Radiography
Abduction
Movement of the body part away from the midline is called?
Adduction
Movement of the body part toward midline is called?
Upright and then supine
Mr. Thomas, who is 3 days post-op, has been transported to the department in a wheelchair for an abdominal series (upright and supine abdomen). In what sequence should these images be performed?
C. All of these
Nonverbal messages: a. are more accurate than verbal messages b. should be in sync with words you are speaking c. all of theses d. can show attitudes and feelings
d. All of the above
Of the following, what is unique in typical c-spine vertebrae compared with the vertebrae in the rest of the vertebral column? a. They have articular pillars b. They have transverse foramen c. They have bifid spinous processes d. All of the above
Incorrect caudal angle
On a PA Axial Projection (Caldwell) image of the skull, the petrous ridges are demonstrated inferior to the infraorbital margins. What positioning error occurred?
Patient's midcoronal plane is not parallel to the IR
On a PA chest image the clavicles are not horizontal, the manubrium is situated at the level of the 5th thoracic vertebra, and more than 1 inch (2.5cm) of the chest apices are demonstrated superior to the clavicles. What positioning error has occurred?
Hand and wrist over-pronated
On a lateral image of a forearm, the distal radius is visualized anterior to the distal ulna. What positioning error, if any, led to this radiographic finding?
Increase the central ray angle
On a portable AP semi-erect chest image the clavicles are horizontal, and less than 1 inch (2.5cm) of the chest apices are demonstrated superior to the clavicles. What positioning changes, if any, are required to improve this image?
From pubic symphysis up
On a supine abdomen, what should be included?
4
On a typical t-spine vertebra, how many costal demifacets are there?
2.5 mAs @ 60 kV
On an AP ankle x-ray, 5 mAs was used with 60 kV. If this technique gave an Agfa LGM number of 2.6, what new mAs should produce an LGM of 2.3?
32 mAs @ 80 kV
On an AP lumbar spine x-ray, 16 mAs was used with 80 kV. If this technique gave an Agfa LGM number of 2.0, what new mAs should produce an LGM of 2.3?
Glenoid Fossa/Cavity
On an AP oblique projection of the shoulder, what scapular structure will be demonstrated in profile?
With no rotation the spinous processes should be aligned in the center of the vertebral bodies
On an AP projection of the lumbar spine, how can you determine from the image if the patient was rotated or not?
The patient's fingers were not parallel to the IR
On an image of a PA oblique projection of a hand the interphalangeal joint spaces appear closed and the phalanges appear foreshortened. What positioning error, if any, led to this radiographic finding?
From diaphrams down
On an upright or decubitus abdomen, what should be included?
a. Motion un-sharpness
On the image, blurring is seen in one direction only. What type of un-sharpness might this be? a. Motion un-sharpness b. Photographic un-sharpness c. Geometric un-sharpness d. Intrinsic un-sharpness
On the AP oblique projection
On which view or projection of the lumbar spine will the zygapophyseal joints be best demonstrated?
8
One in how many Canadian women will develop breast cancer in their lifetime?
a. Heart valve prosthesis
Patients who have which thing cannot have an MRI at all? a. Heart valve prosthesis b. Vascular stent c. Tattoo d. Orthopedic implants
c. Orthopedic implants
Patients with which have to be carefully screened, but may be able to have an MRI? a. Aneurysm clips b. Tattooed makeup c. Orthopedic implants d. Transdermal patches if left on e. Hearing aids if left in
b. Scattered photons
Photoelectric interactions CANNOT produce: a. Characteristic x-rays b. Scattered photons c. Positive ions d. Photoelectrons
B. All of these
Poor listening can be the result of: a. daydreaming b. all of these c. too much information d. faster thinking speed than speaking speed
Stem cells, younger tissue and organs, and tissues with high metabolic rates.
According to Bergonie and Tribondeau, what types of tissues are most radiosensitive?
Monthly
According to SC35, how often should CR imaging plates be physically cleaned (not just erased)?
Weekly
According to SC35, how often should CR imaging plates be visually inspected?
10% or 0.2 HU
According to SC35, what is the limit of acceptability for the CT Noise test?
+/- 4 HU of zero
According to SC35, what is the limit of acceptability for the CT Number Accuracy test?
Must plot as a straight line or based on manufacturer's recommendations
According to SC35, what is the limit of acceptability for the CT number linearity test?
+/- 2 HU
According to SC35, what is the limit of acceptability for the CT uniformity test?
CT number for water = 0 +/- 4 HU, CT number for air = 1000 +/- 10 HU
According to SC35, what is the limit of acceptability for the calibration of CT number test?
Within 10% + 1ms
According to SC35, what is the limit of acceptability for the timer accuracy test?
100 mGy/minute
According to SC35, what is the limit of radiation dose air kerma (rate) for a fluoroscopic (radioscopic) unit equipped with an automatic intensity control, but without high intensity?
DNA
According to target theory, what molecule is a cell's "target"?
Department manager/supervisor
After an MRT completes an incident report, whom does it go to next?
a. Anode target angle
All answers affect the actual focal spot size and effective FSS. Which one controls the effective focal spot size only? a. Anode target angle b. Size of the physical focal spot c. Electric field on the focusing cup d. Distance between cathode and anode e. Length of the filament
Axial
All early scanners produced what type of slice or cut?
a. Afterglow
Although all are important, which one is NOT one of the four major characteristics of a CT detector? a. Afterglow b. Dynamic range c. Efficiency d. Responsiveness e. Stability
Rotation to the left (LPO)
An AP abdomen image demonstrates the right iliac wing narrower than the left. Which positioning error produced this outcome?
OID
An AP projection of the T-spine is performed AP to decrease what geometric factor?
b. Insufficient ulnar flexion
An image of a PA scaphoid with ulnar deviation reveals extensive overlap of the distal scaphoid and adjacent carpals. Which of the following factors can lead to this problem? a. Elevation of the hand and wrist b. Insufficient ulnar flexion c. Insufficient central ray angulation distally d. Excessive collimation
Adductor tubercle will be superimposed on the femur
An image of a mediolateral projection of the knee that is over-rotated toward the image receptor can be recognized how?
d. 48 mAs, 60 kV
An image of a patient is obtained using 40 mAs, 60 kV, and a 12:1 linear focused grid. What exposure factors should be used to produce a similar image of the same patient (and body part) with a grid ratio of 16:1? a. 33 mAs, 60 kV b. 40 mAs, 50 kV c. 40 mAs, 72 kV d. 48 mAs, 60 kV
Excessive CR angulation
An image of an AP Axial Projection (Towne) of the cranium shows that the posterior arch of C1 is visible within the foramen magnum. Which positioning error has occurred?
b. Increase the CR angulation
An image of an AP axial coccyx reveals that the symphysis pubis is superimposed over the distal end of the coccyx. Which modification is required for the repeat exposure? a. Decrease the CR angulation b. Increase the CR angulation c. Slightly oblique the patient d. Ask the patient to empty her bladder
Increase the cephalic central ray angle
An image of an AP axial projection of the clavicle demonstrates that the lateral and middle third of the clavicle are superimposed by the scapula. What positioning changes, if any, are required to improve this image?
Positioning is acceptable; do not repeat
An image of an AP humerus demonstrates the greater tubercle of the shoulder in profile. What positioning changes, if any, are required to improve this image?
Decrease medial rotation of the foot and ankle
An image of an AP oblique (mortise) reveals that the distal tibiofibular joint space is open. What positioning changes, if any, are required if a repeat exposure is performed?
Adjust rotation of the body
An image of an AP oblique projection of the shoulder for the glenoid cavity reveals that the anterior and posterior rims of the glenoid fossa are not superimposed. How do you produce a more acceptable image?
Patient is rotated to the right
An image of an AP pelvis reveals that the left obturator foramen is more open or elongated as compared to the right. What specific positioning error has occurred?
Rotate the knee medially
An image of an AP projection of a knee reveals almost total superimposition of the fibular head and the proximal tibia. What changes, if any, are required if a repeat exposure is performed?
a. Increase mA and decrease exposure time
An image of an AP projection of the abdomen demonstrates blurriness. These exposure factors were selected: 78 kV, 200mA, 2/10 seconds, grid and 40" SID. What change in exposure factors would minimize the blurriness? a. Increase mA and decrease exposure time b. Decrease mA and increase exposure time c. Increase mA and increase exposure time d. Decrease mA and decrease exposure time
The patient is rotated towards the affected side
An image of an AP projection of the scapula demonstrates that the patient's humerus was appropriately abducted to draw the scapula laterally, however the scapula is almost fully superimposing the ribs. What positioning error resulted in this superimposition?
c. Insufficient CR angulation
An image of an AP sacrum reveals that it is foreshortened and the sacral foramina are not clearly seen. What specific positioning error has occurred? a. Excessive CR angulation b. Rotation of the sacrum c. Insufficient CR angulation d. Wrong direction of the CR angle
d. Both A and B
Anatomically programmed radiography employs: a. Computized exposure controls. (Technical factors) b. Automatic exposure control c. Neither A or B d. Both A and B
e. All of the answers listed here are correct
Anatomically programmed radiography may employ: a. Computer selected technical factors b. Automatic exposure controls c. Techniques for average patients d. Techniques for large patients e. All of the answers listed here are correct
Arterial phase
Another name for bolus phase of contrast enhancement is:
Ventral
Anterior surface is also known as?
Late
Are early or late effects of main concern with medical diagnostic x-ray units?
0-30 seconds
Arterial phase typically has a timing of around what range?
Frequency
As kVp increases, which one of the following properties of the photons in the beam increases?
Percentage of photoelectric effect decreases with increasing kVp
As kVp is increased, what happens to the percentage of the attenuated beam that has photoelectric interactions?
Annually
As part of a QA/QM program, what is the minimum recommended frequency for the Collimator light/x-ray field congruence test?
Annually
As part of a QA/QM program, what is the minimum recommended frequency for the kV accuracy test?
Annually (Papp says every 6 months)
As part of a QA/QM program, what is the minimum recommended frequency for the perpendicularity test according to SC35?
Annually
As part of a QA/QM program, what is the minimum recommended frequency for the reproducibility test?
Annually
As part of a QA/QM program, what is the minimum recommended frequency for the timer accuracy test?
Increases
As the actual focal spot size increases, the effective focal spot size:
d. Increases
As the angle of the anode increases and the incident electron beam size remains the same, the effective focal spot size: a. Cannot be determined b. Remains the same c. Decreases d. Increases
Annually
At a minimum, how frequently shall protective apparel be tested for integrity?
Monthly
At a minimum, when should QC testing be performed on the CR Reader?
Monthly
At a minimum, when should QC testing be performed on the DR Detector?
Primary bronchi
At the carina, the trachea divides or bifurcates into:
0 mm Al
At what amount of aluminum added under the collimator do we expect the mR reading to be the highest?
15 degrees
At what angle do you penetrate the skin when attempting IV cannulation?
Males: 20-35° cephalad Females: 30-45° cephalad
At what angle is the central ray directed for a inferosuperior axial projection of the pelvis (outlet) for males and females?
40° caudad for both males and females
At what angle is the central ray directed for a superoinferior axial projection of the pelvis (inlet)?
5 minutes
At what fluoro time does an alarm go off?
When it exceeds 90 kV
At what kV is a grid required when performing a mobile AP chest x-ray?
60-100%
At what kVp range is the 15% rule considered the most accurate?
Anterior superior iliac spine
At what level (palpable landmark) is the top edge of the I.R. placed for an anteroposterior projection of the proximal femur?
Inframammary fold
At what level on the patient's body is the image receptor placed for a craniocaudal projection in mammography?
It occurs when the electronic signal is sent through the ADC.
At what point does the fluoroscopic image signal become a "digital" signal?
2-40 weeks
At what stage of pregnancy may a childhood cancer be induced if irradiation occurs?
2-15 weeks
At what stage of pregnancy may mental retardation be induced if irradiation occurs?
50 to 100 chest x-rays/year
Background radiation compares to how many chest x-rays per year?
c. Lateral Projection
Billy Bob arrives at a rural hospital with a clinical history of a possible pituitary adenoma. Which radiographic projection would best demonstrate signs of erosion of the sella turcica? a. Acanthioparietal Projection (Reverse Waters) b. PA Axial Projection (Caldwell) c. Lateral Projection d. Parietoacanthial Projection (Waters)
AP Oblique with medial rotation
Bobby Sue enters ER after a crush injury to her right foot. The attending ER physician would like a clear look at her cuboid to rule out a fracture. Which position would best demonstrate this bone?
-minimize patient exposure to ionizing radiation -ensure adequate protection of x-ray personnel -adequately protect others from x-ray exposure
Briefly, what are the three principle objectives of SC35?
Dorsal
Posterior surface is also known as?
Projection
Projection, view, and/or position: Anteroposterior
Position
Projection, view, and/or position: Decubitus
View & Position
Projection, view, and/or position: Lateral
View & Position
Projection, view, and/or position: Posterior Oblique
Position
Projection, view, and/or position: Prone
Position
Projection, view, and/or position: Recumbent
Projection
Projection, view, and/or position: Superoinferior
Ulceration and denudation of the skin
Radiation induced problems that occur with the skin are erythema, epilation and desquamation. What does desquamation refer to?
Cathode side
Radiation intensity is greater exiting the x-ray tube on which side of the tube?
To demonstrate air-fluid levels
Radiographically, why is it important to have at least one view wither upright or decubitus when doing an abdominal series?
e. all of the above.
Reject-repeat analysis results depend on: a. equipment employed. b. procedures performed. c. Radiographer competence. d. types of patients. e. all of the above.
b. Justifying reprimand of incompetent technologist
Reject-repeat analysis should be used for all EXCEPT which one? a. Improving total quality of work b. Justifying reprimand of incompetent technologist c. Reducing department running costs d. Reducing dose to patients
e. a, b or c
Rejection rates below 3% may indicate what? a. Data collection error b. Exceptionally competent Technologists c. Wide acceptance limits of Radiologist d. a or b e. a, b or c f. b or c
10 times
CT skin dose is how much in relation to conventional radiography skin dose?
0.195
Calculate the penumbra if the focal spot is 1.2 mm, the SID 100 cms, and the OID is 14 cms
Yes
Can x-radiation remove an electron from its orbit?
No
Can x-ray photons be refracted?
No
Can x-rays be reflected like light?
No
Can you focus x-ray photons?
No
Can you see ionizing radiation?
Caudad
Cephalad is the opposite of?
d. PA chest, erect abdomen, supine abdomen
Choose the most appropriate positions for an abdominal series examination on an ambulant patient. a. Supine chest, supine abdomen, erect abdomen b. PA chest, erect abdomen, left lateral decubitus abdomen c. PA chest, supine abdomen, right lateral decubitus abdomen d. PA chest, erect abdomen, supine abdomen
10 Gy
Convert 1000 rads to Grays.
11 to 55
Safety Code 35 recommends asking female patients between what years of age the date of their last menstrual period?
A PA should done for scoliosis instead of an AP. PA decreases breast dose because it places the breasts further from the tube and the x-rays will be attenuated (their number decreased) before they reach the breasts.
Should you perform a scoliosis x-ray AP or PA, and why?
2 minutes or more
Delayed phase typically has a timing of around what range?
A high-speed electron interacts with the force-field around the nucleus of an atom. Because the nucleus is positive and the projectile electron negative, the nucleus can exert a force on the electron causing it to change its direction. This change causes the electron to slow down and therefore lose kinetic energy. This lost energy is converted into an x-ray photon.
Describe a Bremsstrahlung interaction.
The high-speed incident electron interacts with an inner shell electron in a target atom in the anode knocking it out of its orbit. This ionizes the atom and makes the atom unstable. Electrons want to be at the lowest energy level possible, so an electron from a shell further out drops into the "hole" created when the first electron is knocked out. In order for this outer shell electron to drop into the shell, it must release excess energy in the form of a photon. The amount of energy released is the difference between the binding energies of the shell this electron is leaving and the binding energy of the shell it is dropping to.
Describe a Characteristic interaction.
6.6%
Determine the percentage difference between radiographic kV set at 60 and the test result obtained from a kV accuracy test of 64 kV.
Fluoroscopy
Do fluoroscopy or general x-ray exams have higher DRLs?
No
Do x-rays have a charge?
Name of the agent, the dose (volume and concentration), flow rate(s), and injection site
Documentation of the IV contrast administration is a legal necessity. What pieces of information should be included in the record?
Compton effect
Does Compton scattering or Photoelectric effect occur more predominantly at higher kVs?
High K number
Does a high or a low K number give better contrast improvement for a grid?
Short scale
Does a mammographic image have long scale contrast or short scale contrast?
Blurry
Does an image with poor definition look blurry, too dark, or too light?
Energy must be added to overcome the binding energy of the shell
Does energy need to be added, or is it given off when a 'k' shell electron is removed from its orbit?
High
Does high or low contrast occur if areas with drastically different atomic numbers are adjacent to each other, with the same thickness and packing density?
High kVp
Does high or low kVp allow more of the resulting scatter to exit the patient's body, thereby decreasing patient dose, but decreasing image contrast?
Low
Does high or low kVp produces more photoelectric effect interactions?
Decrease
Does increased scatter reaching the image receptor cause image contrast to increase or decrease?
Quality
Does kVp determine quality or quantity of the x-ray beam?
High kVp
Does more scatter escape the patient when using high or low kVp?
More severe
Does shape distortion become more or less severe as you move further from the central ray?
Full inhalation - to bring the diaphragm to it's lowest point
Does the patient suspend respiration after full inhalation or full exhalation when imaging the upper ribs and why?
Therapeutic ultrasound
Does theraputic or diagnostic US use a continuous wave, because there is no need to receive a returning echo?
Increase
Does using Continuous Exposure increase or decrease patient dose?
Increase
Does using Magnification Mode increase or decrease patient dose?
Decrease
Does using Non-Magnification Mode increase or decrease patient dose?
Decrease
Does using Pulsed Beam increase or decrease patient dose?
Increase
Does using the High Intensity control increase or decrease patient dose?
Decrease
Does using the Low Intensity control increase or decrease patient dose?
It will be scattered with reduced energy
During a Compton interaction, what happens to the incident photon?
Interpolation
During a helical CT scan, what post-processing algorithm corrects blurred or slanted images to represent axial images?
It will be completely absorbed by inner shell electrons
During a photoelectric interaction what happens to the incident photon?
a. absorbed and scattered
During attenuation, x-rays are: a. absorbed and scattered b. scattered c. neither absorbed nor scattered d. absorbed
a. 0.5 mm
During radiography, what amount of aluminum equivalent tube filtration would result in the highest entrance skin exposure to the patient? a. 0.5 mm b. 1.5 mm c. 2.5 mm d. 3.5 mm
Long SID
During radiography, would use a long or a short SID decrease patient dose if radiation intensity at the image receptor is maintained at the same level and the patient remains in contact with the x-ray table?
Increase
During the fluoroscopy quality control testing of image noise, if the mA were decrease, how would the amount of quantum mottle noise change in the image?
Decrease
During the fluoroscopy testing of image noise, as we increase the mA, how should the amount of quantum mottle noise change in the image?
0.0 mm Al
During the half value layer test for a radiographic unit, what amount of Al do we expect the mR reading to be the highest?
the tube is angled (CR not perpendicular to image receptor and part, which are parallel to each other)
Elongation alone (without excessive magnification) occurs when:
the tube is misaligned (angled)
Elongation alone (without magnification) occurs if:
the image receptor is angled (not parallel to part being examined, with part perpendicular to central ray)
Elongation with excessive magnification occurs when:
The image receptor is misaligned (angled)
Elongation with magnification occurs if:
Greater trochanter
Excluding the symphysis, which landmark can the technologist palpate to identify the inferior margin of the abdomen?
Performance testing
Fluoroscopic image lag would be part of which type of testing?
Performance testing
Fluoroscopic low contrast resolution/ detectability would be part of which type of testing?
Above diaphragm to below symphysis
For a CT abdomen/pelvis what is the scan range?
In the lower 1/3 of the orbit
For a PA projection (15° Caldwell) of the cranial bones, if the OML is perpendicular to the cassette and the central ray is 15° caudad, where should the petrous pyramids be demonstrated in the image?
Convergence line
For a grid to properly be focused, the x-ray tube must be located along what line?
5 minutes
For a lateral decubitus abdomen, what is the minimum length of time that a patient must lie on their side prior to exposure?
20 minutes
For a lateral decubitus or upright abdomen, what is the optimal length of time that a patient should be either lying down on their left side or sitting upright?
5 mAs @ 75 kV
For a lateral sinuses x-ray, what mAs will be needed if 10 mAs at 75 kV gives a Philips EIS number of 400 and 200 was desired?
Perpendicular and parallel
For a properly positioned lateral projection of the cranial bones, what are the positions of the IP line and the IOML, respectively?
30° caudad to OML entering (2.5") above glabella, passing through the EAM
For an AP axial projection (Towne's) of the cranial bones, what is the central ray?
6 mAs @ 70 kV
For an AP oblique knee x-ray, what mAs will be needed if 3 mAs at 70 kV gives a Philips EIS number of 100 and 200 was desired?
The infraorbitomeatal line (IOML)
For an AP projection during cerebral angiography, what positioning line of the skull should be perpendicular to the horizontal plane?
Parallel to the IR
For an AP projection of the humerus, how are the epicondyles positioned in relation to the IR?
5 mAs @ 70 kV
For an AP shoulder x-ray, what mAs will be needed if 10 mAs at 70 kV gives a Philips EI number of 100 and 200 was desired?
10° cephalad
For an Axiolateral Oblique Projection of the mandible, how would the central ray be adjusted if the patient's head is tilted 15° towards the IR?
External rotation of the humerus
For an anteroposterior projection of the shoulder, how is the arm positioned to demonstrate the greater tubercle in profile?
As soon as possible after an incident occurs
For best practice, when should an incident report be completed?
Inspiration
For chest x-rays, respiration is suspended on:
25-30°
For the AP oblique projection of the SI joints, how much is the affected side elevated from the table?
+/- 0.5 lp/cm or 15%
For the CT spatial resolution test, what is the limit of acceptability?
45 to 60 degrees from the IR
For the PA oblique projection (Scapular Y), how much do you need to rotate the patient?
Expiration
For the abdomen, respiration is suspended on:
Head in a true lateral position
For the axiolateral oblique projection of the mandible, what is the position of the patient's head if you wish to demonstrate the ramus of the mandible?
perpendicular, parallel
For the lateral projection of the coronal plane is ____________ to the IR, and the midsagittal plane is ____________ to the IR. (perpendicular/parallel)
Perpendicular
For the lateral projection of the skull, the interpupillary line is ___________ to the IR.
Perpendicular
For the lateral view of the cranium, the interpupillary line is _____________ to the IR
90 degrees from the body with the arm on the posterior thorax
For visualization of the coracoid and acromion processes in a lateral projection of the scapula, how should the arm be positioned?
Brain CT
For what CT exams is the contrast drip infusion or hand injection method common?
Towne's
For what projection of the skull is the OML at 30 degrees to the IR?
2 & 3
For which two of the following will more scatter radiation get produced, and therefore escape the patient's body? 1. Low kVp 2. High kVp 3. Thicker body part (correct technique used) 4. Thinner body part (correct technique used)
The part being examined is angled (not parallel to the image receptor), with image receptor perpendicular to central ray.
Foreshortening occurs when:
the part is misaligned (angled)
Foreshortening with magnification occurs if:
AP erect abdomen
Free air in the abdomen is best demonstrated on which projection & patient position?
c. Pelvis x-ray
From which of the following maternal exams would you expect the fetus to receive the highest dose of radiation if it were exposed? a. Hand x-ray b. Chest x-ray c. Pelvis x-ray d. Skull x-rays
No change
Generally, what effect will changing from a large focal spot to a small focal spot have upon radiation intensity at the image receptor?
Linear, non-threshold
Genetic effects are considered what type of radiation response?
<10 HU
HU's on a benign homogenous adrenal mass would measure what on an unenhanced CT?
a. photoelectric absorption interactions
High contrast is directly related to the number of: a. photoelectric absorption interactions b. Compton scattering interactions
By generation, which describes x-ray tube motion and detector assembly
How are CT scanners categorized?
Perpendicular to the IR
How are the humeral epicondyles positioned for an AP projection of the shoulder with internal rotation?
To the costal cartilage which in turn attaches to the sternum
How are the true ribs attached anteriorly?
Less collimation (larger field) will produce more scatter and can cause premature termination of the exposure causing an underexposed image
How can collimation affect the amount of dose to the image receptor with AEC?
Use thinner sections
How can partial volume effect be compensated for?
Both ASIS should be equidistant from the table
How can the technologist ensure there is no rotation of the pelvis when positioning for an AP projection of the pelvis?
It's at the level of the inferior angle of the scapula
How can you locate the level of T7 when centering for a chest x-ray?
Let the patient know you are talking to them by saying their name and introducing yourself, let them know where you are, and allow them to touch you so that they can visualize where you are located.
How do you approach and communicate with a blind patient?
Avoid entering vein too fast or too deep.
How do you avoid penetrating the posterior wall of the vein when inserting the IV catheter?
Decrease it
How do you change WW to increase image contrast?
Blood is visible in flashback chamber.
How do you confirm placement of the IV catheter?
Intensity relates inversely to the square of the distance
How do you describe the relationship between the inverse square law and radiation intensity?
Apply pressure to vein above the catheter tip
How do you prevent blood from leaking out of the catheter hub once the needle is withdrawn?
Breaths per minute
How do you record respiration rates?
Stabilize vein by anchoring it with your thumb and stretching the skin downward.
How do you stabilize the vein during venipuncture?
This system converts electricity into sound, transmits waves into a patient's body and picks up returning echoes that are based on the patient's tissues
How does DMS work?
Multiple detectors are added along the z axis, so following a line form patients head to feet
How does MDCT work?
This system uses magnetism to align the patient's hydrogen poles and then radio-frequency waves to rotate the poles, which then emit an R/F signal when the external R/F signal is turned off, and this small R/F signal is used to create an image
How does MRI work?
This diagnostic imaging system uses a radiotracer fluorine-18 fluorodeoxyglucose injected intravenously. The glucose is absorbed by body cells, along with the radioactive element causing annihilations that can be picked up by coincidence detection by a ring of gamma camera detectors, and converted into an image
How does Positron emission tomography work?
This method uses a radio-isotope introduced intravenously that gets emitted from the patient and picked up with one, two, or three head gamma cameras and converted into a cross sectional image
How does Single photon emission computed tomography work?
X-ray photons converted to light which in turn is converted into electrical signal
How does a (solid-state) scintillation detector type of CT detector operate?
Less evident
How does a larger SID affect the Anode Heel Effect?
More evident
How does a larger image receptor size for the same SID affect the Anode Heel Effect?
Increased voltage to the electrostatic lenses moves the focal point of the electron beam closer to the input screen which increases image size
How does an I.I. magnify the fluoroscopic image electronically?
-Two sets of images are acquired at the same time -A smaller amount of contrast medium is needed to image the cerebral circulation
How does biplane imaging benefit a patient who is having a cerebral angiogram?
