Registry Exam

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The major mechanisms of electricity-induced injury are

- electrical energy causing direct tissue damage - conversion of electrical energy into thermal energy causing massive tissue destruction - direct trauma resulting from falls or violent muscle spasms

Aldolase

- enzyme that cleaves an aldol that aids in the conversion of glucose to energy - Associated with the muscles, and is currently used in the monitoring of patients with muscular dystrophy and a few other rare conditions affecting skeletal muscles

Brucella species

- faintly staining gram negative cocci or short rod - no flagella present - non-motile on any media

Processes inhibited by insulin

- formation of glucose from noncarbohydrates (gluconeogenesis) - Lypolysis - the release of non-esterified fatty acids (NEFA) from triglycerides - Glycogenolysis - the conversion of stored glycogen back to glucose

Pasteurella

- forms large amounts of indole - many infections caused by domesticated animals - multocida is species most frequently isolated from humans - produces odor similar to E. coli

Rhodotorula spp.

- includes 3 species: glutinis, mucilaginosa, and minuta - occasionally isolated as causative agents of opportunistic mycoses in vulnerable hosts, including patients with AIDs - Germ tube: negative - Urease - positive - Blastospores - positive - Arthrospores - negative

Cardiovascular disease and adipose tissue

- inflammatory cytokines, synthesized and released by adipose tissue contribute the development of cardiovascular disease - A state of normal lipids and lipid levels found in metabolic syndrome contribute to the development of cardiovascular disease

Bence-Jones proteinuria associated with what conditions

- macroglobinemia - multiple myeloma - amyloidosis

Group A strep (Streptococcus pyogenes)

- major cause of cellulitis - beta hemolysis - negative catalase - negative CAMP - no growth in 6.5% salt - susceptible to bacitracin

Fluorometry

- more sensitive than spectrophotometry - Both excitation and emission spectra are characteristics of the analyte - typically utilize monochromators or optical filters

Anti-A1

- naturally occurring antibody - Reactive @ 37˚C can sometimes destroy transfused A1 positive cells - A1 and A2 occur in 80% and 20% of the population respectively

Patients at risk for graft vs host

- neonates less than 4 months old - recipients of donor units known to be from a blood relative - patients receiving chemotherapy who are immunocompromised

Lipoproteins

- reduced LDL causes a decreased risk of atherosclerosis - elevated HDL causes a decreased risk of atherosclerosis - Elevated total cholesterol causes an increased risk of atherosclerosis

Family Enterobacteriaceae characteristics

- reduction of nitrates to nitrites - negative cytochrome oxidase reaction - fermentation of glucose and other carbohydrates

T lymphocytes

- secrete cytokines - comprise majority of cells in blood lymphocyte pool - help regulate immune response

Yersinia enterocolitica

- severe abdominal pain mimicking appendicitis but infects the mesenteric lymph nodes and may infect the appendix in turn - TSIA - A/A - H2S - negative - lysine - negative - indole - positive - urea - positive

Mycobacterium kansaii

- slow grower - cream to tan colored colonies when grown in the dark - development of yellow pigment upon exposure to light

Hybridization

- the process of single strands of nucleic acid bonding together to form double strands - can also be called annealing - complementary bases link together with hydrogen bonds - Can happen between a DNA strand and a strand of RNA

proper storage temperature for fresh frozen plasma

-20˚C

pH alteration of normal blood in a closed vessel standing at 37˚C for 1 hour is approximately

0.04 to 0.08 pH unit

A refrigerator used to store whole blood must be able to maintain a temperature in the ranges of

1-6˚C (unless it's going to be a source of platelets)

Criteria of donor RBC for exchange transfusions to treat any type of HDFN

1. less than or equal to 7 days old 2. Reconstituted with AB FFP 3. CMV negative 4. Negative for hemoglobin S 5. Irradiated

hs-CRP reference range

1.0 - 3.0 mg/L

The recommended temperature/time/pressure for routine steam sterilization of media is:

121˚C for 12-15 minutes at 15 PSI

The measurement of total glycosylated hemoglobin A1c is an effective means of assessing the average blood glucose levels over what period of time?

2-3 months

What is the maximum interval during which a recipient sample may be used for crossmatching if the patient has been recently transfused, has been pregnant within the past 3 months, or if relevant medical/transfusion history is unknown

3 days

If a patient experiences an AMI, at what point will the troponin I begin to increase and how long will it stay increased?

3-6 hours, 5-10 days

If a Brucella species is suspected in a blood culture it should be held for a minimum of how many days?

30

The shelf life of whole blood collected in CPDA-1 is

35 days

Proper temperature to use when crossmatching the presence of a cold antibody

37˚C

hemoglobin H globin chain configuration

4 beta chains

The normal range for urine pH

4.6 - 8.0

If parents have the blood group genotypes AA and BO, what is the possibility of having a child with a blood type of A?

50%

generally accepted as the lower threshold value for semen pH from fertile males

7.2

Platelets that are not collected by an apheresis method must be prepared within how many hours of the collection of whole blood?

8

Accepted interval between blood donations is

8 weeks

In a normal distribution of results, the mean value +/- 2 SDs will include what percentage of the population?

95%

Blood to anticoagulant ratio for coagulation tests

9:1

Insulin

Inhibits gluconeogenesisand the formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources such as amino acids, glycerol, and fatty acids

Which enzyme is responsible for joining the reverse-trascribed HIV DNA to the host cell's DNA?

Integrase

Necessary for the absorption of B12

Intrinsic factor

Which symptom of HDFN is associated with low levels of glucuronyl transferase

Jaundice

In order to identify an isolate as Yersinia enterocolytica, it must be lysine-negative and

K/A on Kligler's iron agar

This member of Enterobacteriacea gave these reactions: TSIA - A/A, gas, no H2S Ornithine - negative Lysine - positive Citrate - positive Urea - positive Phenylalanine - negative Motility - negative

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Nitric oxide is associated with the prevention of vaso-occlusion by decreasing cellular adherence to endothelium. Which amino acid is decreased in patients with sickle cell disease and is needed as a substrate to produce nitric oxide?

