Registry Exam
The major mechanisms of electricity-induced injury are
- electrical energy causing direct tissue damage - conversion of electrical energy into thermal energy causing massive tissue destruction - direct trauma resulting from falls or violent muscle spasms
Aldolase
- enzyme that cleaves an aldol that aids in the conversion of glucose to energy - Associated with the muscles, and is currently used in the monitoring of patients with muscular dystrophy and a few other rare conditions affecting skeletal muscles
Brucella species
- faintly staining gram negative cocci or short rod - no flagella present - non-motile on any media
Processes inhibited by insulin
- formation of glucose from noncarbohydrates (gluconeogenesis) - Lypolysis - the release of non-esterified fatty acids (NEFA) from triglycerides - Glycogenolysis - the conversion of stored glycogen back to glucose
Pasteurella
- forms large amounts of indole - many infections caused by domesticated animals - multocida is species most frequently isolated from humans - produces odor similar to E. coli
Rhodotorula spp.
- includes 3 species: glutinis, mucilaginosa, and minuta - occasionally isolated as causative agents of opportunistic mycoses in vulnerable hosts, including patients with AIDs - Germ tube: negative - Urease - positive - Blastospores - positive - Arthrospores - negative
Cardiovascular disease and adipose tissue
- inflammatory cytokines, synthesized and released by adipose tissue contribute the development of cardiovascular disease - A state of normal lipids and lipid levels found in metabolic syndrome contribute to the development of cardiovascular disease
Bence-Jones proteinuria associated with what conditions
- macroglobinemia - multiple myeloma - amyloidosis
Group A strep (Streptococcus pyogenes)
- major cause of cellulitis - beta hemolysis - negative catalase - negative CAMP - no growth in 6.5% salt - susceptible to bacitracin
Fluorometry
- more sensitive than spectrophotometry - Both excitation and emission spectra are characteristics of the analyte - typically utilize monochromators or optical filters
Anti-A1
- naturally occurring antibody - Reactive @ 37˚C can sometimes destroy transfused A1 positive cells - A1 and A2 occur in 80% and 20% of the population respectively
Patients at risk for graft vs host
- neonates less than 4 months old - recipients of donor units known to be from a blood relative - patients receiving chemotherapy who are immunocompromised
Lipoproteins
- reduced LDL causes a decreased risk of atherosclerosis - elevated HDL causes a decreased risk of atherosclerosis - Elevated total cholesterol causes an increased risk of atherosclerosis
Family Enterobacteriaceae characteristics
- reduction of nitrates to nitrites - negative cytochrome oxidase reaction - fermentation of glucose and other carbohydrates
T lymphocytes
- secrete cytokines - comprise majority of cells in blood lymphocyte pool - help regulate immune response
Yersinia enterocolitica
- severe abdominal pain mimicking appendicitis but infects the mesenteric lymph nodes and may infect the appendix in turn - TSIA - A/A - H2S - negative - lysine - negative - indole - positive - urea - positive
Mycobacterium kansaii
- slow grower - cream to tan colored colonies when grown in the dark - development of yellow pigment upon exposure to light
Hybridization
- the process of single strands of nucleic acid bonding together to form double strands - can also be called annealing - complementary bases link together with hydrogen bonds - Can happen between a DNA strand and a strand of RNA
proper storage temperature for fresh frozen plasma
-20˚C
pH alteration of normal blood in a closed vessel standing at 37˚C for 1 hour is approximately
0.04 to 0.08 pH unit
A refrigerator used to store whole blood must be able to maintain a temperature in the ranges of
1-6˚C (unless it's going to be a source of platelets)
Criteria of donor RBC for exchange transfusions to treat any type of HDFN
1. less than or equal to 7 days old 2. Reconstituted with AB FFP 3. CMV negative 4. Negative for hemoglobin S 5. Irradiated
hs-CRP reference range
1.0 - 3.0 mg/L
The recommended temperature/time/pressure for routine steam sterilization of media is:
121˚C for 12-15 minutes at 15 PSI
The measurement of total glycosylated hemoglobin A1c is an effective means of assessing the average blood glucose levels over what period of time?
2-3 months
What is the maximum interval during which a recipient sample may be used for crossmatching if the patient has been recently transfused, has been pregnant within the past 3 months, or if relevant medical/transfusion history is unknown
3 days
If a patient experiences an AMI, at what point will the troponin I begin to increase and how long will it stay increased?
3-6 hours, 5-10 days
If a Brucella species is suspected in a blood culture it should be held for a minimum of how many days?
30
The shelf life of whole blood collected in CPDA-1 is
35 days
Proper temperature to use when crossmatching the presence of a cold antibody
37˚C
hemoglobin H globin chain configuration
4 beta chains
The normal range for urine pH
4.6 - 8.0
If parents have the blood group genotypes AA and BO, what is the possibility of having a child with a blood type of A?
50%
generally accepted as the lower threshold value for semen pH from fertile males
7.2
Platelets that are not collected by an apheresis method must be prepared within how many hours of the collection of whole blood?
8
Accepted interval between blood donations is
8 weeks
In a normal distribution of results, the mean value +/- 2 SDs will include what percentage of the population?
95%
Blood to anticoagulant ratio for coagulation tests
9:1
Insulin
Inhibits gluconeogenesisand the formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources such as amino acids, glycerol, and fatty acids
Which enzyme is responsible for joining the reverse-trascribed HIV DNA to the host cell's DNA?
Integrase
Necessary for the absorption of B12
Intrinsic factor
Which symptom of HDFN is associated with low levels of glucuronyl transferase
Jaundice
In order to identify an isolate as Yersinia enterocolytica, it must be lysine-negative and
K/A on Kligler's iron agar
This member of Enterobacteriacea gave these reactions: TSIA - A/A, gas, no H2S Ornithine - negative Lysine - positive Citrate - positive Urea - positive Phenylalanine - negative Motility - negative
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Nitric oxide is associated with the prevention of vaso-occlusion by decreasing cellular adherence to endothelium. Which amino acid is decreased in patients with sickle cell disease and is needed as a substrate to produce nitric oxide?
