Rad Review 2022

In the blood pressure reading 140/75 mmHg, what does 140 represent? 1. The phase of relaxation of the cardiac muscle tissue 2. The phase of contraction of the cardiac muscle tissue 3. A higher-than-average diastolic pressure

2 only

Droplet precautions protect against all of the following EXCEPT A) TB B) Whooping cough C) Bacterial meningitis D) Influenza

A

Where is the "sterile corridor" located? A) Just outside the surgical suite B) Immediately inside each operating room door C) Between the draped patient and the instrument table D) At the foot end of the draped patient

C

To "excuse" suboptimal images, a radiographer makes a note on the exam requisition claiming that the patient "was uncooperative." That radiographer can legally be found guilty of? A) Battery B) Slander C) Libel D) Tort

C) Libel

Which of the following patient identifiers is not considered protected information? A) Address B) DOB C) MRN D) SSN

C) Medical Record Number

The ethical principle that aspires never to, above all, do harm describes A) Fidelity B) Veracity C) Nonmalficence D) Beneficence

C) Nonmalficence

The term "health care proxy" is synonymous with: A) Living will B) DNR C) Power of Attorney D) AHA

C) Power of Attorney

A diabetic patient who has prepared for a fasting radiographic examination is susceptible to a hypoglycemic reaction. This is characterized by? 1. Shaking and nervousness 2. Cold, clammy skin 3. Cyanosis

1 and 2 only

Adverse reactions to high osmolarity water-soluble contrast media that are classified as mild, include 1. Nausea 2. Pallor 3. Dyspnea

1 and 2 only

Before bringing each patient into the radiographic room throughout the day, the radiographer should? 1. Clean the x-ray table and change the pillowcase 2. Assemble the accessories needed for the examination 3. Warm the X-ray tube anode

1 and 2 only

Bone densitometry is often performed to? 1. Measure degree of bone demineralization 2. Evaluate the results of osteoporosis treatment/therapy 3. Evaluate the condition of soft tissue adjacent to bone

1 and 2 only

Chemical substances that are used to kill or deactivate pathogenic bacteria are called 1. Antiseptics 2. Disinfectants 3. Toxins

1 and 2 only

Examples of means by which infectious microorganisms can be transmitted via indirect contact include 1. A fomite 2. A vector 3. Nasal or oral secretions

1 and 2 only

Fluids and medications are administered to patients intravenously for which of the following reasons? 1. To promote rapid response 2. To administer parenteral nutrition 3. To achieve a local effect

1 and 2 only

Forms of intentional misconduct include 1. slander. 2. invasion of privacy. 3. negligence.

1 and 2 only

From the following protocols for infection prevention, which apply to airborne precautions? 1. Have the patient wear a surgical mask 2. Personnel must wear N95 filtered mask 3. Personnel must wear gowns for all interactions with infected patients

1 and 2 only

If extravasation occurs during an IV injection of contrast media, correct treatment includes which of the following? 1. Remove the needle 2. Apply pressure to the vein 3. Lower arm below heart level

1 and 2 only

Maslow's hierarchy of basic human needs includes which of the following? 1. Self-esteem 2. Love and belongingness 3. Death with dignity

1 and 2 only

Pulse is commonly measured at: 1) Radial artery 2) Carotid artery 3) Mandibular artery

1 and 2 only

Skin discoloration owing to cyanosis may be observed in the 1. Gums. 2. Earlobes 3. Corneas

1 and 2 only

The risk of inoculation with HIV is considered high for which of the following entry sites? 1. Broken skin 2. Perinatal exposure 3. Accidental needle stick

1 and 2 only

The risk of inoculation with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is considered high for the following: 1. Broken skin 2. Shared needles 3. Conjunctiva

1 and 2 only

To prevent disease transmission, linens used for patients should 1. Be only used once per patient 2. Be folded inward after use before removing from a surface 3. Be shaken to remove any loose debris before placing in the hamper

1 and 2 only

When caring for the elderly, it is important to remember that, as one ages, there is often a decrease in: 1. Reaction time 2. Strength 3. Long-term memory

1 and 2 only

Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of anemia? 1. Decreased number of circulating red blood cells 2. Decreased hemoglobin 3. Hematuria

1 and 2 only

Which of the following is (are) symptom(s) of shock? 1. Pallor and weakness 2. Increased pulse 3. Fever

1 and 2 only

Which of the following medication routes refers to the term paranteral? 1. Subcutaneous 2. Intramuscular 3. Oral

1 and 2 only

Which of the following sites are commonly used for an intravenous injection? 1. Antecubital vein 2. Basilic vein 3. Popliteal vein

1 and 2 only

Which of the following situations warrant the use of a nasoenteric tube rather than a nasogastric tube? 1. Reduced gastric peristalsis with normal intestinal peristalsis 2. Removal of gas or fluid from bowel obstruction 3. Overactive gastric emptying, preventing adequate nutrient absorption

1 and 2 only

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding a two-member team performing mobile radiography on a patient with MRSA precautions? 1. One radiographer remains "clean"-that is, he or she has no physical contact with the patient 2. The radiographer who positions the mobile unit also makes the exposure 3. The radiographer who positions the cassette also relieves the cassette and removes it from its plastic protective cover

1 and 2 only

Which of the following statements regarding the human gonadal cells are true? 1. The female oogonia reproduce only during fetal life 2. The male spermatogonia reproduce continuously 3. Both male and female stem cells reproduce only during fetal life

1 and 2 only

Which of the following factors can cause an increase in blood pressure: 1) Anxiety 2) Younger age 3) Exercise

1 and 3

A diabetic patient who has taken insulin while preparing for a fasting radiologic examination is susceptible to a hypoglycemic reaction. This is characterized by 1. Fatigue 2. Cyanosis 3. Restlessness

1 and 3 only

A site where an infectious organism can remain viable and from which transmission can occur is called 1. A reservoir 2. An autoclave 3. A carrier

1 and 3 only

Blood pressure may be expressed as 120/95. What does 95 represent? 1. The phase of relaxation of the cardiac muscle tissue 2. The phase of contraction of the cardiac muscle tissue 3. A higher-than-average diastolic pressure

1 and 3 only

Guidelines for cleaning contaminated objects or surfaces include which of the following? 1. Clean from the least contaminated to the most contaminated areas 2. Clean in a circular motion, starting from the center and working outward 3. Clean from the top down

1 and 3 only

Syncope is a result of 1. A drop in blood pressure 2. A narrowing of blood vessels 3. A decrease in heart rate 4. Increased oxygen to brain tissue

1 and 3 only

To compensate for gerontological body changes, reducing exposure factors would help to compensate for 1. Decreased muscle mass 2. Increased bone density 3. Weight loss 4. Reduced alertness