L-arginine

HBsAg

Late incubation, acute

Lewis blood group system phenotype that usually produces anti-Lea

Le(a--b-)

generally considered equivalent to CMV seronegative RBC for use in an exchange transfusion to a newborn

Leukoreduced RBC

Blood group system that may show a cell typing change during pregnancy

Lewis

Best type of microscopy for performing manual platelet counts

Light

Feta cheese

Listeria monocytogenes

Mycobacteria

Lowenstein-Jensen Media

one of the most common coagulation inhibitors

Lupus anticoagulant (anti-phospholipid antibody)

HLA-A and HLA-B antigens can be detected by

Lymphocyte cytotoxicity

Responsible for causing graft-versus-host reactions

Lymphocytes

Pluripotential stem cells are capable of producing

Lymphoid and myeloid stem cells

other mycobacterium species that cause tuberculosis

M. bovis M. Africanum M. microti

The hematology laboratory is experiencing instrument downtime. The laboratory has a back-up method for hemoglobin and hematocrit testing that is being used until the instrument is repaired. The hematologist calls and asks if you can provide any of the RBC indices. Which of the indices, if any, can you provide for the hematologist?

MCHC only

Shigella

MacConkey

In HDN

Maternal antibody against fetal antigen

Spectrophotometer

Measures absorbance of light at a specific wavelength

Coulometry

Measures amount of electricity passing between two electrodes

Osmometer

Measures change in vapor pressure

Nephlometer

Measures light scatter by particles

Assay using 24-hour urine considered the bet single screening test for pheochromocytoma

Metanephrines

Which assay using 24-hour urine is considered the best single screening test for pheochromocytoma?

Metanephrines

Organism that has been known to cause epidemic tinea capitis in children but almost never affects adults

Microsporum audouinii

MacConkey agar without crystal violet is a culture medium useful in the presumptive identification of

Mycobacterium fortuitum

Mycobacterium from slowest to most rapid growth

Mycobacterium malmoense Mycobacterium tuberculosis Mycobacterium gordonae Mycobacterium fortuitum

Auer rods are seen in the cytoplasm of blasts from which cell line

Myeloid

Characteristic that distinguishes vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecium and Enterococcus faecalis from other Enterococcus species?

Non-motility

The antibody most frequently present in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is directed against

Nuclear antigen

most prevalent blood type in the united states

O positive

When can a doctor order a panel made up of tests he/she specifically wants?

Only if the laboratory ensures that the ordering physician knows what tests are included in the panel or profile and has the appropriate procedure and diagnostic codes for each test

Acinetobacter species are similar to Neisseriacea with the exception that Acintobacter species are generally:

Oxidase negative

Blood group most associated with cold agglutinins

P

Mycoplasma

PPLO agar

Blood group that usually reacts the least strongly with anti-H

A1

Two tests helpful for documenting previous Streptococcal throat and skin infections

ASO titer Anti-DNase B

In absorption spectrophotometry

Absorbance is directly proportional to concentration

Group of conditions that increases the risk of HbS polymerization?

Acid pH, dehydration, increased level of 2,3 DPG

Unexpected positive reactions encountered during forward ABO typing may be due to

Acquired B antigen due to intestinal cancer

Bacterial species commonly found in association with deep tissue actinomycosis

Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans

Anti-HBc IgM

Acute, convalescent

Anti-HBc Total

Acute, convalescent, recovery

Which adipokine is decreased in obesity, is anti-inflammatory, and increases insulin sensitivity

Adiponectin

Hemoglobin S is most common in which country?

African countries

After the second spin in the preparation of platelets from whole blood, the platelet products should be

Allowed to rest for 1-2 hours

Disorder that exhibits a genetic code that is incompatible to life

Alpha Thalassemia major

Which alpha thalassemia shows no anemia, although a slight decrease in the MCV and MCHC may be seen?

Alpha Thalassemia silent carrier

Voges proskauer

Alpha naphthol

The red pigment of a positive Voges Proskauer reaction is produced by reactions of

Alpha naphthol an diacetyl

Acute phase proteins

Alpha-1 antitrypsin C-reactive protein Fibrinogen Haptoglobin

Using an automated cell counter analyzer, an increased Red Cell Distribution Width (RDW) should correlate with

Anisocytosis (increased variation in red cell size)

What is the mechanism of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?

Antibodies directed against platelet factor 4 (PF-4) and heparin complex

Heparin interacts with ____________, which subsequently inhibits thrombin.

Antithrombin III

Sentinel laboratory

Any laboratory that performs microbial analysis, or refers specimens that may contain microbial agents. Based on the extent of service provided, sentinel laboratories are designated as basic or advanced

Which risk marker has both positive and negative cardiovascular risk integrated into its measurement?

ApoB/ApoA1

The phenotypic property of Saccharomyces yeast species that is helpful in establishing its species identification is

Ascospore production

A 70 year old man who had incurred a cerebral vascular accident three days previously was semicomatose and having difficulty breathing. He developed sudden fever overnight and was found to have pneumonia. Purulent material obtained through the intubation tube reveals a dense cluster of segmented neutrophils indicating acute infections and the presence of mixed bacteria including several gram positive and gram negative morphotypes. The most likely diagnosis is:

Aspiration pneumonia

C19 and C20 cell surface antigens both appear on what type of lymphocytes

B cells

Orthonitrophenyl-b-D-galactopyronosidase (ONPG) is produced by several bacterial species. It acts by cleaving the beta galactosidase bond of certain disaccharides, such as lactose. An ONPG-positive bacterial species, however, may appear as a "late lactose user" because of the absence of

B-galactoside permease

B antigen generally associated with mix field reaction

B3

group B antigen generally associated with a mixed field reaction

B3

Organism that displays "medusa head" on SBA after 18 hours of incubation at 35˚C

Bacillus anthrasis

During a routine inspection, a unit of unexpired blood was noticed to have a black color with numerous small clots. What is the likely cause for this observation?

Bacterial contamination

Pathogenic anaerobic bacteria most frequently isolated in clinical laboratories

Bacterioides fragilis

Which beta thalassemia shows no anemia and may not be detected using hemoglobin electrophoresis?

Beta thalassemia minima

An MCV is reported by the instrument as 82 fl. The MCV is flagged with a delta check alert as the previous MCV reported on this patient 12 hours earlier was 97 fL. What is the possible cause for this decrepancy?