L-arginine
HBsAg
Late incubation, acute
Lewis blood group system phenotype that usually produces anti-Lea
Le(a--b-)
generally considered equivalent to CMV seronegative RBC for use in an exchange transfusion to a newborn
Leukoreduced RBC
Blood group system that may show a cell typing change during pregnancy
Lewis
Best type of microscopy for performing manual platelet counts
Light
Feta cheese
Listeria monocytogenes
Mycobacteria
Lowenstein-Jensen Media
one of the most common coagulation inhibitors
Lupus anticoagulant (anti-phospholipid antibody)
HLA-A and HLA-B antigens can be detected by
Lymphocyte cytotoxicity
Responsible for causing graft-versus-host reactions
Lymphocytes
Pluripotential stem cells are capable of producing
Lymphoid and myeloid stem cells
other mycobacterium species that cause tuberculosis
M. bovis M. Africanum M. microti
The hematology laboratory is experiencing instrument downtime. The laboratory has a back-up method for hemoglobin and hematocrit testing that is being used until the instrument is repaired. The hematologist calls and asks if you can provide any of the RBC indices. Which of the indices, if any, can you provide for the hematologist?
MCHC only
Shigella
MacConkey
In HDN
Maternal antibody against fetal antigen
Spectrophotometer
Measures absorbance of light at a specific wavelength
Coulometry
Measures amount of electricity passing between two electrodes
Osmometer
Measures change in vapor pressure
Nephlometer
Measures light scatter by particles
Assay using 24-hour urine considered the bet single screening test for pheochromocytoma
Metanephrines
Which assay using 24-hour urine is considered the best single screening test for pheochromocytoma?
Metanephrines
Organism that has been known to cause epidemic tinea capitis in children but almost never affects adults
Microsporum audouinii
MacConkey agar without crystal violet is a culture medium useful in the presumptive identification of
Mycobacterium fortuitum
Mycobacterium from slowest to most rapid growth
Mycobacterium malmoense Mycobacterium tuberculosis Mycobacterium gordonae Mycobacterium fortuitum
Auer rods are seen in the cytoplasm of blasts from which cell line
Myeloid
Characteristic that distinguishes vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecium and Enterococcus faecalis from other Enterococcus species?
Non-motility
The antibody most frequently present in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is directed against
Nuclear antigen
most prevalent blood type in the united states
O positive
When can a doctor order a panel made up of tests he/she specifically wants?
Only if the laboratory ensures that the ordering physician knows what tests are included in the panel or profile and has the appropriate procedure and diagnostic codes for each test
Acinetobacter species are similar to Neisseriacea with the exception that Acintobacter species are generally:
Oxidase negative
Blood group most associated with cold agglutinins
P
Mycoplasma
PPLO agar
Blood group that usually reacts the least strongly with anti-H
A1
Two tests helpful for documenting previous Streptococcal throat and skin infections
ASO titer Anti-DNase B
In absorption spectrophotometry
Absorbance is directly proportional to concentration
Group of conditions that increases the risk of HbS polymerization?
Acid pH, dehydration, increased level of 2,3 DPG
Unexpected positive reactions encountered during forward ABO typing may be due to
Acquired B antigen due to intestinal cancer
Bacterial species commonly found in association with deep tissue actinomycosis
Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
Anti-HBc IgM
Acute, convalescent
Anti-HBc Total
Acute, convalescent, recovery
Which adipokine is decreased in obesity, is anti-inflammatory, and increases insulin sensitivity
Adiponectin
Hemoglobin S is most common in which country?
African countries
After the second spin in the preparation of platelets from whole blood, the platelet products should be
Allowed to rest for 1-2 hours
Disorder that exhibits a genetic code that is incompatible to life
Alpha Thalassemia major
Which alpha thalassemia shows no anemia, although a slight decrease in the MCV and MCHC may be seen?
Alpha Thalassemia silent carrier
Voges proskauer
Alpha naphthol
The red pigment of a positive Voges Proskauer reaction is produced by reactions of
Alpha naphthol an diacetyl
Acute phase proteins
Alpha-1 antitrypsin C-reactive protein Fibrinogen Haptoglobin
Using an automated cell counter analyzer, an increased Red Cell Distribution Width (RDW) should correlate with
Anisocytosis (increased variation in red cell size)
What is the mechanism of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?
Antibodies directed against platelet factor 4 (PF-4) and heparin complex
Heparin interacts with ____________, which subsequently inhibits thrombin.
Antithrombin III
Sentinel laboratory
Any laboratory that performs microbial analysis, or refers specimens that may contain microbial agents. Based on the extent of service provided, sentinel laboratories are designated as basic or advanced
Which risk marker has both positive and negative cardiovascular risk integrated into its measurement?
ApoB/ApoA1
The phenotypic property of Saccharomyces yeast species that is helpful in establishing its species identification is
Ascospore production
A 70 year old man who had incurred a cerebral vascular accident three days previously was semicomatose and having difficulty breathing. He developed sudden fever overnight and was found to have pneumonia. Purulent material obtained through the intubation tube reveals a dense cluster of segmented neutrophils indicating acute infections and the presence of mixed bacteria including several gram positive and gram negative morphotypes. The most likely diagnosis is:
Aspiration pneumonia
C19 and C20 cell surface antigens both appear on what type of lymphocytes
B cells
Orthonitrophenyl-b-D-galactopyronosidase (ONPG) is produced by several bacterial species. It acts by cleaving the beta galactosidase bond of certain disaccharides, such as lactose. An ONPG-positive bacterial species, however, may appear as a "late lactose user" because of the absence of
B-galactoside permease
B antigen generally associated with mix field reaction
B3
group B antigen generally associated with a mixed field reaction
B3
Organism that displays "medusa head" on SBA after 18 hours of incubation at 35˚C
Bacillus anthrasis
During a routine inspection, a unit of unexpired blood was noticed to have a black color with numerous small clots. What is the likely cause for this observation?