Increases
How does increasing kV change the penetrability of the beam?
Differential absorption decreases as kV increases
How does kV control differential absorption?
Differential absorption decreases as the kV increases
How does kV control differential absorption?
To image small differences in soft tissue, low kVp settings are required. This increases the number of photoelectric interactions occurring to get maximum differential absorption.
How does kV relate to differential absorption, used in the creation of the image?
To image small differences in soft tissue, low kVp settings are required. This increases the number of photoelectric interactions occurring to get maximum differential absorption.
How does kV relate to differential absorption, used in the creation of the radiological image?
Prevents motion artifacts
How does proper compression of the breast improve image quality?
The anode target absorbs some of the radiation produced so there is more radiation at the cathode end of the image
How does the anode heel effect affect radiation intensity and why?
ABC adjusts kV and mA depending upon the size of body part being imaged
How does the automatic brightness control (ABC) of an image intensified fluoroscopic unit work?
The smaller the gauge of the catheter the greater amount of fluid which can flow through the catheter.
How does the gauge of an IV catheter relate to the flow of fluid?
Obliquely in the left anterior chest
How does the heart lie in the chest, in a typical patient?
Daily and more often if needed
How frequently should the x-ray tube focal spot be warmed up in a CT unit?
Pitch = table movement / beam width
How is CT pitch calculated in single detector CT units?
Differential absorption is decreased when kV increases
How is differential absorption affected when kV increases?
Increase in light photons due to the conversion efficiency of the output screen
How is flux gain of an image intensifier in fluoroscopy described?
15 degrees caudad
How is the central ray directed for a PA axial projection (Caldwell) of the cranium when the patient's OML is perpendicular to the IR?
10 degrees caudad
How is the central ray directed when positioning a patient for an AP axial projection of the coccyx?
30-35 degrees cephalad
How is the central ray directed when positioning a patient for an AP axial projection of the sacroiliac joints?
15 degrees cephalad
How is the central ray directed when positioning a patient for an AP axial projection of the sacrum?
Lesser trochanter is not visible; or barely visible.
How is the correct degree of internal rotation of the hip determined when assessing the DXA hip scan?
c. Perform both open and closed mouth images
How is the excursion of a condyle demonstrated on an axiolateral projection (Schuller's) of the TMJs? (choose the best answer) a. Perform only the closed mouth image b. Perform only the open mouth image c. Perform both open and closed mouth images d. Have the patient hold weights in both hands
Perpendicular to a line between the ASIS and symphysis pubis
How is the imaging receptor positioned when obtaining an axiolateral (cross-table) projection of the femoral neck?
On the same plane as the forearm
How is the shoulder positioned in an AP projection of the forearm?
Posteriorly and inferiorly
How is the spinous process directed in the t-spine?
The cathode end is closer to the chest wall
How is the x-ray tube in a mammography unit positioned to take advantage of the anode heel effect?
10-12 hours
How long does it take to recharge the batteries in a battery operated mobile x-ray unit?
Posterior 1st-10th ribs
How many (posterior or anterior) ribs should be visualized above the diaphragm to indicate good inspiratory effort from the patient on a PA chest?
L5 only, because it is wider and wedge-shaped so it can articulate with the sacrum
How many atypical l-spine vertebrae are there and what makes them atypical?
Four: T1 (superior facets & inferior demifacets) T9 (only superior demifacets) T11 & T12 (single superior facets)
How many atypical t-spine vertebrae are there and what makes them atypical?
5
How many atypical vertebrae are there in the t-spine?
126
How many bones are in the appendicular skeleton?
7
How many cervical vertebrae are there?
300,000 chest x-rays
How many chest x-rays in what time period would likely constitute a lethal dose?
14
How many costal facets does the sternum have?
3 cranial, 4 facial
How many cranial bones and facial bones are in the orbit, respectively?
30° - 45° medially
How many degrees and in what direction should the foot be rotated for an AP oblique projection to best demonstrate the great toe?
20° medially
How many degrees and in which direction should the foot and leg be rotated to best demonstrate the mortise joint for the AP oblique projection of the ankle?
15° cephalad
How many degrees and what direction is the central ray angled for the anteroposterior projection of the sacrum?
7 degrees
How many degrees are there between the OML and IOML?
12
How many joints are associated with one t-spine vertebra?
6
How many joints are associated with one typical c-spine vertebra?
6
How many joints are associated with one typical l-spine vertebra?
Twelve: Costovertebral (4), Costotransverse (2), Zygapophyseal (4), and Intervertebral disk spaces (2)
How many joints are associated with the body of a typical t-spine vertebra and what are they?
Six joints: 2 Zygapophyseal, 2 Sacroiliac, 1 Lumbosacral, 1 Sacrococcygeal
How many joints are associated with the sacrum?
18
How many joints are associated with the sternum?
Four: 1. alert conscious 2. drowsy, but responsive 3. unconscious, but reactive to painful stimuli 4. comatose
How many levels are described in Level Of Consciousness (LOC)?
2 and 3
How many lobes do the left and right lungs contain, respectively?
2
How many lobes does the left lung have?
3
How many lobes does the right lung have?
15-20
How many lobes make up the adult female breast?
0.25mm
How many millimeters of lead equivalency must be in protective gloves?
10 pairs
How many posterior ribs should be demonstrated with proper inspiration on a PA Chest?
1
How many rotations of the CT scanner are required to make one section image?
3-5
How many segments are in the coccyx?
5
How many segments are in the sacrum?
Five: 1. Denial 2. Anger 3. Bargaining 4. Depression 5. Acceptance
How many stages are in the grieving process and what are they?
No limit
How many times can you reset the fluoroscopic cumulative timer?
5
How many vertebrae are in the L-Spine?
12
How many vertebrae are in the t-spine?
2.5 mm
How much aluminum equivalency tube filtration is required for radiographic units with a maximum operating tube potential of over 70 kVp?
30 degrees medially (toward the IR)
How much do we rotate the foot for the AP oblique projection of the foot and in which direction?
2.5 mm al/eq
How much filtration (as a minimum) is required for an x-ray unit with a maximum kV at 70 kV or over?
Slight interosseous space
How much interosseus space should be visualized between the 3rd-4th and 4th-5th metacarpal shafts to indicate proper obliquity for a PA oblique projection of the wrist?
0.35 mm lead equivalency
How much lead equivalency is required for protective aprons when using kV from 101-149?
0.5 mm lead equivalency
How much lead equivalency is required for protective aprons when using kV of 150 or more?
0.25 mm lead equivalency
How much lead equivalency is required for protective aprons when using kV up to 100?
0.50 mm
How much lead equivalency is usually present in lead aprons if the x-ray kVp maximum is 150 kVp (from SC35)?
0.25mm
How much lead equivalency must be in gonad shields?
0.5mm
How much lead equivalency must be in thyroid collars?
0.5mm
How much lead equivalency protection must be in ceiling mounted protective acrylic shields and movable shields?
0.25 mm
How much lead equivalency protection must be in the back of wrap-around protective aprons used for interventional procedures with x-rays units?
0.5mm
How much lead equivalency should be in gonad shields?
should have 0.50, must have 0.25 mm
How much lead equivalent should and must be in gonad shields for use with up to 150 kVp(from SC35)?
Increase by 100% / Double it
How much must mAs be changed to double the amount of radiation exiting a patient?
20 to 30 degrees
How much should the knee be flexed for a lateral projection?
30°
How much should the midsagittal plane be rotated from the lateral position to demonstrate the body of the mandible for the axiolateral projection?
Daily
How often should CT air calibrations be performed?
Increase mAs
How should the Technologist get rid of quantum mottle on a radiographic image?
Angle the central ray 3-5 degrees caudad
How should the central ray be adjusted on a lateral projection of the cervicothoracic region (Swimmer's) when the patient cannot properly depress their shoulder?
Angled 5 to 7 degrees cephalad, entering a point 1 inch distal to the medial epicondyle
How should the central ray be directed on a lateral projection of the knee to ensure the femoral condyles are superimposed?
Dorsiflexed
How should the foot be positioned for the AP projection of the ankle?
In anatomic position with slight medial rotation
How should the legs be positioned for bilateral projections of the lower limbs?
Affected arm abducted 90 degrees
How should the patient's arm be positioned when performing an AP projection of the scapula?
Increase kVp
How should the technique be changed to increase beam penetration?
Decreased number of motion repeats.
How will good communication help decrease patient dose?
30 degrees caudad
How will the central ray be directed to obtain an AP axial projection (Towne method) of the cranium when the patient's orbitomeatal line (OML) is perpendicular to the IR?
37 degrees caudad
How will the central ray be directed to obtain an AP axial projection (Towne)of the skull when the patient's infraorbitomeatal (IOML) is perpendicular to the IR?
Equal on both sides
How would you expect the concavity of the phalanges to be demonstrated on a PA projection of the hand?
d. 100 mAs
How would you maintain radiographic intensity at the image receptor with mAs when changing from 100 kVp at 50 mAs to 85 kVp if all else remains the same? a. 25 mAs b. 43 mAs c. 58 mAs d. 100 mAs
a. 36 mAs at 85 kVp
If 50 mAs at 85 kVp worked well with a 12:1 grid ratio, which technique would be required with an 8:1 grid ratio to get the same amount of radiation intensity at the image receptor if nothing else changes? a. 36 mAs at 85 kVp b. 50 mAs 117 kVp c. 50 mAs at 62 kVp d. 69 mAs at 85 kVp e. 36 mAs at 61 kVp
Decrease
If SID remains the same, what will happen to radiographic image magnification if the SOD increases?
There was a problem in the reading of their dosimeter
If a dosimetry report indicates that some people have (3) or (B) under anomaly for their reading for the current time period, what does that mean?
Their dose is below the minimum capabilities of the dosimeter to read
If a dosimetry report indicates that some people have (M) or (-) for their reading for the current time period, what does that mean?
Diagnostic
If a patient has symptoms, the mammography procedure is considered:
Right atrium
If a patient receives IV contrast which chamber of the heart will the contrast enter first?
No, the petrous ridges should be projected in the lower ⅓ of the orbits
If a patient's petrous ridges are completely filling their orbits, is the patient correctly positioned for a PA Axial Projection (Caldwell) of the skull?
512
If a pixel has a bit depth of 2 to the power of 9, what is the number of gray tones that pixel can produce?
10-15° caudad
If an AP axial projection is performed as part of a KUB examination, what tube angulation is required to project the symphysis pubis below the bladder?
5mAs
If an image is acquired using 20 mAs and resulted in an Agfa LGM of 2.9, what mAs should be set in order to achieve an LGM of 2.3 on a repeat exposure?
5 mAs
If an image is acquired using 20 mAs and results in an Agfa LGM value of 2.9, what mAs should be used to achieve an LGM of 2.3 if the original image is repeated?
Halve the mAs
If the Fuji "S" number is 100 and an "s" number of 200 is required for a radiographic image, how should the technique be changed?
1.06
If the SID is 180 cm and the OID is 10 cm, what is the magnification factor?
d. 64.8 mAs and 80 kVp
If the SID is increased from 40 inches to 72 inches, what change to the technique of 20 mAs and 80 kVp will have to be made to maintain the radiation intensity at the image receptor? a. 36 mAs and 80 kVp b. 11.1 mAs and 80 kVp c. 6.2 mAs and 80 kVp d. 64.8 mAs and 80 kVp
Quantum mottle
If the amount of noise changes with increasing mA during fluoroscopy, is the noise QM or Electronic Noise?
Low
If the difference between adjacent shades is minimal, is that high or low contrast?
Readjust the catheter to ensure the catheter is not against a wall or valve.
If the flow of the IV has stopped and you think the catheter is against a valve or the wall of a vessel, how do you make the fluid run again?
c. 6:1
If the height of the lead strips is the same for all, which grid would have the greatest distance between lead strips? a. 15:1 b. 12:1 c. 6:1 d. 8:1
Fail
If the maximum fluoroscopic exposure rate obtained for the fluoroscopic C-arm at the low dose rate setting (low level irradiation control activated) with automatic intensity control was 110mGy/min, does the unit pass or fail?
69 kV
If the original mAs is 15 and the original kV is 60, what new kV will be needed to maintain the same radiation intensity with a new mAs of 7.5?
42 kV
If the original mAs is 40 and the original kV is 50, what new kV will be needed to maintain the same radiation intensity with a new mAs of 80?
40 mAs
If the original mAs is 80 and the original kV is 90, what new mAs will be needed to maintain the same radiation intensity with a new kV of 104?
With the arm extended as much as the patient can handle and supinated, take one with the humerus parallel to the IR and one with the forearm parallel to the IR
If the patient cannot fully extend their elbow, how do you achieve an AP projection of the elbow?
Angle 10 degrees (for women) or 15 degrees (for men) cephalad
If the patient's vertebral column cannot be positioned horizontal to the IR on a lateral projection, what can be done to correct the resultant image?
Increase
If the technique factors (mAs, kVp) stay the same, how would increasing OID affect patient dose?
Decrease
If the technique factors (mAs, kVp) stay the same, how would increasing SID affect patient dose?
Decrease
If the technique factors (mAs, kVp) stay the same, how would increasing SOD affect patient dose?
CT numbers above +100 appear white
If the window width is set at 200 and the window level is set at zero, on the display monitor, what CT numbers will appear white?
As a dark grey spot
If there is a crack present within any of the protective apparel, how would the crack be displayed during a protective apparel quality control procedure with radiography?
PA and lateral wrist
If there is a suspected Colles' fracture, which radiographic images would be a minimal requirement to adequately visualize this fracture?
AP and lateral
If there is a suspected fracture of the supracondylar area, which radiographic images would be a minimal requirement to adequately visualize the elbow?
The thinner part
If two body components received the same amount of radiation, under which part would the image receptor receive the most radiation intensity?
The thicker part
If two body parts were exactly the same except for their thickness, which part would absorb the most radiation?
d. Halve it
If you are changing units from a single phase to a three phase or high frequency unit, what would you do to your technique to produce the same amount of radiation at the image receptor, provided that nothing else changed? a. Leave it the same b. Double it c. Triple it d. Halve it e. Use one third the original
Increase
If you were to decrease SID, keeping all other factors the same, what effect would it have on the resulting radiation intensity exiting the patient?
Increase
If you were to decrease collimation (field size), keeping all other factors the same, what effect would it have on the resulting radiation intensity exiting the patient?
No change, because it does not affect the radiation EXITING the patient, but decreasing GR would increase the radiation intensity at the IMAGE RECEPTOR, if the technique was NOT changed to compensate.
If you were to decrease grid ratio, keeping all other factors the same, what effect would it have on the resulting radiation intensity exiting the patient?
Decrease
If you were to decrease kVp, keeping all other factors the same, what effect would it have on the resulting radiation intensity exiting the patient?
Decrease
If you were to decrease mAs, keeping all other factors the same, what effect would it have on the resulting radiation intensity exiting the patient?
Decrease
If you were to increase part thickness, keeping all other factors the same, what effect would it have on the resulting radiation intensity exiting the patient?
No change
If you were to increase the focal spot size, keeping all other factors the same, what effect would it have on the resulting radiation intensity exiting the patient?
Decrease
If you were to increase tube filtration, keeping all other factors the same, what effect would it have on the resulting radiation intensity exiting the patient?
Decrease
If you were to use positive contrast media, keeping all other factors the same, what effect would it have on the resulting radiation intensity exiting the patient?
More obliquity
If your patient is very thin, how do you need to adjust the rotation for a Scapular Y projection?
Salter-Harris
Images obtained on a pediatric patient demonstrate a fracture through the epiphyseal growth plate of the proximal humerus. What type of fracture is present?
Decrease the amount of knee flexion
In a patella skyline image, a portion of the patella is superimposed over the intercondylar sulcus of the femur. What corrective action is required to improve this image?
Voltage
In a step-up tansformer, what increases?
Bursae
In a trauma lateral view of the elbow, what soft-tissue structure(s) may be visualized to indicate injury?
Parallel
In digital breast tomosynthesis, in which direction are the images reconstructed: Oblique, Parallel or Perpendicular to the image receptor?
Islets of Langerhans
In general, it is said that the pancreas secretes insulin. What particular part of the pancreas is insulin originally produced and initially secreted from?
C-arm unit console
In order to shut down just the C-arm unit and NOT the monitor console of the Philips Pulsera system at the same time, on which component would you have to turn the power off?
To reduce the possibility of the aspiration of vomitus and to have more effective benefits of sedation or emergency drugs (if required)
In preparation for angiography, why is the patient instructed not to consume solid foods?
Moiré effect
In radiography, what artifact will occur if the Nyquist Criterion is violated and under-sampling occurs, or a gridded cassette is used in the bucky?
With the centre of the IR 1 inch superior to pubic symphysis
In the bilateral AP oblique projection using the Modified Cleaves method, where should the IR be placed?
Some
In the diagnostic range, what amount of incident electrons go through characteristic interactions: All, Most, Some, or None?
Most
In the diagnostic range, what amount of the x-ray beam is created from Bremsstrahlung interactions: All, Most, Some, or Hardly Any?
c. Orbital electrons
In the diagnostic x-ray energy range, the x-ray interactions are always with the: a. Neutrons b. Protons c. Orbital electrons d. Nucleus
Cross-table Lateral
In the event of trauma, what is the first view that would be performed for a c-spine?
Perpendicular to the IOML entering the midsagittal plane to pass 2.5 cm (1") posterior to outer canthi
In the parietoacanthial projection (Water's) of the nasal bones, how is the mentomeatal line positioned?
Perpendicular to the IR
In the parietoacanthial projection (Water's) of the nasal bones, how is the mentomeatal line positioned?
Within the center of the aprons, gloves or thyroid shields
In what area are holes in protective apparel when performing a protective apparel quality control procedure unacceptable?
Around the edges of the image
In what area of a fluoroscopy image intensifier image is the presence of some distortion acceptable?
Ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, then sigmoid colon
In what order does the large intestine progress, beginning at the small intestine and ending at the rectum?
Duodenum, jejunum, then ileum
In what order does the small intestine progress, beginning at the stomach and extending to the large intestine?
Eye contact, hand gestures, posture, and language.
In what ways can we exert power and influence in communicating?
c, b, a, d
In which order should these steps be performed for a repeat analysis process? a. The computer evaluates the number of repeats. b. The computer counts the total images taken during the time period. c. The Technologist "tags" rejected images as to their cause before deleting the images from cases. d. A spread sheet can be used to determine the values for total repeat rate and causal repeat rate just as is done for film-based systems.
Right, because it's wider and more vertical
In which primary bronchus would you expect to find an inhaled foreign object and why?
Lateral
In which projection of the elbow is the radial tuberosity demonstrated facing anteriorly and the humeral epicondyles superimposed?
kV
Increasing which one of the following factors will cause the maximum energy of the x-ray spectrum to increase?
Narrow
Is a wide or narrow x-ray beam used in CT?
Low contrast
Is high or low contrast demonstrated on the image if two areas of similar thickness and composition are adjacent to each other?
Compton Scattering
Is low contrast directly related to Compton Scattering or Photoelectric Effect?
Higher
Is the central ray for the AP upright abdomen higher, lower, or the same as the AP supine abdomen?
AP and horizontal beam lateral, no flexion
Jimmy James enters the ER after sustaining blunt trauma to his knee. The ER physician attending to Mr. James suspects he has a transverse fracture of the patella. Which routine would safely provide the best images of the patella?
Recumbent scapular Y, RPO position
John Smith arrives by stretcher, to the department, with a requisition that states query dislocation of the left shoulder. He is unable to stand or sit or move his arm. What projection should be performed to best demonstrate this pathology?
Computerized axial tomography
"CAT scan" the common acronym stands for what?
b. 0.5%
25 year old woman has an x-ray and is unknowingly pregnant. What is the increased incidence of mental retardation resulting from being exposed to less than 10 rads (100mGy) of x-rays? a. 0.1 % b. 0.5% c. 5 % d. 50%
a. Prenatal death
A 30 year old woman has an x-ray and is unknowingly 3 weeks pregnant. Which of the following effects may be ruled out as a potential result of this x-ray? a. Prenatal death b. Malignant disease c. Mental retardation d. Genetic mutation
Do not move the patient's wrist and perform a PA projection and a lateral projection with a horizontal beam
A 90 year old patient has been brought to the DI department on a stretcher for x-rays of the wrist after slipping and falling on ice. EMS immobilized her arm on scene in a prone position. How should her images be obtained such that the radiologist has enough information to make a diagnosis?
Having patient open and close fist tightly five or six times, flicking skin over vein with one or two snaps of fingers, rubbing or stroking skin upward toward tourniquet.
List three ways veins can be distended for easier cannulation.
Environmental inspection
Looking for safety of high tension cables in a fluoroscopic unit would be part of which type of testing?
Recumbent position
Lying down
Prone position
Lying face down
Supine position
Lying on back, facing upward
Decreases it
Magnification has what effect upon recorded detail?
No, it is above 5%, which is the limit 59 total repeats / 500 total images x 100% = 11.8%
A DI dept's repeat/retake chart is as follows: Double Exposure=6 images Motion=8 Positioning=15 Artifact=10 Equipment failure=20 Total Images Taken=500 Is this repeat rate for general imaging acceptable, according to SC35?
6 images / 59 total repeats x 100% = 10.2%
A DI dept's repeat/retake chart is as follows: Double Exposure=6 images Motion=8 Positioning=15 Artifact=10 Equipment failure=20 Total Images Taken=500 What is the percent repeats for double exposure?
Equipment Failure
A DI dept's repeat/retake chart is as follows: Double Exposure=6 images Motion=8 Positioning=15 Artifact=10 Equipment failure=20 Total Images Taken=500 Which category needs to be addressed most urgently?
d. Obtain an AP axial projection with repositioned gonadal shielding
A KUB reveals that the gonadal shielding is superior to the upper margin of the symphysis pubis. The male patient has a history of kidney stones. What is the next step the technologist should take? a. Accept the image as the kidneys were not obscured by the shielding b. Obtain an AP axial projection without using gonadal shielding c. Repeat the exposure only if the patient complains of pain in the lower abdomen d. Obtain an AP axial projection with repositioned gonadal shielding
Bring the patient's chin up in order to place their OML perpendicular to the IR
A PA axial (Caldwell) projection of the facial bones shows the patient's petrous ridges filling the orbits. What correction should be made?
C7
A cervical rib, if present, arises from which vertebrae?
d. 2.45 mAs
A femur technique for a mobile x-ray unit was diagnostic at 5 mAs, 70 kVp, 100 centimeter SID. Using the same equipment, but being only able to attain a 70 cm SID, which new mAs is recommended to maintain the same amount of radiation exiting the patient, if nothing else changes? a. 10 mAs b. 7.5 mAs c. 1.25 mAs d. 2.45 mAs
Yes
A fluoroscopic field size accuracy and beam alignment test was performed at an SID of 75 cm. The image size in both dimensions from the monitor and image are recorded below. Does the CR plate image horizontal dimension fall within the acceptable limits? Monitor Image Size: 16cm Horizontal x 16cm Veritcal CR Plate Image Size: 17.4cm Horizontal x 17.3cm Vertical
c. 3 phase 12 pulse
A mobile battery operated x-ray unit is comparable to what type of stationary x-ray generator? a. 3 phase 6 pulse b. 1 phase 2 pulse c. 3 phase 12 pulse d. 2 phase 4 pulse
Proximal
A part that is closer to the head is what?
Distal
A part that is farther away from the head is what?
Smith
A patient comes into the ER after she has slipped and fallen on ice. Her images demonstrate a fractured distal radius with anterior displacement. What type of fracture does she have?
Lateral Projection with horizontal central ray
A patient enters emergency with a possible basilar skull fracture. Which skull projection would best demonstrate an effusion of the sphenoid sinus?
Instead of rotating her lower limbs internally 15-20 degrees, she would leave them extended due to the suspected fracture
A patient fell from her horse and arrives in the x-ray dept for images of her pelvis. How do you position her lower limbs and why?
Smith
A patient fell off of her bicycle and has been brought to the DI department for x-rays of her wrist. What type of fracture is demonstrated on the images?
Left lateral decubitus
A patient is in ICU after abdominal surgery and the surgeon is concerned about a possible perforated bowel. The patient is very weak and unable to sit or stand. Which alternate position will best demonstrate any possible free air in the intra-abdominal cavity?
Temporal
A patient presents with vertigo. Which cranial bone contains organs that could be implicated with vertigo?
d. Fluoroscopy
A patient requires a CT myelogram. Which department will inject the contrast? a. Injection takes place in CT b. OR c. MRI d. Fluoroscopy
Foreshortening without excessive magnification at distal end of femur
A patient was involved in a motorcycle collision and is unable to straighten their leg. How will the femur appear on the image if the exam is performed using a beam perpendicular to the IR, but the knee bent, so the femur is not parallel with the IR?
Monteggia fracture
A pediatric patient who fell on a trampoline is brought to the DI department for imaging of the forearm. There is a fracture of the ulna with anterior dislocation of the radius at the elbow. What type of fracture is demonstrated?
d. Axiolateral (Coyle method)
A physician has ordered x-rays for a patient who injured their elbow. Based on their history, the physician is querying a fracture of the capitulum. What projection is necessary to rule out this type of fracture? a. Internal oblique b. External oblique c. Lateral d. Axiolateral (Coyle method)
Adynamic ileus
A post-op appendectomy patient develops acute abdominal pain. The surgeon requests an abdominal series. What pathological condition is he suspecting?
Hyaline Membrane Disease
A premature newborn who experiences under-aeration of the lungs resulting from a lack of surfactant may develop which condition?
c. Many crevices to allow for grip for the technologist and patient.
A radiographic table is designed to support the patient for the purpose of an radiographic examination. Which is NOT a feature of an x-ray table. a. Hard to scratch. b. Radiolucent to allow for minimum attenuation. c. Many crevices to allow for grip for the technologist and patient. d. Variety of moving capabilities in a multitude of directions.
80 kVp
A technique of 10 mAs at 60 kVP was used for a radiographic image, but motion was apparent on the image, so it was decided to reduce the mAs to 2.5 mAs for a second exposure. Which kVp would give the same radiation intensity exiting the patient as in the first exposure?
d. Decrease 8 times
A technique was diagnostic for a 100 relative speed (RS) system, but it is required to switch to an 800 RS system. Which new technique will provide the same radiation at the image receptor if nothing else changes? a. Decrease 2 times b. Decrease 4 times c. Increase 4 times d. Decrease 8 times e. Increase 8 times f. Increase 2 times
Use the IOML and increase the CR angulation by 7 degrees
Mick M. comes to DI for a routine study of the cranium. He is unable to flex his head and neck sufficiently to place the OML perpendicular to the IR for the AP Axial Projection (Towne). What should the technologist do to compensate for this problem without creating excessive magnification of the skull?
Body cells
Somatic effects refer to damage to which type of cells?
Erect position
Standing
50
The CCS (Canadian Cancer Sociaity) recommends to have a screening mammo over the age of:
Grid
The PRIMARY function of what device is to increase radiographic contrast by the reduction of scatter radiation fog reaching the image receptor?