1 and 3 only

Which of the following is a medication included in an emergency cart that increases heart rate? 1. Atropine 2. Diphenhydramine 3. Epinephrine

1 and 3 only

Which of the following statements would be true regarding tracheostomy patients? 1. Tracheostomy patients have difficulty speaking 2. A routine chest x-ray requires the tracheostomy tubing to be rotated out of view 3. Audible rattling sounds indicate a need for suction

1 and 3 only

With a patient suffering abdominal pain, it is frequently helpful to? 1. Elevate the head slightly with a pillow 2. Perform the examination in the Trendelenburg position 3. Place a support under the knees

1 and 3 only

The following diseases are characterized by vector mode transmission 1. Malaria 2. Measles 3. TB 4. Lyme disease 5. Mumps

1 and 4

Chest drainage system should always be kept 1. Below the level of the patient's chest 2. Above the patient's chest 3. At the level of the patient's diaphragm

1 only

Compared to oral temperature, which of the following temperature sites would result in slightly higher values: 1) Rectal 2) Axillary 3) Forehead

1 only

Physical changes characteristics of gerontologic patients usually include 1. Loss of bone 2. Loss of hearing 3. Loss of mental alertness

1 only

The radiographer is required to perform which of the following procedures prior to entering a contact isolation room with a mobile x-ray unit? 1. Put on gown and gloves only 2. Put on gown, gloves, mask, and cap 3. Clean the mobile x-ray unit

1 only

What should you do if you discover while taking patient history that the patient scheduled for an intravenous urogram (IVU) takes metformin hydrochloride daily but has no evidence of AKI and with eGFR greater or equal to 30 mL/1.73^2? 1. Proceed with the examination if kidney function is normal 2. Instruct the patient to withhold the metformin for 48 hours after the examination 3. Reschedule the examination until the patient has been off metformin for 48 hours

1 only

Which of the following would be useful for an examination of a patient suffering from Parkinson disease? 1. Short exposure time 2. High ratio grid 3. Compensating filtration

1 only

A radiologic technologist can be found guilty of a tort in which of the following situations? 1. Failure to shield a patient of childbearing age from unnecessary radiation 2. Performing an examination on a patient who has refused the examination 3. Performing an examination on the wrong patient

1, 2, 3

The legal document or individual authorized to make an individual's health care decisions, should the individual be unable to make them for himself or herself, is the? 1. Advance health care directive 2. Living will 3. Health care proxy

1, 2, 3

When radiographing young children, it is helpful to 1. Let them bring a toy 2. Keep explanations simple and honest 3. Be cheerful and unhurried

1, 2, 3

Which of the following must be included in the patient's medical record or chart? 1. Diagnostic and therapeutic orders 2. Medical history 3. Informed consent

1, 2, 3

A minor reaction to the IV administration of a contrast agent can include 1. Few hives 2. Nausea 3. Flushed face

1, 2, and 3

A substance or method used to cleanse the large bowel prior to a barium enema is called 1. Cathartic 2. Cleansing enema 3. Purgative

1, 2, and 3

Air and gas can be used as contrast agents in which of the following studies? 1. Arthrography 2. Myelography 3. Fluoroscopy

1, 2, and 3

All drug packages must provide certain information required by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration. Some of the information that must be provided includes 1. The generic name. 2. Contraindications. 3. The usual dose.

1, 2, and 3

Body substances and fluids that are considered infectious or potentially infectious include 1. Sputum 2. Synovial fluid 3. Cerebrospinal fluid

1, 2, and 3

For a patient who just had a fluoroscopic barium enema, which post-examination instructions should be given: 1) Drink plenty of fluids 2) Eat a high fiber diet 3) Limit caffeine

1, 2, and 3

Functions of the Swan-Ganz catheter include(s) evaluation of 1. Oxygen saturation 2. Medication effects 3. Ventricular failure

1, 2, and 3

If a contrast agent is considered to have high viscosity, it can also 1. Require increased pressure during injections 2. Utilize smaller gauge needle sizes 3. Possess a thick, syrupy texture

1, 2, and 3

If an inpatient experiences a syncopal episode during a radiographic procedure in the medical imaging department, how should the radiographer respond? 1. Assist the patient into a dorsal recumbent position and elevate their feet and legs above the level of their head 2. Loosen any tight clothing on the patient 3. Apply a moist compress to the patient's forehead and have them remain recumbent until they feel capable of undergoing the remainder of the procedure or returning to their room

1, 2, and 3

Improper support of a patient's fractured lower leg (tibia/fibula) while performing radiography could result in 1. Movement of fracture fragments. 2. Tearing of soft tissue, nerves, and blood vessels. 3. Initiation of muscle spasm.

1, 2, and 3

Patient preparation for an Upper GI with small bowel follow through includes: 1) NPO 8 hours before the exam 2) Low-residue diet 48 hours before the exam 3) Avoidance of tobacco products during NPO period

1, 2, and 3

Radiographers should wear gloves when they might come in contact with 1. Wounds 2. Mucous membrane 3. Body fluids containing blood

1, 2, and 3

Some proteins in latex can produce mild to severe allergic reactions. Medical equipment that could contain latex includes 1. Tourniquets. 2. Enema tips. 3. Catheters.

1, 2, and 3

Symptoms associated with a mild to moderate allergic reaction to contrast media include 1. Sneezing 2. Hoarseness 3. Wheezing

1, 2, and 3

Symptoms of impending diabetic coma include 1. Increased urination. 2. Sweet-smelling breath. 3. Extreme thirst.

1, 2, and 3

Symptoms of impending diabetic coma include 1. increased urination. 2. sweet-smelling breath. 3. extreme thirst.

1, 2, and 3

Symptoms of inadequate oxygen supply include 1 Dyspnea. 2 Cyanosis. 3 Retraction of intercostal spaces.