Bacterial contamination
Pathogenic anaerobic bacteria most frequently isolated in clinical laboratories
Bacterioides fragilis
Which beta thalassemia shows no anemia and may not be detected using hemoglobin electrophoresis?
Beta thalassemia minima
An MCV is reported by the instrument as 82 fl. The MCV is flagged with a delta check alert as the previous MCV reported on this patient 12 hours earlier was 97 fL. What is the possible cause for this decrepancy?
Both specimens not from the same patient
The activation unit in the classical complement pathway
C4, C2, C3
Tumor markers elevated in more advanced stages of breast cancer
CA 15-3 CA 549
Tumor markes that are elevated in more advanced stages of breast cancer
CA 15-3 and CA 549
Spinal fluid cultures on a 3-day-old infant revealed beta-hemolytic, gram-positive cocci occurring in pairs and chains. The organism was catalase-negative and bile esculin-negative. Resistance to 0.04 U disk of bacitracin was noted. The other test necessary to identify this organism is a positive test by:
CAMP This case is typical for Streptococcus agalactiae (group B Strep)
Tests that perform better at ambient atmosphere
CAMP Bile solubility Novobiocin disk test
Streptococcus pneumoniae
CAMP negative alpha-hemolytic susceptible to optochin
markers expressed by a normal mature B cell
CD19 CD20 Kappa or Lambda
In HbSS blood, an increased amount of which of the following surface antigens on young sickle cells may allow platelets to form a bridge between the reticulocytes and endothelial cells, ultimately leading to vaso-occlusion?
CD36
Which cardiac marker is a regulator of myocyte contraction?
CK-MB isoforms
Clinical laboratory regulation that defines the personnel qualifications and responsibilities of the various positions in the clinical laboratory
CLIA
8-Hydroxyquinoline and 0-Cresolphthalein complexone reagent is commonly used in the determination of
Calcium
parathyroid hormone is important in the regulation of
Calcium and phosphate
A markedly elevated 5-hydroxyindole acetic acid (5-HIAA) determination is presumptive evidence for
Carcinoid tumor
P. vivax
Characteristically displays Schuffner's dots and often enlarged RBCs along with brownish granules. P. vivax can also have 12-24 merozoies in each cell, actually filling the entire RBC. This parasite also has very irregular shapes often referred to as "Ameboid"
Zollinger-Ellison syndrom
Characterized by large (usually 20-fold) elevation of gastrin. Tumor(s) in the pancreas, duodenum cause the stomach to make too much gastric acid, leading to peptic ulcers
The mechanism responsible for pathology in autoimmune diseases is
Circulating immune complexes
Myonecrosis
Clostridium perfringens
Carcinoma of the colon
Clostridium septicum
Gardnerella vaginalis
Columbia agar w/ blood
MCV 115, Hgb 7.5 gm/100ml, WBC 2,500/mm', platelets 75,000/mm3
Consistent with macrocytosis, anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia
Examples of organisms where molecular methods currently provide greater specificity in identification (compared to current phenotypic methods) include
Corynebacterium and related genera Nocardia and related genera Dimorphic mycologic pathogens
Cystine-tellurite blood agar is recommended for the isolation of which organism?
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
The serum medium and methylene blue stain originally described by Loeffler is helful in the identification of
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
automated method for measuring chloride which generates silver ions in the reaction is called
Coulometry
Risk management
Creation of policies and procedures and the implementation of practices that focus on prevention of future events that could result in negative patient outcomes
within three days at 28˚C a sputum specimen placed on Sabouraud's dextrose agar with chloramphenicol and cycloheximide produced moist, grayish growth, with a white aerial mycelium, the organism is most likely
Cryoprecipitated AHF
Infective stage for the majority of all intestinal amoebae is the
Cyst
Crystals and sediment found in acid urine include
Cystine, leucine, calcium oxalate, sodium urate, sulfonamide, tyrosine, uric acid, and amorphous urates
A stool from a two-year-old girl grew colonies on MacConkey agar, red colonies on XLD, and green colonies on HE without black centers. It was ornithine positive and indole negative. It should agglutinate in antisera of which serogroup?
D
Increased serum osmolality
Dehydration Diabetes insipidus
A hemoglobin F concentration of 100% may be seen in which beta thalassemia?
Delta-beta thalassemia major
What is the cause of neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (NAIT)?
Destruction of a neonate's platelets by alloantibodies crossing the placenta from the mother
serological test for the diagnosis of Q-fever
EIA or indirect immunoflourescence
A patient has a fasting glucose of 135 mg/dL What does this result indicate and what, if any, further action is recommended by the ADA?
Elevated FPG; needs further evaluation by a repeat or alternative test.
An alpha-hemolytic catalase negative, gram-positive coccus from a wound culture gave these additional results: A disc negative Bile esculin hydrolysis positive CAMP negative Na hippurate hydrolysis negative PYR positive
Enterococcus
A D test is performed on Gram-positive cocci to determine inducible resistance to clindamycin when the isolate is resistant to
Erythromycin
Best stock culture for quality control testing of oxidase production
Escerichia coli and Pseudomonas aeruginosa P. aeruginosa is oxidase positive E. coli is oxidase negative
Steak tartar
Eschericha coli 0157
most common cause of acute cystitis
Escherichia coli
During which stage in real-time PCR can the fluorescent signal start to be recorded?
Exponential stage
What is the antigen carried by most strains of Streptococcus anginosus
F - group F is the most common Lancefield antigen detected (~47%), associated with S. anginosus (milleri)
PT monitors
Factor VII
APTT
Factor VIII, Factor XI, Factor XII
APTT monitors
Factor VIII, Factor XI, Factor XII
The dissolution of a clot with 5 M urea indicates which one of the following factor deficiencies?