Spatial resolution
The ability of a system to define small objects distinctly is known as what type of resolution?
Low contrast resolution
The ability of a system to differentiate, on the image, objects with similar densities is defined as what type of resolution?
Length of the filament
The actual focal spot is controlled by the:
Parallel, perpendicular
The anatomical part should be positioned with the long axis __________ to the image receptor and __________ to the central ray.
Angle of the gantry
The anatomy demonstrated in CT head images predominately is determined by:
Effective focal spot
The area of the focal spot that is projected out of the tube toward the object being radiographed is the:
Superior and/or inferior articular processes
The articular tubercles are representative of which vertebral anatomy that is fused together?
High tissue density
The body component that will stop the most x-ray photons is the one with high or low tissue density?
Lamina
The body of the scottie dog demonstrates what anatomy?
The sagittal border
The border of the parietal bone that articulates with the opposite parietal bones is referred to as what?
c. Fibro-Fatty
The breasts of a young woman who had three or more pregnancies are classified as: a. Fibro-Glandular b. Fibrous c. Fibro-Fatty d. Fatty
Perpendicular to the level of T7 entering at the midsagittal plane
The central ray for a PA chest is:
Pleura
The delicate, double-walled sac containing the lungs is called what?
Injection rate and scan delay
The difference between bolus phase, the nonequilibrium phase and the equilibrium phase of contrast enhancement is primarily determined by what?
Umbra
The distinctly sharp area of shadow or area of complete shadow is called what?
The ASIS and superior border of the pubic symphysis
The femoral head and neck are localized using a perpendicular line extending from a line joining which structures?
Inferior articular surface
The front foot of the scottie dog demonstrates what anatomy?
Routine brain scanning
The general rules of contrast media injection regarding injection rate and scan delay do not apply to:
Posterior
The head, neck, and tubercle are located on the anterior or posterior portion of the rib?
AP axial outlet
The initial AP image of a trauma patient's pelvis demonstrates a possible fracture of the right superior pubic ramus. What other projection would best demonstrate the suspected pathology?
Right modified axiolateral (Clements-Nakayama)
The initial AP image of a trauma patient's pelvis demonstrates possible right and left hip fractures. What other projection would best demonstrate this suspected pathology of the right hip?
Inferior
The lower part of a structure is known as what?
a. Fatty
The male breast is classified as: a. Fatty b. Fibro-Fatty c. Fibro-Glandular d. Fibrous
False, that is the minimum
The maximum focal spot to skin distance for a stationary fluoroscopic unit is 38 cm.
d. all of the above
The method of scanning that is referred to as continuous acquisition scanning may also be called which of the following? a. spiral b. helical c. isotropic d. all of the above
Pars interarticularis
The neck of the scottie dog demonstrates what anatomy?
Decubitus
The patient lying on their back and a horizontal ray is being used; what body position is this?
Actual focal spot
The physical area of a rotating anode focal track affected by the cathode electron beam is the:
b. Imaging Plate
The purpose of the barcode label is to identify the: a. Patient b. Imaging Plate c. Radiographic Room d. Technologist
d. Low SNR
The radiographic image you have just performed looks very mottled. Which could be a cause of this? a. High SNR b. Low quantum mottle c. Low contrast d. Low SNR e. High contrast
AP axial 15 degrees cephalad
The sacral foramina is demonstrated as more open in which of the following views?
Anteriorly
The sacrum is concave anteriorly or posteriorly?
Transverse colon
The section of colon initiating at the right colic (hepatic) flexure and extending to the left colic (splenic) flexure is the:
Temporal resolution
The speed that data can be acquired is defined as what type of resolution?
Response Time
The speed with which a CT detector can detect an x-ray beam and recover to detect another one is referred to as its:
True
The three steps in CT image production are image acquisition, image reconstruction and image display.
Visual inspection
The timer check for a fluoroscopic unit would be part of which type of testing?
Trachea
The trachea or the esophagus located more anteriorly?
Transverse processes
The transverse tubercles on the sacrum are comparable to which anatomy that is present in other areas of the vertebral column?
Superior
The upper part of a structure is known as what?
Below
The urinary drainage bag must be kept above or below the level of the patient's bladder?
d. all of the above
The use of a radiographic grid requires: a. an awareness of the SID b. attention to central ray c. an increase in exposure factors d. all of the above
c. The duration of the contrast injection is increased.
The volume of contrast administered is increased from 100ml to 150ml. Flow rate is unchanged at 3ml/s. what can be expected? a. The time to reach peak aortic enhancement is decreased. b. The magnitude of the peak enhancement is decreased. c. The duration of the contrast injection is increased. d. The duration of the scan acquisition is increased.
d. axial
The word tomography has as its root "tomo" meaning all except which of the following? a. To cut b. layer c. section d. axial
T9/10
The xiphoid process corresponds to what level of the t-spine?
T9/10
The xiphoid process lies at what vertebral level?
Lateral
The zygapophyseal joints of the cervical spine are demonstrated in which projection?
a. 30 mAs and 69 kVp
These techniques will produce the same amount of radiation at the image receptor, but which one poses the lowest risk to the patient? a. 30 mAs and 69 kVp b. 60 mAs and 60 kVp c. 120 mAs and 51 kVp
Directly proportional
Time and mA have what relationship to radiation intensity?
Left lateral decubitus, right upper abdomen
To demonstrate intra-abdominal free air on a patient who cannot stand, which projection must be performed and where will the air be visualized?
Forehead and nose
To demonstrate the mandibular rami with the Posteroanterior Projection of a mandible series, which two facial structures should be touching the surface of the IR?
Angled 20 degrees cephalad towards the scaphoid OR perpendicular to the IR with the hand on a 20 degree sponge
To demonstrate the scaphoid free of self-superimposition, the central ray should be:
Increase by 15%
To double the radiation intensity at the image receptor, what change in kVp must be made?
Decrease window width
To increase radiographic image contrast, what should be done?
81 kVp
To maintain the same amount of radiation reaching the image receptor, what would be the new kV if factors were changed from 100 mA at 0.2 seconds at 70 kVp to 400 mA at 0.025 seconds?
d. AP and AP oblique with the patient RPO
To most effectively demonstrate injured posterior ribs number 5 and 6 on the right side, which projections should be included as part of the series? a. PA and PA oblique with the patient LAO b. PA and PA oblique with the patient RAO c. AP and AP oblique with the patient LPO d. AP and AP oblique with the patient RPO
Perpendicular
To position correctly for a medial oblique view in mammography, what is the orientation of the beam to the pectoral muscle?
Upright
To visualize air-fluid levels when imaging the sinuses, how should the patient be positioned?
True
True or False: "Autoclaved" material with an indicator that has not changed color is likely not sterile.
True
True or False: A Glasgow Comma Scale (GCS) of 14 is considered a high score and the patient would be alert and reactive.
False
True or False: A PFR 95 Respirator must be fit check on a weekly basis.
True
True or False: A high LET radiation will usually cause more direct damage than a low LET radiation.
True
True or False: A patient's clinical records should include details of x-ray examinations carried out.
True
True or False: A patient's coronal plane is parallel to the IR for the AP abdomen, left lateral decubitus position.
False
True or False: A patient's shoulders should be rotated back for a PA projection of the chest.
True
True or False: A properly adjusted fluoroscopic monitor system should allow clear visualization of the three largest hole sets in a low contrast resolution quality control test.
False
True or False: A smaller object needs less contrast to be seen than a larger object.
False
True or False: A technologist can use restraints on a patient when ever the technologist feels it is required.
False
True or False: Air must be present to achieve effective sterilization in an autoclave.
True
True or False: An AP oblique projection of the ribs will demonstrate the side closest to the imaging receptor.
True
True or False: An electrical circuit is a pathway that allows electrons to move in a complete circle from the source, through resisting electrical devices, back to the source.
True
True or False: An image of an AP projection of the abdomen demonstrates blurriness. The technologist is sure the patient did not breathe or move during the exposure. This blurriness is caused by involuntary motion.
True
True or False: Annotation functions in digital radiography and the same as in digital fluoroscopy.
False
True or False: Antibacterial soap should be used whenever possible.
False
True or False: As mAs increases, patient dose decreases.
False
True or False: As the difference between the tissues is great, the differential absorption would be minimal.
True
True or False: Atoms in their normal state are electrically neutral.
True
True or False: Both SPECT-CT and PET-CT combine the anatomical detail of CT with the functional information gathered from the PET or SPECT scan.
True
True or False: CT detector efficiency is the ability of the CT detectors to capture, absorb and convert x-ray photons to electrical signals
False
True or False: CT has high occupational exposure.
False
True or False: CT images are stored on a CT scanner forever, unless someone deletes them.
True
True or False: Clinical significance is the extent to which the findings of research are clinically meaningful.
True
True or False: Communication will be the most effective when approached with respect and consideration.
True
True or False: Contact precautions require the care giver to wash their hands with an antimicrobial agent before leaving the room.
True
True or False: Conversion factor is a ratio of the luminance of the output phosphor to the input exposure rate (mR/sec).
True
True or False: Conversion factor is a ratio of the luminance of the output phosphor to the input exposure rate (mR/second) for a fluoroscopic image intensifier.
False
True or False: Detectors must be of equal size across the z axis with MDCT.
False
True or False: Deterministic effects are non-threshold in nature.
False
True or False: Diagnostic x-ray photons can interact with the whole atom, an orbital electron or with the nucleus of the atom.
True
True or False: Digital fluoroscopy can be performed with a flat panel direct to digital fluoroscopy system or a converted image intensifier system.
False
True or False: Dorsal kyphosis can be reduced while positioning for the AP projection of the T-spine by having the patient extend their knees.
False
True or False: Droplet precautions require that a patient be placed in a room with negative air pressure.
False; that is true for conventional radiography
True or False: Exit dose is often 1% of entrance dose in CT.
False
True or False: Family history of breast cancer is unrelated to the risk.
False
True or False: Focal spot size can alter contrast visibly.
True
True or False: For a grid, a higher grid ratio indicates better scatter absorbing properties.
True
True or False: For a lateral projection of the c-spine, the midsagittal plane is parallel to the IR.
False
True or False: For the PA axial projection (15° Caldwell), the petrous pyramids should be demonstrated within the lower maxillary sinuses.
True
True or False: Hands should be washed and dried before putting on gloves to decrease the number of transient and normal florae on the hands.
True
True or False: Hands should be washed every time gloves are removed or changed.
True
True or False: Handwashing is the single most effective procedure to reduce nosocomial infections.
True
True or False: High contrast exists between adjacent areas when the difference in tissue or packing density is high.
True
True or False: High frequency generators are smaller and more efficient than single phase or three phase generators.
True
True or False: Higher grid ratios, when used correctly, increase patient dose.
False
True or False: If the pedicle is visualized anterior on the vertebral body, the patient is over rotated for the PA oblique projection of the l-spine.
True
True or False: If the pisiform is demonstrated anterior to the scaphoid on a lateral projection of the wrist, this is an indication that the patient's hand was externally rotated.
True
True or False: If your reject rate is very low, you can probably conclude that radiographic quality is good, there are wide acceptance limits for the Radiologist and/or incorrect data collection is occurring.
True
True or False: Improper removal of dirty gloves can contaminate your hands.
False
True or False: In CT, the term limiting resolution refers to the worst resolution the unit can have.
True
True or False: Incorrect beam angulation may cause misrepresentation of fracture alignment.
False
True or False: Increased size distortion gives increased recorded detail.
True
True or False: Increasing tube filtration decreases patient dose
True
True or False: It is OK to ask a patient if they can see or not if you may think that they are blind as long as it is in a professional and pleasant tone.
True
True or False: It is essential that all patients are given an explanation of the examination and provided an opportunity to ask questions.
True
True or False: It is not recommended to sterilize rubber tubing in an autoclave.
False
True or False: Items should be packed tightly in an autoclave to ensure a constant temperature for the entire sterilization cycle.
True
True or False: Linear attenuation coefficient refers to how much attenuation occurs from a certain material, and therefore how much the x-ray beam gets reduced by the material.
True
True or False: Linear attenuation coefficient refers to the combined linear attenuation coefficient of the materials the beam passes through on its way from the tube to the detectors.
False
True or False: Magnification and minification are both types of size distortion possible in radiographic images.
False, that would be the GSD.
True or False: Mean Marrow Dose (MMD) is an index of genetic dose to the population.
True
True or False: Men usually require less central ray angulation than women for the lateral L5-S1 projection.
False
True or False: Occupational exposure includes natural background exposure since that cannot be avoided.
True
True or False: Off-focus radiation is composed of photons that were not produced at the focal spot.
False
True or False: On a lateral projection of the hand, the thumb is superimposed on the metacarpals.
True
True or False: On an image of a correctly positioned lateral projection of the distal femur the inferior surfaces of the femoral condyles are not superimposed due to divergent rays.
False
True or False: On an image of a correctly positioned true lateral of the tibia/fibula the tibial and fibular shafts should be completely superimposed.
False
True or False: Oral medication considered a topical route.
False
True or False: Osteoporosis is a disease of the elderly patient population
False, they usually only move 1-2 mm in soft tissue.
True or False: Photoelectrons can travel far through soft tissue.
True
True or False: Pincushion distortion and vignetting are caused by the repulsion of electrons (resulting in unequal focusing of electrons on the output phosphor) and the divergence of the primary beam from the focal spot of the x-ray tube.
True
True or False: Potential occupational risks to radiology staff include exposure to infectious diseases, radiation, falls, back injury, needle stick injury, and repetitive stress injury.
False
True or False: Potential risks to MRTS in a DI department as identified by a risk assessment include: slipping, falling, injury from equipment, reaction to contrast, excess radiation, exposure to infectious disease, receiving the wrong imaging procedure, and personal information breach.
True
True or False: Potential risks to patients in a DI department as identified by a risk assessment include: slipping, falling, injury from equipment, reaction to contrast, excess radiation, exposure to infectious disease, receiving the wrong imaging procedure, and personal information breach.
True
True or False: Quantitative evaluation functions can be used to measure point and segment distances, quantitative vessel stenosis, time-density curves and calculate ventricular ejection fractions during cardiac studies.
True
True or False: RBE is LET dependent.
False
True or False: Radiation is selective as to what parts of a cell it "hits".
True
True or False: Radiographic imaging plate cassettes must never be held by hand during an exposure.
True
True or False: Reverse isolation is designed to protect patients with a weak immune system
True
True or False: Risk Management is one of the four components of a Quality Management program, along with equipment quality control, administrative responsibilities, and a radiation safety program.
True
True or False: Risk Management is the third component of a Quality Management program.
False
True or False: Routine PPE includes gloves, mask, goggles, and apron.
False
True or False: Scatter and back scatter contribute useful information to the diagnostic image.
True
True or False: Scatter radiation is hazardous.
True
True or False: Severe hearing loss is defined as the loss of hearing within a 60-80 decibel range with the ability to learn speech is difficult.
False
True or False: Shape distortion decreases the further from the central ray the part lays.
True
True or False: Shape distortion may occur due to the angle between the part and the diverging beam.
False
True or False: Shape distortion never involves size distortion.
False
True or False: Slice thickness in MDCT consists of collimation width only.
False
True or False: Soaps remove bacteria by reducing surface tension.
False
True or False: Soiled gloves are the last PPE to be removed.
False
True or False: Standard precautions are only required when treating patients known to carry a disease.
False
True or False: Standard precautions are only used for patients suspected or known to be infected with blood borne pathogens.
False
True or False: Stronger, more penetrating x-rays have longer wavelengths than weaker ones.
False
True or False: The AP axial projection of the c-spine will demonstrate C1-C7
True
True or False: The AP projections of the AC Joints should always be performed without weights first.
False
True or False: The ESE is usually lower than the dose to the area of interest within the body.
False
True or False: The OML is at 30° to the cassette for the Townes
True
True or False: The Radiographic Technologist has a responsibility to advocate medically necessary examinations and to assure the patient that the benefits outweigh the risks.
True
True or False: The anode heel effect is a result of photons being absorbed by the anode target material before the photons have a chance to exit the tube.
True
True or False: The basic principle of CT is the reconstruction of an object from multiple projections to show the internal structure, to which further image reconstruction techniques can be applied.
False
True or False: The central ray for the AP oblique projection of the c-spine requires a cephalic angulation of 45°.
False
True or False: The centripetal and electromagnetic forces work opposite to each other to keep the electron in orbit.
True
True or False: The correct orientation to ensure that no shape distortion occurs would be the part and image receptor parallel and the central ray perpendicular to both.
True
True or False: The first step in developing risk management policies and procedures for DI department is to perform a risk analysis.
True
True or False: The greater the grid ratio, the greater the grid cut-off with tube-grid misalignment.
False
True or False: The kVp controls the number of electrons in the thermionically emitted electron cloud
False
True or False: The lateral projection of the longitudinal arch is acquired mediolaterally.
True
True or False: The lesser trochanter will be visualized on the posterior surface of the femur on a correctly positioned axiolateral projection of the hip.
False
True or False: The mirror is a part of an x-ray tube's added filtration.
False
True or False: The only function of filtration in CT is to reduce patient dose by removing the soft x-rays.
False
True or False: The operator is not required to have a clear view of the patient during every exposure.
True
True or False: The purpose of the filament is to provide sufficient resistance to the flow of electrons so that the heat produced will cause thermionic emission to occur.
True
True or False: The radiological technologist is within his/her professional rights to advise patients of their right to refuse an x-ray exam recommended by their doctor.
True
True or False: The risk of breast cancer increases with age.
True
True or False: The three types of quality control tests on various levels are acceptance testing, routine performance evaluations, and error correction testing.
True
True or False: To avoid thermal damage to the focal spot, radiographers could utilize tube rating charts.
True
True or False: Transformers transform electrical potential (voltage) into higher or lower values.
False
True or False: Transmission based precautions are used when caring for all patients, regardless of their diagnosis.
False
True or False: Tube filtration is measured in millimeters of aluminum.
True
True or False: Typical conversion factor values of an I.I. can be from 80 - 250.
False, 1.06 IS NOT less than or equal to 0.98, so test fails.
True or False: Units 1 & 2 pass for the radiation output test, based upon the values given below. Unit 1 - 5.43 mR/mAs Unit 2 - 4.37 mR/mAs
False
True or False: Using the C-arm tube side up is safer for the operator.
False
True or False: Wearing latex exam gloves will prevent needle stick injuries.
False
True or False: When critiquing a panogram, an acute "smile" would indicate that the chin was over extended.
True
True or False: When critiquing an image of the axiolateral projection of the TMJ's, the left and right EAM's should be aligned but not superimposed.
False
True or False: When obtaining an oblique projection of the fifth toe, the foot may be placed in either a medial oblique or a lateral oblique position.
False
True or False: When performing the low contrast resolution QC test for fluoroscopy, you must see at least one hole of each set size in order to count that hole.
False
True or False: With a 110 cm SID, if the width difference between the collimator light field and the x-ray field is 2.3 cm, the unit passes.
True
True or False: With a 110 cm SID, if the width difference between the radiographic collimator light field and the x-ray field is 2.1 cm, the unit passes.
False
True or False: With a battery operated mobile x-ray unit, one battery is used for both moving the unit and taking exposures.
False
True or False: X-ray photons must interact with all matter that they pass through.
False
True or False: Zygapophyseal joints are visible on a lateral projection of the lumbar spine.
Inversion
Turning a body part inward is called?
Eversion
Turning a body part outward is called?
When the gonads lie directly over the area of interest
Under what circumstance is shielding of the gonads NOT advised?
When body part thickness exceed 10 cm and/or kV is above 60
Under what conditions is a grid employed?
3 meters
Unless shielded, at least how far away from the x-ray tube must the operator stand when using a mobile x-ray unit?
c. Angle CR 5 degrees caudad
Upon review of the image on the right (ignore the image on the left), the technologist decided to repeat. What positioning changes should be made for the repeat exposure? a. Rotate skull to the left b. Angle CR 5 degrees cephalad c. Angle CR 5 degrees caudad d. Repeat exposure not required
c. Monitor magnification
Use of which type of magnification does NOT increase patient dose? a. Geometric magnification b. Electronic magnification c. Monitor magnification
8th, 9th, and 10th pairs
Using logical reasoning, which ribs would you expect to be classified as 'vertebrochondral' ribs?
Soft copy
Veiwing images on a monitor is referred to by what name?
60-70 seconds
Venous phase typically has a timing of around what range?
Hyperflexion and Hyperextension in lateral position
What 2 projections are performed to provide functional studies of the cervical spine?
Frontal, maxilla, and temporal
What 3 cranial bones contain a zygomatic process?
All the carpal bones, the distal radius/ulna, and the proximal half of the metacarpals
What 3 parts of anatomy must be included on the PA oblique projection of the wrist?
1. Was tourniquet removed? 2. Is there swelling at the cannulation site? 3. Is there infiltration? 4. Is the flow regulator in open position? 5. Is the tip of catheter positioned against valve or wall of vein? 6. Is IV bag high enough? 7. Is the drip chamber completely filled with IV solution?
What 7 things should you consider if you open the flow-control valve and the fluid doesn't run?
20 degrees cephalad
What CR angle and direction is used for an AP axial projection of the clavicle with the patient supine?
No angle, CR is perpendicular to the IR.
What CR angulation should be used for a lateral sacrum projection?
CT Number Accuracy
What CT QC test determines accuracy of CT number for water?
Calibration of CT numbers
What CT QC test determines mean CT number and standard deviation for water and air?
CT Tomographic Section Thickness
What CT QC test determines slice thickness accuracy?
CT Linearity
What CT QC test determines the relationship between CT numbers and linear attenuation values of scanned objects at a designated kV value?
CT Noise
What CT QC test determines the standard deviation of CT numbers across an image?
CT Uniformity
What CT QC test determines whether CT numbers are the same on a uniform phantom regardless of the area evaluated?
Partial volume effect
What CT imaging artifact occurs because more than one material type is in a voxel?
Stairstep
What CT imaging artifact occurs when sequential scanning or slices that are too thick are used for MPRs?
Ring artifact
What CT imaging artifact occurs with a detector out of calibration?
Off-set calibration
What DR detector calibration test evaluates pixel values over time for stability?
100 ml at 1.5 ml/s, scan when injection is finished
What IV contrast protocol is used for routine spine CT according to Roman's?
180cm to decrease magnification of the c-spine
What SID is used for the lateral projection of the c-spine and why?
100cm or 40 inches
What SID is used for the lateral projection of the cervicothoracic region?
2.5 mm al eq
What amount of total tube filtration is required with an x-ray unit with a kV of up to 150 kV?
Zygapophyseal joints farthest from the IR
What anatomical structures are demonstrated on PA oblique projection of the l-spine?
Intervertebral foramina closest to the IR
What anatomical structures are demonstrated on a PA axial oblique projection of the c-spine?
Radial tuberosity
What anatomy is labeled "A"?
25° cephalad
What angle is used for the central ray for the axiolateral projection of the mandible?
-Talk to (not about) these persons -Face the person, preferably with light on your face -Be patient, rephrase when you are not understood
What are 3 helpful methods for communicating with individuals who have hearing loss?
PA erect chest, lateral erect chest, and AP erect axial chest in lordotic position
What are 3 projections and patient positions that best demonstrate pleural effusions?
1. Vasovagal reaction 2. Stroke 3. Bleeding at the puncture site 4. Nerve, blood vessel, or tissue damage 5. Allergic reaction to contrast
What are 5 potential complications to undergoing an angiography procedure?
Lymphoid tissue
What are Adenoids?
Glass
What are Ampules made of?
Nostrils
What are Nares?
d. Produces satisfactory exposure indicators
What are advantages of an automatic exposure control (AEC), when used correctly for an x-ray image? a. Does not require an upper limit of maximum exposure time b. Eliminates need to set kV c. Prevents motion artifacts d. Produces satisfactory exposure indicators
Medial atlantoaxial joint, Lateral atlantoaxial/ zygapophyseal joints (2), and Intervertebral disk space (C2/3)
What are all the joints associated with C2?
Right & left zygapophyseal joints and intervertebral disk spaces (C3/4 and C4/5)
What are all the joints associated with C4?
Conductors
What are materials which allow a free flow of electrons?
Analgesic sedatives (narcotics)
What are opioids?
-Best all around beam restrictor-provides an infinite number of x-ray fields -Light source is an aid in properly aligning the beam central ray, the patient and IR -Bottom shutters reduce penumbra; upper shutters reduce off-focus radiation
What are some advantages of collimators?
-Improper positioning of the mirror or light can result in improper alignment of the light field to the exposure field -Collimator accuracy should be checked on a regular basis as part of a QC program
What are some disadvantages of collimators?
-Mass screening for TB -Hospital admissions -Pre-employment physicals -Periodic health examinations
What are some examples of unnecessary exams?
Open-ended questions; facilitation; silence; reflection or reiteration; clarification or probing; summarization.
What are some techniques that can be used to improve gathering patient information?
Stroke, TIA, hemorrhage, trauma, tumors, AVM (arteriovenous malformation), thrombosis, aneurysm, headache/seizures, mass/lesion, acoustic neuromas/hearing loss
What are the 11 indications for performing a CT Head?
RAO and Lateral
What are the 2 positions that best demonstrate the sternum?
Base of support, centre of gravity, and line of gravity
What are the 3 essential concepts of proper body mechanics?
1. Tunica intima (inner layer) consists of inner elastic endothelial lining made up of layers of smooth, flat cells. 2. Tunica media (middle layer) consists of muscular and elastic tissue. 3. Tunica externa (outer layer) consists of connective tissue that surrounds and supports vessel.
What are the 3 layers of a vessel and the function of each?
Absorption, capture, and conversion.
What are the 3 types of CT dose efficiency?
Radial, femoral, carotid, temporal, apical, pedal.
What are the 6 common pulse points?
1. Right Dose 2. Right Medication 3. Right Patient 4. Right Time 5. Right Route 6. Right Documentation
What are the 6 rights of medication administration?
Slow breathing, to blur lung detail
What are the breathing instructions for an AP scapula and why?
Suspend on expiration
What are the breathing instructions for the lower ribs?
Complete expiration, to raise the diaphragm
What are the breathing techniques used for projections of the lower ribs and why do you use them?
Full inspiration, to lower the diaphragm
What are the breathing techniques used for projections of the upper ribs and why do you use them?
Perpendicular to T7, Perpendicular to T10
What are the central rays for the AP obliques of the upper ribs and lower ribs, respectively?
Fairly straight, easily accessible, well-fixed, not rolling and springy when palpated.
What are the characteristics of a "good" vein to cannulate?
Sclerotic, near joints, close to a palpable arterial pulse, near injured areas, near an edematous extremity, in an extremity with circulatory problems (dialysis fistula)
What are the characteristics of a "poor" vein to cannulate?
Hypotension, cyanosis, tachycardia, increased venous pressure, loss of responsiveness.
What are the complications of air entering the vein through the IV line?