Both specimens not from the same patient

The activation unit in the classical complement pathway

C4, C2, C3

Tumor markers elevated in more advanced stages of breast cancer

CA 15-3 CA 549

Tumor markes that are elevated in more advanced stages of breast cancer

CA 15-3 and CA 549

Spinal fluid cultures on a 3-day-old infant revealed beta-hemolytic, gram-positive cocci occurring in pairs and chains. The organism was catalase-negative and bile esculin-negative. Resistance to 0.04 U disk of bacitracin was noted. The other test necessary to identify this organism is a positive test by:

CAMP This case is typical for Streptococcus agalactiae (group B Strep)

Tests that perform better at ambient atmosphere

CAMP Bile solubility Novobiocin disk test

Streptococcus pneumoniae

CAMP negative alpha-hemolytic susceptible to optochin

markers expressed by a normal mature B cell

CD19 CD20 Kappa or Lambda

In HbSS blood, an increased amount of which of the following surface antigens on young sickle cells may allow platelets to form a bridge between the reticulocytes and endothelial cells, ultimately leading to vaso-occlusion?

CD36

Which cardiac marker is a regulator of myocyte contraction?

CK-MB isoforms

Clinical laboratory regulation that defines the personnel qualifications and responsibilities of the various positions in the clinical laboratory

CLIA

8-Hydroxyquinoline and 0-Cresolphthalein complexone reagent is commonly used in the determination of

Calcium

parathyroid hormone is important in the regulation of

Calcium and phosphate

A markedly elevated 5-hydroxyindole acetic acid (5-HIAA) determination is presumptive evidence for

Carcinoid tumor

P. vivax

Characteristically displays Schuffner's dots and often enlarged RBCs along with brownish granules. P. vivax can also have 12-24 merozoies in each cell, actually filling the entire RBC. This parasite also has very irregular shapes often referred to as "Ameboid"

Zollinger-Ellison syndrom

Characterized by large (usually 20-fold) elevation of gastrin. Tumor(s) in the pancreas, duodenum cause the stomach to make too much gastric acid, leading to peptic ulcers

The mechanism responsible for pathology in autoimmune diseases is

Circulating immune complexes

Myonecrosis

Clostridium perfringens

Carcinoma of the colon

Clostridium septicum

Gardnerella vaginalis

Columbia agar w/ blood

MCV 115, Hgb 7.5 gm/100ml, WBC 2,500/mm', platelets 75,000/mm3

Consistent with macrocytosis, anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia

Examples of organisms where molecular methods currently provide greater specificity in identification (compared to current phenotypic methods) include

Corynebacterium and related genera Nocardia and related genera Dimorphic mycologic pathogens

Cystine-tellurite blood agar is recommended for the isolation of which organism?

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

The serum medium and methylene blue stain originally described by Loeffler is helful in the identification of

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

automated method for measuring chloride which generates silver ions in the reaction is called

Coulometry

Risk management

Creation of policies and procedures and the implementation of practices that focus on prevention of future events that could result in negative patient outcomes

within three days at 28˚C a sputum specimen placed on Sabouraud's dextrose agar with chloramphenicol and cycloheximide produced moist, grayish growth, with a white aerial mycelium, the organism is most likely

Cryoprecipitated AHF

Infective stage for the majority of all intestinal amoebae is the

Cyst

Crystals and sediment found in acid urine include

Cystine, leucine, calcium oxalate, sodium urate, sulfonamide, tyrosine, uric acid, and amorphous urates

A stool from a two-year-old girl grew colonies on MacConkey agar, red colonies on XLD, and green colonies on HE without black centers. It was ornithine positive and indole negative. It should agglutinate in antisera of which serogroup?

D

Increased serum osmolality

Dehydration Diabetes insipidus

A hemoglobin F concentration of 100% may be seen in which beta thalassemia?

Delta-beta thalassemia major

What is the cause of neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (NAIT)?

Destruction of a neonate's platelets by alloantibodies crossing the placenta from the mother

serological test for the diagnosis of Q-fever

EIA or indirect immunoflourescence

A patient has a fasting glucose of 135 mg/dL What does this result indicate and what, if any, further action is recommended by the ADA?

Elevated FPG; needs further evaluation by a repeat or alternative test.

An alpha-hemolytic catalase negative, gram-positive coccus from a wound culture gave these additional results: A disc negative Bile esculin hydrolysis positive CAMP negative Na hippurate hydrolysis negative PYR positive

Enterococcus

A D test is performed on Gram-positive cocci to determine inducible resistance to clindamycin when the isolate is resistant to

Erythromycin

Best stock culture for quality control testing of oxidase production

Escerichia coli and Pseudomonas aeruginosa P. aeruginosa is oxidase positive E. coli is oxidase negative

Steak tartar

Eschericha coli 0157

most common cause of acute cystitis

Escherichia coli

During which stage in real-time PCR can the fluorescent signal start to be recorded?

Exponential stage

What is the antigen carried by most strains of Streptococcus anginosus

F - group F is the most common Lancefield antigen detected (~47%), associated with S. anginosus (milleri)

PT monitors

Factor VII

APTT

Factor VIII, Factor XI, Factor XII

APTT monitors

Factor VIII, Factor XI, Factor XII

The dissolution of a clot with 5 M urea indicates which one of the following factor deficiencies?

Factor XIII

The fibrin clot is stabilized by cross-linked fibrin strands and the activity of

Factor XIII

NCEP ATP III Criteria

Fasting blood glucose, triglycerides, HDL-C along with waist circumference and blood pressure

The properties of an antibody class are defined by the

Fc end of the molecule

Both PT and APTT

Fibrinogen (Factor II), Factor V, Factor X

Both PT and APTT

Fibrinogen (factor II), Factor V, Factor X

The Rh nomenclature which uses the letters DCE is found in which genetic model

Fisher-Race

Bioavailability

Fraction of the drug that is absorbed into systemic circulation

A microbiologist was surprised when he could not recover Helicobacter pylori from gastric biopsies in which organism were seen in the tissue sections. He was advised to switch from the Campy BAP selective medium to Skirrow's BA because the latter is

Free of cephalothin

What components can be shipped together with fresh frozen plasma?

Frozen RBCs and cryoprecipitate

Hepatic abscess

Fusobacterium necrophorum

Normocytic

G6PD deficiency, malaria

The most common method for the confirmation of serum barbituates is

Gas-liquid chromatography, mass spectrometry

Hydrogen ion concentration (pH) in blood is usually determined by means of which electrode?