Factor XIII
The fibrin clot is stabilized by cross-linked fibrin strands and the activity of
Factor XIII
NCEP ATP III Criteria
Fasting blood glucose, triglycerides, HDL-C along with waist circumference and blood pressure
The properties of an antibody class are defined by the
Fc end of the molecule
Both PT and APTT
Fibrinogen (Factor II), Factor V, Factor X
Both PT and APTT
Fibrinogen (factor II), Factor V, Factor X
The Rh nomenclature which uses the letters DCE is found in which genetic model
Fisher-Race
Bioavailability
Fraction of the drug that is absorbed into systemic circulation
A microbiologist was surprised when he could not recover Helicobacter pylori from gastric biopsies in which organism were seen in the tissue sections. He was advised to switch from the Campy BAP selective medium to Skirrow's BA because the latter is
Free of cephalothin
What components can be shipped together with fresh frozen plasma?
Frozen RBCs and cryoprecipitate
Hepatic abscess
Fusobacterium necrophorum
Normocytic
G6PD deficiency, malaria
The most common method for the confirmation of serum barbituates is
Gas-liquid chromatography, mass spectrometry
Hydrogen ion concentration (pH) in blood is usually determined by means of which electrode?
Glass
Acute phase proteins generally fall into which category?
Glycoproteins
Infectious disease processes in which large numbers of activated macrophages and histiocytes are collected at the site of inflammation is called:
Granulomatous
A key laboratory characteristic by which Mycobacterium bovis can be separated from Mycobacterium tuberculosis is
Growth inhibition by thiopine-2-carboxylic acid hydrazide (T2H)
Organisms that have capsular material as a defense mechanism
H. influenzae K. pneumoniae N. meningitidis S. pneumoniae
Antigen marker most closely associated with transmission of HBV infections is
HBeAg
Hemorrhagic febrile disease in Brazil - purpuric fever is caused by
Haemophilus aegyptius
The satelliting of small colonies around Staphylococci and other bacterial species is always suspicious of
Haemophilus species
Hemoglobin that can be decreased in alpha thalassemia
Hb A Hb A2 Hb F
The heterozygous state of HbS that is referred to as sickle cell trait contains which of the following hemoglobins in combination with S?
HbA
The heterozygous state of HbS that is referred to as sickle cell trait contains which of the following hemoglobins in combination with S?
HbA Sickle cell trait is HbSA
Six months ago, a 55-year-old female had a fasting plasma glucose (FPG) greater than 200 mg/dL on two occasions. She was diagnosed as having type 2 diabetes and treatment was started. Along with routine FPG's which of the following tests would most likely be used to monitor glycemic control?
HbA1c
Body part that synthesizes and secretes BNP
Heart
Part of the body that synthesizes and secretes BNP
Heart
Salmonella, Shigella
Hektoen Enteric agar
What two glycoproteins are expressed on the surface of influenza A viruses and are used for subtyping of the viruses?
Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
If the red cell count is known, which of the following must be known in order to calculate the mean corpuscular volume?
Hematocrit
B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes are derived from
Hematopoietic stem cells
A phlebotomist at a local hospital recently had an accidental needle stick while drawing blood from a patient being treated for acute hepatitis B. Which serological marker from the patient would be of most value to the physician evaluating the phlebotomist's possible infection status?
Hepatitis B e-antigen (HBeAg) - this indicates that the virus is actively replicating and therefore the patient is very infectious
Low values of plasma ceruloplasmin are most associated with
High plasma copper values
Erythrocytes employed for the most common rapid slide test (MONOSPOT) for infectious mononucleosis
Horse
Scopulariopsis species
Hyaline molds that produce conidia in chains
Monoclonal antibodies are usually manufactured in vitro by using
Hybridomas
Consequence of HDFN most associated with neonatal death before or shortly after birth
Hydrops fetalis
Calcium and phosphorus levels were determined for a 4-year-old patient as follows: Ca - 14 mg/dL Phosphorus - 1mg/dL These results are MOST compatible with:
Hyperparathyroidism
Tertiary
Hypothalamus
confirmatory tests for HIV-1 antibodies
IFA western blot
viral and rickettsial infections are most reliably diagnosed by which laboratory technique
IFA testing
Christmas factor
IX
Antibody predominately associated with the secondary antibody response
IgG
Patients with Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia demonstrate excessively increased concentration of which immunoglobulin
IgM
Patients with Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia demonstrate excessively increased concentrations of which immunoglobulin
IgM
Confirmation method for the presence of Bence-Jones protein in the urine
Immunofixation
Which of the following viruses is most often reported as the cause of infection leading to aplastic crisis in a patient with sickle cell disease?
Parvovirus B19
Unique colony morphology feature of Rhodotorula growing on SDA
Pink-red/orange pigment
A WBC stained within Wright's stain has the following characteristics: - Round eccentric nucleus with clumped chromatin pattern - 1:1 nucleus to cytoplasm ratio - Basophilic cytoplasm - Cresent-shaped clear area next to nucleus What is the most likely identification of this cell?
Plasma cell
A patient has a history of repeated spontaneous abortion. Coagulation studies reveal an elevated APTT, normal PT, normal platelet function, and normal clotting time. Schistocytes were seen on the peripheral blood smear. Which test should be performed to determine if the patient has lupus anticoagulant?
Platelet neutralization test
Best method for examination of synovial crystals
Polarized light
RBC formation of large amounts of hemoglobin usually begins in which developmental stage?