1, 2, and 3

The decision as to whether to deliver ionic or nonionic contrast medium should include a preliminary patient history including, but not limited to 1. Patient age 2. History of respiratory disease 3. History of cardiac disease

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following drugs may be used as a vasoconstrictor for a patient experiencing an anaphylactic reaction? 1. Adrenalin 2. Vasopressin 3. Atropine

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following factors can contribute to hypertension? 1. Obesity 2. Smoking 3. Stress

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following medical devices and/or implants are visible on radiographic images? 1. Intrauterine devices (IUDs) 2. Inner ear prosthesis 3. Aneurysm clips

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the proper care of a patient with a tracheostomy? 1. Employ sterile technique if you must touch a tracheostomy for any reason 2. Before you suction a tracheostomy, the patient should be well aerated 3. Never suction for longer then 15 seconds, permitting the patient to rest in between

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following is/are requirements regarding patient demographic information? 1. Workstations that display images with patient demographic information should be located in controlled access areas of the facility 2. Technologists should be able to alter information contained in the image file sent to PACS to correct errors without documenting the change 3. Technologists should be able to change patient information as an error prevention step post processing before sending images to PACS 4. At a minimum, demographic information should include the following: patient name, or ID number, exam date, side marker, and facility name where the exam was performed

1, 3, 4

Common blood vessels utilized for pulse detection are 1. Radial 2. Parietal 3. Dorsalis pedis 4. Temporal

1, 3, and 4

The ARRT Rules of Ethics are 1. aspirational 2. mandatory 3. minimally acceptable standards

2 & 3

When radiographing the elderly, it is helpful to 1. Move quickly 2. Address them by their full name 3. Give straightforward instructions

2 and 3

Facsimile transmission of health information is : 1. Not permitted 2. Permitted for urgently needed patient care 3. Permitted for third-party payer hospitalization certification

2 and 3 only

Federal regulations regarding infection control in the workplace, as amended by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), make which of the following requirements? 1. Hepatitis B immunizations must be made available to all hospital employees 2. Puncture-proof containers must be provided for all used needles 3. Follow-up care must be provided to any staff accidentally exposed to blood splash/needle stick

2 and 3 only

For patients with a perforated bowel, which contrast media could be used for a barium enema: 1) Barium sulfate 2) Omnipaque 3) Isovue

2 and 3 only

Honor code violations that can prevent a radiography student from meeting ARRT certification requirements include? 1. Failing one or more courses in the radiography program 2. Being suspended from the radiography program 3. Being dismissed/expelled from a radiography program

2 and 3 only

When lifting a patient from a wheelchair? 1. Bend down and place your arms underneath their arms, then use your back to straighten out until they are in a standing position 2. Use your legs to push yourself up as you stand while maintaining normal lumbar lordosis and tightening of the core 3. When lifting with two or more persons, discuss the transfer before attempting it to reduce confusion and strain

2 and 3 only

Which of the following medical equipment is used to determine blood pressure? 1. Pulse oximeter 2. Stethoscope 3. Sphygmomanometer

2 and 3 only

Which of the following patient rights is violated by discussing privileged patient information with an individual who is not involved with the patient's care? 1. The right to considerate and respectful care 2. The right to privacy 3. The right to continuity of care

2 only

Which of the following would be a reason for performing an orbits series? 1. Hemolytic anemia 2. Prior employment as a steel worker 3. Orthopedic implants

2 only

In what order should the following contrast examinations be performed on the same patient? 1. Upper GI series 2. IVU 3. BE

2, 3, 1

Possible side effects of an iodinated contrast medium that is administered intravenously include all of the following except 1. A warm, flushing feeling 2. Altered taste 3. A few hives

3 only

A device used to restrict the free movement of a patient or a body part during the performance of a medical imaging exam is? A) Classified as immobilization, is meant to be temporary, and does not require a separate physician's order B) Classified as a restraint, can remain in place after the exam is over, and does not require a physician's order C) Not recommended for use with pediatric patients D) Can be utilized in place of effective communication with the patient to reduce total exam time

A

A drug's chemical name is most closely related to A) Generic name B) Trade name C) Brand name D) Proprietary name

A

A patient who is diaphoretic is experiencing A) Profuse sweating B) Hot, dry skin C) Dilated pupils D) Warm, moist skin

A

A patient whose systolic blood pressure is consistently greater than 140 mmHg usually is considered A) Hypertensive B) Hypotensive C) Average/normal D) Baseline

A

A radiographer who tells the patient that he or she will have to repeat this uncomfortable examination if the patient does not try harder to cooperate can be accused of A) Assault B) Battery C) False imprisonment D) Defamation

A

A small glass container containing a single medication dose is called a(n) A) Ampule B) Vial C) Vacutainer D) Medicine bottle

A

A technologist brings the portable machine to the ED, preparing to take a portable chest x-ray on the patient in critical bay 4. As you approach, the nursing assistant is already in the room with a sphygmomanometer at the bedside. What is she about to measure? A) Blood pressure B) Oxygen concentration in the blood C) Respiration exhalation force D) Cerebral spinal fluid pressure

A

A vasodilator would most likely be used for A) Angina B) Cardiac arrest C) Bradycardia D) Antihistamine

A

Accidental injection of medication or contrast medium into tissues around a vein is termed A) Extravasation B) Hematoma C) Venipuncture D) Collateral circulation

A

All of the following rules regarding proper hand washing technique are correct except A) Keep hands and forearms higher than elbows B) Use paper towels to turn water off C) Wash to 1 inch above the wrists D) Carefully wash all surfaces and between fingers

A

An autoclave provides which method of pathogenic removal? A) Surgical asepsis B) Microbial dilution C) Disinfection D) Chemical sterilization

A

An emetic is used to A) Induce vomiting B) Stimulate defecation C) Promote elimination of urine D) Inhibit coughing

A

An iatrogenic infection is one caused by A. physician intervention. B. blood-borne pathogens. C. chemotherapy. D. infected droplets.

A

As health care professionals aspire to design their actions to always benefit their patients, to only bring about good for their patients, they are aspiring to what moral principle? A) Beneficence B) Nonmaleficence C) Autonomy D) Veracity

A

Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the? A) Right main stem bronchus B) Left main stem bronchus C) Esophagus D) Proximal stomach

A

Before performing a CT exam using an intravenous iodinated contrast agent, the radiographer should check the patient's blood chemistry levels. which of the following is a normal blood urea nitrogen (BUN) range in an adult patient? A) 8-25 mg/100mL B) 0.6-1.5 mg/100dL C) 70-100 mg/dL D) 170-199 mg/mL

A

Difficulty breathing precipitated by stress and causing bronchospasm best describes A) Asthma B) Anaphlyaxis C) Myocardial infarct D) Rhinitis

A

During a grand mal seizure, the patient should be A) protected from injury. B) placed in a semiupright position to prevent aspiration of vomitus. C) allowed to thrash freely. D) given a sedative to reduce jerky body movements and reduce the possibility of injury.