Glass

Acute phase proteins generally fall into which category?

Glycoproteins

Infectious disease processes in which large numbers of activated macrophages and histiocytes are collected at the site of inflammation is called:

Granulomatous

A key laboratory characteristic by which Mycobacterium bovis can be separated from Mycobacterium tuberculosis is

Growth inhibition by thiopine-2-carboxylic acid hydrazide (T2H)

Organisms that have capsular material as a defense mechanism

H. influenzae K. pneumoniae N. meningitidis S. pneumoniae

Antigen marker most closely associated with transmission of HBV infections is

HBeAg

Hemorrhagic febrile disease in Brazil - purpuric fever is caused by

Haemophilus aegyptius

The satelliting of small colonies around Staphylococci and other bacterial species is always suspicious of

Haemophilus species

Hemoglobin that can be decreased in alpha thalassemia

Hb A Hb A2 Hb F

The heterozygous state of HbS that is referred to as sickle cell trait contains which of the following hemoglobins in combination with S?

HbA

The heterozygous state of HbS that is referred to as sickle cell trait contains which of the following hemoglobins in combination with S?

HbA Sickle cell trait is HbSA

Six months ago, a 55-year-old female had a fasting plasma glucose (FPG) greater than 200 mg/dL on two occasions. She was diagnosed as having type 2 diabetes and treatment was started. Along with routine FPG's which of the following tests would most likely be used to monitor glycemic control?

HbA1c

Body part that synthesizes and secretes BNP

Heart

Part of the body that synthesizes and secretes BNP

Heart

Salmonella, Shigella

Hektoen Enteric agar

What two glycoproteins are expressed on the surface of influenza A viruses and are used for subtyping of the viruses?

Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase

If the red cell count is known, which of the following must be known in order to calculate the mean corpuscular volume?

Hematocrit

B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes are derived from

Hematopoietic stem cells

A phlebotomist at a local hospital recently had an accidental needle stick while drawing blood from a patient being treated for acute hepatitis B. Which serological marker from the patient would be of most value to the physician evaluating the phlebotomist's possible infection status?

Hepatitis B e-antigen (HBeAg) - this indicates that the virus is actively replicating and therefore the patient is very infectious

Low values of plasma ceruloplasmin are most associated with

High plasma copper values

Erythrocytes employed for the most common rapid slide test (MONOSPOT) for infectious mononucleosis

Horse

Scopulariopsis species

Hyaline molds that produce conidia in chains

Monoclonal antibodies are usually manufactured in vitro by using

Hybridomas

Consequence of HDFN most associated with neonatal death before or shortly after birth

Hydrops fetalis

Calcium and phosphorus levels were determined for a 4-year-old patient as follows: Ca - 14 mg/dL Phosphorus - 1mg/dL These results are MOST compatible with:

Hyperparathyroidism

Tertiary

Hypothalamus

confirmatory tests for HIV-1 antibodies

IFA western blot

viral and rickettsial infections are most reliably diagnosed by which laboratory technique

IFA testing

Christmas factor

IX

Antibody predominately associated with the secondary antibody response

IgG

Patients with Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia demonstrate excessively increased concentration of which immunoglobulin

IgM

Patients with Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia demonstrate excessively increased concentrations of which immunoglobulin

IgM

Confirmation method for the presence of Bence-Jones protein in the urine

Immunofixation

Which of the following viruses is most often reported as the cause of infection leading to aplastic crisis in a patient with sickle cell disease?

Parvovirus B19

Unique colony morphology feature of Rhodotorula growing on SDA

Pink-red/orange pigment

A WBC stained within Wright's stain has the following characteristics: - Round eccentric nucleus with clumped chromatin pattern - 1:1 nucleus to cytoplasm ratio - Basophilic cytoplasm - Cresent-shaped clear area next to nucleus What is the most likely identification of this cell?

Plasma cell

A patient has a history of repeated spontaneous abortion. Coagulation studies reveal an elevated APTT, normal PT, normal platelet function, and normal clotting time. Schistocytes were seen on the peripheral blood smear. Which test should be performed to determine if the patient has lupus anticoagulant?

Platelet neutralization test

Best method for examination of synovial crystals

Polarized light

RBC formation of large amounts of hemoglobin usually begins in which developmental stage?

Polychromatic normoblast

When a patient has a bile duct obstruction, the bilirubin test portion of the reagent strip is:

Positive because conjugated bilirubin is present and is excreted by the kidneys

A 40-year-old female receives two units of RBCs during a surgical procedure. The patient has no prior history of transfusions. Seven days later, she presents with extensive bruising of the extremities and bleeding of the gums with no additional symptoms. Her platelet count is 5 X 10(9)/L (reference interval 150-400 X 10(9)/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Post transfusion purpura (PTP)

Why is Rh immune globulin (RhIg) administered within 72 hours of delivery or miscarriage to an Rh-negative mother if the newborn is found to be D-positive or weak-D positive?

Prevent fetal cells from initially sensitizing the mother

Root canal abscess

Prevotella melanogenica

Test helpful in separating Pseudomonas aeruginosa from other members of the Pseudomonas family

Production of pyocyanin pigment

Glucagon & epinephrine

Promote glycogenolysis, conversion of glycogen to glucose, which increases plasma glucose

Contributes to specific gravity but not to osmolality

Protein

Sulfosalicylic acid can be used to confirm the results of which test on a urine chemical reagent strip?

Protein

What has happened in a titer, if tubes #5-7 show a stronger titer than tubes #1-4

Prozone reaction

Supplement that must be added to blood culture medium to recover Streptococcus defectivus and Streptococcus adjacens in cases of "culture negative endocarditis"

Pyridoxyl (active form of B6

Most likely phenotype for a white male with the Rh antigens C, c, D, E, e

R1R2

MCV is calculated using which of the following parameters:

RBC and Hct

The core (genome) of the HIV viron contains

RNA

Gastric biopsy specimen reveals few thin curved and S-shaped bacteria, this is suspicious for Helicobacter pylori. An additional test helpful in confirming this identification

Rapid urease The CLO test is based on the rapid red conversion of the plug of urea agar after inoculation with bits of biopsy material.

