dietary restrictions will patient need to have? Select all that apply a. Low carbohydrate b. High phosphorus c. Moderate protein d. Low potassium
C, D
A 26-year-old patient who is employed as a hairdresser and has a 10 pack-year history of cigarette smoking is scheduled for an annual physical examination. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the increased risk for A. renal failure. B. kidney stones. C. pyelonephritis. D. bladder cancer.
D
A hemodialysis client with a left arm fistula is at risk for arterial steal syndrome. The nurse should assess the client for which manifestations of this complication? A. Warmth, redness, and pain in the left hand. B. Aching pain, pallor, and edema of the left hand. C. Edema and reddish discoloration of the left arm. D. Pallor, diminished pulse, and pain in the left hand
D
A nurse assesses a client shortly after living donor kidney transplant surgery. Which postoperative finding must the nurse report to the physician immediately? a) Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L b) Serum potassium level of 4.9 mEq/L c) Temperature of 99.2° F (37.3° C) d) Urine output of 20 ml/hour
D
When teaching a patient scheduled for a cystogram via a cystoscope about the procedure, the nurse tells the patient A. "Your doctor will insert a lighted tube into the bladder, and little catheters will be inserted through the tube into your kidney." B. "Your doctor will place a catheter into an artery in your groin and inject a dye that will visualize the blood supply to the kidneys." C. "Your doctor will inject a radioactive solution into a vein in your arm and the distribution of the isotope in your kidneys and bladder will be checked." D. "Your doctor will insert a lighted tube into the bladder through your urethra, inspect the bladder, and instill a dye that will outline your bladder on x-ray."
D
Which of the following would the nurse expect to find when reviewing the laboratory test results of a client with renal failure? a) Increased red blood cell count b) Decreased serum potassium level c) Increased serum calcium level d) Increased serum creatinine level
D
Why patient would need Detrol and are there any warnings we should tell the patient about taking the medication? a. Overactive bladder may cause dizziness and fainting b. UTI, hives
a. Overactive bladder may cause dizziness and fainting Detrol may also cause prolonged QT interval
You are the nurse caring for a patient in the dialysis center and they are insistent they want more fluids to drink. How do you handle this situation? (Select all that apply) a. Reeducate the patient of their fluid restriction b. Consult dietician c. Let the patient have what they want d. Argue with the patient
a. Reeducate the patient of their fluid restriction b. Consult dietician
a nurse is assessing a client how has diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following is an expected finding: (SATA) a. fever b. peripheral edema c. polyuria d. dyspnea e. proteinuria
a. fever b. peripheral edema e. proteinuria
What type of problems would cause intrarenal acute kidney disease? (Select all that apply) a. inflammation b. shock c. infection d. cervical cancer
a. inflammation c. infection
What is the difference between oliguric phase and diuretic phase of Acute Kidney Injury? a. Oliguric phase they have urine output of over 400 ml per 24 hours. Diuretic phase is urine output less than 400 ml per 24 hours . b. Oliguric phase they have urine output of less than 400 ml per 24 hours. Diuretic phase has urine out put more than 400 ml per 24 hours.
b. Oliguric phase they have urine output of less than 400 ml per 24 hours. Diuretic phase has urine out put more than 400 ml per 24 hours.
A nurse is planning post procedure care for a client who recieved hemodialysis. Which of the following should the nurse include in her plan? (SATA) a. check BUN and creatinine b. administer meds held prior to dialysis c. observe for signs of hypovolemia d. assess the access site for bleeding e. evaluate blood pressure on side of AV access
b. administer meds held prior to dialysis c. observe for signs of hypovolemia d. assess the access site for bleeding
What would you do if you are working with a patient that has slit their AV fistula? a. apply pressure dressing and check on patient in 15 minutes b. apply pressure dressing, continue to hold manual pressure, call rapid response
b. apply pressure dressing, continue to hold manual pressure, call rapid response
A patient showing signs of rejecting kidney transplant post-op week one. What may be next plan? a. peritoneal dialysis b. increased immunosuppression therapy c. removal of transplanted kidney d. antibiotic therapy
b. increased immunosuppression therapy
A nurse is planning care for a client having peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following are appropriate nursing actions? (SATA) a. monitor serum glucose levels b. report cloudy dialysis return c. warm the dialysis in the microwave oven d. assess for shortness of breath e. check the access site dressing for wetness f. maintain medical asepsis when accessing the catheter insertion site
b. report cloudy dialysis return d. assess for shortness of breath e. check the access site dressing for wetness f. maintain medical asepsis when accessing the catheter insertion site
What is the side effect called where the patient's waste products from their kidneys comes up through their skin? a. proteinuria b. nephrotic syndrome c. uremic frost d. pyelonephritis
c. uremic frost
patient had TURP 4 hours post op which assessment findings indicate a need to notify the HCP? a. red, bloody urine b. urine output 200ml higher than intake c. pain rated 2 on a 0-10 scale d. BP 100/50, pulse 130bpm
d. BP 100/50, pulse 130bpm
male patient with a diagnosis of urethritis. Nurse assess for which signs and symptoms of this disorder? a. dysuria and proteiniuria b. hematuria and urgency c. hematuria and pyuria d. dysuria and penile discharge
d. dysuria and penile discharge
A patient returned to the unit after HD is c/o HA, nausea and extreme restless. What is priority? a. monitor client b. assess fistula site and dressing c. elevate head of the bed d. notify health care provider
d. notify health care provider