Fine detail is lost as detail decreases, contrast decreases
What are the consequences of noise on a fluoroscopic image?
Costophrenic angles
What are the extreme, outermost lower corner of the lungs called?
1. Previous severe reaction to iodinated contrast media 2. Severely impaired renal function 3. Impaired blood clotting factors 4. Inability to undergo a surgical procedure or general anesthesia
What are the four contraindications to performing an angiography procedure?
Artifacts, Contrast resolution, Noise, and Spatial resolution
What are the four factors of CT image quality?
Headache, flushed skin, rapid pulse, increased blood pressure, rales, dyspnea, tachypnea, coughing, external jugular vein distention.
What are the indications that the patient has received too much IV fluid?
kV, mA and exposure time (mAs), exposure button, focal spot size, image receptor selection
What are the major settings found on the x-ray console?
Intrinsic or Material un-sharpness
What are the other names for Photographic un-sharpness?
-Cooling curve -Radiographic tube rating chart -Anode cooling charts -Housing cooling charts
What are the other names for a rating chart?
A & D
What are the potential risks to volunteers and visitors in a DI department? Choose two answers. a. Exposure to infectious disease b. Needle stick injury c. Repetitive stress injury d. Slips and falls
Indicators of kV, mA, and time, or combinations of these
What are the required indicators of technique factors on the control panel for x-ray machines ?
Abrupt onset of fever, chills, backache, headache, nausea and vomiting, face flushing, sudden pulse change.
What are the signs and symptoms of a pyrogenic reaction?
The bolus phase (arterial phase), Equilibrium phase (delayed phase), and Non-equilibrium phase (venous phase)
What are the three general phases of tissue enhancement in a CT contrast examination?
Pharyngeal, palatine, lingual
What are the three groups of tonsils located in the throat area?
1. Plastic catheters inserted over hollow needle (Angiocath, Quickcath, Jelco, etc.). 2. Plastic catheters inserted through hollow needle or over guidewire (Intracath). 3. Hollow needles (butterfly type).
What are the three types of IV catheters?
Cupping and streaking (dark bands)
What are the two CT artifacts that occur from beam hardening?
Oropharynx and laryngopharynx
What are the two parts of the pharynx through which both air and food may pass?
Pre-patient collimation, located close to the x-ray tube exit, and Predetector (or postpatient) collimation, located at the detector entrance
What are the two types of CT collimators and where in the unit are they located?
Median Cubital, Basilic, Cephalic, and Dorsal venous plexus.
What are the veins in the arm and hand?
Accessory process and mamillary process
What are two processes on the lumbar vertebrae that are not present in other areas of the vertebral column?
Noise
What artifact is the result of using too little radiation exposure when imaging a patient?
Entire mandible and teeth in one exposure
What body part is pantomography designed for?
Symphysis pubis
What body part may be excluded on an AP erect projection of the abdomen?
Semi-Fowler's
What body position has the patient's head raised 15-30 degrees off the table?
Fowler's
What body position is semi-sitting with the head raised 45-90 degrees off the bed?
Trendelenberg
What body position puts the head lower than the body?
Lateral
What body position puts the patient's side against the image receptor?
Flat bone
What bone classification is the sternum?
Transverse process
What bony anatomy does the letter "E" represent in this image?
Inferior and superior vertebral notchesof adjacent vertebrae
What bony anatomy forms the intervertebral foramina of the lumbar spine?
Condylar process of the mandible and mandibular fossa of the temporal bone
What bony structures make up the TMJ?
Expiration for the AP & inspiration for the AP axial
What breathing instructions are given when performing images of the clavicle?
Suspend breathing at the end of expiration
What breathing instructions should be given to the patient before obtaining an AP image of the lumbar spine?
Sufficient total filtration exists
What can be concluded if the minimum HVL or more is achieved by an x-ray tube?
Trapezium
What carpal bone must be included on radiographic images of the thumb?
Seldinger technique is used to introduce a catheter through the femoral artery into the subclavian or axillary artery.
What catheter approach is used for injecting an upper extremity angiogram?
Pressure causing decreased oxygen to an area
What causes a decubitus ulcer?
A potential difference, the anode being positive and the cathode negative.
What causes the electrons to accelerate toward the anode?
CR cephalad to be parallel with the MML
What central ray (CR) is required for the Acanthioparietal Projection (Reverse Waters) of the facial bones if the MML is not perpendicular to the image receptor?
25° to 30° caudad
What central ray is required for the Axiolateral Projection of the TMJ's?
25°-30° caudad
What central ray is required for the PA Axial Projection of the orbits?
25 degrees cephalad
What central ray is used for an axiolateral projection of the mandible?
Increase patient obliquity and use tighter collimation
What change in positioning, if any, is required for this image of a scapular Y projection of the shoulder?
Technical factors may need to be increased to compensate for the reduction in the overall radiation to the image receptor due to reduced scatter radiation at the image receptor
What changes should be made to exposure factors (technique) to maintain the radiation intensity at the image receptor when the x-ray beam field size is decreased for the same body part?
Technical factors may need to be increased to compensate for the reduction in the overall radiation to the image receptor due to reduced scatter radiation at the image receptor
What changes should be made to exposure factors (technique) when the x-ray beam field size is decreased for the same body part?
Detection or predicted risk of fractures.
What clinical benefit is considered to be part of the future of bone densitometry techniques?
White
What colour will numbers above the CT window be displayed as?
Black
What colour will numbers below the CT window be displayed as?
Slip ring technology
What component of the CT scanner allows for helical scanning?
Prenatal death
What condition has the highest natural incidence of occurrence in a fetus?
Any dose that is not required for the patient's well being or proper management and care (like an unnecessary exam or a repeat).
What constitutes unnecessary patient dose?
a. Collimation controls
What control will NOT be found on the x-ray unit console? a. Collimation controls b. Bucky selector c. On/off switch d. Anatomically programmed radiography selectors e. Automatic exposure control
Left anterior descending and Circumflex
What coronary arteries supply blood to the left ventricle of the heart?
Decreased slice thickness
What could be done to decrease or would decrease contrast resolution in CT the most?
c. Increased subject contrast
What could be done to increase or would increase contrast resolution in CT? a. Increased noise b. Increased patient size c. Increased subject contrast d. Increased window width
45°
What degree is the patient rotated for an AP oblique projection for a general study of the lumbar spine?
8° cephalad
What degree of angulation of the central ray, and in which direction, would be required to demonstrate the petrous ridges in the lower third of the orbit on an AP Axial Projection (Caldwell) of the facial bones if the patient's IOML is perpendicular to the IR?
45°
What degree of medial rotation is required for an AP oblique projection of the ankle?
45°
What degree of obliquity is required for the AP oblique projection of the ribs?
Age, Criticality, Complexity, and Usage of the equipment.
What determines the frequency of QC testing for radiographic equipment?
Window level
What display quality changes the pixel values by subtraction or addition (making them all darker or lighter)?
Slow peristalsis of GI tract
What do Antiperistalitics do?
Reduce fever
What do Antipyretics do?
Asthma
What do Bronchodilators treat?
Reduce anxiety
What do Tranquilizers do?
Permit greater flow of blood
What do Vasodilators do?
Remove catheter and apply dressing to site. Try a new site.
What do you do when infiltration is noted around the site of the venipuncture?
Equivalent to window width and window level adjustments
What does Contrast & Brightness Adjustment mean, in fluoroscopy?
Linear focused grids converge at a line in space
What does Convergence Line mean?
Adding of different image pixel values and averaging them during successive images
What does Digital Temporal Filtering mean, in fluoroscopy?
Computer technique makes the edges of vessels more apparent, facilitating the visualization of smaller details
What does Edge enhancement mean, in fluoroscopy?
The ability for the computer to alter imaged structures through a variety of methods including windowing
What does Image Enhancement mean, in fluoroscopy?
The ability of the computer to correct vignetting and distortion
What does Image Restoration mean, in fluoroscopy?
Process of magnifying a portion of the image
What does Image zoom mean, in fluoroscopy?
Visible landmarks for a surgeon to follow are provided on the image by returning a small part of the original image to the subtracted image
What does Landmarking mean, in fluoroscopy?
Computer memory allows for the last image to be displayed even though the x-ray beam is off
What does Last Image Hold mean, in fluoroscopy?
Nil per os (nothing by mouth)
What does NPO stand for?
The computer shifts pixel values in linear translations to compensate for patient movement and salvage images
What does Pixel shifting mean, in fluoroscopy?
Another mask is chosen that is properly registered with the image of interest
What does Remasking mean, in fluoroscopy?
Capturing and displaying an image on one monitor while a second monitor shows an image in real time
What does Road Mapping mean, in fluoroscopy?
Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation
What does SBAR stand for?
The ratio of percentage of primary radiation transmitted to the percentage of scatter radiation transmitted; the better a grid is at removing scatter, the greater the Selectivity will be.
What does Selectivity mean?
Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System
What does WHMIS stand for?
Reduces the effect of radiation
What does a Radioprotector do?
one metal line and one space of same size next to it
What does a line pair consist of for the resolution test tool?
When a catheter is pulled back through or over the needle after it has been advanced, which may result in a plastic embolus.
What does catheter shear mean?
To have a sense of what another person feels
What does empathy mean?
Hair loss
What does epilation refer to?
The speed electrons travel to the anode
What does kV control?
The number of electrons travelling to the anode per time.
What does mA control?
Increases
What does oxygen do to radiation effects?
Hardening of tissues.
What does sclerosis mean?
Coccyx
What does the apex of the sacrum articulate with?
The imaging plate
What does the barcode label in Fuji cassettes identify?
L5
What does the base of the sacrum articulate with?
Image contrast
What does the degree of difference between adjacent gray shades on a radiographic image define?
c. Both a and b
What does the first coccygeal segment contain, which no other coccygeal segments have? a. Transverse processes only b. Sacral Cornua only c. Both a and b d. None of the above
Refers to a person with no symptoms.
What does the term asymptomatic mean?
PE absorption and Compton scatter
What does the term attenuation refer to?
Fracture of the radial head
What does visualization of the posterior fat pad in a lateral elbow position indicate?
Increased scatter, decreased contrast
What effect does increased tissue volume have on image quality?
Decreased scatter, increased contrast
What effect does increasing collimation (smaller field size) have?
Increases the average energy of the beam
What effect does increasing filtration have on the emission spectrum?
Increases
What effect does increasing kV have on the speed and energy of the electrons in the x-ray tube?
Increased scatter, decreased contrast
What effect does increasing kv have on image quality?
Increases the average energy of the beam
What effect does increasing tube filtration have on the emission spectrum?
A greater the amount of scatter radiation is removed by the grid
What effect will be demonstrated with a higher the grid ratio?
Hydrogen
What element's protons have their poles aligned by the magnetic force during an MRI procedure?
An adhesive device such as tape anchored to the skin or Tegaderm
What equipment is required to secure the IV catheter in place?
Phantom with discs, step-wedges, etc.
What equipment is used for the CT section thickness accuracy test?
Thin wire and ruler
What equipment is used in the CT laser light accuracy test?
Visual inspection
What evaluation involves checking lead aprons for integrity?
Bit Depth
What factor affects image receptor contrast?
Monitor light output
What factor should remain constant when testing fluoroscopic automatic brightness control?
Prejudices and aging
What factors can negatively influence your communication with others?
Small SID, Large x-ray field, and Small anode angle.
What factors will cause a more pronounced anode heel effect?
Nasal spine, perpendicular plate, and vomer
What forms the bony nasal septum?
1. Explain need for IV cannulation 2. Describe procedure 3. Explain how much discomfort will be felt 4. Explain how therapy will limit activities
What four things should be explained to the patient before IV cannulation is attempted?
To absorb radiation hazardous to the operator
What function does the housing of an II serve?
Third
What generation of CT scanner is used to make PET-CT or SPECT-CT scanners?
The alarm stops and the timer continues on
What happens if you reset the fluoroscopic timer during a fluoro exam?
Remains the same
What happens to patient dose when the focal spot size is increased, but nothing else changes?
More Compton scattering occurs
What happens to the amount of Compton scattering that occurs in the part x-rayed as kVp increases?
The atom loses an electron
What happens when an atom undergoes ionization?
The frequency of photo-electric absorption decreases and the frequency of Compton scattering increases
What happens within the tissue being irradiated as kV increases?
Inversion
What image manipulation process is responsible for changing black to white and vice versa on an image?
Zooming
What image manipulation process is responsible for changing image size?
Edge enhancement filtering, high pass filtering
What image manipulation process is responsible for enhancing image detail?
Rotate
What image manipulation process is responsible for flipping an image up to down?
Subtraction
What image manipulation process is responsible for removing unwanted structures from the image?
Digital subtraction angiography
What imaging technology has created this image?
Select suitable vein by palpation and sight; if using the pressure injector try for a larger vein such as an anticubital vein.
What influences the vein that is chosen for cannulation?
The cassette must be erased
What initial step must be taken regarding the use of the CR cassettes before performing any QC testing on a CR Reader?
1.25mm
What interval thickness are C-spine images acquired with a helical scan type reconstructed with?
Photons that were not produced at the focal spot but elsewhere in the tube
What is "off-focus" radiation?
A level of service expected by the public that has been influenced by the quality of the image or the accuracy of the diagnosis by the physician
What is Actual Quality?
Digital subtraction angiography - a method in which a mask image acquired before contrast imaging is used to digitally subtract anatomy from an image so that only the contrast filled vessel can be seen.
What is DSA?
A level of service expected by the public that have been influenced by outside factors (word of mouth)
What is Expected Quality?
Proposed interpretation of the final results of the study to another study
What is External validity?
Indicates the source to image distance within which the grid can be used without a significant loss of primary radiation.
What is Focal Range?
The number of lead strips (grid lines) per inch or centimeter.
What is Grid Frequency?
Internal logic of an experiment, how well the experiment is done
What is Internal validity?
c. Detects x-rays
What is NOT a function of the DAS (data acquisition system) in CT? a. Amplifies signal from detector b. Converts data to digital form c. Detects x-rays d. Transmits digital data to computer
d. Decrease patient satisfaction
What is NOT a goal of reject repeat analysis? a. Decrease cost b. Decrease dose c. Decrease repeats d. Decrease patient satisfaction e. Decrease time of exam
e. Single field
What is NOT a name for II's if they are capable of magnifying the image? a. Multifield b. Dual-field c. Triple-field d. Quad-field e. Single field
c. To prevent scatter radiation from reaching the image receptor
What is NOT a purpose of a radiographic table? a. To support the patient for the purposes of a radiographic examination b. To accommodate attachable extra equipment c. To prevent scatter radiation from reaching the image receptor d. To move in several directions to accommodate the needs of the patient and the technologist, and meet the requirements of the radiological procedure
A level of service expected by the public that has been judged by wait times and how they are treated during the exam
What is Percieved Quality?
A sample that is not represented nor does it reflect the composition of the population to which the researcher is attempting to generalize
What is a Biased Sample?
Subjects within the study don't know whether they are receiving treatment or placebo
What is a Blind experiment?
The characteristic being measured in a research study
What is a Dependent(outcome) variable?
Neither subjects nor study administers know which individuals are receiving the treatment or placebo
What is a Double blind experiment?
The perpendicular distance between the grid and the convergent line.
What is a Grid Radius?
Asserts there is no difference between groups or relationships between variables
What is a Null Hypothesis?
The whole universe of possible subjects
What is a Population in research?
The group to whom the researcher wishes to generalize the results of the study
What is a Target Population?
5-13 centimeters in diameter
What is a common size for rotating anode disks?
Serves as a baseline against which to measure the effect of the full treatment on the treatment group
What is a control group?
Loss of fine detail
What is a detrimental effect of image noise during fluoroscopy?
d. Long waiting list and long scan times
What is a disadvantage of MRI over x-ray imaging? a. No ionizing radiation is used and can only image specific areas of the body b. Can only image in one plane and cannot perform intervantions c. Soft tissue differentiation is poor and only one contrast is available d. Long waiting list and long scan times
d. The table stays still and the gantry moves during imaging
What is a factor in a mobile CT unit? a. The unit is larger than standard CT to be able to tolerate the physical stress of being moved b. There is decreased exposure to patients and staff c. The image quality is superior to standard CT units d. The table stays still and the gantry moves during imaging e. The mobile CT is only for head imaging
Differentiating cystic (fluid filled) vs. solid structures
What is a great benefit of ultrasound exams?
Spinal infection
What is a indication for an enhanced CT Spine?
Utilize the anode heel effect by putting the head toward the anode side and feet toward the cathode side of the tube
What is a mechanical way in which a more uniform density may be obtained on an AP projection of the t-spine, and how would the method be applied?
An electron that has been freed from its atom due to absorption radiation interactions with matter
What is a photoelectron?
Mirror gets bumped during light bulb change
What is a possible cause for a collimator light/x-ray field congruence test to fail?
Subjects participating in the study
What is a research Sample?
A device that includes a photosensitive array and small pixels that convert light into electrical charges.
What is a thin film transistor?
A blood clot that forms in a vessel and remains there.
What is a thrombus?
7 - 17 degrees
What is a typical target angle for a rotating anode x-ray tubes?
Under sampling of data resulting in fine stripes appearing to radiate from dense structures
What is aliasing?
Other factors that influence a research study
What is an Extraneous (confounding) variable?
The treatment being manipulated in a research study
What is an Independent (experimental) variable?
Up to 5%
What is an acceptable overall reject rate for mammography according to Papp?
Up to 5%
What is an acceptable overall reject rate for radiography according to Papp?
c. Good soft tissue differentiation
What is an advantage of MRI over x-ray imaging? a. Quench issues are helpful b. Ease of use for trauma c. Good soft tissue differentiation d. Radiation and radio waves are used
Increased spatial resolution
What is an advantage of sequential CT scanning, not helical CT scanning?
True axial sections
What is an advantage of sequential step and shoot CT scanning?
It is a measure of electrical current; a measure of the amount of electrons flowing through the electrical circuit per second.
What is an ampere?
A mass of clotted blood or other material brought by the blood from one vessel and forced into a smaller one, obstructing the circulation.
What is an embolus?
Inferosuperior projection
What is another name for the tangential projection of the zygomatic arches?
Transverse
What is another term for an axial plane?
a. Use the Pigg-o-stat
What is best practice when you are performing an upright abdominal image on an 18 month old child? a. Use the Pigg-o-stat b. Hold the patient upright against the upright bucky c. Ask the parent to hold the patient upright against the upright bucky
the number of bits per pixel
What is bit depth?
Infection
What is considered a complication following arthrography?
Water
What is considered a negative contrast agent?
Ability to differentiate structures that vary only slightly in density to the surrounding area
What is contrast resolution?
c. Slice thickness
What is controlled by collimation in a single-slice detector array CT unit? a. Matrix size b. Pixel size c. Slice thickness d. Window width
The process of modifying pixel values using a mathematical formula
What is convolution in CT?
Position
What is defined as placement of the body?
Projection
What is defined as the path of radiation from the tube, through the patient, to the image receptor?
View
What is defined as the surface of the body that is closest to the image receptor?
Doubling the mA doubles the exposure if the other factors remain constant
What is determined from a mA linearity test?
Picture element
What is each square in a matrix called?
Messages that are sent as responses to other messages
What is feedback?
Ameasurement of the increasing number of electrons from the input screen to the output fluoroscopic screen.
What is flux gain?
It is the loss of primary radiation when the lead strips intercept too much of the primary beam
What is grid cut-off?
The ratio of the height (h) of the lead strip to the distance (D) between the lead strips on a grid
What is grid ratio?
Lead foil
What is included in the back of a CR cassette to reduce backscatter radiation?
The ejection of an electron from an atom.
What is ionization?
The process of adding or removing an electron from an atom.
What is ionization?
Resolution
What is line pairs/millimetre or line pairs/centimeter the unit for?
The patient absorbs lower energy x-rays before they can strike the detector, so only high energy x-rays are left
What is meant by "beam hardening" in CT?
Differential absorption refers to the fact that x-ray photons are absorbed in differing amounts depending upon the material being x-rayed
What is meant by differential absorption?
It refers to the fact that x-ray photons are absorbed in differing amounts depending upon the material being x-rayed.
What is meant by differential absorption?
Blooming occurs with high mA. The electron stream is difficult to keep together (due to the large number of electrons in it), so it spreads increasing focal spot size
What is meant by focal spot blooming?
The detectors stay stable in their response and so need few calibrations
What is meant by the term CT detector stability?
Dynamic range is the ratio of the largest signal that the CT unit can measure to the smallest signal it can measure.
What is meant by the term dynamic range, in CT?
Minification gain occurs as a result of the same number of electrons that were produced at the input screen being compressed in the area of the output screen.
What is minification gain?
The ratio of the square of the diameter of the input phosphor to the square of the diameter of the output phosphor
What is minification gain?
High tube voltages, vacuum for electrons to move in, and an appropriate target material capable of quickly decelerating electrons.
What is necessary to produce radiation?
X-ray photons that were not produced at the focal spot, but within the x-ray tube
What is off-focus/extra-focal radiation?
Pars interarticularis
What is part of the lamina between the superior and inferior articular processes of the lumbar vertebra called?
Lead sheets
What is placed into the path of the primary x-ray beam when performing quality control testing for the fluoroscopic maximum exposure rate to prevent radiation from reaching the image intensifier?
It measures the force of the difference between one end of a circuit having an excess source of electrons and the other end that has a deficiency; uses the unit volt (or kilovolt may be used for larger amounts).
What is potential difference?
A program to measure the level of quality at a healthcare facility at a point in time
What is quality assessment?
QA is a program to ensure excellence in healthcare through the systematic collection and evaluation of data
What is quality assurance (QA)?
QC is a program to ensure that the equipment is producing the best image possible with the lowest radiation dose possible
What is quality control (QC)?
Radiodermatitis
What is radiation induced skin reddening?
Responsiveness is the time it takes for the CT system's detectors to recognize an incoming photon and reset to be ready for the next one.
What is responsiveness or response time in CT?
A program for the identification, analysis, evaluation and minimization of risks
What is risk assessment?
Hyoid bone
What is seen in the anterior portion of the neck, just below the tongue or floor of the mouth?
Ability to resolve small objects very close together
What is spatial resolution?
Talar domes and medial malleolus
What is superimposed at the ankle joint?
The speed at which data is acquired
What is temporal resolution?
The gantry is the framework for the CT unit surrounding the patient
What is the CT gantry?
+60
What is the CT number for Congealed blood?
+1000
What is the CT number for Cortical bone?
+40
What is the CT number for White matter of brain?
-1000
What is the CT number for air?
+1000
What is the CT number for dense bone?
-100
What is the CT number for fat?
+2000
What is the CT number for metal?
0
What is the CT number for water?
23
What is the DFOV for a routine CT head?
Tear system
What is the Lacrimal apparatus?
Bony shelf
What is the Nasal concha?
Canal for passage of air
What is the Nasal meatus?
Vertical partition between the nasal cavities
What is the Nasal septum?
Sievert
What is the SI unit for occupational exposure?
180cm or 72 inches
What is the SID for a lateral sternum?
180cm or 72 inches
What is the SID for the lateral projection of the c-spine?
144cm
What is the SOD used if the SID is 180 centimeters, the object is 20 centimeters and the image is 25 centimeters?
A method of catheterization
What is the Seldinger Technique?
Resolution
What is the ability of an imaging system to record two adjacent structures as separate structures called?
Differential absorption
What is the ability of components, depending on their average atomic number and atom packing density, to absorb x-rays differently called?
95-120
What is the acceptable range for systolic mmHg reading?
Recorded detail
What is the accuracy of structural lines actually recorded in a radiographic image called?
Increased resolution
What is the advantage of using thin needle-like cesium iodide structures instead of traditional flat crystals for scintillation in indirect digital radiography methods?
20-25° or 25-30° caudad
What is the angle of the central ray for the PA axial projection (modified Caldwell) of the orbits?
30-35° cephalad
What is the angle used for the AP axial projection of the SI joints?
15-20° cephalad through C4
What is the angle used for the AP axial projection of the cervical spine?
30°
What is the angle used for the PA axial projection (modified Caldwell) of the orbits?
150mSv
What is the annual limit for radiation exposure to the lens of the eye for occupationally exposed people?
50 mSv
What is the annual limit of radiation exposure to "all other organs" for the general public?
500 mSv
What is the annual limit of radiation exposure to the skin for occupationally exposed individuals?
Mastoid tips
What is the best landmark to determine the location of C1?
Take images from the two modalities in the same session
What is the best way to allow for better registration of images in PET-CT or SPECT-CT?
Coronoid process
What is the bottom left line pointing to?
Foreign substance
What is the cause of Anaphylactic shock?
Cardiac failure
What is the cause of Cardiogenic shock?
Loss of blood
What is the cause of Hypovolemic shock?
Head or spine trauma
What is the cause of Neurogenic shock?
Infection
What is the cause of Septic shock?
Most repeats are required for technologist error, especially positioning and technique selection.
What is the cause of most repeats?
Bridge of the nose
What is the centering point for a lateral projection of the nasal bones?
Hilum
What is the central area in which bronchi and blood vessels enter the lungs called?
Angled 15-20 degrees cephalad to C4
What is the central ray and how is the tube directed to demonstrate the intervertebral joints on an AP axial projection of the cervical spine?
Perpendicular at the level of the ASIS and 9 cm (3.5") posterior to the ASIS
What is the central ray for a lateral projection of the sacrum?
Perpendicular to a point 2" superior to the EAM
What is the central ray for a lateral projection of the skull?
Perpendicular to T7 through the posterior half of the thorax
What is the central ray for a lateral projection of the t-spine?
Perpendicular to the iliac crest
What is the central ray for a supine abdomen?
Perpendicular to the 1st MCP joint
What is the central ray for all thumb projections?
Angle 5 degrees caudad, entering a point 1.3cm/0.5 inch inferior to the patellar apex
What is the central ray for an AP knee if the ASIS to tabletop measurement is less than 18cm?
Perpendicular to the femoral neck
What is the central ray for an AP projection of the hip?
Perpendicular to a point 5cm inferior to the coracoid process (mid-body of the scapula)
What is the central ray for an AP projection of the scapula?
Perpendicular to a point 2.5cm/1 inch inferior to the coracoid process
What is the central ray for an AP projection of the shoulder?
Perpendicular to the patellofemoral joint space OR 15 to 20 degrees passing through the patellofemoral joint
What is the central ray for an inferosuperior projection of the patella, using the Settegast method, with the patient sitting on the table?
Perpendicular to 2" above the iliac crest
What is the central ray for an upright abdomen?
10° caudad entering 5 cm (2") superior to symphysis pubis
What is the central ray for the AP axial projection of the coccyx?
10 degrees toward the heel, entering the base of the 3rd metatarsal
What is the central ray for the AP axial projection of the foot?
15° cephalad entering a point 5 cm (2") superior to symphysis pubis
What is the central ray for the AP axial projection of the sacrum?
Perpendicular to the midpoint of the open mouth (C2)
What is the central ray for the AP open mouth?
Perpendicular to mid-shaft of the humerus
What is the central ray for the AP projection of the humerus?