A

For newborns (0-3 months of age), which pulse rate range is normal: A) 100-150 BPM B) 70-130 BPM C) 40-60 BPM D) 60-100 BPM

A

Hirschsprung disease, or congenital megacolon, is related to which of the following age groups? A) Neonate B) Toddler C) Adolescent D) Adult

A

Imaging the incorrect patient qualifies as A) Battery B) Assault C) False imprisonment D) Slander

A

In her studies on death and dying, Dr. Elizabeth Kubler-Ross described the first stage of the grieving process as A) Denial B) Anger C) Bargaining D) Depression

A

In order to prevent glass fragments from entering a drug, which type of needle is necessary to draw injectables from a glass ampule? A) Filtration B) Subcutaneous C) Intramuscular D) Intradermal

A

Sternal compressions during CPR are made with the heels of the hands located about A) 1 1/2 in. superior to the xiphoid tip B) 1 1/2 in. inferior to the xiphoid tip C) 3 in. superior to the xiphoid tip D) 3 in. inferior to the xiphoid tip

A

The condition that results from a persistent fetal foramen ovale is A) An atrial septal defect B) A ventricular septal defect C) A patent ductus arteriosus D) Coarctation of the aorta

A

The mechanical device used to correct an ineffectual cardiac rhythm is a A) Defibrillator B) Cardiac monitor C) Crash cart D) Resuscitation bag

A

The medical abbreviation meaning "three times a day" is A) tid B) qid C) qh D) pc

A

The most frequent site of hospital-acquired infection is the A) Urinary tract B) Blood C) Respiratory tract D) Digestive system

A

The term used to describe an individual with a core temperature higher than 100 degrees F A) Pyrexic B) Hypoexemic C) Anemic D) Anaerobic

A

The term used to describe expectoration of blood from the bronchi is A) Hemoptysis B) Hematemesis C) COPD D) Bronchitis

A

Tracheotomy is an effective technique most commonly used to restore breathing when there is A) Respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx B) Crushed tracheal rings owing to trauma. C) Respiratory pathway closure owing to inflammation and swelling D) All the above

A

What is the needle angle usually recommended for intramuscular drug injection? A) 90 degrees B) 75 degrees C) 45 degrees D) 15 degrees

A

When all of the following exams are necessary, in which order should they be scheduled: A) Cystogram, upper GI with SBFT, esophagogram B) Upper GI with SBFT, esophagogram, cystogram C) Esophagogram, upper GI with SBFT, cystogram D) Cystogram, esophagogram, upper GI with SBFT

A

When caring for a patient with an IV line, the radiographer should keep the medication A) 18 to 20 inches above the level of the vein B) 18 to 20 inches below the level of the vein C) 28 to 30 inches above the level of the vein D) 28 to 30 inches below the level of the vein

A

Which of the following blood pressure measurements might indicate shock? A) Systolic pressure lower than 60 mmHg B) Systolic pressure higher than 140 mmHg C) Diastolic pressure higher than 140 mmHg D) Diastolic pressure lower than 90 mmHg

A

Which of the following devices is used to determine blood oxygenation levels? A) Pulse oximeter B) Sphygmomanometer C) Stethoscope D) Cardiac telemeter

A

Which of the following is the term used to describe any infection that is acquired in a hospital? A) Nosocomial B) Iatrogenic C) Idiopathic D) Purulent

A

Which of the following radiographic procedures uses an intrathecal route of introducing a drug or contrast medium? A) Myelogram B) Arteriogram C) Esophagram D) Excretory urogram

A

Which of the following techniques can help prevent falls during patient transfer? A) Utilize a gait belt to help grasp onto the patient while assisting them to a standing position B) To move the patient's trunk, hold onto their upper arm to support them C) Bring the patient's weaker side closest to the table before having them stand for a transfer D) Position yourself behind the wheelchair as the patient stands

A

Which of the following women is likely to have the most homogeneous glandular breast tissue? A) A post pubertal adolescent B) A 20-year-old with one previous pregnancy C) A menopausal woman D) A postmenopausal 65-year-old

A

When considering blood return from the lungs via the pulmonary veins, which of the following statements are true? (select the two that apply) A) The blood is well oxygenated B) The blood is deoxygenated C) The blood returns to the right atrium D) The blood returns to the left atrium

A and D

A radiographer who discloses confidential information to unauthorized individuals may be found guilty of A) Invasion of privacy B) Slander C) Libel D) Defamation

A) Invasion of privacy

Which of the following apply to informed consent? A) Patients who sign their own informed consent must be competent to do so B) Parents and legal guardians can sign informed consent for minors C) Consent is transferrable between providers (i.e., if a patient signs consent and the provider of the procedure changes, they can still use the signed consent form) D) All areas of the consent form must be filled out prior to patient and/or guardian signing E) Patient cannot refuse care after signing informed consent

A, B, D

Which of the following are aspects of informed consent: (choose 3) A) The provider must discuss the procedure/treatment with the patient and describe what it will entail B) Alternative procedures and treatments are presented and discussed C) Information on informed consent documents can be filled out after the patient has provided a signature D) The patient must be informed of any risks associated with the procedure or treatment

A, B, D

Which of the following are included in the 6 main routes of infection transmission? (select the four that apply) A) Airborne B) Droplet C) Mechanical D) Vector E) Prion F) Fomite

A, B, D, and F

Benefits of proper body ergonomics include: (select 3) A) Maintenance of balance B) Reduction of stress on joints and soft tissue C) Increased use of energy D) Decreased risk of injury E) Decreased safety during transfers

A, B, and D

Which of the following factors may result in an increase respiratory rate: (choose 3) A) Age younger than 3 years B) Exercise C) Decreased emotional distress D) Age over 65 years E) Lower altitudes

A, B, and D

Which of the following should be avoided during patient transfers: (choose 3) A) Jerking movements B) Twisting C) Tightening of the core D) Use of short lever upper extremities E) Bending of the lower back

A, B, and E

Which three of the following are physiologic changes associated with advanced age: A) Increased skin tears B) Decreased balance C) Increased bone density D) Increased cognitive capacity E) Decreased muscle mass F) Increased connective tissue density

A, B, and E

Which situations may result in a lower than average resting heart rate: (choose 3) A) Age over 65 years B) Low temperatures C) Decreased fitness conditioning D) High temperatures E) Emotional stress F) Increased fitness conditioning G) Age younger than 10 years

A, B, and F

Positive contrast agents are associated with (select the five that apply): A) Iodine B) Negative contrast C) High atomic number D) Radiopacity E) Positive contrast F) Air G) Radiolucency H) Barium

A, C, D, E, and H

Which of the following items are categorized as vital signs? (select the four that apply) A) Blood pressure B) Electrocardiograph (ECG or EKG) C) Respiratory rate D) Pulse rate E) Complete blood count (CBC) F) Temperature

A, C, D, and F

From the following list, select 4 appropriate choices for safe lifting of a heavy object from the floor to the table A) Bend your knees and keep your back straight B) Walk toward the table as you lift, to save time C) Lift the object to a standing position, and then walk the object to the table D) Hold your breath as you brace to lift E) Bend at the waist F) Keep your feet apart, slightly wider than your shoulders G) Bring the object in close to your body H) Stand slightly to the left or the right of the object and twist as you reach for it

A, C, F, and G

According to the AHA's patient care partnership, a patient considering options for treatment should be provided which 3 of the following 6 pieces of information: A) The benefits and risks of each treatment B) Details regarding outcomes of other patients who have had the same treatments C) The institution's liability insurance policy D) Whether the treatment is part of a research study E) Financial obligations for utilizing an uncovered treatment option F) A record of recent medical errors at the facility that involved the treatments being considered