Titer

Reciprocal of maximum reactive dilution

Anti-HBs

Recovery

Given the following results, what is the immune status of the patient? HBsAg: negative HBeAg: negative Anti-HBc: positive Anti-HBs: positive

Recovery

Micrococcus susceptibility

Resistant to furazolidone Susceptible to bacitracin and novobiocin

method for confirmation of influenza A H1N1 subtype infection

Reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR)

antibodies that can be enhanced using enzyme panels during antibody identification in the blood bank

Rh Lewis Kidd

What is the most likely identification of a pink yeast isolate, recovered from respiratory secretions of a patient with AIDs, that gave the following results: Urease - positive Blastophores - positive Arthrospores - negative

Rhodotorula spp.

Rocky mountain spotted fever

Rickettsia rickettsii

Egg nog

Salmonella enteriditis

Lysine iron agar is a less commonly used culture medium that is most helpful in the identification of

Salmonella enteriditis

Pituitary gland

Secondary

Patients with Cushing syndrom typically exhibit

Serum cortisol concentrations greater than 15 mg/dL

Among the nonfermeters, the only bacterial species to produce H2S is

Shewanella putrifaciens

ALL (Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia)

Increased WBC count along with the presence of TdT (terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase) positive blasts. TdT will stain lymphoblasts positive and myeloblasts negative

Chryseobacterium is the new genus name for the bacterium formerly called Flavobacterium meningosepticum, an important agent of neonatal meningitis. The biochemical characteristic that is unique for the family Flavobacteriaceae among nonfermenters is

Indole production

What is successful molecular identification of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) based upon?

Simultaneous detection of the S. aureus orfX gene and several variants of the mecA gene

The sites of active hematopoiesis in the adult are:

Skull Sternum Scapula Pelvis

SyBr Green

Stain used to detect separated nucleic acids

Patients with what antibody to the following antigen are immune to Hepatitis B

Surface antigen

Nephrotic syndrome

Swelling Weight gain from fluid retention poor appetite high blood pressure

The TPI, VDRL, RPR, and Kahn tests are used to provide presumptive identification of which infection?

Syphilis, Treponema pallidum

Not performing direct antiglobulin tests (DATs) on newborns born to group O Rh mothers is acceptable good practice, providing there is appropriate surveillance and follow-up to detect hyperbilirubinemia

TRUE

Klebsiella pneumonia

TSI: A/A Indole: negative MR: negative VP: positive Citrate: positive H2S: negative Urea: positive Motility: negative Ornithine: negative Anibiotic susceptibility: carboxicillin and ampicillin resistant, all others sensitive

Shigella sonnei

TSIA - K/A, no gas, no H2S Citrate - negative Lysine - negative Indole - negative

Two general categories of nucleic acid amplification (NAA) techniques

Target amplification and signal amplification

NASBA

Target amplification using 3 enzymes and no thermal cycling

PCR

Target amplification using DNA polymerase and thermal cycling

TMA

Target amplification using reverse transcriptase. No thermal cycling needed

test for the diagnosis of hairy-cell leukemia

Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase test

Anatomic barriers of the innate immune system

Tears and saliva Epidermis Low pH Mucous membranes

Hypothalamus

Tertiary

Neisseria gonococci and Neisseria meningococci have the ability to oxidize

Tetramethyl-phenylenediamine dihydrochloride

Neisseria

Thayer-Martin media

Denaturation

The DNA is heated to break the hydrogen bond resulting in single stranded DNA

Denaturation

The DNA is heated to break the hydrogen bonds resulting in single stranded DNA

Extension

The DNA polymerase synthesize new strands of DNA

Annealing

The DNA primers attach to the DNA strands

In what way are the ABO serum antibodies unique among blood group systems?

The antibodies are naturally occurring in the serum

What effect may bacterial contamination have on urine pH?

The bacteria may make the pH more alkaline

aPTT is used to evaluate

The intrinsic pathway Deficiencies of protein C, protein S, and antithrombin III cause hypercoagulability

Sensitivity

The percentage of patients with a disease who will have a positive test

Avidity

The strength in which a multivalent antibody binds a multivalent antigen

HBeAg - Hepatitis B "e" antigen

The virus is actively replicating and therefore the patient is very infectious

Autoantibody that binds to TSH receptor sites on thyroid cell membranes preventing thyroid-stimulating hormone binding

Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins

Absolute cell count

Total count X % of cells counted

Streptococcus agalactiae (group B) is associated with what conditions

Toxic shock syndrome UTI in pregnant women Osteomyelitis in infant

Total iron-binding capacity measures the serum iron transporting capacity of

Transferrin

What organism causes White Piedra which infects hair on the face, scalp, and body areas?

Trichsporon beigelii

Chylomicrons are primarily composed of

Triglycerides

Signs and symptoms that may be associated with immediate transfusion reaction, but not usually associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction

Unexplained bleeding from surgical site

Specimen most sensitive for detecting active CMV infection

Urine

Urine chemical reagent strip test based on the Erlich-aldehyde reaction

Urobilinogen

Densitometry

Uses an integrator to evaluate the area under each peak on an electrophoregram

The Red Cell Distribution (RDW) in alpha thalassemia is

Usually increased

PT

VII

Stable factor

VII

Anti-hemophiliac factor

VIII

A staphyococcus aureus was recovered from a wound infection and tested for susceptibility using the CLSI guidelines for disk diffusion testing. The following results were detected: Penicillin - R Cefoxitin - R Oxacillin - S Cephalothin - S Vancomycin - S Which drug must be reported as susceptible?

Vancomycin

The ultimate end product of both epinephrine and norepinephrine metabolism is

Vanillylmandellic acid (VMA)

The end product of the fermentative metabolism that characterizes members of enterobacteriaceae is

Various mixed acids

Oysters on the half shell

Vibrio vulnificus

Stuart factor

X

Warfarin inhibits all the following coagulation factors except

XI

When performing your mixing study, you aliquot your sample plasma and the pooled normal plasma to create your "mix". You then place the sample in a water bath to incubate for 90 minutes before running your new mixed sample. What is the problem with the steps involved in the procedure above?