Perpendicular to the 3rd MTP joint
What is the central ray for the AP projection of the toes (forefoot)?
Perpendicular to a point halfway between the outer canthus and the zygoma
What is the central ray for the Lateral projection of the facial bones?
Perpendicular to the MCP joint of the 3rd digit
What is the central ray for the PA oblique projection of the hand?
Perpendicular to the acanthion
What is the central ray for the PA projection of the mandible?
Perpendicular to the midcarpal area
What is the central ray for the PA projection of the wrist?
40 degrees cephalad to the long axis of the foot, entering the based of the 3rd metatarsal
What is the central ray for the axial projection of the calcaneus?
25-30 degrees caudad to exit lowermost TMJ
What is the central ray for the axiolateral projection (Schuller's) of the TMJs?
Perpendicular to T7
What is the central ray for the lateral projection of the T-spine?
Perpendicular to the ankle joint, entering the medial mallelous
What is the central ray for the lateral projection of the ankle?
Perpendicular to C7-T1
What is the central ray for the lateral projection of the cervicothoracic region (swimmer's)?
c. Both a and b are correct
What is the central ray for the lateral projection of the facial bones? (choose the best answer) a. Perpendicular to the lateral surface of upper zygoma b. Perpendicular to halfway between the outer canthus and the EAM c. Both a and b are correct d. None of the above
Perpendicular to a point 5 cm (2") posterior to the ASIS and 3.8 cm (1 ½ ") inferior to the iliac crest
What is the central ray for the lateral projection of the lumbosacral junction (L5-S1)?
Perpendicular to L4 (iliac crest)
What is the central ray for the lateral projection of the lumbosacral region?
Perpendicular to enter 1.3 cm - 2.5 cm (½" - 1") posterior to the outer canthus
What is the central ray for the lateral projection of the sinuses?
Perpendicular to the wrist joint
What is the central ray for the lateral projection of the wrist?
Perpendicular to the lateral border of mid-sternum
What is the central ray for the lateral sternum?
Perpendicular, exiting through the acanthion
What is the central ray for the parietoacanthial projection (Water's) of the sinuses?
Perpendicular, exiting the acanthion
What is the central ray for the parietoacanthial projection (Waters) of the facial bones?
15° cephalad entering through the nasion
What is the central ray for the reverse Caldwell?
30° cephalad, 3.8 cm (1.5") superior to the symphysis pubis
What is the central ray to perform an AP axial projection of the sacroiliac joints on a male?
30 degrees caudad
What is the central ray used for a PA axial projection of the orbits for foreign body localization?
2:1
What is the collimator pitch for a MDCT with a table movement of 10 mm and a beam thickness of 5 mm?
Blood sugar test
What is the common name for a Glucose test?
Frog Leg
What is the common name for the AP oblique projection of the hip, also known as the Modified Cleaves method?
For a remote-controlled fluoroscopic unit, the x-ray tube is above the table and the I.I. is below
What is the configuration of the x-ray tube and image intensifier with respect to the x-ray table for a remote-controlled fluoroscopic unit?
Cleanse site with povidone-iodine or alcohol wipe, using a circular outward motion.
What is the correct way to cleanse the venipuncture site?
Images that are of poor diagnostic quality may be passed in an attempt to reduce the repeat rate
What is the danger in trying to reduce repeat rate to zero?
Milky discharge from breast
What is the definition of "galactorrhea"?
Attenuation is the reduction in the number of x-rays remaining in the beam following the penetration through matter (through absorption and scattering).
What is the definition of attenuation?
The act of sending and receiving messages simultaneously
What is the definition of communication?
To generate an image from raw data
What is the definition of image reconstruction, ignoring post-processing functions?
The emission spectrum has photons of many energies but the maximum energy photon is dependent on the kilovolt setting. Only some of the photons attain all the energy possible, and most of the beam is comprised of photons of lower energy.
What is the definition of kilovoltage peak?
mA is the number of electrons moving from the cathode to the anode, and therefore represents the number of photons in the x-ray beam per second
What is the definition of miliampere?
15 to 20 degrees medially/internally
What is the degree and direction of rotation for the AP oblique projection of the ankle to demonstrate the ankle mortise joint?
15-20°
What is the degree of patient rotation for the PA Oblique projection of the sternum?
The geometry of the angle can limit the size of the primary beam field at short SID
What is the disadvantage of extremely small target angles?
The total number of photons changes, so more interactions will occur with higher mAs, but the ratio of absorbed to transmitted does not change
What is the effect of changing mAs on interactions between matter and radiation?
Numerical representation of the amount of exposure to an image receptor
What is the exposure indicator number defined as?
(focal spot size X OID)/SOD
What is the formula for penumbra?
Quarterly
What is the frequency at which the QC test for CT Low Contrast Detectability should be performed?
Weekly
What is the frequency at which the QC test for CT Noise should be performed?
Weekly
What is the frequency at which the QC test for CT Number Accuracy should be performed?
Monthly
What is the frequency at which the QC test for CT Number Linearity should be performed?
Annually
What is the frequency at which the QC test for CT Radiation Dose profile should be performed?
Quarterly
What is the frequency at which the QC test for CT Spatial Resolution should be performed?
Monthly
What is the frequency at which the QC test for CT Tomographic Section Thickness should be performed?
Weekly
What is the frequency at which the QC test for CT Uniformity should be performed?
Montly
What is the frequency at which the QC test for Calibration of CT Number should be performed?
Semi-annually
What is the frequency of the CT accuracy of the automatic positioning of tomographic plane QC test?
Annually
What is the frequency of the CT radiation dose profile QC test?
d. Make detail visible
What is the function of radiographic contrast? a. Decrease exposure latitude b. Increase the average density c. Increase detail produced d. Make detail visible
Accelerates electrons from input screen to output screen
What is the function of the anode in a fluoroscopic image intensifier?
The electrostatic lenses focus the electrons onto the output screen
What is the function of the electrostatic lenses in a fluoroscopic image intensifier system?
Accelerates, converges, focuses electrons
What is the function of the electrostatic lenses in a fluoroscopic image intensifier?
To provide electrons for thermionic emission
What is the function of the filament?
It absorbs x-rays and emits light
What is the function of the input screen in a fluoroscopic image intensifier?
It absorbs electrons and emits light.
What is the function of the output screen in a fluoroscopic image intensifier?
It absorbs light and emits electrons.
What is the function of the photocathode in a fluoroscopic image intensifier?
50-90cm
What is the general size of a CT unit gantry aperture?
Visceral pleura
What is the inner layer adhering to surface of lungs called?
Maxilla
What is the largest immovable facial bone?
Patient scatter
What is the largest source of occupational exposure during fluorscopy, and radiography?
20%
What is the limit for acceptability for the dose delivered when performing the CT radiation dose-scan projection radiograph/scout localization image QC test?
5mm
What is the limit for protective apparel for the diameter of one circular defect in the area of the reproductive organs?
+/-1 mm
What is the limit for the CT patient support movement?
+/- 50%
What is the limit for the CT section thickness QC test for a desired slice thickness between 1-2 mm?
+/- 0.5 mm
What is the limit for the CT section thickness QC test for a desired slice thickness of less than 1 mm?
+/- 1 mm
What is the limit for the CT section thickness QC test for a desired slice thickness over 2 mm?
+/- 2 HU
What is the limit for the CT uniformity QC test, based upon previous testing?
-1000 +/- 10 HU
What is the limit for the calibration of CT number for air?
≤0.05
What is the limit for the coefficient of variation for the radiographic reproducibility test?
≤0.05
What is the limit for the coefficient of variation for the reproducibility test?
5 mm
What is the limit for the low contrast detectability test, so what size of object can be seen at 0.5 % density difference from the background?
+/- 5 HU
What is the limit of acceptance for the CT number dependence on phantom position test?
Base
What is the lower concave portion of lungs called?
0.5 to 5 mA
What is the mA range in fluoroscopy?
50 mGy/min
What is the mGy/minute limit for Fluoroscopic equipment NOT equipped with automatic intensity control?
100 mGy/min
What is the mGy/minute limit for Fluoroscopic equipment equipped with automatic intensity control?
150 mGy/min
What is the mGy/minute limit for Fluoroscopic equipment equipped with both an Automatic intensity control and a High level irradiation control when the high level irradiation control is activated?
The development of ring artifact
What is the main concern if a CT detector is even slightly misaligned?
Decrease radiation exposure needed
What is the main purpose of an image intensifier in fluoroscopy?
Quantum Mottle
What is the main source of noise in CT?
1.0 mGy/hour
What is the maximum air kerma rate for radiation leakage allowed from the x-ray tube shielding at one meter away from the focal spot?
Less than 10%
What is the maximum amount of image lag that is acceptable regarding the performance of cardiac studies?
Tachycardia
What is the medical term for abnormal rapid pulse?
Cyanotic
What is the medical term for bluish coloration?
Diaphoretic
What is the medical term for cold sweat?
Dyspnea
What is the medical term for difficulty breathing?
Hypertension
What is the medical term for high blood pressure?
Bradypnea
What is the medical term for slow breathing?
Minification gain = input squared / output squared = 5^2 / 1^2 = 25
What is the minification gain for a fluoroscopic image intensifier tube with an input screen diameter of 5" and an output diameter of 1"?
81
What is the minification gain for an I.I. with an input screen diameter of 9" and an output screen diameter of 1"?
Annually
What is the minimum recommended frequency for the fluoroscopic high contrast resolution quality control test, according to SC35?
Annually
What is the minimum recommended frequency for the fluoroscopic high contrast resolution test, according to SC35?
Annually
What is the minimum recommended frequency for the fluoroscopic image lag quality control test, according to SC35?
Annually
What is the minimum recommended frequency for the fluoroscopic image lag test, according to SC35?
Annually
What is the minimum recommended frequency for the maximum fluoroscopic exposure rate quality control test, according to SC35?
30 cm
What is the minimum source-to-skin distance for mobile fluoroscopic units?
20 cm
What is the minimum source-to-skin distance for special application fluoroscopic equipment?
38 cm
What is the minimum source-to-skin distance for stationary fluoroscopic units?
512
What is the most common CT matrix size?
Lung Cancer
What is the most common cause of death in women?
Musculoskeletal disorders
What is the most common injuries reported amongst healthcare workers?
Breast Cancer
What is the most common malignancy among women aged 44-50?
Congenital hip dislocation
What is the most common reason for performing hip arthrography on children?
a. Conventional design (closed) scanners
What is the most common type of MRI scanner used today? a. Conventional design (closed) scanners b. Extremity scanners c. Intra-operative scanners d. Open magnet scanners
Vaporization of the filament and plating of the glass or metal envelope.
What is the most frequent cause of x-ray tube failure?
b. Grid error
What is the most likely cause of an artifact demonstrating peripheral image loss but with optimum brightness down the center of a radiographic image? a. Collimation error b. Grid error c. Histogram error d. Phantom image
Patient over-exposure
What is the most significant danger of digital imaging?
Sacral promontory
What is the name of the anterior ridge along the top edge of the first sacral segment?
Mediastinum
What is the name of the area located between the two pleural cavities?
Cooper's (suspensory) ligaments
What is the name of the fibrous band-like extensions that provide support for the breast?
Atlantoccipital
What is the name of the joint between the atlas and the occipital bone?
Lumbosacral
What is the name of the joint between the body of L5 and the base of the sacrum?
Xiphisternal
What is the name of the joint between the body of the sternum and the xiphoid process?
Costovertebral
What is the name of the joint formed between the head of the rib and the body of the vertebra?
Zygapophyseal joint
What is the name of the joint formed between the superior and inferior articular surfaces?
Costotransverse
What is the name of the joint formed between the tubercle of the rib and the costal facet on the transverse process of the vertebra?
Costochondral
What is the name of the joint formed by the sternal end of the rib and the costal cartilage?
Medial atlantoaxial
What is the name of the joint located between the dens and the atlas?
Active layer
What is the name of the layer of the imaging plate that traps electrons during exposure?
Interosseous Membrane
What is the name of the membrane that runs between the shafts of the radius and ulna?
Psoas major muscle
What is the name of the muscle that is often clearly visualized on an abdominal x-ray?
The Radiation Protection Bureau - Health Canada
What is the name of the national advisory committee in Canada that is responsible for guidance on the safe use of radiation?
Parietal pleura
What is the name of the outer layer adhering to the inner surface of the chest wall and diaphragm?
Jugular notch
What is the name of the palpable notch at the superior aspect of the sternum?
Clavicular notch
What is the name of the part of the manubrium where the clavicle articulates?
Epiglottis
What is the name of the structure that acts as a lid over the larynx to prevent foreign objects from entering the respiratory system?
Eustachian/Auditory Tube
What is the name of the tube that connects the nasopharynx with the middle ear?
Apex
What is the name of the upper, rounded portion of the lungs, above level of clavicles?
10%
What is the natural occurrence rate for genetic mutations in a fetus?
12 mR
What is the new radiation intensity if it was 40 mR at 100 cm, but the SID changes to 180 cm?
To maintain or replace blood volume, To restore acid-base balance, To provide a route for medication administration.
What is the objective of vascular access?
X-rays to light to electrons to light
What is the order of operations in an image intensifier fluoroscopic image detector?
Supine
What is the patient position for orthoroentgenography?
11%
What is the percent difference between a radiographic exposure time set at 1.00s and the exposure time obtained on a digital x-ray exposure timer test tool of 0.89s?
5%
What is the percent difference between an exposure time set at 1.00s and the exposure time obtained on a digital x-ray exposure timer test tool of 0.95s?
7.5%
What is the percentage difference between kV set at 80 and the test result obtained from a kV accuracy test of 86 kV?
Areola
What is the pigmented area surrounding the nipple called?
0.5
What is the pitch for a single section scanner if the table movement is 5 mm for a 10 mm section width?
Parallel
What is the position of the coronal plane in relation to the image receptor for a PA Axial Projection (Caldwell) of the skull?
Perpendicular
What is the position of the midsagittal plane in relation to the image receptor for an AP Axial Projection (Towne) of the skull?
Pleural cavity
What is the potential space between the outer and inner layers in the chest called?
Abnormalities of articular disk
What is the primary indication for TMJ arthrography?
Loose prosthesis
What is the primary indication for hip arthrography in an adult patient?
Rotator cuff tear
What is the primary indication for shoulder arthrography?
To remove low energy primary x-ray photons that would increase patient dose
What is the primary reason for filtration of the x-ray beam?
To remove low energy x-ray photons that would cause increased patient radiation dose
What is the primary reason for filtration of the x-ray beam?
Reconstruction of an object from multiple projections to show the internal structure of the object
What is the principle of CT operation?
To prevent the spread of infection to both patient and health care worker.
What is the purpose of BSI (Body Substance Isolation) when establishing an IV?
To decrease amount of scatter radiation produced, to keep total amount of patient tissue irradiation from primary beam to a minimum, and to increase image contrast.
What is the purpose of a beam restrictor?
To even out the amount of radiation reaching the image receptor for body parts of uneven thickness
What is the purpose of a compensating filter?
Improve radiographic image contrast
What is the purpose of a radiographic grid?
d. all of the above
What is the purpose of a warm-up procedure for an x-ray tube? a. it causes the anode to expand evenly b. helps to prevent cracking of the anode (thermal stress) c. helps to prolong the life of the x-ray tube d. all of the above
ABC maintains the same brightness on the display monitor regardless of patient density
What is the purpose of an automatic brightness control (ABC) system in image intensified fluoroscopy?
To reduce the lordotic curve of the l-spine
What is the purpose of asking the patient to flex their hips and knees for an AP projection of the l-spine?
To terminate the radiographic exposure time once a predetermined amount of radiation has reached the image receptor
What is the purpose of automatic exposure controls (AEC)?
Reduce patient dose, assist in eliminating scatter radiation, shape the beam, and control slice thickness.
What is the purpose of collimation for a CT unit?
To even out absorption in parts of unequal thickness
What is the purpose of compensating filters?
3 & 4
What is the purpose of fluoroscopic quality control testing for high contrast resolution? 1. Ability to determine differences in densities. 2. Ability to resolve large objects. 3. Ability to determine thin black and white areas. 4. Ability to resolve small objects.
To measure the length of long bones
What is the purpose of orthoroentgenography?
To assess joint space narrowing
What is the purpose of performing a standing PA projection of both knees for orthopedic consultation?
b. The purpose of risk management is to maintain quality patient care and a safe environment for employees and visitors, while conserving the healthcare institution's financial resources
What is the purpose of risk management in a DI department? Choose the best answer. a. The purpose of risk management is to maintain quality patient care and a safe environment for employees and visitors b. The purpose of risk management is to maintain quality patient care and a safe environment for employees and visitors, while conserving the healthcare institution's financial resources c. The purpose of risk management is to maintain quality patient care, while conserving the healthcare institution's financial resources d. The purpose of risk management is to maintain a safe environment for employees and visitors
To deliver fluid in very precise amounts.
What is the purpose of the drip chamber?
To permit the oil to expand as it is heated
What is the purpose of the expandable gasket at one end of the housing?
To permit the oil to expand if it heats up too much
What is the purpose of the expandable gasket at one end of the tube housing?
To force the electron stream to converge onto the target anode in the required size and shape
What is the purpose of the focusing cup?
To insulate the high voltage components from the tube housing; to absorb much of the heat produced by x-ray production.
What is the purpose of the oil between the x-ray tube and the housing?
To insulate the high voltage components from the tube housing, to cool the x-ray tube, and to absorb much of the heat produced by x-ray production.
What is the purpose of the oil used between the x-ray tube and housing?
To reduce their kyphotic curve
What is the purpose of the patient flexing their knees for the AP projection of the t-spine?
Prevents blood from returning to the heart therefore making the veins below the tourniquet more prominent.
What is the purpose of the tourniquet?
Permits electrons to flow from cathode to anode without encountering the gas atoms of air
What is the purpose of the vacuum in the x-ray tube?
To allow electrons to flow freely from cathode to anode to increase tube efficiency
What is the purpose of the vacuum in the x-ray tube?
Provides a means to cool the tube, isolates the high voltage, controls leakage and scatter radiation
What is the purpose of the x-ray tube housing (shielding)?
Controls leakage and scatter radiation, isolates the high voltage and provides a means to cool the tube
What is the purpose of the x-ray tube housing?
4 mSv
What is the radiation dose limit to the technologist's abdomen for the remainder of the pregnancy once she has declared her pregnancy, from SC35?
Annually
What is the recommended frequency for Environmental inspection in CT?
Annually
What is the recommended frequency for General preventative maintenance in CT?
Monthly
What is the recommended frequency for Risk assessment in CT?
Annually
What is the recommended frequency for Visual inspection in CT?
Annually
What is the recommended frequency for testing accuracy of CT interpretation monitors and interventional guidance monitors?
Annually
What is the recommended frequency of the fluoroscopic field size accuracy and beam alignment quality control test?
Attenuation
What is the reduction in radiation intensity as it passes through matter called?
The greater the SID, the less evident is the effect
What is the relationship between anode heel effect and SID?
The larger the image receptor size for the same SID, the more evident is the effect.
What is the relationship between anode heel effect and image receptor size?
Directly proportional
What is the relationship between exposure time and the amount of radiation reaching the image receptor?
Focal spot size increases as mA is increased
What is the relationship between focal spot size and mA?
Inversely proportional
What is the relationship between patient dose and the sensitivity of the imaging system?
Inverse
What is the relationship between size distortion and image resolution?
As the target angle is decreased, the effective focal spot size decreases
What is the relationship between target angle and focal spot size?
As the actual focal spot size increases, the effective focal spot size also increases
What is the relationship between the actual and effective focal spot sizes?
The larger the disc diameter, the greater the heat rating of the tube
What is the relationship between the disc diameter and heat loading in a rotating anode x-ray tube?
The larger the disc the greater the heat rating.
What is the relationship between the disc diameter and heat loading in a rotating anode x-ray tube?
When the speed of rotation is increased, the ability of the anode to withstand heat increases
What is the relationship between the speed of rotation of the rotor and heat loading in a rotating anode x-ray tube?
Monthly
What is the required frequency for testing accuracy for all CT monitors?
Daily
What is the required frequency for testing accuracy of CT interpretation monitors?
"Ghosting" of structures adjacent to the edge of the primary beam
What is the result of off-focus radiation?
Identify general sources or error and call for service or tell supervisor to call for service
What is the role of the MRT in troubleshooting equipment problems?
Converts light to electrical signal
What is the role of the photodiode in a solid state CT detector?
Just below skull base to just above vertex
What is the scan location for a CTV head?
Above T1 to below T12
What is the scan range for a T-spine?
Trochlea
What is the second line from the top pointing to?
Indicates a fracture of the pars interarticularis
What is the significance if the scottie dog has a collar?
To demonstrate air-fluid levels
What is the significance of sinuses being imaged upright?
Epiglottis
What is the structure that controls the swallowing mechanism of the pharynx?
The specific wavelengths of characteristic radiation emitted
What is the target material of an x-ray tube directly responsible for?
DICOM
What is the term for a system of computer software standards which permits a wide range of DIGITAL IMAGING PROGRAMS to understand each other?
Inframammary fold
What is the term for the junction between the inferior aspect of the breast and anterior chest wall?
Lesser tubercle
What is the third line from the top pointing to?
Olecranon process
What is the top line pointing to?
Total brightness gain is a measurement of the increase in image intensity achieved by an image intensification tube.
What is the total brightness gain a measurement of an I.I.?
Total brightness gain = 81 x 100 = 8100
What is the total brightness gain for an I.I. with an minification gain of 81 and an flux gain of 100?
Total Brightness Gain = Minification gain 81 x Flux Gain 100 = 8100
What is the total brightness gain of a fluoroscopic image intensifier if minification gain is 81 and flux gain is 100?
To control or minimize the variables that produce poor or sub quality images as much as possible
What is the total purpose of a Quality Management (QM) program in a radiology department?
30 degrees
What is the typical amount a gantry can be angled?
Image quality is not directly related to radiation dose
What is the uncoupling effect in CT?
Milimeters
What is the unit for penumbra?
mm aluminum equivalency
What is the unit for tube filtration?
mAs
What is the unit of measurement for the quantity of photons?
LP/cm
What is the unit used for CT spatial resolution (detail)?
0.164 mm
What is the unsharpness factor (penumbra) in a radiographic image if the following situation occurs: 1.2 mm focal spot, 12 cm OID, 100 cm SID?
670 square mm
What is the upper limit for protective apparel for total defective area as seen on a protective apparel quality control test?
1800ww/400wl
What is the window level and window width for Bone?
350ww/50wl
What is the window level and window width for Soft tissue?
150ww/30wl
What is the window level and window width for the Liver?
1500ww/-700wl
What is the window level and window width for the Lungs?
BUN and Creatinine
What is used to assess renal function?
Cartilaginous, immovable
What joint classification is the joint between the body of the sternum and the xiphoid process?
Cartilaginous, slightly movable
What joint classification is the manubriosternal joint?
b. Geometric
What kind of property is distortion? a. Photographic b. Geometric
The Active layer
What layer of the imaging plate traps electrons during the exposure?
Provincial and Federal
What levels of legislation is responsible for the safety regulations for Transport of Dangerous Goods (TDG)?
Decrease it by half
What mAs change will halve the amount of exposure and therefore the amount of radiation exiting the patient as well?
KV, Focal spot size selection, Image receptor selection (Table top/ table bucky/ wall bucky), Exposure time (with mA = mAs), Exposure button, MA (with exposure time = mAs)
What major settings are found on the x-ray console?
No body, short spinous processes, long transverse processes, lateral masses
What makes C1 atypical?
Conical process (dens), laminate thick and broad
What makes C2 atypical?
Long prominent spinous processes, more vertical inferior articular surface
What makes C7 atypical?
Ciliated mucous epithelium
What makes up the Lining membrane in the Respiratory system?
The brightness gain is the product of minification gain multiplied by flux gain.
What makes up the total brightness gain a measurement of an I.I.?
Low-density carbon composite
What material makes up the CT table?
Metal
What material must be kept away from the MRI scanner?
Rhenium alloyed tungsten due to its high atomic number, high melting point, heat conducting (rapid heat dissipation) ability, and elasticity
What material(s) are use in the anode disc of a rotating anode x-ray tube and why has it/have they been selected?
Aluminum, carbon graphite, and Bakelite plastic
What materials are commonly used for x-ray table tops?
Becoming withdrawn, excessive talking or fidgeting.
What may be signs that your patient is feeling anxious?
Out-of-Field artifact
What may occur if the arms are left by the patient's side for a CT chest exam?
Data may be missed
What may occur with a pitch over 1 in CT?
Over-sampling
What may occur with a pitch under 1 in CT?
Pulmonary embolism
What medical emergency is characterized by chest pain and unexplained dyspnea?
Angina pectoris
What medical emergency is characterized by episodes of chest pain?
Anaphylaxis
What medical emergency is characterized by itching and dysphagia?
Diabetes Insipus
What medical emergency is characterized by polyuria and thirst?
Cerebrovascular Accident
What medical emergency is characterized by slurred speech, severe headache, and muscle weakness?
Hypoglycemia
What medical emergency is characterized by weakness, sweating, and hunger?
Multi-planar reconstructions (MPR)
What method of post-processing involves displaying images taken in one plane in a different plane?
Display field of view (DFOV)
What method of post-processing is used to show area desired in reconstruction, not entire area acquired?
Minimum intensity projections (MinIP)
What method of post-processing is used to show bronchial tree well by finding and demonstrating the darkest pixels?
Maximum intensity projections (MIP)
What method of post-processing is used to show contrast filled vessels well by finding and demonstrating the brightest pixels?
Volume rendering (VR)
What method of post-processing is used to show the inside and outside of structures using entire data set, such as virtual colonoscopy?
Shaded surface display (SSD) or surface rendering (SR)
What method of post-processing is used to show the inside and outside of structures using part of the data set, such as virtual colonoscopy?
Assessing the attenuation value (HU) of the mass on un-enhanced CT images and Evaluating the degree of contrast that has been washed out of the mass on delayed imaging.
What methods are used in CT for characterizing adrenal masses as benign or malignant?
2.5 mm al eq
What minimum amount of tube filtration is required for an x-ray unit with a maximum kV of 70 kV or more?
Flexion
What movement decreases the angle between adjoining bones?
Extension
What movement increases the angle between adjoining bones?
Ensure all joints are correctly positioned before beginning the study
What must be done to maximize accuracy in long bone measurement examinations?
Nothing
What must be in the gantry scanning area during the air calibration test?
Pubic Symphysis
What must be included on an AP projection of the abdomen, with the patient recumbent?
Spiral
What name is given to a CT scanner that can rotate continuously around the patient for an entire abdominal scan, even though this name is technically incorrect?
Geometric magnification
What name is given to using the OID/SOD distances to magnify an image?