A, D, E

A technologist is performing an assisted transfer from wheelchair to radiographic exam table with adjustable height. The patient has previously suffered a CVA and presents with left-side weakness. Which four of the following six options will best achieve a successful transfer with reduced change of injury for both patient and technologist? A) The technologist should discuss the steps of the transfer with the patient beforehand to make sure the patient understands B) The wheelchair seat should be parallel to the exam table and the table should be elevated to a height 5 inches taller than the seat of the chair C) The wheelchair should be turned toward the table at a 45 degree angle, with the patient's week side closest to the table D) The technologist should squat at the knee and the hip, keeping the back straight offering support and standing with the patient E) The wheelchair should be turned toward the table at a 45 degree angle with the patient's strong side closest to the table F) The footrests of the wheelchair should be pivoted out of the way or removed before beginning

A, D, E, and F

A MRI procedure is contraindicated for a patient who has A) Herniated disk B) Aneurysm clips C) Dental fillings D) Subdural bleeding

B

A patient developed hives several minutes after injection of an iodinated contrast agent. What type of drug should be readily available? A) Analgesic B) Antihistamine C) Anti-inflammatory D) Antibiotic

B

A quantity of medication introduced intravenously over a period of time is termed A) IV push B) Infusion C) Bolus D) Hypodermic

B

An acute reaction caused by ingestion or injection of a sensitizing agent describes A) Asthma B) Anaphylaxis C) Myocardial infarction D) Rhinitis

B

Disinfecting agents that function to stop bacterial growth are classified as A) Bactericidal B) Bacteriostatic C) Antiseptics D) Sterilizers

B

During measurement of blood pressure, which of the following occurs as the radiographer control arterial tension with the sphygmomanometer? A) The brachial vein is collapsed B) The brachial artery is temporarily collapsed C) The antecubital vein is monitored D) Oxygen saturation of arterial blood is monitored

B

Each of the following is an example of a fomite except A) Doorknob B) Tick C) Spoon D) X-ray table

B

Emphysema is a destructive pathology, requiring an adjustment in radiographic technique for adequate exposure. which of the following is NOT a symptom of emphysema? A) Barrel-like diameter of chest B) Depression of shoulders C) Retraction of neck muscles D) Wheezing

B

For medicolegal reasons, radiographic images are required to include all of the following information except? A) The patient's name and/or identification number B) The patient's birth date C) A right or left side marker D) The date of the examination

B

Graves disease is associated with A) Thyroid underactivity B) Thyroid overactivity C) Adrenal underactivity D) Adrenal overactivity

B

Hemovac or Penrose drains are used for A) Bile duct drainage. B) Tissue drainage of wounds or postoperative drainage. C) Decompression of the gastrointestinal tract. D) Feeding patients who are unable to swallow food.

B

Logrolling is a method of moving patients having suspected A) Head injury B) Spinal injury C) Bowel obstruction D) Extremity fracture

B

Patients' rights include which of the following? 1. The right to refuse treatment 2. The right to confidentiality 3. The right to possess his or her radiographs

B

Rapid onset of severe respiratory or cardiovascular symptoms after ingestion or injection of a drug, vaccine, contrast agent, or food or after an insect bite best describes? A) Asthma B) Anaphylaxis C) Myocardial infarction D) Rhinitis

B

Some patients, such as infants and children, are unable to maintain the necessary radiographic position without assistance. if mechanical restraining devices cannot be used, which of the following should be requested or permitted to hold the patient? A) Transporter B) Patient's father C) Patient's mother D) Student radiographer

B

Techniques that function to reduce the spread of microbes are termed A) Surgical asepsis B) Medical asepsis C) Sterilization D) Disinfection

B

The Heimlich maneuver is used if a patient is A) In cardiac arrest B) Choking C) Having a seizure D) Suffering from hiccups

B

The condition of below-normal blood pressure is termed A. Hyperthermia. B. Hypotension. C. Hypoxia. D. Bradycardia.

B

The expansion and recoil of an artery describes a vital sign measurement called A) Auscultation B) Pulse C) Bruit D) Stroke volume

B

The frequency of cardiac ventricular contractions is reported in which value: A) BPH B) BPM C) BPS D) BPI

B

The legal doctrine res ipsa locquitur means which of the following? A) Let the master answer. B) The thing speaks for itself. C) A thing or matter settled by justice. D) A matter settled by precedent.

B

The medical term for nosebleed is A) Vertigo B) Epistaxis C) Urticaria D) Aura

B

The moral principle of preventing harm to a patient is called A) Negligence B) Nonmaleficence C) Veracity D) Fidelity

B

The most commonly used method of low-flow oxygen delivery is the A) Oxygen mask B) Nasal cannula C) Respirator D) Oxyhood

B

The needle angle usually used for subcutaneous injection is A) 15 degrees B) 45 degrees C) 90 degrees D) 180 degrees

B

The radiographic accessory used to measure the thickness of body parts in order to determine optimal selection of exposure factors is the A) Fulcrum B) Caliper C) Collimator D) Ruler

B

The term dysplasia refers to A) Difficulty speaking B) Abnormal development of tissue C) Malposition D) Difficult or painful breathing

B

Unlawful touching of a person without his or her consent is termed A) Assault B) Battery C) False imprisonment D) Invasion of privacy

B

What type of precautions prevent the spread of infectious diseases such as TB and chickenpox? A) Contact precautions B) Airborne precautions C) Protective isolation D) Strict isolation

B

When a patient with an arm injury needs help in undressing, the radiographer should? A) Remove the clothing from the injured arm first B) Remove the clothing from the uninjured arm first C) Always remove clothing from the left arm first D) Always cut clothing away from injured extremity

B

Which corrective action should be taken when receiving a requisition for a right knee study when the patient is complaining of pain in the mid tibial shaft? A) Take the x-ray examination ordered; the referring physician knows what they are looking for B) Contact the referring physician to clarify the order C) Take the exam of the body part the patient is complaining about, then call the referring physician to amend the order D) Send the patient home and tell them to return with a clarified order

B

Which nonverbal communication term refers to "the demonstration of a movement or gesture": A) Touch B) Pantomime C) Posture D) Appearance

B

Which of the following could be a side effect from anti arrhythmic medications? A) Tachycardia B) Bradycardia C) Diarrhea D) Constipation

B

Which of the following legal phrases defines a circumstance in which both the health care provider's and the patient's actions contributed to an injurious outcome? A) Intentional misconduct B) Contributory negligence C) Gross negligence D) Corporate Negligence