Polychromatic normoblast
When a patient has a bile duct obstruction, the bilirubin test portion of the reagent strip is:
Positive because conjugated bilirubin is present and is excreted by the kidneys
A 40-year-old female receives two units of RBCs during a surgical procedure. The patient has no prior history of transfusions. Seven days later, she presents with extensive bruising of the extremities and bleeding of the gums with no additional symptoms. Her platelet count is 5 X 10(9)/L (reference interval 150-400 X 10(9)/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Post transfusion purpura (PTP)
Why is Rh immune globulin (RhIg) administered within 72 hours of delivery or miscarriage to an Rh-negative mother if the newborn is found to be D-positive or weak-D positive?
Prevent fetal cells from initially sensitizing the mother
Root canal abscess
Prevotella melanogenica
Test helpful in separating Pseudomonas aeruginosa from other members of the Pseudomonas family
Production of pyocyanin pigment
Glucagon & epinephrine
Promote glycogenolysis, conversion of glycogen to glucose, which increases plasma glucose
Contributes to specific gravity but not to osmolality
Protein
Sulfosalicylic acid can be used to confirm the results of which test on a urine chemical reagent strip?
Protein
What has happened in a titer, if tubes #5-7 show a stronger titer than tubes #1-4
Prozone reaction
Supplement that must be added to blood culture medium to recover Streptococcus defectivus and Streptococcus adjacens in cases of "culture negative endocarditis"
Pyridoxyl (active form of B6
Most likely phenotype for a white male with the Rh antigens C, c, D, E, e
R1R2
MCV is calculated using which of the following parameters:
RBC and Hct
The core (genome) of the HIV viron contains
RNA
Gastric biopsy specimen reveals few thin curved and S-shaped bacteria, this is suspicious for Helicobacter pylori. An additional test helpful in confirming this identification
Rapid urease The CLO test is based on the rapid red conversion of the plug of urea agar after inoculation with bits of biopsy material.
Titer
Reciprocal of maximum reactive dilution
Anti-HBs
Recovery
Given the following results, what is the immune status of the patient? HBsAg: negative HBeAg: negative Anti-HBc: positive Anti-HBs: positive
Recovery
Micrococcus susceptibility
Resistant to furazolidone Susceptible to bacitracin and novobiocin
method for confirmation of influenza A H1N1 subtype infection
Reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR)
antibodies that can be enhanced using enzyme panels during antibody identification in the blood bank
Rh Lewis Kidd
What is the most likely identification of a pink yeast isolate, recovered from respiratory secretions of a patient with AIDs, that gave the following results: Urease - positive Blastophores - positive Arthrospores - negative
Rhodotorula spp.
Rocky mountain spotted fever
Rickettsia rickettsii
Egg nog
Salmonella enteriditis
Lysine iron agar is a less commonly used culture medium that is most helpful in the identification of
Salmonella enteriditis
Pituitary gland
Secondary
Patients with Cushing syndrom typically exhibit
Serum cortisol concentrations greater than 15 mg/dL
Among the nonfermeters, the only bacterial species to produce H2S is
Shewanella putrifaciens
ALL (Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia)
Increased WBC count along with the presence of TdT (terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase) positive blasts. TdT will stain lymphoblasts positive and myeloblasts negative
Chryseobacterium is the new genus name for the bacterium formerly called Flavobacterium meningosepticum, an important agent of neonatal meningitis. The biochemical characteristic that is unique for the family Flavobacteriaceae among nonfermenters is
Indole production
What is successful molecular identification of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) based upon?
Simultaneous detection of the S. aureus orfX gene and several variants of the mecA gene
The sites of active hematopoiesis in the adult are:
Skull Sternum Scapula Pelvis
SyBr Green
Stain used to detect separated nucleic acids
Patients with what antibody to the following antigen are immune to Hepatitis B
Surface antigen
Nephrotic syndrome
Swelling Weight gain from fluid retention poor appetite high blood pressure
The TPI, VDRL, RPR, and Kahn tests are used to provide presumptive identification of which infection?
Syphilis, Treponema pallidum
Not performing direct antiglobulin tests (DATs) on newborns born to group O Rh mothers is acceptable good practice, providing there is appropriate surveillance and follow-up to detect hyperbilirubinemia
TRUE
Klebsiella pneumonia
TSI: A/A Indole: negative MR: negative VP: positive Citrate: positive H2S: negative Urea: positive Motility: negative Ornithine: negative Anibiotic susceptibility: carboxicillin and ampicillin resistant, all others sensitive
Shigella sonnei
TSIA - K/A, no gas, no H2S Citrate - negative Lysine - negative Indole - negative
Two general categories of nucleic acid amplification (NAA) techniques
Target amplification and signal amplification
NASBA
Target amplification using 3 enzymes and no thermal cycling
PCR
Target amplification using DNA polymerase and thermal cycling
TMA
Target amplification using reverse transcriptase. No thermal cycling needed
test for the diagnosis of hairy-cell leukemia
Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase test
Anatomic barriers of the innate immune system
Tears and saliva Epidermis Low pH Mucous membranes
Hypothalamus
Tertiary
Neisseria gonococci and Neisseria meningococci have the ability to oxidize
Tetramethyl-phenylenediamine dihydrochloride
Neisseria
Thayer-Martin media
Denaturation
The DNA is heated to break the hydrogen bond resulting in single stranded DNA
Denaturation
The DNA is heated to break the hydrogen bonds resulting in single stranded DNA
Extension
The DNA polymerase synthesize new strands of DNA
Annealing
The DNA primers attach to the DNA strands
In what way are the ABO serum antibodies unique among blood group systems?
The antibodies are naturally occurring in the serum
What effect may bacterial contamination have on urine pH?
The bacteria may make the pH more alkaline
aPTT is used to evaluate
The intrinsic pathway Deficiencies of protein C, protein S, and antithrombin III cause hypercoagulability
Sensitivity
The percentage of patients with a disease who will have a positive test
Avidity
The strength in which a multivalent antibody binds a multivalent antigen
HBeAg - Hepatitis B "e" antigen
The virus is actively replicating and therefore the patient is very infectious
Autoantibody that binds to TSH receptor sites on thyroid cell membranes preventing thyroid-stimulating hormone binding
Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins
Absolute cell count
Total count X % of cells counted
Streptococcus agalactiae (group B) is associated with what conditions
Toxic shock syndrome UTI in pregnant women Osteomyelitis in infant
Total iron-binding capacity measures the serum iron transporting capacity of
Transferrin
What organism causes White Piedra which infects hair on the face, scalp, and body areas?