Olfactory (CNI)
What nerve is responsible for the sense of smell?
a. 48 inches
What new SID are some sources recommending be used instead of 40 inches to decrease magnification and thereby increase image resolution? a. 48 inches b. 35 inches c. 25 inches d. 68 inches
24 mAs
What new mAs will be needed to ensure the same amount of radiation at the image receptor if 30 mAs worked at 100 cm, but the farthest you can get on a mobile exam is 90 cm?
d. 83 mAs at 85 kVp
What new technique is required to give the same amount of radiation reaching the image receptor during radiography when going from a 5:1 to a 12:1 grid with the original technique being 85 kVp and 45 mAs. a. 25 mAs at 85 kVp b. 45 mAs at 46 kVp c. 45 mAs at 156 kVp d. 83 mAs at 85 kVp
50 mAs at 100 kV
What new technique would double radiation intensity at the image receptor if the original technique was 25 mAs at 100 kV?
Four: Right & Left Superior demifacets and right & left inferior demifacets
What number and what type (facet or demifacet) are found on the body of a typical t-spine vertebrae?
X-rays are converted to light
What occurs at the fluoroscopic image intensifier input screen?
Electrons are converted to light
What occurs at the fluoroscopic image intensifier output screen?
Light is converted to electrons
What occurs at the fluoroscopic image intensifier photocathode?
Petrous pyramids in the lower 1/3 of the orbits
What of the following is not one evaluation criterion for the PA axial projection (20° Caldwell) of the facial bones?
Over 38ºC
What oral temperature would be considered a fever in an adult?
Head of the rib
What part of a rib lies uppermost in the body?
Breast
What part of the body is tomosynthesis used for?
Rami
What part of the mandible is best demonstrated on a posteroanterior projection of the mandible?
Occipital condyles
What part of the occipal bone articulates to form the atlantooccipital joint?
The costal groove
What part of the rib accommodates a nerve, an artery, and a vein?
The articular surface on the head
What part of the rib forms the costovertebral joint?
Auricular surface
What part of the sacrum articulates to form the sacroiliac joint?
The temporal process
What part of the zygoma forms a portion of the zygomatic arch?
Developmental dysplasia of the hip
What pathology is a malformation of the acetabulum causing displacement of the femoral head?
Cystic bone lesion
What pathology is present in this image?
Tension Pneumothorax
What pathology is present in this image?
AP oblique projection, LPO position
What patient position is represented in this rib image?
Erect, to demonstrate air-fluid levels
What patient position should a patient be in for imaging the sinuses and why?
95%
What percent of occupational exposure occurs from mobiles and fluoroscopy?
0.1%
What percent of the primary beam at the patient occurs at one meter from the patient?
Transducer
What piece of equipment transmits and received sound waves in an ultrasound exam?
Sagittal
What plane divides the body into right and left halves?
Coronal
What plane may divide the body or a body part into anterior and posterior segments?
Horizontal
What plane passes crosswise through the body at right angles to the long axis?
Oblique
What plane passes through the body at any angle?
Midcoronal
What plane passes through the midline of the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior segments?
Midsagittal
What plane passes through the midline of the body, dividing it into equal left and right halves?
Medial half
What portion of the clavicle will be seen superimposing the thorax in a properly positioned AP projection of the clavicle?
Lung apices to costophrenic angles
What portions of anatomy should be included in a chest x-ray from top to bottom?
Orbitomeatal line (OML)
What positioning line is perpendicular to the IR for a PA axial projection (Caldwell method) of the cranium?
Mentomeatal line (MML)
What positioning line is perpendicular to the IR for the parietocanthial projection (Waters method) of the sinuses?
Disinfection
What process eliminates most pathogens but not all microbial forms?
Last image hold
What process in fluoroscopy keeps the previous image on the monitor for as long as the Radiologist would like to view it, without more patient exposure?
The conversion efficiency of the output fluoroscopic screen
What produces flux gain?
AP oblique
What projection best demonstrates the intervertebral foramina?
PA Projection
What projection is also known as the Caldwell?
15 degrees caudad
What projection is the Caldwell skull?
AP supine abdomen
What projection is usually performed for a KUB abdomen?
AP or PA axial oblique
What projection of the c-spine will demonstrate intervertebral foramina?
Lateral
What projection of the c-spine will demonstrate zygapophyseal joints?
AP oblique projection with medial rotation
What projection of the knee demonstrates the head of the fibula largely free of superimposition?
AP or PA oblique
What projection of the l-spine are the zygapophyseal joints demonstrated the most clearly?
Lateral
What projection of the t-spine will demonstrate intervertebral foramina?
PA Oblique (scapular Y)
What projection was performed to obtain this image?
Lateral
What projection will best demonstrate a compression fracture of the thoracic spine?
PA axial projection
What projection would best demonstrate possible loose bodies in the femorotibial joint space?
Anteroposterior Open Mouth Projection
What projection/view best demonstrates the zygapophyseal joint between C1 and C2?O
AP or PA left lateral decubitus abdomen, AP supine abdomen, and AP supine or Fowler's sitting chest
What projections & patient positions would be routinely performed for an abdominal series on a stretcher patient?
Erect chest, erect abdomen, and supine abdomen (all can be PA or AP)
What projections & patient positions would be routinely performed for an abdominal series on a walk-in patient?
Parietoacanthial and Lateral projections
What projections are usually done for Nasal bones?
AP axial projection (30° modified Townes), Submentovertical projection
What projections may be performed as a bilateral study of the zygomatic arches?
Pitch in multi-detector CT refers to the comparison of the table movement per tube rotation divided by beam width
What refers to pitch for multi-detector CT?
Inverse
What relationship does window width have with contrast resolution?
Width of voxel
What represents the slice thickness in CT scanning?
Rib 2
What rib is located at the level of the sternal angle?
Right ribs closest to the IR
What ribs will be demonstrated on an AP oblique projection of the ribs in RPO position?
Increase mAs
What should be changed to decrease quantum mottle in radiography?
Side down
What side of the lumbar spine is demonstrated in the AP oblique projection?
Sphenoid
What sinuses are projected through the open mouth when your patient is positioned for the parietocanthial projection (Open-Mouth Waters method)?
2.5mm
What slice thickness are C-spine images acquired with a helical scan type reconstructed to?
Capitulum
What structure articulates with the radial head?
Diaphragm
What structure forms the inferior border of the thoracic cavity?
Dorsum sella
What structure is demonstrated within the foramen magnum on an AP axial (Towne) image of the skull?
Whole facets and demifacets
What structure(s) are unique to the thoracic vertebrae?
Posterior rim of the acetabulum and iliopubic column
What structures are best demonstrated on this hip image?
Intervertebral foramina & intervertebral disk spaces
What structures are best demonstrated when positioning your patient for a lateral projection of the l-spine?
Left zygapophyseal joints
What structures are best demonstrated when positioning your patient in an LPO position for an AP oblique projection of the l-spine?
Heart, great vessels, thymus gland, trachea, and esophagus.
What structures are located in the mediastinum?
Bifid spinous processes, short transverse processes, and transverse foramina
What structures are unique to the typical cervical vertebrae?
Humeral epicondyles
What structures on the distal end of the humerus will be superimposed on a true lateral?
Lambdoidal
What suture passes between the superior edge of the occipital bone and the posterior edges of the parital bones?
Photomultiplier Tube (PMT)
What system collects the light given off by the imaging plates of a CR system after the light has passed through the optical collecting system?
kV
What technical factor controls radiographic subject contrast?
b. Increase mAs
What technique change should be used to increase x-ray beam quantity? a. Increase kVp b. Increase mAs c. Decrease mAs d. Decrease kVp
Edge enhancement
What technique is good for improving visualization of contrast-filled vessels, and therefore often used in vascular imaging?
Sharpening
What technique is used to enhance the edges of structures within an image?
Indirect Action
What term applies to damage to a target caused by a "hit" elsewhere in the cell?
Noise
What term is applied to random background information seen on a radiographic image?
Compensating filter
What term is given for a filter used to ensure that similar amounts of radiation reach both ends of an image with a body part that is thick at one end and thin at the other?
Sterilization
What term is used to describe the destruction of all forms of microbial life?
Effective focal spot
What term is used to describe the stated focal spot size for an x-ray unit?
Detector pitch
What term refers to pitch determined in MDCT with table movement per rotation divided by selected slice thickness of detector?
Tail
What term refers to scatter from one CT section going into adjacent tissue?
Scan field of view (SFOV)
What term refers to the area around the isocenter where data is acquired?
Gating
What term refers to the imaging at certain times during respiration or heartbeat to remove motion from the image?
Region of Interest (ROI)
What term refers to the process of holding the mouse over an area of image, to determine the CT # and material that area represents?
Interpolation
What term refers to the process of making angled helical data match a straight single section scanner image?
Interval reconstruction
What term refers to the process of reconstructing an image at different thicknesses than acquired?
Maximum Intensity Projection (MIP)
What term refers to the process where the computer finds the brightest pixels and creates an image accentuating contrast filled vascular structures?
No test tool, nothing in the beam path
What test tool is used for CT Air Calibrations?
A phantom with a variety of known object densities embedded
What test tool is used for CT QA?
Ruler
What test tool is used for the CT patient support movement QC test?
A phantom with a variety of known object densities embedded
What test tool is used for the QC test for CT Linearity?
Water-filled phantom
What test tool is used for the QC test for CT Noise?
Water-filled phantom
What test tool is used for the QC test for CT Number Accuracy?
A device with ramps, discs or beads
What test tool is used for the QC test for CT Tomographic Section Thickness?
Water-filled phantom
What test tool is used for the QC test for CT Uniformity?
Water-filled phantom
What test tool is used for the QC test for Calibration of CT numbers?
Phantom & ruler
What test tool is used for the QC test for Patient support movement?
Hole-drilled aluminum sheet
What test tool is used to visually check the ability of the imaging system to display low-contrast information, as part of the low contrast resolution quality control procedure?
Brightness, contrast, and inversion
What three post-processing functions can be performed using look-up tables?
25 mAs at 115 kV OR 50 mAs at 100 kV
What two new techniques would double radiation intensity at the image receptor if the original technique was 25 mAs at 100 kV?
Greater tubercle and humeral head
What two structures will be in profile on the AP projection of the humerus?
Secondary
What type of barrier is designed to protect from scatter and leakage radiation only?
Leukemia
What type of cancer is easiest to link to radiation exposure?
Inverse
What type of contrast media are barium and iodine?
Positive contrast media
What type of contrast media are barium and iodine?
d. Piezoelectric
What type of crystal is used in an US transducer? a. Copper b. Gelatinous c. Transmissive d. Piezoelectric
Lordotic curve (convex anteriorly), occurs when baby starts to hold head up; 3-4 months and complete by 8/9 months
What type of curvature is the c-spine, and at what point in development does it form?
Lordotic and Secondary
What type of curvature is the cervical spine?
Kyphotic, Primary
What type of curvature is the sacral curvature?
Primary and kyphotic
What type of curvature is the sacral curve?
Kyphotic, Primary
What type of curvature is the t-spine?
Compton
What type of interaction can cause the image to be of decreased quality?
Freely movable, synovial, ball and socket joint
What type of joint is the hip?
Linear attenuation coefficients
What type of number cannot be used by the computer to reconstruct an image?
Performance testing
What type of process evaluates the ongoing operation of functional x-ray equipment with specialized test instrumentation/equipment?
Characteristic radiation
What type of radiation produces spikes or energy peaks in the x-ray spectrum specific to the target material?
Secondary shielding
What type of shielding is required in a dedicated fluoroscopy room?
Secondary only
What type of shielding is required in the walls of a room with a CT scanner?
c. High frequency
What type of x-ray generator is used for vascular imaging? a. Single phase b. Three phase c. High frequency
Ceiling tube mount
What type of x-ray tube support system includes only two sets of rails mounted overhead in an x-ray room?
Gray∙cm2
What unit is used for measuring dose area product?
Gray
What unit measures the deposition of energy into matter?
L4/L5
What vertebral level does the superior iliac crest sit at?
Internal carotid artery
What vessel is this?
PA Chest, Upright AP Abdomen, Supine AP Abdomen
What views are included in an abdominal series?
Decrease it
What will a decrease in OID do for magnification?
Increase it
What will a decrease in SID do for magnification?
Higher image resolution
What will be the effect to image resolution (detail) of a higher the number of pixels in a matrix?
Increased detail
What will be the result for detail on an image if SID is increased?
Decreased detail
What will be the result on detail of an image if focal spot size is increased?
No change
What will be the result upon recorded detail if kVp alone is increased?
No change
What will be the result upon recorded detail if quantum mottle is not present but mAs is increased?
Cut-off (image loss) on both edges
What will be the resultant image effect if the grid is above focal range?
Cut-off (image loss) on both edges
What will be the resultant image effect if the grid is below focal range?
Overall cut-off (image loss) over the entire image worsening from one side to the other
What will be the resultant image effect if the grid is off-centre?
Significant overall cut-off (image loss) worsening over the entire image from one side to the other
What will be the resultant image effect if the grid is off-level?
Severe cut-off (image loss) on both edges
What will be the resultant image effect if the grid is upside down?
Increase, due to increased scatter produced and reaching the image receptor
What will happen to radiation intensity at the image receptor if the field size is increased and technical factors remain the same?
A faster overall scan time and decreased image quality
What will occur if a pitch value greater than 1.0 is applied during image data acquisition with a helical CT?
Decreased image quality, increased patient skin dose
What will occur if geometric magnification is used in fluoroscopy?
Decreased image noise
What will occur if section thickness increases in CT for the same length coverage?
Elongation without excessive magnification at one end
What will occur to the radiographic image if the tube is angled?
Smaller pixels
What will reduce partial volume averaging effect artifact in CT?
Lateral side with the scaphoid and trapezium
What will the PA oblique projection of the wrist best demonstrate?
b. Reduced dose
What would NOT be a benefit of dual source CT? a. Reduced artifacts b. Reduced dose c. Reduced motion
Blurred
What would an image with poor detail look like?
Increase
What would happen to the differential absorption as the difference between tissues increases?
Angle central ray 5° caudad
When a patient cannot properly depress their shoulder for the Swimmer's projection, how would the technologist adjust the central ray to better demonstrate the joint spaces?
37 degrees
When a patient is in a parietocanthial (Waters) position for facial bones, what is the angle between the OML and the IR?
Outer shell electron
When a projectile (incident) electron collides with the anode and creates heat, what is that electron interacting with?
All of the energy of the photon is transferred to the matter and the photon ceases to exist because it has no energy
When an x-ray photon is said to be absorbed, what happens to the photon and its energy?
In the descending aorta, just below diaphragm
When bolus tracking for a CT spine IV injection, the ROI should be placed where?
It will increase
When changing from a grid to a non-grid (tabletop) radiographic exam, determine what will happen to the amount of radiation reaching the image receptor if the technique is not changed.
Yes, the target atom is ionized. In order for this interaction to occur, an inner shell electron must be ejected from it's orbit, leaving the atom missing an electron.
When characteristic radiation is produced, is the atom ionized?
Decreased patient dose but also decreased image quality
When considering pulsed fluoroscopy versus continuous fluoroscopy, which factors apply?
Midsagittal plane is not parallel to IR; could be tilt or rotation
When critiquing a lateral image of the skull, it is noted that the orbital roofs are not superimposed. What positioning error has occurred?
d. Leg was externally rotated
When critiquing an anteroposterior projection of the hip, most of the lesser trochanter is visible. Which of the following is true? a. Patient was positioned correctly b. Patient's pelvis was rotated c. Leg was internally rotated d. Leg was externally rotated
CR must be perpendicular to lower leg
When critiquing an image of a PA axial projection for the intercondylar fossa, the fossa appears foreshortened. The following positioning factors were used: patient prone, knee flexed 40-45˚, CR angled perpendicular to the femur, 40" SID, and no rotation of the lower limb. What changes are required to produce a diagnostic image?
Humeral head is beneath the coracoid process; anterior dislocation
When critiquing this image, how can you determine the type of dislocation that has occurred?
In the womb
When does the sacral curvature develop?
Heat
When electrons strike the target of an x-ray tube what is most of the energy converted to?
No, the outer shell electron of the anode is raised to an excited level, but then once it gives off the excess energy in the form of heat the electron drops back down into its orbit; thus the atom is never ionized.
When heat is created by a projectile electron colliding with the anode, is the atom on the anode ionized?
Flexed to reduce dorsal kyphosis
When imaging a AP projection of the t-spine on a supine patient, how should the patient's knees be positioned?
b. Hard palate
When imaging a soft tissue neck which of the following structures would you angle the gantry to? a. Angle of the mandible b. Hard palate c. Glabella d. Supraorbital meatal line
Parallel to the IR
When imaging the AP projection of the tibfib, how should the femoral epicondyles be in relation to the IR?
Ribs 8-12
When imaging the ribs below the diaphragm, specifically, which ribs should be included on the image for the AP projection?
e. All the time, day and night
When is an MRI scanner emitting magnetic pull? a. During an MRI scan b. All day until it is turned of at night c. During and for about 30 minutes after an MRI scan d. For the first part of an MRI scan e. All the time, day and night
When the original radiograph does not include the required diagnostic information; you must not repeat only for the looks of the image.
When is it acceptable to perform a repeat exposure?
To decrease gonadal dose
When kidneys are not the primary focus why should we consider performing the upright abdomen PA?
Increase mAs
When needing to increase the amount of radiation produced, but not needing to change image contrast, what technique factor should be changed?
Pointed up
When penetrating the skin, the bevel of the catheter should be positioned in which direction?
With the bottom of the IR lined up to 6.3cm/2.5 inch inferior to the knee joint
When performing a lateral projection of the distal femur, where should the bucky tray be positioned?
Long axis of the scapular body is not parallel to the IR
When performing a lateral scapula, the body of the scapula is foreshortened and the humeral head appears dislocated. What positioning error has occurred?
3.4 mAs
When performing a mobile chest radiographic image in the intensive care unit, you are unable to attain the 180 centimeter SID required for the technique chart recommendation of 5 mAs and 110 kVp. How would you manipulate the technique to get the same amount of radiation reaching the image receptor if the maximum SID that can be achieved is 150 centimeters?
Mentomeatal line (MML)
When performing a parietocanthial projection (Waters) of the facial bones, what positioning line should be perpendicular to the IR?
To place the femoral neck parallel to the IR, preventing foreshortening
When performing an AP projection of the proximal femur what is the purpose of rotating the feet and lower limbs 10-15 degrees medially?
It will be one half
When performing quality control testing of the fluoroscopic automatic brightness control, two identical aluminum blocks are placed within the x-ray beam and the dose rate measured, and then just one block is used and the dose rate measured. How will the dose rate change from two blocks to one block used in a correctly adjusted system?
It will remain constant
When performing quality control testing of the fluoroscopic automatic brightness control, two identical aluminum blocks are placed within the x-ray beam and the light output from the monitor measured, and then just one block is used and the monitor light output measured. How will the light output change from two blocks to one block used in a correctly adjusted system?
Specific scanner limits apply
When performing the CT QA procedure, what is the limit?
IOML
When positioning the head for a cerebral angiogram, which positioning line is perpendicular to the floor?
ASIS's are equidistant to IR
When positioning the patient for the anteroposterior axial projection of the sacrum, how can you ensure that there is no rotation of the pelvis?
Increase in technical factors
When selecting a manual exposure for a patient with severe ascites, what change, if any, must occur?
After any related service, when recommended as part of QA/QM program, and when there may be a problem with the equipment.
When should QC tests be performed?
During inspiration
When should exposures be made for AP and lateral projections of the neck when demonstrating the pharynx and larynx?
It remains the same
When using AEC for multiple exposures, what happens to the amount of radiation at the image receptor if the kV setting increases and all other factors remain constant (e.g. same phantom, same SID, same mA)?
With posterior circulation the vessels will be demonstrated on the posterior aspect of the brain. With anterior circulation the vessels will be demonstrated on the anterior and middle aspects of the brain.
When viewing a Lateral image of a cerebral angiogram, how would you determine if you were looking at the anterior or posterior circulation?
With the posterior circulation the basilar artery will be demonstrated midline, which then bifurcates and equally fills both the right and left halves of the cerebral circulation. With the anterior circulation filling will be demonstrated on the side that the carotid was catheterized.
When viewing an AP image of a cerebral angiogram, how would you determine if you were looking at the anterior or posterior circulation?
When the patient is obliqued 45 degrees
When will you see the intervertebral foramina best demonstrated in the c-spine?
To administer contrast for an examination.
When would a technologists initiate vascular access for the purpose of medication administration?
X-Rays
Whenever a stream of fast moving electrons are suddenly reduced in speed, what is produced?
Alveoli
Where are oxygen and carbon dioxide exchanged in the blood?
O.R.
Where are the C-arm fluoroscopic units used most frequently?
Lower third of the orbits
Where are the petrous pyramids demonstrated on a PA axial (Caldwell) image of the cranium?
Analog-to-Digital Converter (ADC)
Where does the analog signal go in all radiological digital systems before reaching the image processor in order for the data to be processed by the computer?
Minimum SOD
Where is ESE calculated?
3.5 inches (9cm) posterior to ASIS
Where is the central ray directed for a lateral projection of the sacrum?
Perpendicular to L3, 1.5" above iliac crest and 2" medial to elevated ASIS
Where is the central ray directed for an AP oblique projection of the lumbar spine?
Superimposed on the posterior half/at both articular surfaces
Where is the fibula in relation to the tibia on a lateral projection of the the lower leg?
Between L5 and the sacrum
Where is the last pair of zygpophyseal joints located?
Projected over the posterior half of the distal tibia
Where is the lateral malleolus demonstrated on a true lateral projection of the ankle?
On the lateral aspect
Where is the marker placed for a cranio-caudal projection of the breast?
Slightly superimposed on and projected to the edge of the lateral femoral condyle
Where is the patella demonstrated on an AP oblique projection of the knee with external rotation?
Towards or on the cathode side of the x-ray tube
Where is the radiation intensity at the image receptor the greatest due to the anode heel effect?
Towards or on the cathode side of the image receptor
Where is the radiation intensity the greatest due to the anode heel effect?
At the level of ASIS
Where is the top of the cassette placed for an AP projection of the proximal femur?
Between the waist and chest, on the person's front, with the monitor facing forwards.
Where should a personnel radiation monitoring device be worn when a lead coat is not being used?
Acanthion
Where should the central ray exit when positioning for the parietocanthial projection (Waters) of the sinuses?
1.5 to 2 inchest superior to the upper border of the relaxed shoulders
Where should the upper border of the IR be placed for a PA erect projection of the chest?
Between the detectors and the computer
Where will the DAS of a CT scanner be found?
Within the maxillary sinuses
Where will the petrous pyramids be demonstrated for a parietocanthial (Waters) projection of the facial bones when the patient's head is extended less than the suggested 37 degrees?
Within the maxillary sinuses
Where will the petrous pyramids be demonstrated for a parietocanthial projection (Waters) of the sinuses when the patient's head is extended less than the suggested 37 degrees?
Anteriorly
Where will the radial tuberosity be facing in a lateral elbow projection with the hand supinated?
Normal Saline (NS) To Keep Vein Open (TKVO)
Which IV solution would a technologist start on a patient?
b. Short OID
Which OID would be best for patient dose if SID stays the same? a. Long OID b. Short OID c. OID does not affect patient dose
b. Short OID
Which OID would reduce occupational exposure dose if SID stays the same? a. Long OID b. Short OID c. OID does not affect patient dose
Linearity
Which QC test determines relationship between CT numbers and linear attenuation values of scanned objects, using a phantom containing a variety of objects?
a. Long SID
Which SID would reduce patient exposure and occupational exposure dose if OID stays the same? a. Long SID b. Short SID c. SID does not affect patient dose or occupational exposure
a. Long SOD
Which SOD would be best for patient dose if SID stays the same? a. Long SOD b. Short SOD c. SOD does not affect patient dose
a. Long SOD
Which SOD would reduce occupational exposure dose if SID stays the same? a. Long SOD b. Short SOD c. SOD does not affect patient dose
10-degree
Which anode angle will result in a smaller effective focal spot: 10-degree or 15-degree?
8th to 12th
Which are false ribs?
11th and 12th
Which are floating ribs?
Orthopantomography, Panoramic tomography, Rotational tomography
Which are the 3 other names for pantomography?
Indicate when the control panel is energized, if AEC is provided when that is selected, when x-rays are being produced, and when the x-ray tube is energized.
Which are the purposes of the indicator lights on the control panel of an x-ray machine?
Inferior tibiofibular and talofibular
Which articulations, are not demonstrated on a correctly positioned AP image of the ankle?
Pubic Symphysis
Which body part can be found at the level of the most prominent aspect of the greater trochanter?
Coccyx
Which body part can be found at the level of the superior aspect of the greater trochanter?
Brain and heart
Which body systems are often evaluated with PET or SPECT imaging?
b. Ethmoid
Which bone contains sinuses that are divided into 3 main groups? a. Frontal b. Ethmoid c. Sphenoid d. Maxillary
Temporal bones
Which bone contains the mastoid air cells?
Sphenoid
Which bone contains the pterygoid processes?
Mandible
Which bone in the skull articulates with both temporal bones, but no other bones?
Palatine and Maxilla
Which bones form the hard palate?
a. 5 degrees caudad
Which central ray angulation would give the least shape distortion on an x-ray image? a. 5 degrees caudad b. 10 degrees cephalad c. 15 degrees cephalad d. 20 degrees caudad
Left atrium
Which chamber of the heart receives blood from the pulmonary veins?
c. Nipple discharge.
Which change in breast physiology is present in benign and malignant disease? a. A red, hot, swollen area. b. Skin dimpling. c. Nipple discharge. d. A hard nodule with irregular borders.
c. Double kV
Which change in technical factors will produce the largest change to the amount of radiation reaching the image receptor? a. Double mA b. Double time c. Double kV d. Double the SID
a. Contrast resolution
Which characteristic is superior in CT than in general radiography due to the narrow collimation of the beam? a. Contrast resolution b. Noise reduction c. Spatial resolution d. Spatial frequency
Eye contact
Which characteristic of nonverbal communication may be the best indicator of how involved a person is in a communication situation?
b. AP - lordotic position
Which chest projection will best demonstrate interlobar effusion? a. Lateral b. AP - lordotic position c. AP - lateral decubitus position d. PA axial
a. Lateral
Which chest projection will best demonstrate interlobar fissures? a. Lateral b. AP - lordotic position c. AP - lateral decubitus position d. PA axial
c. AP - lateral decubitus position
Which chest projection will best demonstrate pleural effusion? a. Lateral b. AP - lordotic position c. AP - lateral decubitus position d. PA axial
a. Legg-Calve-Perthes disease
Which childhood hip disorder causes flattening of the femoral head due to vascular interruption? a. Legg-Calve-Perthes disease b. Slipped epiphysis c. Multiple myeloma d. Osgoode-Schlatters disease
d. Increasing kV or increasing mA
Which choice decreases the radiographic exposure time with AEC use? a. Decreasing kV or decreasing mA b. Decreasing kV or increasing mA c. Increasing kV or decreasing mA d. Increasing kV or increasing mA
d. Avoid irradiation to gonads, female breasts, eyes
Which choice is NOT a recommendation from SC35 regarding x-ray beam collimation? a. Irradiating any areas outside area of interest = unnecessary radiation b. Beam must be size of IR or smaller c. Should see edges on all x-ray images d. Avoid irradiation to gonads, female breasts, eyes e. Use the smallest IR possible and restrict beam to area of interest
ADC
Which component converts an LAC to CT#?
b. Tooth enamel
Which component has the highest atomic number? a. Muscle b. Tooth enamel c. Fat d. Air e. Bone
Gynecomastia
Which condition is the benign, excessive development of the male breast?
d. Ascites
Which condition would need increased technique factors? a. Pneumothorax b. Emphysema c. Osteoporosis d. Ascites
d. Window level
Which controls digital image brightness? a. Window width b. Resolution c. Filtering d. Window level
Either it will eventually become part of the current flow in the tube; the ejected electron has velocity, and may interact with another atom in the anode; or, it could create more photons in the anode, and contribute to heat production.