B

Which of the following medications would most likely be prescribed for a patient suffering from CHF or hypertension? A) Cathartic B) Diuretic C) Antihistamine D) Anticholinergic

B

While measuring blood pressure, the first pulse that is heard is recorded as the A) Diastolic pressure B) Systolic pressure C) Venous pressure D) Valvular pressure

B

_________ is a mild allergic reaction, while _________ is considered a moderate allergic reaction symptom A) Warmth; flushing B) Nausea; urticaria C) Bronchospasm; dysphagia D) Bronchial edema; metallic taste

B

If prosecuted by the US department of justice, what is the criminal penalty for knowingly disclosing a patient's protected health information (PHI)? A) $100,000 fine B) $50,000 fine and up to 1 year imprisonment C) $100,000 fine and up to 5 years imprisonment D) $250,000 fine and up to 10 years imprisonment

B) $50,000 fine and up to 1 year imprisonment

An RT (ARRT) is supervising manager of a short-staffed imaging facility in a state requiring certification. An applicant arrives whose ARRT certification has lapsed. The manager hires him to fill a 20-hour position doing chest and extremity radiography. The supervisor is guilty of A) Breaking the ARRT Code of Ethics B) Breaking the ARRT Rules of Ethics C) Malpractice D) Nothing, because position responsibilities are limited

B) Breaking the ARRT Rules of Ethics

The moral principle that describes the radiographer's aspiration to do no harm or to allow no act that might cause harm to the patient is termed A) Beneficence B) Nonmaleficence C) Autonomy D) Veracity

B) Nonmaleficence

Verbal disclosure of confidential information that is detrimental to the patient is referred to as A) Battery B) Slander C) Libel D) Assault

B) Slander

An Advanced Health Care Directive, or living will, is in effect when: A) One physician has verified that the patient cannot make medical decisions on their own B) The patient's condition complies with the state's living will law C) Physical conditions have improved but were previously such that the patient could not make health care decisions D) The patient is of sound mind but refuses treatment

B) The patient's condition complies with the state's living will law

Which of the following can impede verbal communication effectiveness: (choose 3) A) Decreased distance between the sender and receiver B) Excessive background noise C) Cultural differences D) Increased eye contact E) Increased message complexity

B, C, and E

A nosocomial infection is a(n) A) Infection acquired from frequent handshaking B) Upper respiratory tract infection C) Infection acquired in a hospital D) Type of rhinitis

C

A patient suffering form hematuria A) Is vomiting blood B) Has excessive waste urea in the bloodstream C) Tests positive for blood in their urine D) Exhibits urine output that is visibly clear

C

A patient undergoing a routine radiographic exam of the shoulder has a few questions for the technologist post exam. The patient's orthopedic surgeon has scheduled them for a contrast MR study of the shoulder joint, post arthrogram. The patient is nervous about the MR procedure and wants to know what it's like, having never had one before. The technologist should do which of the following? A) Tell the patient about their cousin who suffers from claustrophobia and how her MR exam was a nightmare B) Explain how the MR scanner will use high frequency sound waves and capture the echo created by the tissues of the shoulder to create an image C) Explain that while there is a strong magnetic field in the MR exam, the staff carefully screens patients as part of a strict safety protocol and that the most troubling part is typically the noise, as the machine makes a jackhammer sound during imaging D) Explain that the patient will be injected with a small dose of radioactive isotope and gamma emissions will be captured by a scintillator and an array of photomultiplier tubes

C

A radiographer has recently joined your staff. you are aware that this individual has had her ARRT certification revoked. realizing that your state requires certification, you speak to a supervisor about the matter. your supervisor replies that he knows but made an exception "because we are so short staffed." you should? A) Report this to the next supervisor in charge B) Report this to the facility administrator C) Report this directly to the ARRT D) Do and/or say nothing

C

A signed consent form is necessary prior to performing all the following procedures except A) Myelogram B) Cardiac catheterization C) Upper GI series D) Interventional vascular procedure

C

According to the CDC, all the following precaution guidelines are true except A) Airborne precautions require that the patient wear a mask B) Gowns are indicated when caring for patients on MRSA precautions C) Patients under MRSA precautions require a negative-pressure room D) Gloves are indicated when caring for a patient on droplet precautions

C

An illness of unknown or obscure cause is said to be A) Systemic. B) Epidemic. C) Idiopathic. D) Pathogenic.

C

Contrast agents that can be used during excretory urography include all of the following except A) Omnipaque B) Isovue C) Barium sulfate D) Visipaque

C

Cyanosis is blueish hue to the skin due to which of the following? A) Decreased blood flow B) Increased oxygenation C) Decreased oxygenation D) Increased blood flow

C

Each of the following statements regarding respiratory structures is true except A) The left lung has two lobes B) The lower portion of the lung is the base C) Each lung is enclosed in peritoneum D) The main stem bronchus enters the lung hilum

C

Early symptoms of anaphylaxis include all EXCEPT which of the following? A) Itching of palms and soles B) Dysphagia C) Cool skin D) Tingling

C

Hand gestures, pantomime, and facial expressions are all forms of which type of communication: A) Verbal B) Audible C) Nonverbal D) Attentive listening

C

In reviewing a patient's blood chemistry, which of the following blood urea nitrogen (BUN) ranges is considered normal? A) 0.6 to 1.5 mg/100mL B) 4.5 to 6 mg/100mL C) 8 to 25 mg/100mL D) Up to 50 mg/100mL

C

Methods of parenteral drug administration include all the following, EXCEPT A) Topical B) Subcutaneous C) Oral D) Intramuscular E) Intrathecal

C

Nitroglycerin _____ blood vessels, resulting in _____ blood flow A) Relaxes; decreased B) Constricts; decreased C) Relaxes; increased D) Constricts; increased

C

Of the four stages of infection, which is the stage during which the infection is most communicable? A) Latent period B) Incubation period C) Disease phase D) Convalescent phase

C

Patients are instructed to remove all jewelry, hair clips, metal prostheses, coins, and credit cards before entering the room for an examination in A) Sonography. B) Computed axial tomography (CAT). C) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). D) Nuclear medicine.