You have not run a PT or aPTT on the new mix before incubating

For the ANA test to be positive what must be present in the nucleus of the interphase cell?

a clearly disernible pattern

Protein S

a glycoprotein involved in coagulation that is not considered an acute phase protein

lymphokine

a soluble mediator produced by lymphocytes

What is the most prudent step to follow to select units for cross-match after recipient antibodies have been identified?

antigen type patient cells and any donor cells to be cross-matched

poor sample application in electrophoresis

can tear the gel and also cause distorted bands

Pasteurellosis

cats

Wick Flow

caused by excess heat during electrophoresis and can cause distorted bands

If a patient has an antibody to a low-frequency antigen such as Kpa or Jsa how would this impact the ability to find compatible blood and to identify the antibody?

easy to find compatible blood but difficult to identify the antibody

Found in primary hyperparathyroidism

elevated serum calcium and decreased serum phosphorus

Hereditary hemochromatosis laboratory findings

elevated transferrin saturation presence of HFE mutation elevated serum ferritin

arbovirus

encephalitis

The prozone effect (when performing a screening titer) is most likely to result in

false negative

The prozone effect is most likely to result in

false negative

AHG addition delayed for 40 minutes or more

false-negative reaction

Aeromonas hydrophila

fermenter

Yersinia enterocolitica

fermenter

Phenylalanine deaminase

ferric chloride

parvovirus

fifth disease

Constitutes the alpha hemoglobin chain coding

four gene loci; two on each chromosome 16

Morphologic characteristics associated with the Chediak-Higashi syndrome are

giant lysosomal granules

Hematuria

glomerulonephritis, renal calculi, pyelonephritis

Carbohydrate utilization of Neisseria gonorhoeae

glucose only

Carbohydrate ultization of Neisseria lactamica

glucose, maltose, and lactose

Carbohydrate utilization of Neisseria meningitis

glucose, maltose, and sucrose

Substance that is conjugated with the "indirect" bilirubin to form "direct" bilirubin

glucuronic acid

Tests performed to assess the average plasma glucose level that an individual maintained during the previous 10 week to 12 week period

glycated hemoglobin

Leuconostoc mesenteroides

gram positive - resistant to Vancomycin

Erysipelothrix rhusiophatiae

gram positive that produces H2S

Vibrio species

gram-negative, oxidase positive bacilli which are inhabitants of water

Asaccharolytic use of glucose would be indicated by what reaction in OF glucose tubes

green in both tubes with a little blue at the top of the open tube

Bacteroides fragilis

growth on 20% bile agar indole negative esculin hydrolysis positive lecithinase negative Most commonly recovered anaerobe

cells that stain positive with acid phosphatase, and are not inhibited with tartrate, are characteristically seen in

hairy cell leukemia

Dolichos biflorus lectin

has Anti-A1 specificity

gp120 protein spike (HIV)

helps the virus attach to macrophages. The spikes themselves do not penetrate the cell membrane

Hemoglobinuria

hemolytic anemia, severe burns

Substances considered iron storage compounds

hemosiderin ferritin

hepadnivirus

hepatitis

Conditions associated with an increase of alpha-fetoprotein

hepatocellular carcinoma, viral hepatitis, testicular tumors, pancreatic cancer

Spherocytes are associated with

hereditary spherocytosis autoimmune hemolytic anemia

HFE genotype most common in patients with hereditary hemochromatosis (HH)

homozygous for C282Y

Streptomyces asteroides

hydrolyzes casein, tyrosine, xanthine, and urea

FDA approved therapeutic agent for treating sickle cell patients

hydroxyurea

Nephrotic syndrome is associated with what laboratory findings

increased proteinuria decreased serum albumin edema

A patient presents with an elevation of unconjugated bilirubin, normal serum alkaline phosphatase, normal liver enzymes, and no biliruibin in the urine. This combination would suggest:

increased rate of hemolysis

Macro-amylasemia

increased serum amylase normal to low urine amylase

pilocarpine is used to

induce the sweat secretion during iontophoresis to collect sweat for chloride analysis

Aplastic anemia may be caused by

infections chemical agent ionizing radiation

Penicillin G, ampicllin, carbenicillin, and methicillin are antimicrobial agents whose main function is to

inhibit cell wall synthesis

Cycloheximide

inhibits most saprophytic molds but is not active against yeasts and dermatophytes

The lymphokine most important for increased natural killer cell activity and decreased viral replication in the cells is:

interferon gamma

Most significant cause of decreased haptoglobin levels

intravascular hemolysis

microcytic

iron deficiency, thalassemia

Serum hemolytic complement level (CH50)

is a measure of total complement activity

CD45

leukocytes

Malassezia furfur

light brown circular lesions on upper back and torso

The part of the immunoglobulin molecule that may be kappa or lambda chains is

light chains

Erysipelothrix rhusiophatiae

localized infection

Staphylococcus aureus

localized infection

Which type of lipoprotein transports the majority of cholesterol to cells for steroid hormone synthesis or cell membrane incorporation?

low density lipoproteins

45-75% of WBCs normally seen in the peripheral blood of infants

lymphocytes

mast cell

marrow cell, highly granular basophilic cytoplasm, does not show nuclear lobation

When testing a patient with a warm autoantibody what is the most important concern?

masking of other clinically significant antibodies

paramyxovirus

measles-mumps

Tubidimetry

measures the decrease in incident light intensity

Acidic urine pH

meat-filled diet high urine glucose

Alkaline urine pH

metabolic alkalosis vegetarian diet

age group when hereditary hemochromatosis is most likely to be initially detected based on clinical symptoms

middle age

MIC

minimum inhibitory concentration

most pathogens enter the body through

mucous membranes

Fusarium species is commonly associated with

mycotic keratitis (fungal eye infections)

Proteins in a buffer that sets the pH at 8.6 will become

negatively charged and migrate toward anode

Carbohydrate utilization of Neisseria catarrhalis

no reactions

Salmonella spp.

non-lactose fermenttion sucrose fermentation positive on TSIA H2S positive lysine decarboxylase positive urea negative indole negative ornithine positive

Shigella

non-motile

Antibody most frequently present in systemic lupus erytematosus (SLE) is directed against:

nuclear antigen

Alkaline phosphatase is increased in

obstructive jaundice

Nocardia asteroides

one of the key characteristics to identification of Nocardia asteroides is its inability to hydrolyze tyrosine, casein, or xanthine. Nitrates are reduced to nitrites

The relationship between dietary iron and iron absorption in a healthy individual

only a small percentage of dietary iron is absorbed and used

M. xenopi

optimum growth is 42˚C which allows it to survive and replicate as an environmental contaminant in hot water systems