Which could happen to an electron that is ejected from its orbit in characteristic radiation production?
Decrease by 15%
Which decrease in kVp would halve the radiation intensity at the image receptor?
Anteriorly, superiorly, and laterally
Which direction do the anterior ribs move on inspiration?
b. Decreased OID, increased SID
Which distance parameters will decrease radiographic size distortion? a. Decreased OID, decreased SID b. Decreased OID, increased SID c. Increased OID, decreased SID d. Increased OID, increased SID
b. 100 cm SID, 10 cm OID
Which distance relationship would cause the most magnification on a radiographic image? a. 100 cm SID, 2 cm OID b. 100 cm SID, 10 cm OID c. 180 cm SID, 2 cm OID d. 180 cm SID, 10 cm OID
d. Genetic effects
Which effect of radiation exposure is non-threshold in nature? a. Acute radiation lethality b. Cataracts c. Epilation d. Genetic effects
c. No immediate effect
Which effects relate to stochastic effects in radiation protection? a. Deterministic b. From damage to many cells c. No immediate effect d. Threshold
b. Anode
Which end will have the greatest detail? a. Same detail both ends b. Anode c. Cathode
b. Lesser tubercle in profile
Which evaluation criteria would apply for a lateral image of the humerus? a. Greater tubercle in profile b. Lesser tubercle in profile c. Humeral epicondyles equidistant from IR d. Open glenohumeral joint
d. Petrous ridges lie immediately below the floor of the maxillary sinuses
Which evaluation criterion pertains to the Parietoacanthial Projection (Waters) of the paranasal sinuses? a. Mandibular rami should be superimposed b. Frontal and ethmoidal sinuses should be clearly demonstrated c. Mental protuberance should superimpose anterior frontal bone d. Petrous ridges lie immediately below the floor of the maxillary sinuses
a. Orbital roofs should be superimposed
Which evaluation criterion pertains to the lateral projection of the paranasal sinuses? a. Orbital roofs should be superimposed b. Petrous ridges lie in the lower one third of the orbits c. Mandibular condyles are anterior to the petrous ridges d. Mental protuberance superimposes the anterior frontal bone
d. CT
Which exam type gives the highest DRL, according ot the Safety Code? a. Radioscopy b. General radiography c. Pediatric radiography d. CT
c. Pediatric radiography
Which exam type gives the lowest DRL, according to the Safety Code? a. CT b. General radiography c. Pediatric radiography d. Radioscopy
PA Chest
Which examination best demonstrates small amounts of free intraperitoneal air?
a. Single contrast arthrography
Which examination demonstrates joint structures after the introduction of only a water-soluble, iodinated contrast medium? a. Single contrast arthrography b. Pneumoarthrography c. Double-contrast arthrography
d. Increasing focal spot size
Which factor below will decrease recorded detail? a. Using immobilization devices b. Using fast exposure times c. Decreasing OID d. Increasing focal spot size
f. Radiographer age
Which factor does NOT necessarily affect repeat rate? a. Acceptance limits of radiologist b. CR imaging plates/DR detector c. Image reader/DR image processing equipment d. Patient type/condition e. Procedures performed f. Radiographer age g. Radiographer competence h. X-ray equipment
e. Decreased patient exposure
Which factor does NOT relate to CT fluoroscopy? a. Decreased image quality b. Dynamic image c. Same section scanned repeatedly d. Increased staff exposure e. Decreased patient exposure
c. OID
Which factor is primarily responsible for image size distortion in fluoroscopy? a. AHE b. FSS c. OID d. SID
a. Audible volume
Which factor relating to sound waves is NOT controlled by the transducer in US? a. Audible volume b. Frequency c. Period d. Wavelength
d. Equipment downtime
Which factor will DECREASE with the use of a QM program? a. Confidence in DI consultation b. Cost efficiency c. Department morale d. Equipment downtime e. Equipment reliability f. X-ray image quality
b. Equipment reliability
Which factor will INCREASE with the use of a QM program? a. Equipment downtime b. Equipment reliability c. Patient dose d. Repeated exposures e. Supply costs f. Wait times
b. Decreased mA
Which factor would decrease patient dose/ radiation effect? a. Decreased kV b. Decreased mA c. Decreased SOD (fixed SID) d. Increased OID (fixed SID)
b. Increased Compton scattering
Which factor would decrease radiographic contrast on an image, before digital adjustment? a. Decreased field size b. Increased Compton scattering c. Use of negative contrast media d. Use of positive contrast media
e. Use of negative contrast media.
Which factor would increase fluoro image contrast? a. Aging of II b. Retrograde light flow from the output phosphor to the photocathode causes electrons to flow to output phosphor, producing a background of fog. c. Scattered radiation reaches the output phosphor to produce a background of fog d. The input screen does not absorb all the primary beam photons. Some of the transmitted photons produce a background of fog on the output phosphor. e. Use of negative contrast media.
b. Increased OID
Which factor would increase radiographic contrast on an image, before digital adjustment? a. Decreased OID b. Increased OID c. Decreased SID d. Increased SID
b. Decreased pitch
Which factor would increase spatial resolution (detail) in the x,y plane (in-plane resolution)? a. Decreased matrix size b. Decreased pitch c. Increased DFOV d. Increased pixel size e. Increased focal spot size
e. Decreased slice thickness
Which factor would increase spatial resolution (detail) in the z plane? a. Decreased matrix size b. Decreased pixel size c. Decreased DFOV d. Decreased pitch e. Decreased slice thickness
a. Decreased OID
Which factor would increase the resolution of a fluoroscopic image? a. Decreased OID b. Decreased monitor matrix size c. Increased pixel size d. Increased II phosphor thickness
a. Inadequate (too short) SID
Which factors below will decrease recorded detail? a. Inadequate (too short) SID b. Slower image receptor speed c. Use of good communication skills with patients d. Use of immobilization devices
d. Increased spatial resolution, increased patient dose
Which factors relate to magnification mode of a fluoroscopic image intensifier? a. Decreased spatial resolution, decreased patient dose b. Decreased spatial resolution, increased patient dose c. Increased spatial resolution, decreased patient dose d. Increased spatial resolution, increased patient dose
c. High kV technique, thicker body part
Which factors will produce more scatter radiation? a. Low kV technique, thicker body part b. Low kV technique, thinner body part c. High kV technique, thicker body part d. High kV technique, thinner body part
d. 0.9 mm
Which focal spot size would decrease radiographic detail the most, if all other factors remain the same? a. 0.3 mm b. 0.5 mm c. 0.7 mm d. 0.9 mm
Posterior fontanel
Which fontanel is located at the site of the lambda?
1, 10, 11, and 12
Which four pairs of ribs are considered atypical?
3rd Generation
Which generation of CT scanner (1st to 5th) uses a fan beam and multiple detectors in a curved array, with slip ring technology?
2nd Generation
Which generation of CT scanner (1st to 5th) uses a fan beam and multiple detectors, with an interscan delay?
4th Generation
Which generation of CT scanner (1st to 5th) uses a fan beam and stationary detectors in a curved array, with slip ring technology?
5th Generation
Which generation of CT scanner (1st to 5th) uses a fan beam, a ring of detectors in a curved array, with a magnetically rotating electron beam?
Third
Which generation of CT scanner is used for MDCT due to equipment costs?
Fourth
Which generation of CT scanner uses a ring of detectors that completely surround the patient?
d. 16:1
Which grid ratio will require the highest patient dose if correct exposure at the image receptor is maintained? a. 8:1 b. 10:1 c. 12:1 d. 16:1
3 phase 12 pulse
Which has more voltage ripple: a high frequency (HF) generator or a 3 phase 12 pulse generator?
a. Air
Which has the lowest packing density of atoms? a. Air b. Bone c. Muscle d. Fat
AP oblique (Judet), external oblique position
Which hip projection is demonstrated on this image?
Lateral projection of the cervicothoracic region
Which image is performed if the area of C6/C7 is not visualized on a lateral projection of the c-spine?
Double it/increase by 100%
Which increase in mAs would double the radiation intensity at the image receptor?
a. Decrease kV
Which independent change would increase contrast on a radiographic image, before digital adjustment? a. Decrease kV b. Increase kV c. Decrease mAs d. Increase mAs
Right intervertebral foramina
Which intervertebral foramina would be best demonstrated in an AP oblique projection of the cervical spine with the patient in LPO position?
c. Full 180 degree data may not be acquired
Which is NOT a disadvantage of helical scanning? a. Decreased contrast resolution b. Decreased spatial resolution c. Full 180 degree data may not be acquired d. Sections not truly axial
a. Collimation thickness
Which is NOT a factor that controls temporal resolution? a. Collimation thickness b. Gantry speed c. Number of detector channels d. System responsiveness
e. Rough for decreased slippage
Which is NOT a feature of an angiographic imaging table? a. Accommodate attachments b. Floating c. Low attenuation material d. Raises and lowers e. Rough for decreased slippage
d. It provides work for the QC technologist
Which is NOT a good reason why record keeping is important in a quality control program? a. It constitutes proof that testing is performed b. It is the foundation on which review & evaluation elements of quality assurance program c. It provides references for future testing (baseline) d. It provides work for the QC technologist
b. Patient education
Which is NOT a key concept of an effective risk management program? a. Employee education b. Patient education c. Periodic inspections d. Record keeping e. Risk analysis f. Written policies and procedures
d. Transmission
Which is NOT a potential reaction of sound transmission in patient's body? a. Absorption b. Reflection c. Scattering d. Transmission
e. Decreased radiation hazard to the operator and attending personnel
Which is NOT a pro for over-table x-ray tube fluoroscopy as compared to under-table x-ray tube configuration? a. Improved image quality (reduced geometric unsharpness)- increased distance between x-ray tube and patient b. Improved image quality (reduced geometric unsharpness)- increased distance between x-ray tube and I.I. c. Reduced patient skin dose - increased distance between x-ray tube and patient d. Open equipment configuration is less threatening to the patient e. Decreased radiation hazard to the operator and attending personnel
b. Decreased image quality - decreased distance between x-ray tube and I.I.
Which is NOT a pro for over-table x-ray tube fluoroscopy as compared to under-table x-ray tube configuration? a. Improved image quality - increased distance between x-ray tube and patient b. Decreased image quality - decreased distance between x-ray tube and I.I. c. Reduced patient skin dose - increased distance between x-ray tube and patient d. Open equipment configuration is less threatening to the patient
e. To increase line focus principle
Which is NOT a purpose of a beam restrictor? a. To increase image contrast b. To decrease patient primary exposure c. To decrease the amount of scatter produced d. To decrease patient scatter exposure e. To increase line focus principle
b. Less expense per unit
Which is NOT an advantage of MDCT over single section scanners? a. Less contrast media needs b. Less expense per unit c. Less motion risk d. Less time required per exam
b. Increased spatial resolution
Which is NOT an advantage of digital imaging over film imaging? a. Decreased long term costs b. Increased spatial resolution c. Decreased repeat rate d. Wider exposure latitude e. Increased contrast resolution
d. On an annual basis
Which is NOT completely correct in terms of a time when quality control checks of radiology equipment should be carried out? a. After any service that may affect the quality of images or radiation output of the equipment b. At specific recommended intervals c. Immediately following calibration/preventative maintenance d. On an annual basis e. When a problem is suspected
c. Improper density selection
Which is NOT one of the most common reasons for repeats while using AEC? a. Improper positioning b. Improper cell selection c. Improper density selection
d. To show which set of collimator shutters are active
Which is NOT one of the purposes of the indicator lights on a control panel? a. To show when x-rays are being produced b. To show when the control panel in energized c. To show which x-ray tube is connected and ready to be energized (should the unit have more than one x-ray tube) d. To show which set of collimator shutters are active
a. The warning labels must advise the unit is used only on the order of an x-ray technologist
Which is NOT one of the rules regarding the warning signs/labels on an x-ray control panel? a. The warning labels must advise the unit is used only on the order of an x-ray technologist b. The warning labels must advise that x-radiation may be hazardous to patient and operator c. The warning labels must be permanent and conspicuous on the control panel d. The warning labels must advise that x-radiation is emitted when the equipment is in operation e. The warning labels must advise that unauthorized use is prohibited
d. Suspected quality
Which is NOT one of the three levels on which quality is determined? a. Actual quality b. Expected quality c. Perceived quality d. Suspected quality
a. There must be a system of locks to secure the table and tabletop for safety of the patient and the technologist
Which is a characteristic or feature of the table and tabletop of an x-ray unit? a. There must be a system of locks to secure the table and tabletop for safety of the patient and the technologist b. The tabletop material must be soft for patient comfort c. A table must have a weight capacity of approximately 200lbs d. The table must be a rough table surface to hold on to
a. Potential dose creep
Which is a disadvantage of digital imaging over film imaging? a. Potential dose creep b. Decreased storage flexibility c. Decreased capital costs d. Decreased contrast resolution
e. Increased image detail
Which is a factor relating to over table tube fluoroscopic systems? a. Increased patient skin dose b. Increased penumbra c. Increased magnification d. Decreased occupational exposure e. Increased image detail
d. Decreased occupational exposure
Which is a factor relating to under table tube fluoroscopic systems? a. Decreased patient skin dose b. Decreased penumbra c. Decreased magnification d. Decreased occupational exposure
a. Cataract induction
Which is a late effect of radiation exposure? a. Cataract induction b. Gonadal dysfunction c. Hematologic effects d. Sterility
d. X-ray table is tilted 10 degrees
Which is a possible cause for a collimator light/x-ray field congruence test to fail? a. SID at 100 centimeters b. Failure to warm up the dosimeter before use c. Insufficient tube filtration present d. X-ray table is tilted 10 degrees
Increase mA
Which is an acceptable method to decrease exposure time while maintaining the correct amount of radiation at the image receptor: Decrease kVp or Increase mA?
a. Diaphragm gravitates to the lowest possible position
Which is an advantage of performing chest images with the patient in the erect position versus supine? a. Diaphragm gravitates to the lowest possible position b. Patient comfort and safety c. Provides an accurate representation of the diaphragmatic domes d. Demonstrates an air filled trachea in the midline
c. Typical I.I. input screen sizes (diameters) range from 6" (15 cm) to 23" (58 cm)
Which is an example of Image Intensifier (I.I.) input screen size (diameter)? a. Typical I.I. input screen sizes (diameters) are 1" (2.5 cm) b. Typical I.I. input screen sizes (diameters) range from 3" (8 cm) to 15" (38 cm) c. Typical I.I. input screen sizes (diameters) range from 6" (15 cm) to 23" (58 cm) d. Typical I.I. input screen sizes (diameters) range from 10" (25 cm) to 30" (75 cm) e. Typical I.I. input screen sizes (diameters) range from 15" (38 cm) to 40" (100 cm)
d. Pixel size
Which is an intrinsic or material factor that affects radiographic image detail? a. Anode heel effect b. Focal spot size c. OID d. Pixel size
Grid
Which is item is used to decrease the amount of scatter reaching the image receptor?
d. All of the above
Which is lowered with the use of a repeat reject analysis study? a. Costs b. Demand on Technologists' time c. Radiation exposure of staff and patient d. All of the above
b. WW
Which is the controlling factor of image contrast with a digital imaging system? a. mAs b. WW c. kVp d. WL
c. Malignant disease
Which is the late somatic effect of primary concern in radiation protection? a. Cataracts b. Life shortening c. Malignant disease d. Radiodermatitis
b. Quantum mottle
Which is the most common type of noise seen in fluoroscopic images. a. Electronic b. Quantum mottle c. Radiation scatter
b. Dose area product
Which is used to measure patient fluoroscopic exposure? a. Dose length product b. Dose area product c. CTDI d. MSAD
b. Positioning meter perpendicular to the anode-cathode axis
Which issue will NOT cause inaccurate readings when using a dosimeter? a. Failure to warm up dosimeter b. Positioning meter perpendicular to the anode-cathode axis c. Setting it to dose rate instead of dose d. Use of a small x-ray field
Sternoclavicular joint
Which joint forms the only connection between the shoulder girdle and the axial skeleton?
Left sacroiliac joint
Which joint is best demonstrated on an AP oblique (RPO position) projection of the sacroiliac joints?
Sternochondral
Which joint is formed between the sternum and the ribs?
Tibiotalar, talofibular, and medial talomalleolar
Which joints compose the ankle mortise?
L5
Which l-spine vertebra is considered atypical?
Mentomeatal Line (MML)
Which landmark line should be perpendicular to the IR for the Water's of the sinuses?
Level III
Which level of QC testing is invasive and complex?
Level II
Which level of QC testing is non-invasive and complex?
Level 1
Which level of QC testing is non-invasive and simple?
Level 1
Which level of quality control would you as a technologist be responsible for performing?
Mastoid tip and occlusal plane
Which line must be perpendicular to the IR for an AP projection (open mouth) of the c-spine?
Left superior lobe
Which lobe contains the cardiac notch?
The left superior lobe
Which lobe of the lungs contains the cardiac notch?
d. 200 mA, 0.04 sec
Which mAs will result in the highest amount of photons reaching the IR? a. 500 mA, 3 msec b. 50 mA, 18 msec c. 300 mA, 0.025 sec d. 200 mA, 0.04 sec
d. Increase mA
Which method is recommended to maintain the radiation exposure level when exposure time is decreased to prevent motion unsharpness from occurring? a. Decrease SID b. Increase film/screen relative speed c. Increase kVp d. Increase mA
CTDI100
Which method of CT dose measurement uses a pencil ionization chamber and is recommended by SC35?
b. Computed tomography
Which method of long bone measurement results in the least radiation dose? a. AP and Lateral views of the long bones concerned b. Computed tomography c. AP and Lateral views of the joints concerned d. Orthoroentography of the affected limbs
CT
Which modality will best demonstrate the pancreas and pancreatic duct?
Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres Minor and Subscapularis
Which muscles of the shoulder girdle form the rotator cuff?
a. 1
Which number would be the best possible MTF? a. 1 b. 10 c. 0 d. 100
d. all of the above
Which of the following are considered parenteral injection? a. intradermal b. subcutaneous c. intramuscular d. all of the above
c. Adipose
Which of the following breast tissues is least dense? a. Fibrous b. Connective c. Adipose d. Glandular
c. Tooth enamel
Which of the following components has the highest atomic number? a. Muscle b. Bone c. Tooth enamel d. Air
c. Ensure equidistance from both ASIS to the tabletop
Which of the following ensures correct positioning of an AP pelvis? a. Ask the patient if they feel like they are lying flat b. Ensure lower limbs are fully extended and rotated medially 15° c. Ensure equidistance from both ASIS to the tabletop d. Center midsagittal plane of the body to the midline of the grid
d. 0.57 s
Which of the following exposure timer test results obtained at an exposure time setting of 0.050 seconds (50 ms) using a digital x-ray exposure timer test tool is NOT within the SC35 standards with regards to timer accuracy? a. 0.44 s b. 0.49 s c. 0.55 s d. 0.57 s
d. mAs
Which of the following factors affecting scatter production is under direct control of the technologist? a. Patient field size or volume b. SID c. Type of irradiated material d. mAs
e. Level of work experience
Which of the following factors are first impressions NOT based upon? a. Clothes b. Facial expressions c. Posture d. Words spoken e. Level of work experience
c. The edges of the x-ray beam do not have to be seen on all images
Which of the following in NOT a SC35 recommendation in regards to the use of collimation? a. X-ray beam size must be limited to the size of the image receptor or smaller. b. X-ray beam must be well-collimated to the area of diagnostic interest. c. The edges of the x-ray beam do not have to be seen on all images
c. Aspiration
Which of the following is NOT a condition that is demonstrated on a lateral projection of the c-spine using flexion and extension. a. Arthritis b. Whiplash c. Aspiration d. Spinal fusion
d. Focal spot size
Which of the following is NOT a factor in the amount of scatter production? a. Volume of irradiated material b. Atomic number of irradiated material c. mAs d. Focal spot size
To talk to yourself
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of communication? a. To talk to yourself b. To influence c. To play d. To relate
a. Quantum mottle
Which of the following is NOT considered a geometric factor? a. Quantum mottle b. FSS c. OID d. SID
a. Warmth
Which of the following is NOT considered an adverse reaction to contrast medium? a. Warmth b. Decreased Level of Consciousness c. Swelling face
To lower the diaphragm and demonstrate possible air-fluid levels
Which of the following is a reason that chest x-rays are typically done upright?
c. Symmetric ischial spines
Which of the following is an evaluation criterion for the superoinferior axial (inlet) projection of the pelvis? a. Open obturator foramina b. Anterior pelvic bones centered to the image receptor c. Symmetric ischial spines d. Anterior pelvic bones superimposing sacrum and coccyx
Radio
Which of the following is not generally a channel for communication? a. A letter b. Face-to-Face c. The radio d. The telephone
To decrease heart magnification
Which of the following is one reason why chest x-rays are routinely performed PA?
Barium
Which of the following matter will have the highest number of photoelectric interactions: Soft tissue, Barium, or Bone?
a. Soft tissue neck
Which of the following procedure(s) often requires the use of a split bolus? a. Soft tissue neck b. CTA head c. CTV head
a. 0.175 s
Which of the following radiographic exposure timer test results obtained at an exposure time setting of 0.200 seconds using a digital x-ray exposure timer test tool is NOT within the SC35 standards with regards to timer accuracy? a. 0.175 s b. 0.208 s c. 0.192 s d. 0.218 s
d. calm
Which of the following term describes assertive behaviour? a. persuasive b. commanding c. aggressive d. calm
c. Wire mesh test tool
Which of the following test tools is used in the fluoroscopy distortion quality control test to determine and evaluate the quality of the image? a. Circular pie pattern test tool b. Black square dot pattern test tool c. Wire mesh test tool d. No test tool is needed
c. antisepsis
Which of the following will refer to chemical disinfection of skin? a. sanitation b. disinfection c. antisepsis d. sterilization
e. 20 cm
Which of these II input sizes will produce the most magnification? a. 70 cm b. 60 cm c. 40 cm d. 30 cm e. 20 cm
b. Air
Which of these body components would least attenuate the x-ray beam? a. Tooth enamel b. Air c. Muscle d. Bone e. Fat
Right side
Which of these catheters is called a pigtail?
Shape distortion
Which of these effects may be seen on the image if the radiographic unit fails the perpendicularity QC test?
d. Size distortion
Which of these effects will NOT be seen on the image if the x-ray unit fails the perpendicularity QC test? a. Closed joint spaces b. Grid errors c. Shape distortion d. Size distortion
c. 2 MHz - 20 MHz
Which of these frequency ranges is generally used for diagnostic medical sonography (ultrasound) imaging? a. 2 Hz-20 Hz b. 20 Hz - 20 kHz c. 2 MHz - 20 MHz d. 20 MHz - 200 MHz
c. Enhances sound transmission
Which of these is the function of gel in an US exam? a. Makes probe slide more smoothly on skin b. Prevents electric discharge from patient's skin c. Enhances sound transmission d. Absorbs sound better
d. Stomach
Which of these structures is better imaged with contrast media and x-ray than with ultrasound? a. Gallbladder b. Kidney c. Liver d. Stomach
c. Gallbladder
Which of these structures is better imaged with ultrasound than with x-ray? a. Bones b. Brain c. Gallbladder d. Stomach
a. Decreased slice thickness
Which one of the following would increase quantum mottle noise on a CT image? a. Decreased slice thickness b. Increased mA c. Increased slice thickness d. Patient motion
c. QM
Which option is a system designed to monitor the quality of both human and equipment performance, through a variety of quality testing to ensure both are functioning within acceptable standards? a. QA b. QC c. QM
8-12th
Which pairs of ribs are sometimes referred to as false ribs?
Mastoid tip
Which palpable landmark can be used to locate C1?
Gonion/angle of the mandible
Which palpable landmark can be used to locate C2/3?
Hyoid bone
Which palpable landmark can be used to locate C3/4?
Thyroid cartilage
Which palpable landmark can be used to locate C5?
Vertebral prominence
Which palpable landmark can be used to locate C7?
Inferior costal margin
Which palpable landmark can be used to locate L2/3?
Superior iliac crest
Which palpable landmark can be used to locate L4/5?
ASIS
Which palpable landmark can be used to locate S1/2?
2" above jugular notch
Which palpable landmark can be used to locate T1?
Jugular notch
Which palpable landmark can be used to locate T2/3?
Sternal angle
Which palpable landmark can be used to locate T4/5?
Inferior angle of the scapula
Which palpable landmark can be used to locate T7?
Xiphoid process
Which palpable landmark can be used to locate T9/10?
Greater trochanter & coccyx
Which palpable landmark can be used to locate the symphysis pubis?
c. Length of filament
Which parameter controls the effective focal spot size? a. Anode target material b. Anode disk diameter c. Length of filament d. Speed of anode rotation
d. The x-ray tube
Which part of the mammographic unit moves in an arc allowing many individual exposures during the exposure for digital breast tomosynthesis? a. The grid b. The compression paddle c. The image detector d. The x-ray tube e. The faceplate
a. Advanced emphysema
Which pathologic condition would indicate decreasing manual exposure factors for a CXR? a. Advanced emphysema b. Left lung atelectasis c. Severe pulmonary edema d. Large pleural effusion
a. Large pneumothorax
Which pathologic condition would indicate decreasing manual exposure factors for a CXR? a. Large pneumothorax b. Left lung atelectasis c. Severe pulmonary edema d. Large pleural effusion
a. Left lung atelectasis
Which pathologic condition would indicate increasing manual exposure factors for a CXR? a. Left lung atelectasis b. Advanced emphysema c. Large pneumothorax d. Pneumomediastinum
a. Severe pulmonary edema
Which pathologic condition would indicate increasing manual exposure factors for a CXR? a. Severe pulmonary edema b. Advanced emphysema c. Large pneumothorax d. Pneumomediastinum
Osgood-Schlatter's Disease
Which pathological condition is demonstrated on this image?
d. Esophageal varices
Which pathological condition may develop if a patient has cirrhosis of the liver? a. Esophageal achalasia b. Esophageal atresia c. Esophageal dysphagia d. Esophageal varices
d. Fluid levels in the left side or free air in the right side
Which pathological condition of the lungs is best demonstrated on a left lateral decubitus of the chest? a. Free air in both sides of the chest b. Fluid levels in both sides of the chest c. Free air in the left side or fluid levels in the right side d. Fluid levels in the left side or free air in the right side
Subluxation
Which pathology describes a partial dislocation which often occurs with a fracture?