Trichsporon beigelii
Chylomicrons are primarily composed of
Triglycerides
Signs and symptoms that may be associated with immediate transfusion reaction, but not usually associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
Unexplained bleeding from surgical site
Specimen most sensitive for detecting active CMV infection
Urine
Urine chemical reagent strip test based on the Erlich-aldehyde reaction
Urobilinogen
Densitometry
Uses an integrator to evaluate the area under each peak on an electrophoregram
The Red Cell Distribution (RDW) in alpha thalassemia is
Usually increased
PT
VII
Stable factor
VII
Anti-hemophiliac factor
VIII
A staphyococcus aureus was recovered from a wound infection and tested for susceptibility using the CLSI guidelines for disk diffusion testing. The following results were detected: Penicillin - R Cefoxitin - R Oxacillin - S Cephalothin - S Vancomycin - S Which drug must be reported as susceptible?
Vancomycin
The ultimate end product of both epinephrine and norepinephrine metabolism is
Vanillylmandellic acid (VMA)
The end product of the fermentative metabolism that characterizes members of enterobacteriaceae is
Various mixed acids
Oysters on the half shell
Vibrio vulnificus
Stuart factor
X
Warfarin inhibits all the following coagulation factors except
XI
When performing your mixing study, you aliquot your sample plasma and the pooled normal plasma to create your "mix". You then place the sample in a water bath to incubate for 90 minutes before running your new mixed sample. What is the problem with the steps involved in the procedure above?
You have not run a PT or aPTT on the new mix before incubating
For the ANA test to be positive what must be present in the nucleus of the interphase cell?
a clearly disernible pattern
Protein S
a glycoprotein involved in coagulation that is not considered an acute phase protein
lymphokine
a soluble mediator produced by lymphocytes
What is the most prudent step to follow to select units for cross-match after recipient antibodies have been identified?
antigen type patient cells and any donor cells to be cross-matched
poor sample application in electrophoresis
can tear the gel and also cause distorted bands
Pasteurellosis
cats
Wick Flow
caused by excess heat during electrophoresis and can cause distorted bands
If a patient has an antibody to a low-frequency antigen such as Kpa or Jsa how would this impact the ability to find compatible blood and to identify the antibody?
easy to find compatible blood but difficult to identify the antibody
Found in primary hyperparathyroidism
elevated serum calcium and decreased serum phosphorus
Hereditary hemochromatosis laboratory findings
elevated transferrin saturation presence of HFE mutation elevated serum ferritin
arbovirus
encephalitis
The prozone effect (when performing a screening titer) is most likely to result in
false negative
The prozone effect is most likely to result in
false negative
AHG addition delayed for 40 minutes or more
false-negative reaction
Aeromonas hydrophila
fermenter
Yersinia enterocolitica
fermenter
Phenylalanine deaminase
ferric chloride
parvovirus
fifth disease
Constitutes the alpha hemoglobin chain coding
four gene loci; two on each chromosome 16
Morphologic characteristics associated with the Chediak-Higashi syndrome are
giant lysosomal granules
Hematuria
glomerulonephritis, renal calculi, pyelonephritis
Carbohydrate utilization of Neisseria gonorhoeae
glucose only
Carbohydrate ultization of Neisseria lactamica
glucose, maltose, and lactose
Carbohydrate utilization of Neisseria meningitis
glucose, maltose, and sucrose
Substance that is conjugated with the "indirect" bilirubin to form "direct" bilirubin
glucuronic acid
Tests performed to assess the average plasma glucose level that an individual maintained during the previous 10 week to 12 week period
glycated hemoglobin
Leuconostoc mesenteroides
gram positive - resistant to Vancomycin
Erysipelothrix rhusiophatiae
gram positive that produces H2S
Vibrio species
gram-negative, oxidase positive bacilli which are inhabitants of water
Asaccharolytic use of glucose would be indicated by what reaction in OF glucose tubes
green in both tubes with a little blue at the top of the open tube
Bacteroides fragilis
growth on 20% bile agar indole negative esculin hydrolysis positive lecithinase negative Most commonly recovered anaerobe
cells that stain positive with acid phosphatase, and are not inhibited with tartrate, are characteristically seen in
hairy cell leukemia
Dolichos biflorus lectin
has Anti-A1 specificity
gp120 protein spike (HIV)
helps the virus attach to macrophages. The spikes themselves do not penetrate the cell membrane
Hemoglobinuria
hemolytic anemia, severe burns
Substances considered iron storage compounds
hemosiderin ferritin
hepadnivirus
hepatitis
Conditions associated with an increase of alpha-fetoprotein
hepatocellular carcinoma, viral hepatitis, testicular tumors, pancreatic cancer
Spherocytes are associated with
hereditary spherocytosis autoimmune hemolytic anemia
HFE genotype most common in patients with hereditary hemochromatosis (HH)
homozygous for C282Y
Streptomyces asteroides
hydrolyzes casein, tyrosine, xanthine, and urea
FDA approved therapeutic agent for treating sickle cell patients
hydroxyurea
Nephrotic syndrome is associated with what laboratory findings
increased proteinuria decreased serum albumin edema
A patient presents with an elevation of unconjugated bilirubin, normal serum alkaline phosphatase, normal liver enzymes, and no biliruibin in the urine. This combination would suggest:
increased rate of hemolysis
Macro-amylasemia
increased serum amylase normal to low urine amylase
pilocarpine is used to
induce the sweat secretion during iontophoresis to collect sweat for chloride analysis
Aplastic anemia may be caused by
infections chemical agent ionizing radiation
Penicillin G, ampicllin, carbenicillin, and methicillin are antimicrobial agents whose main function is to
inhibit cell wall synthesis
Cycloheximide
inhibits most saprophytic molds but is not active against yeasts and dermatophytes
The lymphokine most important for increased natural killer cell activity and decreased viral replication in the cells is:
interferon gamma
Most significant cause of decreased haptoglobin levels
intravascular hemolysis
microcytic
iron deficiency, thalassemia
Serum hemolytic complement level (CH50)
is a measure of total complement activity
CD45
leukocytes
Malassezia furfur
light brown circular lesions on upper back and torso
The part of the immunoglobulin molecule that may be kappa or lambda chains is
light chains
Erysipelothrix rhusiophatiae
localized infection
Staphylococcus aureus
localized infection
Which type of lipoprotein transports the majority of cholesterol to cells for steroid hormone synthesis or cell membrane incorporation?