Aspergillus niger is commonly associated with

otitis externa and can also be associated with sinusitis

CA125

ovarian cancer

Acinetobacter baumannii

oxidizer

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

oxidizer

When few, purple inclusions are found in erythrocytes, they can be confirmed as containing iron by:

performing a prussian blue stain

surfactant is primarily composed of

phosphatidylcholine and other phospholipids

Brucellosis

pigs

Follicle stimuating hormone (FSH) is produced by

pituitary

Secondary

pituitary

Multiple Myeloma diagnosis

plasma cells in bone marrow elevated serum IgG Rouleaux formation on blood film

Which type of blood component is most implicated in bacterial contamination?

platelets

Prostacyclin

potent inhibitor of platelet aggregation released by endothelial cells

Target gland

primary

Scotochromogens

produce deep yellow to orange pigmented colonies when grown in either the light or dark

Pseudomonas stutzeri

produces dry, wrinkled, gray-yellow colonies on BA

Test helpful in separating Pseudomonas aeruginosa from other members of the Pseudomonas family

production of pyocyanin pigment

A specimen drawn from an indwelling catheter that was contaminated by heparin would be indicated by

prolonged aPTT and normal reptilase time test

organs directly involved with the production of sperm

prostate seminal vesicles bulbourethral gland

Sodium theisulfate is often added to selective culture media to

provide sulfur atoms for H2S positive isolates

What has happened in a titer, if tubes #5-7 show a stronger titer than tubes #1-4

prozone reaction

Tularemia

rabbits

precision is a measure of

random variability

Cs137

used as a source for irradiation of blood products

Bile solubility

used to differentiate between S. pneumoniae and veridans Strep - colonies of S. pneumoniae are bile soluble

RDW is an indication of

variability of RBC volume

Pharmacokinetic

what the body does to a drug

Francisella tularensis

wild rabbits

Streptobacillus moniliformis

wild rats

Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

"mariner's wheel"

Celsius to Fahrenheit conversion

(9/5 X degree Celsius) + 32

Bacitracin susceptibility is useful for

- Distinguishing Staphylococci from Micrococci - Presumptive identification of Group A Streptococci

The pathogenicity of Staphylococcus aureus, as well as the frequency with which this organism produces infections, can be attributed to:

- Exfoliative toxin and enterotoxins - Natural colonization/reservoir for infection - Hyaluronidase

A low CSF glucose level is associated with

- Fungal meningitis - Toxoplasmosis - Hypglycemia - Bacterial meningitis

Histoplasma capsulatum

- Large, one-celled, smooth-to-tuberculate macroconidia, and smooth or echinulate microconidia are typical of mycelial phase growth - Usually intracellular infection

What information can you find on the label affixed to the primary container of a hazardous chemical?

- Manufacturer's name and contact information - Hazard statements - Precautionary information including first aid information - Signal words such as "danger" or "warning"

Rickettsia

- Obligate intracellular parasites - Gram negative bacilli - Associated diseases are usually diagnosed by serology

M:E Ratio

- The erythroid tally/total used in calculating the M:E ratio is the sum of all nucleated red cell precursors. - WBCs used in the myeloid tally/total used to calculate the M:E ratio include neutrophil precursors as well as eosinophil precursors and basophil precursors. - Lymphocytes and monocytes/histiocytes are not counted in the evaluation of the M:E ratio - The M:E should always be interpreted in context with the overall bone marrow cellularity

Why are ANA positive samples titered?

- To determine how much antibody is present in the sample. - to look for multiple ANA patterns

Methods used to identify prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis

- Tuberculin skin test - Blood tests known as interferon-gamma release assay

Anti-A1

- a naturally occurring antibody - reactive at 37˚C can sometimes destroy transfused A1 positive cells - A1 and A2 occur in 80 and 20% of the blood type A population, respectively

Enzymes used to determine hepatobiliary dysfunction

- alkaline phosphatase - gamma-glutamyltransferase - 5'-nucleotidase

essential components of compatibility testing

- antibody screen on recipients serum - major crossmatch or computer crossmatch - ABO and Rh typing recipient

post-transfusion purpura symptoms

- appearance of purpura - platelet count of less than 10,000 u/L - mucosal membrane bleeding

False positive tests for protein on a urine reagent strip may be caused by

- bacterial contamination - urine that has remained at room temperature for an extended period of time - alkaline medication

Characteristics of CSF if blood is due to subarachnoid hemorrhage?

- blood is evenly distributed in all tubes - supernatant is pink when centrifuged within one hour

Streptococcus pyogenes

- catalase negative - susceptible to bacitracin - resistant to SXT - CAMP negative

Moraxella lacunata

- cause of purulent conjunctivitis - colonies have a halo appearance due to pitting

actions appropriate for the investigation of a prolonged PT test

- check for clots in the sample - check patient history - check for anticoagulant therapy

primary hemostasitic processes resulting from vascular damage

- collagen activates glycoprotein IIb/IIIa during platelet activation - von willebrand factor mediates platelet adhesion - platelet granule release and fibrinogen mediate platelet aggregation rapid vascular constriction occurs when there is vascular injury in order to constrict the amount of blood that escapes the vessels; ultimately preventing massive blood loss

Platelet neutralization tests

- confirmatory test that can be used to determine if a patient has circulating lupus antibody or lupus anticoagulant - Principle: use of a freeze-thawed platelet suspension that, when mixed with the patient plasma, will neutralize the anti-phospholipid antibodies (lupus anticoagulant) present and allow for a corrected aPTT result upon retesting

possible cause of cell death after HIV infection

- cytoplasmic leakage - depletion of T-lymphocytes, replaced by syncytia - depletion of cellular components

Rh antigen found in highest frequency in Caucasian population

e

Stuart-Prower Factor deficiency

abnormal - Prothrombin time (PT) - activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) - Russel Viper Venom Test (dRVVT)

high specificity but low sensitivity

accurately identifies the absence of disease, has few false positives

Anti-HBc IgM

acute, convalescent

Anti-HBc total

acute, convalescent, recovery

Enzymes used to determine hepatobiliary dysfunction

alkaline phosphatase gamma-glutamyltransferase 5'-nucleotidase

most common procedure for donating whole blood for use by the general population

allogenic donation

Streptococcus pneumoniae

alpha hemolytic

Streptococcus saliarius

alpha hemolytic

Nitrate reduction

alpha naphthalamine

Test that best correlates with the severity of hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)

amniotic fluid bilirubin

TIBC

an indirect measurement of transferrin - transferrin binds iron in the serum, and is proportional to total iron-binding capacity.