C

Radiographs are the property of the A) radiologist. B) patient. C) health-care institution. D) referring physician

C

Sterile technique is required when contrast agents are administered A) Rectally B) Orally C) Intrathecally D) Through a nasogastric tube

C

The complete killing of all microorganisms is termed A) Surgical asepsis B) Medical asepsis C) Sterilization D) Disinfection

C

The condition of low neutrophils is termed: A) Neutrogenic B) Neutropathic C) Neutropenic D) Neutroemic

C

The higher the gauge number of an intravenous (IV) needle, A) The larger is its diameter B) The greater is its length C) The smaller is its diameter D) The shorter its length

C

The medical abbreviation meaning "every hour" is A) tid B) qid C) qh D) pc

C

The medical term for hives is A) Vertigo B) Epistaxis C) Urticaria D) Aura

C

The mode of pathogenic transmission associated with sneezing and coughing is: A) Vector B) Fomite C) Droplet D) Direct contact

C

What is the first treatment for extravasation of contrast media during an IV injection? A) Apply a hot compress B) Apply a cold compress C) Apply pressure to the vein until bleeding stops D) Remove the needle and locate a sturdier vein immediately

C

When a radiographer is obtaining a patient history, both subjective and objective data should be obtained. An example of subjective data is that A) The patient appears to have a productive cough B) The patient has a blood pressure of 130/95 mm Hg C) The patient states that she experiences extreme pain in the upright position D) The patient has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant of the left breast

C

When interviewing a patient, what is it that the health care professional can observe? A) Symptoms B) History C) Objective signs D) Chief complaint

C

When referencing respiration, which of the following terms is used to describe the amount of air exchanged: A) Rhythm B) Rate C) Depth D) Character

C

Where should a urine drainage bag be in relationship to the patient's bladder? A) Above the level of the bladder B) Between the patient's legs C) Well below the level of the bladder, but not touching the floor D) On top of the patient's abdomen

C

Which ethical principle is related to sincerity and truthfulness? A) Beneficence B) Autonomy C) Veracity D) Fidelity

C

Which of the following conditions describes a patient who is unable to breathe easily while in the recumbent position? A) Dyspnea B) Apena C) Orthopnea D) Oligopnea

C

Which of the following is a condition in which an occluded blood vessel stops blood flow to a portion of the lungs? A) Pneumothorax B) Atelectasis C) Pulmonary embolism D) Hypoxia

C

Which of the following is a violation of correct sterile technique? A) Gowns are considered sterile in the front down to the waist, including the arms B) Sterile gloves must be kept above the waist level C) Persons in sterile dress should pass each other face to face D) A sterile field should not be left unattended

C

Which of the following is an inappropriate manner of speaking to a patient? A) "Are you warm enough?" B) "Do you have any questions about this examination?" C) "I have several other patients, so please change quickly." D) "Can I help you out of the chair?"

C

Which of the following is another name for an intermittent injection port? A) Hypodermic needle B) Butterfly needle C) Heparin lock D) Intravenous (IV) infusion

C

Which of the following is not a sign of extravasation? A) Site redness B) Pain C) Hives around the injection site D) Cooling of the skin surrounding the fluid

C

Which of the following pathologic conditions would require a decrease in exposure factors? A) CHF B) Pneumonia C) Emphysema D) Pleural effusion

C

Which of the following situations would be considered an act of health care fraud? A) Sharing information about a patient's condition with an individual not involved in the patient's care B) Performing a radiographic procedure without the patient's permission C) Erasing a CR image plate to cover up a mistake of performing an x-ray procedure on the wrong body part D) Restraining a patient against their will

C

While a radiographer is taking a patient's history, the patient states they have Lyme disease. The radiographer should assume the patient contracted this microbial infection from a A) Fomite B) Reservoir C) Vector D) Carrier

C

A consent form, signed by the patient and the physician, is necessary prior to performing all of the following procedures EXCEPT A) Myelogram B) Cardiac catheterization C) Upper GI series D) Interventional vascular procedure

C) Upper GI series

All the following are part of the Patient Care Partnership except A) the right to refuse treatment B) the right to review one's records C) the right to order an x-ray procedure D) the right to have an advance directive

C) the right to order an x-ray procedure

Select the 3 correct completions. To reduce the back strain that can result from moving heavy objects, the radiographer should A) Hold the object away from his/her body B) Bend at the waist to lift C) Lift with bent knees and straight back D) Push or roll heavy object E) Provide a broad base of support

C, D, and E

A patient arrives at the ED with a knife wound to the abdomen; the patient's shirt and pants are soaked with blood. The patient's blood pressure has dropped to 90/40 mmHg and her pulse is 134 BPM. What type of shock is the patient experiencing? A) Cardiogenic B) Neurologic C) Latrogenic D) Hypovolemic

D

A radiographer is performing a radiographic procedure and notices that the patient has a labored and difficult breathing pattern. This respiratory pattern indicates which of the following conditions? A) Eupnea B) Apnea C) Hyperventilation D) Dyspnea

D

A technologist encountering a patient that experiences vertigo should: A) Administer oxygen at a rate of at least 3 liters/minute B) Begin CPR C) Bring the patient a cold compress to place against their forehead D) Guide the patient to a sitting or recumbent position

D

A variety of information is utilized to determine a patient's health status and to reach a diagnosis. some are subjective, like the patient's narrative, their perception of pain, and the doctors bedside observations, as two doctors may come away with two distinct impressions from the same pt interview. Some data are objective, like blood pressure, heart rate, oxygen saturation, and blood glucose level. The use of the word objective here means which of the following? A) Predictable B) Having a "normal" range C) Latent/occult D) Measureable

D

All of the following are part of the patient care partnership except the right to A) Voluntary participation in proposed research studies B) Continuity of care C) Considerate and respectful care D) Review any hospital/institutional records

D

All the following are central venous lines except A) Port-a-Cath B) PICC C) Swan-Ganz catheter D) Salem-sump

D

All the following are rules of good body ergonomics except A) Keep back straight, avoid twisting B) Keep the load close to the body C) Push, do not pull, the load D) Keep a narrow base of support

D

All the following statements regarding oxygen delivery are true except A) Oxygen is classified as a drug and must be prescribed by a physician B) The rate of delivery and mode of delivery must be part of a physician order for oxygen C) Oxygen may be ordered as continuously or as need (prn) D) None of the above; they are all true

D

All the following statements regarding pediatric positioning are true except A) For radiography of the kidneys, the CR should be directed midway between the diaphragm and the symphysis pubis B) If a pediatric patient is in respiratory distress, a chest radiograph should be obtained in the AP projection rather than in the standard PA projection C) Chest radiography on a neonate should be performed in the supine position D) Radiography of pediatric patients with a myelomeningocele defect should be performed in the supine position

D

An autoclave is used for A) Dry heat sterilization B) Chemical sterilization C) Gas sterilization D) Steam sterilization

D

Anaphlyaxis is a term used to describe A) Inflammatory reaction B) Bronchial asthma C) Acute chest pain D) Allergic shock

D

Contact precautions are required when handling patients with all of the following except A) C. difficile B) Adenovirus C) VRE D) Rubeola

D

During the various stages of infection, the host can be contagious during A) Latency B) Incubation C) Illness D) All stages of the infection cycle

D

Extravasation occurs when A) There is an absence of collateral circulation B) There is a multitude of vessels supplying one area C) Excessive contrast medium is injected D) Contrast medium is injected into surrounding tissue

D

Ipecac is a medication used to induce vomiting and is classified as a(n) A) Diuretic. B) Antipyretic. C) Antihistamine. D) Emetic.