low density lipoproteins
45-75% of WBCs normally seen in the peripheral blood of infants
lymphocytes
mast cell
marrow cell, highly granular basophilic cytoplasm, does not show nuclear lobation
When testing a patient with a warm autoantibody what is the most important concern?
masking of other clinically significant antibodies
paramyxovirus
measles-mumps
Tubidimetry
measures the decrease in incident light intensity
Acidic urine pH
meat-filled diet high urine glucose
Alkaline urine pH
metabolic alkalosis vegetarian diet
age group when hereditary hemochromatosis is most likely to be initially detected based on clinical symptoms
middle age
MIC
minimum inhibitory concentration
most pathogens enter the body through
mucous membranes
Fusarium species is commonly associated with
mycotic keratitis (fungal eye infections)
Proteins in a buffer that sets the pH at 8.6 will become
negatively charged and migrate toward anode
Carbohydrate utilization of Neisseria catarrhalis
no reactions
Salmonella spp.
non-lactose fermenttion sucrose fermentation positive on TSIA H2S positive lysine decarboxylase positive urea negative indole negative ornithine positive
Shigella
non-motile
Antibody most frequently present in systemic lupus erytematosus (SLE) is directed against:
nuclear antigen
Alkaline phosphatase is increased in
obstructive jaundice
Nocardia asteroides
one of the key characteristics to identification of Nocardia asteroides is its inability to hydrolyze tyrosine, casein, or xanthine. Nitrates are reduced to nitrites
The relationship between dietary iron and iron absorption in a healthy individual
only a small percentage of dietary iron is absorbed and used
M. xenopi
optimum growth is 42˚C which allows it to survive and replicate as an environmental contaminant in hot water systems
Aspergillus niger is commonly associated with
otitis externa and can also be associated with sinusitis
CA125
ovarian cancer
Acinetobacter baumannii
oxidizer
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
oxidizer
When few, purple inclusions are found in erythrocytes, they can be confirmed as containing iron by:
performing a prussian blue stain
surfactant is primarily composed of
phosphatidylcholine and other phospholipids
Brucellosis
pigs
Follicle stimuating hormone (FSH) is produced by
pituitary
Secondary
pituitary
Multiple Myeloma diagnosis
plasma cells in bone marrow elevated serum IgG Rouleaux formation on blood film
Which type of blood component is most implicated in bacterial contamination?
platelets
Prostacyclin
potent inhibitor of platelet aggregation released by endothelial cells
Target gland
primary
Scotochromogens
produce deep yellow to orange pigmented colonies when grown in either the light or dark
Pseudomonas stutzeri
produces dry, wrinkled, gray-yellow colonies on BA
Test helpful in separating Pseudomonas aeruginosa from other members of the Pseudomonas family
production of pyocyanin pigment
A specimen drawn from an indwelling catheter that was contaminated by heparin would be indicated by
prolonged aPTT and normal reptilase time test
organs directly involved with the production of sperm
prostate seminal vesicles bulbourethral gland
Sodium theisulfate is often added to selective culture media to
provide sulfur atoms for H2S positive isolates
What has happened in a titer, if tubes #5-7 show a stronger titer than tubes #1-4
prozone reaction
Tularemia
rabbits
precision is a measure of
random variability
Cs137
used as a source for irradiation of blood products
Bile solubility
used to differentiate between S. pneumoniae and veridans Strep - colonies of S. pneumoniae are bile soluble
RDW is an indication of
variability of RBC volume
Pharmacokinetic
what the body does to a drug
Francisella tularensis
wild rabbits
Streptobacillus moniliformis
wild rats
Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
"mariner's wheel"
Celsius to Fahrenheit conversion
(9/5 X degree Celsius) + 32
Bacitracin susceptibility is useful for
- Distinguishing Staphylococci from Micrococci - Presumptive identification of Group A Streptococci
The pathogenicity of Staphylococcus aureus, as well as the frequency with which this organism produces infections, can be attributed to:
- Exfoliative toxin and enterotoxins - Natural colonization/reservoir for infection - Hyaluronidase
A low CSF glucose level is associated with
- Fungal meningitis - Toxoplasmosis - Hypglycemia - Bacterial meningitis
Histoplasma capsulatum
- Large, one-celled, smooth-to-tuberculate macroconidia, and smooth or echinulate microconidia are typical of mycelial phase growth - Usually intracellular infection
What information can you find on the label affixed to the primary container of a hazardous chemical?
- Manufacturer's name and contact information - Hazard statements - Precautionary information including first aid information - Signal words such as "danger" or "warning"
Rickettsia
- Obligate intracellular parasites - Gram negative bacilli - Associated diseases are usually diagnosed by serology
M:E Ratio
- The erythroid tally/total used in calculating the M:E ratio is the sum of all nucleated red cell precursors. - WBCs used in the myeloid tally/total used to calculate the M:E ratio include neutrophil precursors as well as eosinophil precursors and basophil precursors. - Lymphocytes and monocytes/histiocytes are not counted in the evaluation of the M:E ratio - The M:E should always be interpreted in context with the overall bone marrow cellularity
Why are ANA positive samples titered?