Proglottid

anatomical feature of a tapeworm that possesses both male and female reproductive structures

Production of neutral 17-ketosteroids is a measure of

androgen production

Characteristics often associated with alpha thalassemia intermedia

anemia, splenomegaly

Prozone

antibody excess

competitive radioimmunassay procedure

antibody will react equally with labeled and unlabeled antigen

Postzone

antigen excess

Streptococcus agalactiae

beta hemolytic

Streptococcus pyogenes

beta hemolytic

Fecal urobilinogen level may be markedly decreased because of

biliary obstruction

hh genotype gives rise to

bombay phenotype

Haemophilus influenzae requires

both X & V factors

Post transfusion purpura (PTP)

caused by platelet specific antibodies in a patient who has been previously exposed to platelet antigens through pregnancy or transfusion. The most frequently identified antibody is Anti-PLA1, which reacts with platelet antigen HPA-1a. The platelet antibody binds to the platelet surface, which allows for the extravascular removal through liver or the spleen. The patient's own platelets are destroyed as well aggravating the thrombocytopenia.

Elevation of serum creatine kinase may be associated with

cerebrovascular accident (stroke) vigorous exercise Duschenne muscular dystrophy intramuscular injections

Major property of antidiuretic hormone

changes distal tubule water permeability

Salmonellosis

chicken

The buffering capacity of blood is maintained by a reversible exchange process between bicarbonate and

chloride

Neisseria haemophilus

chocolate agar

Anaerobes

chopped meat broth

Phialophora verrucosum is associated with

chromomycosis

Mycobacterium fortuitum

chronic ear pain - ear infection iron uptake, nitrate, arysulfatase - positive growth on MacConkey agar without crystal violet in five days

macrocytic

chronic liver disease, vitamin B12 deficiency

Fusarium

common saprobe and cause of keratitis

Procedure that can be used to evaluate severity of HDFN and can also be used to deliver intravenous transfusions

cordocentesis

organism commonly cultured from the nasopharynx of healthy people but is rarely pathogenic

corynebacterium species

blood component that will provide the best source of fibrinogen for a patient with hypofibronogenemia

cryoprecipitate

Brucella abortis

dairy cattle

TSH in primary hyperthyroidism

decreased

A zinc deficiency in the elderly is often caused by

decreased intake and absorption

Laboratory test result that indicates that a sickle cell patient is in aplastic crisis

decreased reticulocyte count

what other hemoglobin gene loci occur on the same chromosome as the beta chain loci?

delta and gamma

an increase in procalcitonin in a patient diagnosed with sepsis indicates

deterioration in the patient's condition

In order to speciate a swarming proteus organsim found on eosin methylene blue agar plate, the best approach would be to:

determine indole productions, phenylalanine and urease activity P. mirabilis is usually: Indole - negative Urease - positive Phenylalanine - positive

Rise of antibodies is

diagnostic

Smear techniques for processing bone marrow aspirate samples

differential smear coverslip smear pull prep T-prep

Indole

dimenthylaminobenzaldehyde

Fluorescent In Situ Hybridization (FISH)

direct nucleic acid test that does not use amplification

nephelometry

directly measures the amount of light scattered by particles in a solution

Salmonella, shigella

disseminated infection

Vibrio vulnificus

disseminated infection

Pasteurella multocida

domestic cats

The major crossmatch is performed using

donor's red cells and recipient's serum or plasma

When are data collected in a real-time PCR procedure?

during nucleic acid amplification

Precipitation

reaction that occurs when a soluble antigen is mixed with its specific antibody

Titer is best defined as

reciprocal of maximum reactive dilution

Anti-HBs

recovery

The degree in which a measure is consistent in producing the same results when measuring the same analyte is called

reliability

IgM antibodies directed against red cells generally react best at

room temperature

The quality of the test to show a positive result in the presence of disease it was designed to detect is known as

sensitivity

Characteristic features of acute iron deficiency anemia

serum iron decreased, transferrin saturation decreased, TIBC increased

Post transfusion purpura (PTP) symptoms

severe thrombocytopenia one week after transfusion

Fresh frozen plasma

should be transfused within 24 hours of thawing

bDNA

signal amplification using alkaline phosphatase and no thermal cycling

Scedosporium apiospermum is commonly associated with

sinusitis

Adult Ascaris lumbricoides worms live in the

small intestines

Contributes the most to serum osmolality

sodium

Routine electrolyte (lytes) panel

sodium, potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate

Pappenheimer bodies are usually seen in patients who have

splenectomies

Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP)

stain used to differentiate a neutrophilic leukemoid reaction from chronic myelogenous leukemia LAP scores are characteristically low or absent in CML (<15) LAP scores are characteristically high in leukamoid reaction (>100)

The international Normalized Ratio (INR) is a calculation used to

standardize PT results between different reagent sensitivities

Alcaligenes faecalis (odorans)

sweet odor of freshly peeled apples

Primary

target gland

The measurement of 17-ketosteroids in urine is performed to assess primarily which organs?

testes and adrenal cortex

reticulocyte count evaluates

the activity of bone marrow

What is the most helpful feature in differentiating the Zygomycetes from the other hyaline molds in clinical mycology laboratory?

the production of spores with sporangia

ergonomics

the study of human capabilities in relation to work demands

Circulating organic iodine is found primarily in the form of

thyroxine

Trichophyton rubrum is commonly associated with

tinea pedis, an itching, scaling skin infection of the feet

lipid test least affected by the fasting status of the patient

total cholesterol

TIBC (total iron binding capacity) is an indirect measurement of

transferrin

Lipemia in a serum sample is most likely caused by an increase in serum levels of

triglycerides

The iodine prep is least helful in the identification of what parasitic stage

trophozoites trophs are not generally motile in iodine stained wet preps. Typically a small drop of iodine stain may be placed on the slide prior to adding the coverslip. The slide is then thoroughly examined microscopically for larvae, eggs, and cysts


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