Congenital hip dysplasia
Which pathology is defined as incomplete acetabulum formation and is characterized by a clicking of the flexed or abducted hip?
a. Pneumonia
Which patient condition would require an increase in technique to maintain the radiation intensity at the image receptor at the correct amount? a. Pneumonia b. Pneumothorax c. Osteoporosis d. Emphysema
d. LAO
Which patient position will demonstrate the left intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine? a. RAO b. AP c. Lateral d. LAO
Patient
Which person in the fluoroscopic OR room gets the most radiation scatter?
Landmarking
Which post processing technique adds some anatomy to an image for localization purposes?
Window width
Which post processing technique adjusts image contrast in fluoroscopy and angiography?
Image restoration
Which post processing technique corrects for vignetting in an image intensifier fluoroscopy system?
Pixel shifting
Which post processing technique moves a mask slightly to re-align (to decrease motion registration errors when slight motion has occurred)?
Road mapping
Which post processing technique permits real time catheter guidance?
Digital temporal filtering
Which post processing technique, also called frame averaging, adds pixels from different images to reduce noise?
Left lateral decubitus AP or PA projection of the abdomen
Which projection & patient position would best demonstrate air/fluid levels in the abdomen if the patient cannot stand?
Right lateral decubitus with patient recumbent
Which projection and patient position should be performed to best demonstrate fluid in the right pleural cavity?
15 degree PA axial caldwell
Which projection best demonstrates the frontal sinuses?
PA Axial projection
Which projection best demonstrates the frontal sinuses?
AP Open mouth
Which projection best demonstrates zygapophyseal joints between C1 and 2?
Lateral C-spine
Which projection best demonstrates zygapophyseal joints from C2-7?
AP axial projection (Townes)
Which projection demonstrates the foramen magnum?
Fuchs
Which projection demonstrates the foramen magnum?
Posteroanterior (PA)
Which projection generally decreases the amount of dose to a patient's radiosensitive tissues?
AP with weights
Which projection of the A.C. joints demonstrates their function and separation?
AP Oblique (45°) projection
Which projection of the c-spine best demonstrates the intervertebral foramina?
Cross-table lateral c-spine with a horizontal beam
Which projection of the cervical spine should be done first in a trauma situation?
AP oblique - medial/internal rotation
Which projection of the elbow best demonstrates the coronoid process in profile?
AP oblique - lateral/external rotation
Which projection of the elbow best demonstrates the radial head projected free of the ulna?
AP oblique elbow with medial/internal rotation
Which projection of the elbow demonstrates the coranoid process in profile?
AP Oblique with lateral/external rotation
Which projection of the elbow will show the radial head, neck, and tuberosity free of superimposition?
AP oblique projection with medial rotation
Which projection of the foot best demonstrates the sinus tarsi?
AP oblique projection with medial rotation
Which projection of the foot best demonstrates the tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal?
PA Oblique
Which projection of the hand will demonstrate minimal overlap of the third, fourth, and fifth metacarpal bodies?
AP oblique with lateral rotation
Which projection of the knee best demonstrates the medial condyle of the tibia?
AP with external/lateral rotation
Which projection of the shoulder best demonstrates the humeral head in profile?
Lateral
Which projection of the t-spine best demonstrates the intervertebral foramina joints?
Lateral
Which projection will adequately demonstrate all four sinus groups?
a. Lateral
Which projection will demonstrate the right intervertebral foramina of the lumbar spine? a. Lateral b. AP oblique c. PA oblique d. AP
Parietocanthial
Which projection would best demonstrate a displaced fracture of the nasal septum?
b. Parietoacanthial Projection (Waters)
Which projection would best demonstrate a displaced fracture of the nasal septum? a. PA Axial Projection (Caldwell) b. Parietoacanthial Projection (Waters) c. Lateral Projection d. Parietoacanthial Projection (Open-Mouth Waters)
45-degree oblique
Which projection/view best demonstrates the zygapophyseal joints of the lumbar vertebrae?
e. Sets center of CT numbers displayed
Which refers to window level in CT? a. Contrast b. Determines the number of gray levels displayed in image c. Sets range of CT numbers used in image d. Sets shades of gray used in image e. Sets center of CT numbers displayed
Left ribs closest to the IR
Which ribs are best demonstrated when a patient is placed in a LPO position?
1st to 7th
Which ribs are true ribs?
11th and 12th
Which ribs do not form costotransverse joints?
11th and 12th
Which ribs lack tubercles?
Right sacroiliac joint farthest from the IR
Which sacroiliac joint is best demonstrated when a patient is placed in a LPO position?
Toshiba
Which scanner company refers to the preliminary image on a scanner as a scanogram: GE, Siemens, or Toshiba?
GE
Which scanner company refers to the preliminary image on a scanner as a scout: GE, Siemens, or Toshiba?
Siemens
Which scanner company refers to the preliminary image on a scanner as a topogram: GE, Siemens, or Toshiba?
a. Using AEC, abdomen performed on full inspiration
Which scenario could potentially result in your image demonstrating quantum mottle? a. Using AEC, abdomen performed on full inspiration b. Using manual technique, abdomen performed on full inspiration c. Using AEC, only the middle chamber was selected, abdomen performed on full inspiration d. Using AEC, only the outer chambers were selected, abdomen performed on full inspiration
c. Small focal spot at 72 inches
Which setting will give the most detail? a. Small focal spot at 40 inches b. Large focal spot at 40 inches c. Small focal spot at 72 inches d. Large focal spot at 72 inches
d. Trapezoid
Which shape of part will give the most even beam attenuation across the entire image? a. Circle b. Triangle c. Square d. Trapezoid
K-Shell because it is closest in orbit
Which shell of electrons is most tightly bound to the nucleus?
The k-shell because it is bound by the most energy.
Which shell of electrons takes the most energy in order to remove an electron from that shell?
Frontal and anterior ethmoids
Which sinuses are best demonstrated on a PA axial projection (Caldwell) of the sinuses?
Sphenoid sinus and maxillary sinuses
Which sinuses are demonstrated on a Parietoacanthial Projection (Open-Mouth Waters)?
c. All precautions possible have been taken to reduce risk
Which statement is NOT correct for considering CT risk acceptable? a. There is a diagnostic benefit present b. The patient, if adult, is aware of the risk c. All precautions possible have been taken to reduce risk d. The patient's guardian, if they have one, is aware of the risk
a. Total brightness gain is the ratio of the output phosphor light to the radiation at the input phosphor.
Which statement is NOT true regarding the total brightness gain a measurement of an I.I.? a. Total brightness gain is the ratio of the output phosphor light to the radiation at the input phosphor. b. The total brightness gain is the product of minification gain and the flux gain. c. Total brightness gain is a measurement of the increase in image intensity achieved by an image intensification tube.
c. It is heterogeneous
Which statement is true regarding an x-ray beam? a. It can only undergo PE absorption b. It cannot be attenuated c. It is heterogeneous d. It is homogeneous
c. An x-ray unit table top must be uniformly radiolucent so that x-rays can pass through
Which statement is true regarding an x-ray table top? a. An x-ray unit table top must be non-uniformly radiopaque so that x-rays can pass through b. An x-ray unit table top must be non-uniformly radiolucent so that x-rays can pass through c. An x-ray unit table top must be uniformly radiolucent so that x-rays can pass through d. An x-ray unit table top must be uniformly radiopaque so that x-rays can pass through
c. They decrease scatter entering CT detectors
Which statement is true regarding pre-detector collimators in CT? a. They shape the CT x-ray beam before it reaches the patient b. They are found near the CT x-ray source c. They decrease scatter entering CT detectors d. They increase the CT x-ray beam entering CT detectors
a. Increased dose will increase the chance of the effect occurring
Which statement is true regarding stochastic effects of radiation? a. Increased dose will increase the chance of the effect occurring b. Sterility is an example of a non-stochastic effect c. There is a threshold below which the effect will not be seen d. They are also called deterministic effects
a. Filtration removes low energy x-rays from the beam before the beam reaches the patient
Which statement is true regarding tube filtration? a. Filtration removes low energy x-rays from the beam before the beam reaches the patient b. Filtration removes high energy x-rays from the beam before the beam reaches the patient c. Filtration removes low energy x-rays from the beam after the beam has passed through the patient d. Filtration removes high energy x-rays from the x-ray beam after the beam has passed through the patient
c. It is designed to remove low energy x-rays from the x-ray beam before they can reach the patient.
Which statement is true regarding tube filtration? a. It is designed to remove high energy x-rays from the x-ray beam before they can reach the patient. b. It is designed to remove high energy x-rays from the x-ray beam after they reach the patient. c. It is designed to remove low energy x-rays from the x-ray beam before they can reach the patient. d. It is designed to remove low energy x-rays from the x-ray beam after they reach the patient.
b. They are evident only in the irradiated individual
Which statement refers to somatic radiation effects? a. They are only expressed early b. They are evident only in the irradiated individual c. They are evident in the offspring of the irradiated individual d. They may result from an alteration in germ (sex) cells of the person irradiated
b. It is the rate at which energy is transferred from ionizing radiation to tissue
Which statement regarding LET (linear energy transfer) is true? a. LET increases after each interaction b. It is the rate at which energy is transferred from ionizing radiation to tissue c. Electro-magnetic (E-M) radiations, with no mass and/or charge, have high LETs d. As LET increases, RBE (relative biological effect) decreases
c. QM consists of QA and QC
Which statement regarding QM, QC, and QA is correct? a. QA consists of QC and QM b. QC consists of QM and QA c. QM consists of QA and QC
b. The level of tube filtration present is evaluated using half-value layer
Which statement regarding x-ray tube filtration is true? a. There must be 1.5 mm Al for an x-ray unit with a maximum kV at 70 kV or over b. The level of tube filtration present is evaluated using half-value layer c. Too much tube filtration gives higher skin dose to the patient d. Total tube filtration includes inherent filtration and compensating filtration
Pedicle
Which structure of the lumbar vertebra does the eye on the 'scottie dog' correspond to?
Bursae within the joint capsule
Which structures are demonstrated with contrast arthrography?
T1, T9, T10, T11, T12
Which t-spine vertebrae are atypical?
Cuboid
Which tarsal is shown in profile on a properly positioned AP oblique projection of the foot?
d. kVp
Which technical factor controls the number of Compton scattering interactions versus photoelectric absorption interactions? a. SID b. mA c. Time d. kVp
Umbra
Which term applies to the sharp area of an image?
b. Line spread function
Which term is a method of measuring spatial resolution? a. Line pair function b. Line spread function c. Modulation pair d. Relative speed
b. Protraction
Which term refers to a continuous dose of radiation given at a lower dose rate? a. Fractionation b. Protraction c. Radioprotector d. Radiosensitizer
c. Range of CT numbers displayed
Which term refers to window width? a. Brightness b. Mid point of gray scale c. Range of CT numbers displayed d. Sets center of CT numbers displayed
d. Magnification
Which term relates to size distortion in radiography? a. Alignment b. Elongation c. Foreshortening d. Magnification
Water phantom
Which test tool is used for the CT uniformity QC test?
1, 10, 11, and 12
Which the atypical pairs of ribs?
2, 3, 6
Which three of the listed factors will increase the detail of an image? 1. Increased focal spot size 2. Decreased focal spot size 3. Increased SID 4. Decreased SID 5. Increased OID 6. Decreased OID
1 & 4
Which two of the following will decrease magnification? 1. Decreased OID 2. Increased OID 3. Decreased SID 4. Increased SID
1 & 4
Which two of these describe high contrast? 1. Few shades of gray 2. Many shades of gray 3. Wide window width (WW) 4. Narrow window width (WW)
2 & 3
Which two of these refer to short scale contrast? 1. Low contrast 2. High contrast 3. Few shades of gray 4. Many shades of gray
c. Cormack and Hounsfield
Which two people shared the Nobel Prize in Medicine for the development of CT? a. Bright and Cormack b. Cormack and Pearce c. Cormack and Hounsfield d. Hounsfield and Roentgen e. Pearce and Roentgen
T & Z Scores
Which two statistical methods are used with bone densitometry studies? a. X score b. R score c. T score d. Z score
Anterior nasal spine and Frontonasal suture
Which two structures should be clearly demonstrated on the lateral of the nasal bones?
d. Visual and environmental inspections
Which two types of inspections should be performed before any performance testing is done? a. Collimation light/x-ray field congruency and PBL testing b. Detector and x-ray tube inspections c. Generator and collimator inspections d. Visual and environmental inspections
b. Solid state detector
Which type of CT detectors are used today? a. Scintillation detector with PMT b. Solid state detector c. Xenon ionization chamber
c. Digital cineradiography
Which type of angiography is used when many frames per second are needed with high resolution? a. Digital angiography b. Digital subtraction angiography c. Digital cineradiography
a. Collimator
Which type of beam restricting device is used in radiography today? a. Collimator b. Cone c. Cylinder
Destructive pathology
Which type of condition allows more radiation to exit the patient's body if the same technique is used: a Destructive pathology or Additive pathology?
b. Aqueous iodinated, injected into joint capsule
Which type of contrast media will be used for shoulder arthrography and where it will be injected? a. Oily based iodinated, injected into bursa b. Aqueous iodinated, injected into joint capsule c. Aqueous iodinated, injected into bursa d. Oily based iodinated, injected into joint capsule
a. Administrative controls
Which type of control for risk includes signage? a. Administrative controls b. Engineering controls c. Personal protective equipment controls
d. Direct radiography direct acquisition
Which type of digital radiographic imaging system matches this description? Amorphous selenium (a-Se) is used as a photoconductor. The a-Se absorbs x-rays and ionization frees electrons for collection by electrodes at the bottom of the a-Se layer, converting the x-ray photons into electrons. This charge (electrons) is then stored at & transmitted through TFTs. a. Direct radiography - indirect acquisition - amorphous silicon b. Computed radiography c. Direct radiography- indirect acquisition - CCD technology d. Direct radiography direct acquisition
c. Computed radiography
Which type of digital radiographic imaging system matches this description? Phosphors luminesce when exposed to radiation, yet retain some of the incident energy received during radiation exposure, electron hole formation. a. Direct radiography direct acquisition b. Direct radiography - indirect acquisition - CCD technology c. Computed radiography d. Direct radiography - indirect acquisition - amorphous
c. Direct radiography - indirect acquisition - amorphous silicon
Which type of digital radiographic imaging system matches this description? The CsI phosphor is radiosensitive and emits light photons when struck by x-rays (scintillation). This light is channeled to a different layer which then convert the light photons into an electrical signal. This electrical signal is collected and stored by TFTs. a. Computed radiography b. Direct radiography direct acquisition c. Direct radiography - indirect acquisition - amorphous silicon d. Direct radiography - indirect acquisition - CCD technology
c. Direct radiography - indirect acquisition - CCD technology
Which type of digital radiographic imaging system matches this description? This system uses a radiosensitive rare earth element intensifying screen to convert x-rays to light. This light signal is sent to a different layer, by lenses or fiber-optics that act like cameras, which convert the light signal into an electrical signal. The electrical signal is sent to TFTs. a. Computed radiography b. Direct radiography - indirect acquisition - amorphous silicon c. Direct radiography - indirect acquisition - CCD technology d. Direct radiography direct acquisition
Single Phase
Which type of generator, using the same technique, will give the lowest exposure: Single phase, Three phase, or High frequency?
c. PET
Which type of imaging is based upon glucose uptake within the body and annihilation photon detection? a. DMS b. MRI c. PET d. SPECT
d. SPECT
Which type of imaging may use a triple head gamma camera? a. DMS b. MRI c. PET d. SPECT
OSL
Which type of personal radiation monitor contains a layer of aluminum oxide?
Filtered back projection
Which type of reconstruction process gives better detail?
Iterative reconstructions
Which type of reconstruction process suppresses noise and reduces artifacts?
Mammography, due to its high sensitivity and the importance of early detection of breast cancer.
Which type of screening exam is considered acceptable?
Necessity of repeat examinations
Which type of unnecessary exposure is usually directly under the Technologist's control
The largest, most visible, and easily accessible veins.
Which veins should be used for severe trauma or cardiac arrest?
C1, C2, and C7
Which vertebrae are considered atypical?
Lateral
Which view best demonstrates the zygapophyseal joints for the majority of the c-spine?
Unauthorized use is prohibited and that x-radiation is emitted when the equipment is in operation.
Which warning signs/labels must be included on an x-ray booth control panel?
Laterally
Which way do you rotate the foot for a lateral projection of the 4th toe?
b. Image receptor too far over (cassette off-centre)
Which will NOT cause shape distortion of a joint space? a. Image receptor angulation b. Image receptor too far over (cassette off-centre) c. Central ray not above correct spot (tube off-centre) d. Part too far over (incorrect positioning of part)
e. Decrease pitch
Which will decrease image noise in CT? a. Decrease technique b. Decrease pixel size c. Decrease DFOV d. Decrease slice thickness e. Decrease pitch f. Increase matrix g. Use an edge enhancement filter
Large
Which will give a lower contrast image due to scatter: an area with a large or small radiation field?
a. Decreased pixel size
Which will give better image resolution? a. Decreased pixel size b. Commercial television monitors instead of progressive scanning monitors c. The use of flat crystals instead of columnar ones in an indirect flat panel system d. Decreased matrix size
e. PET & SPECT
Which will give molecular information? a. CT & US b. CT & MRI c. PET & CT d. SPECT & US e. PET & SPECT
d. Decreased quantum mottle
Which will increase image resolution? a. Decreased bandwidth b. Smoothing techniques c. Decreased matrix size d. Decreased quantum mottle
f. Decrease mAs
Which would decrease patient exposure and radiation effects in CT? a. Decrease kV b. Decrease pitch c. Decrease section thickness for same scan area d. Decrease filtration e. Decrease source to skin distance f. Decrease mAs
a. PET
Which would give better image quality, but be more expensive? a. PET b. SPECT
Decrease the CR angle with lateral body surface to 20 degrees
While performing the IS projection of the shoulder on a patient with severe arthritis you realize that they can only abduct their arm to 60 degrees. What adjustment is required to obtain a quality image?
Only the patient
Who is allowed to be exposed to the primary beam?
X-ray equipment operator
Who is responsible for "ongoing equipment monitoring" at a diagnostic x-ray facility?
The Owner
Who is responsible to ensure that radiation equipment is maintained in a condition that will not endanger the health or safety of people?
Owner
Who is ultimately responsible for the radiation safety of a diagnostic x-ray facility?
Responsible User
Who must ensure that x-ray equipment is used and maintained properly?
Radiation Safety Officer
Who must keep records of radiation surveys?
Because it is safer to access veins due to less risk of bleeding and because venous blood is heading towards the heart which then will distributed the fluid or medication to the rest of the body.
Why are arteries not used for vascular access, administration of fluids and medications?
To rule out thrombosis in the deep veins of the leg
Why are lower extremity arteriograms performed?
These interactions take place with projectile electrons that are less energetic and do not have sufficient energy to remove bound electrons from their orbits. They only have enough energy to excite these electrons, which is where the released heat comes from.
Why are the outer shell electrons that become excited and release heat not ejected from their orbits?
To reduce out-of-field artifacts
Why are the patients arms raised above the head during chest or abdomen scans?
To evaluate traumatic injury, atherosclerotic disease, or vascular lesions.
Why are upper extremity arteriograms performed?
When the I.I. is operating in the magnified mode, the minification gain is reduced and there are fewer photoelectrons incident on the output phosphor. To maintain the same level of brightness, the x-ray tube mA is automatically increased, increasing patient dose.
Why do exposure factors automatically change when the magnification mode of an I.I. is used?
One focal spot (small) for fine detail imaging and one focal spot (large) for larger exposures (heavy tube loads)
Why do most x-ray tubes have dual focal spots?
It allows us to cope
Why do we pay attention to some stimuli in our environment and ignore others?
To get a definite measurement of the amount of radiation hitting the skin surface as opposed to an approximation of what is absorbed. (Better to over-estimate than under-estimate the amount of radiation received)
Why do we use ESE as opposed to absorbed dose to evaluate patient exposure?
Reduces both magnification of the heart and distortion of great vessels (thereby increasing the detail of thoracic structures)
Why do we use a 180 cm SID when doing chest x-rays?
Percentage of the attenuated photons having photoelectric interactions are increased
Why does decreasing kV increase differential absorption?
Because there is no tubercle on ribs 11 and 12
Why don't T11 and T12 have a transverse costal facet?
To demonstrate air/fluid levels
Why is a horizontal central ray used for acquiring radiographic images of the sinuses?
To reduce their curvature and prevent their superimposition with the pubic symphysis
Why is angulation of the central ray needed to produce AP images of the sacrum and coccyx?
Excess scatter will cause exposure to terminate prematurely
Why is consistent collimation important when using AEC?
Documentation offers the same benefits as record keeping and lets other staff members know that there is a problem.
Why is documentation regarding equipment issues important in a radiology department?
To give the truest representation of the joint space
Why is it important for the central ray to be aligned with the joint space of interest?
To avoid compression of the abdominal organs
Why is it important to expose abdominal films on expiration?
d. Technologists may use poor processes to avoid censure
Why is it important to the RAP process that technologists feel safe (not threatened) about a repeat analysis program? a. Technologists may find the process stressful b. Technologist may find the process scary c. Technologists may dislike the process d. Technologists may use poor processes to avoid censure
Because doing so may make further examinations or a full exam unnecessary.
Why is it useful to be aware of the patient's previous exams?
Kidneys are farther from the image receptor with a PA projection
Why is the PA projection of the abdomen less desirable for a KUB than the AP projection?
To project the heart shadow onto the sternum to provide an even density on the film
Why is the RAO preferred over the LAO for the sternum?
Electrons will be further from the center of the II and harder to control.
Why is the amount of distortion always greater with larger intensifiers?
It has no body and no spinous process
Why is the atlas considered atypical?
To differentiate stomach from surrounding tissues
Why is the patient asked to drink contrast medium prior to an abdominal CT exam?
The curled shape minimizes risk of damage to the heart muscle
Why is the pigtail catheter especially valuable when delivering large volumes of CM into the ventricle?
The edges of the image, which have worse resolution than the center, are not displayed
Why is the resolution of an Image Intensifier (I.I.) increased when the magnification mode is used?
Because of the large space occupied by the liver
Why is the right lung shorter than the left lung?
To terminate the exposure in the event of erroneous overexposure to the patient
Why is the x-ray generator with AEC equipped with a back-up timer?
Fewer electrons incident on the output screen, minification gain decreases
Why may exposure factors need to be automatically increased when using the magnification mode of a fluoroscopic image intensifier?
To heal after surgery, trauma, infection, or chronic disease
Why might a patient have a temporary colostomy?
To demonstrate any air-fluid levels
Why must the costophrenic angles be included on a posteroanterior projection of the chest?
To put the olecranon process in profile
Why must the lateral elbow projection be positioned with the elbow flexed 90 degrees?
To demonstrate intervertebral disk spaces by flattening out the lordotic curve
Why should the hips and knees be flexed for an AP projection of the lumbar spine?
Decreased number of motion repeats.
Why will the use of immobilization devices decrease patient dose?
Because the magnet could cause hemorrhage and damage to the eye if the foreign body is magnetic
Why would MRI not be used to determine if the eye had a foreign body?
To blur the lung and rib detail
Why would a long breathing technique be used on a patient for a lateral projection of the T-spine?
CSF Leak
Why would a patient require a myelogram?
c. So the radiologist can let the techs know if some of the repeated images were actually acceptable
Why would it be important to have a radiologist view the repeated images? a. So the radiologist can know what is going on in the department where they work/run b. So the radiologist can punish/fire those techs in the department who take a lot of repeats c. So the radiologist can let the techs know if some of the repeated images were actually acceptable d. So the radiologist can feel like the boss of the department
Epiglottitis
Why would nasopharynx studies be performed on children?
High
Will high or low contrast be displayed on the image with more pronounced differences in subject material?
Direct
Window level has what relationship with image density/brightness?
600
With CT numbers ranging from 100 to 1100 being displayed, what is the WL?
1000
With CT numbers ranging from 100 to 1100 being displayed, what is the WW?
a. Collimation and detector width
With MDCT, which factors affect slice thickness? a. Collimation and detector width b. Collimation and pixel size c. Pixel size and detector width d. Detector width and matrix size
-50 to +650
With a WL of 300 and a WW of 700, which CT numbers will be displayed?
Peach/orange
With the Philips Pulsera C-arm fluoroscopic system, what colour is the high dose exposure control?
c. 31 cm
With the Philips Pulsera C-arm fluoroscopic system, which of these image intensifier sizes represents regular mode (the other two settings are magnification mode)? a. 17 cm b. 23 cm c. 31 cm
b. 17 cm
With the Philips Pulsera C-arm fluoroscopic system, which of these image intensifier sizes represents the most magnification possible with this method? a. 13 cm b. 17 cm c. 23 cm d. 31 cm
A red dot with another red dot
With the Philips Pulsera C-arm unit what two symbols must be lined up in order for a successful connection of foot exposure pedal to C-arm to occur?
Left side
With the Philips Pulsera system, which of the monitors is used for current imaging/making exposures (the active imaging screen), NOT the monitor where a physician, surgeon or radiologist would like to view a previously taken image?
Externally from prone/laterally
With the hand in prone position, which way will you rotate the hand to achieve a lateral projection of the 5th digit?
Low
Would a high or low repeat rate be seen with a Radiologist who has very wide acceptance limits?
Long
Would a short or a long SOD give the lowest entrance skin radiation exposure to the patient if the same technique is used during a radiographic procedure?
Standing by the image receptor
Would standing by the tube or by the image receptor protect the operator of the fluoroscopic unit more?
Empathizing with the patient
You are listening to a patient who is very angry with her doctor that she just spoke with. You listen to her as if the situation had happened to you. You feel what the patient feeling. You are:
Right primary (main) bronchus, because it is larger in diameter and more vertical.
You were studying one evening when you accidentally inhaled a cheerio. Where would you expect the cheerio to go and why?
d. Phantom artifact
hat artifact will occur from incomplete erasure of a CR imaging plate? a. Double exposure b. Heat blur c. Dropout d. Phantom artifact
Between 3-10%
hat is an acceptable overall reject rate for radiography according to Carlton/Adler?
Terminates the exposure in case of equipment failure
hat is the purpose of a back-up timer when using an AEC for radiography?
b. Short SID
hich SID would reduce patient exposure and occupational exposure dose if SOD stays the same? a. Long SID b. Short SID c. SID does not affect patient dose or occupational exposure
d. Smaller focal spot size for increased detail
hich is NOT a component of an x-ray tube for angiography? a. Larger thicker anode disk b. Larger focal spot size for heat tolerance c. Must tolerate high heat loads d. Smaller focal spot size for increased detail