D

Lyme disease is caused by bacteria carried by deer ticks. The tick bite may cause fever, fatigue, and other associated symptoms. This is an example of transmission of an infection by A) Droplet contact B) Vehicle C) Airborne route D) Vector

D

Of the following, which patient(s) would present an increased risk of barium aspiration during an upper GI series? A) Stroke patients B) Mentally challenged patients C) Patients with AMS D) All the above

D

Streptococcus pyogenes, Candida albicans, Bordetella petussis, and Mycobacterium tuberculosis are pathogens that cause disease in which body system? A) Blood B) Genitourinary tract C) Skin D) Respiratory tract

D

The cycle of infection includes which of the following components? 1. Reservoir of infection 2. Susceptible host 3. Means of transmission

D

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) may be transmitted 1. By sharing contaminated needles 2. From mother to child during birth 3. By intimate contact with body fluids

D

The infection streptococcal pharyngitis ("strep throat") is caused by a A) Virus B) Fungus C) Protozoon D) Bacterium

D

The structure labeled number 3 in Figure 2-39 is the A) Left subclavian artery B) Brachiocephalic artery C) Right common carotid artery D) Left vertebral artery

D

What type of shock is from loss of blood? A) Septic B) Neurogenic C) Cardiogenic D) Hypovolemic

D

When disposing of contaminated needles, they are places in a special container using what procedure? A) Recap the needle, remove the syringe, and dispose of the needle B) Do not recap the needle, remove the syringe, and dispose of the needle C) Recap the needle and dispose of the entire syringe D) Do not recap the needle and dispose of the entire syringe

D

When medications are administered parenterally, they are given A) Orally B) Orally or intravenously C) Intravenously or intramuscularly D) By a route other than via the GI tract

D

Which blood pressure range is typical for adolescents: A) 90-100/60-67 B) 130-139/80-89 C) 120-140/80-90 D) 100-120/65-75

D

Which fo the following effects foes an antibiotic have on the body? A) Decreases pain B) Helps delay clotting C) Increases urine output D) Combats bacterial growth

D

Which of the following diastolic pressure readings can indicate hypertension? A) 40 mmHg B) 60 mmHg C) 80 mmHg D) 100 mmHg

D

Which of the following is a concept of proper body ergonomics: A) Reducing the base of support by bringing your feet closer together creates a more stable foundation when lifting objects over your head B) Increasing distance between your center of gravity and the center of gravity for the object you are moving will increase the leverage needed to perform the action C) Pulling objects is easier on the joints and expends less energy than pushing an object D) Decreasing the distance between yourself and the patient you are transferring allows for better use of your upper extremities in the transfer

D

Which of the following is a normal BUN level" A) 0.25mg/100mL B) 4mg/100mL C) 6.5mg/100mL D) 10mg/100mL

D

Which of the following refers to infiltration of a contrast agent into soft tissues during an intravenous injection? A) Flocculation B) Attenuation C) Diaphoresis D) Extravasation

D

Which of the following routes of administration is NOT parenteral? A) Intradermal B) Subcutaneous C) Transdermal D) Nasogastric

D

Which of the following statements is correct with regard to assisting a patient from a wheelchair to an x-ray table? A) The wheelchair should be parallel with the x-ray table B) The patient's weaker side should be closer to the x-ray table C) The wheelchair should directly face the x-ray table D) The patient's stronger side should be closer to the x-ray table

D

You are about to perform an arthrogram on a non-english speaking patient. which of the following communication techniques is likely to be most effective at bridging the language barrier as you give the patient instructions and a brief description of the exam? A) Use common English rather than medical jargon to describe the procedure, stopping frequently to confirm that the patient understands B) Look up a translation of your explanation on a web-based translation software. Do your best to read the passage to the patient C) Invite the patient's daughter, who happens to speak both languages, into the exam, to translate your instructions D) Call the recommended telephone translator on the designated phone, supplied by the hospital for scenarios such as this. Explain to the translator what you wish to communicate and hand the phone to the patient, so that the translator can convey the information

D

You have encountered a person who is apparently unconscious. Although you open his airway, there is no rise and fall of the chest, no detectable pulse, and you can hear no breath sounds. You should A) Begin mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing, giving two full breaths B) Proceed with the Heimlich maneuver C) Begin external chest compressions at a rate of 70-80 compressions/min D) Begin external chest compressions at a rate of at least 100 compressions/min

D

You are working in the outpatient department and receive a patient who is complaining of pain in the right hip joint; however, the requisition asks for a left femur exam. What should you do? A) Perform a right hip examination B) Perform a left femur examination C) Perform both a right hip and a left femur examination D) Check with the referring physician

D) Check with the referring physician

You receive a patient who is complaining of pain in the area of the left fourth and fifth metatarsals; however, the requisition asks for a left ankle examination. What should you do? A) Perform a left foot examination B) Perform a left ankle examination C) Perform both a left foot and a left ankle examination D) Check with the referring physician

D) Check with the referring physician

Joseph Luckett Jr, is a competent second-year student. He has been imaging patients under indirect supervision for most of the day. All CR images are viewed at the workstation on the computer monitor, before being sent to the radiologist. After taking posteroanterior (PA) and lateral chest projections on a patient with a positive purified protein derivative (PPD) test, Joseph notices that he has "clipped" the apices on the PA projection. As per the policy of the department and program, he must consult with a technologist before repeating any images. The technologist takes a quick glance at his image and says, "It looks fine. Send it." "But what about the apices?" Joseph asks. He knows that imaging the apices is extremely important in suspected cases of TB. The technologist does not take a second look. "That's okay. It's just a routine. Send it." What is the most appropriate immediate action for Joseph to take? A) Ignore the technologist's advice and repeat the PA view. B) Send the images as suggested by the technologist. C) Send the images but, without informing the technologist, add the following comment: "Technologist advised against a repeat." D) Explain the clinical history to the technologist and stress that he is uncomfortable sending a suboptimal study.

D) Explain the clinical history to the technologist and stress that he is uncomfortable sending a suboptimal study

What is the appropriate action if a patient has signed consent for a procedure but, once on the radiographic table, refuses the procedure? A) Proceed-the consent formed is signed B) Send the patient back to his or her room C) Honor the patient's request and proceed with the next patient D) Immediately stop the procedure and inform the radiologist and the referring physician of the patient's request

D) Immediately stop the procedure and inform the radiologist and the referring physician of the patient's request

The legal doctrine respondeat superior means which of the following? A) A matter settled by precedent B) A thing or matter settled by justice C) The thing speaks for itself D) Let the master answer

D) Let the master answer