- To determine how much antibody is present in the sample. - to look for multiple ANA patterns
Methods used to identify prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- Tuberculin skin test - Blood tests known as interferon-gamma release assay
Anti-A1
- a naturally occurring antibody - reactive at 37˚C can sometimes destroy transfused A1 positive cells - A1 and A2 occur in 80 and 20% of the blood type A population, respectively
Enzymes used to determine hepatobiliary dysfunction
- alkaline phosphatase - gamma-glutamyltransferase - 5'-nucleotidase
essential components of compatibility testing
- antibody screen on recipients serum - major crossmatch or computer crossmatch - ABO and Rh typing recipient
post-transfusion purpura symptoms
- appearance of purpura - platelet count of less than 10,000 u/L - mucosal membrane bleeding
False positive tests for protein on a urine reagent strip may be caused by
- bacterial contamination - urine that has remained at room temperature for an extended period of time - alkaline medication
Characteristics of CSF if blood is due to subarachnoid hemorrhage?
- blood is evenly distributed in all tubes - supernatant is pink when centrifuged within one hour
Streptococcus pyogenes
- catalase negative - susceptible to bacitracin - resistant to SXT - CAMP negative
Moraxella lacunata
- cause of purulent conjunctivitis - colonies have a halo appearance due to pitting
actions appropriate for the investigation of a prolonged PT test
- check for clots in the sample - check patient history - check for anticoagulant therapy
primary hemostasitic processes resulting from vascular damage
- collagen activates glycoprotein IIb/IIIa during platelet activation - von willebrand factor mediates platelet adhesion - platelet granule release and fibrinogen mediate platelet aggregation rapid vascular constriction occurs when there is vascular injury in order to constrict the amount of blood that escapes the vessels; ultimately preventing massive blood loss
Platelet neutralization tests
- confirmatory test that can be used to determine if a patient has circulating lupus antibody or lupus anticoagulant - Principle: use of a freeze-thawed platelet suspension that, when mixed with the patient plasma, will neutralize the anti-phospholipid antibodies (lupus anticoagulant) present and allow for a corrected aPTT result upon retesting
possible cause of cell death after HIV infection
- cytoplasmic leakage - depletion of T-lymphocytes, replaced by syncytia - depletion of cellular components
Rh antigen found in highest frequency in Caucasian population
e
Stuart-Prower Factor deficiency
abnormal - Prothrombin time (PT) - activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) - Russel Viper Venom Test (dRVVT)
high specificity but low sensitivity
accurately identifies the absence of disease, has few false positives
Anti-HBc IgM
acute, convalescent
Anti-HBc total
acute, convalescent, recovery
Enzymes used to determine hepatobiliary dysfunction
alkaline phosphatase gamma-glutamyltransferase 5'-nucleotidase
most common procedure for donating whole blood for use by the general population
allogenic donation
Streptococcus pneumoniae
alpha hemolytic
Streptococcus saliarius
alpha hemolytic
Nitrate reduction
alpha naphthalamine
Test that best correlates with the severity of hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)
amniotic fluid bilirubin
TIBC
an indirect measurement of transferrin - transferrin binds iron in the serum, and is proportional to total iron-binding capacity.
Proglottid
anatomical feature of a tapeworm that possesses both male and female reproductive structures
Production of neutral 17-ketosteroids is a measure of
androgen production
Characteristics often associated with alpha thalassemia intermedia
anemia, splenomegaly
Prozone
antibody excess
competitive radioimmunassay procedure
antibody will react equally with labeled and unlabeled antigen
Postzone
antigen excess
Streptococcus agalactiae
beta hemolytic
Streptococcus pyogenes
beta hemolytic
Fecal urobilinogen level may be markedly decreased because of
biliary obstruction
hh genotype gives rise to
bombay phenotype
Haemophilus influenzae requires
both X & V factors
Post transfusion purpura (PTP)
caused by platelet specific antibodies in a patient who has been previously exposed to platelet antigens through pregnancy or transfusion. The most frequently identified antibody is Anti-PLA1, which reacts with platelet antigen HPA-1a. The platelet antibody binds to the platelet surface, which allows for the extravascular removal through liver or the spleen. The patient's own platelets are destroyed as well aggravating the thrombocytopenia.
Elevation of serum creatine kinase may be associated with
cerebrovascular accident (stroke) vigorous exercise Duschenne muscular dystrophy intramuscular injections
Major property of antidiuretic hormone
changes distal tubule water permeability
Salmonellosis
chicken
The buffering capacity of blood is maintained by a reversible exchange process between bicarbonate and
chloride
Neisseria haemophilus
chocolate agar
Anaerobes
chopped meat broth
Phialophora verrucosum is associated with
chromomycosis
Mycobacterium fortuitum
chronic ear pain - ear infection iron uptake, nitrate, arysulfatase - positive growth on MacConkey agar without crystal violet in five days
macrocytic
chronic liver disease, vitamin B12 deficiency
Fusarium
common saprobe and cause of keratitis
Procedure that can be used to evaluate severity of HDFN and can also be used to deliver intravenous transfusions
cordocentesis
organism commonly cultured from the nasopharynx of healthy people but is rarely pathogenic
corynebacterium species
blood component that will provide the best source of fibrinogen for a patient with hypofibronogenemia
cryoprecipitate
Brucella abortis
dairy cattle
TSH in primary hyperthyroidism
decreased
A zinc deficiency in the elderly is often caused by
decreased intake and absorption
Laboratory test result that indicates that a sickle cell patient is in aplastic crisis
decreased reticulocyte count
what other hemoglobin gene loci occur on the same chromosome as the beta chain loci?
delta and gamma
an increase in procalcitonin in a patient diagnosed with sepsis indicates
deterioration in the patient's condition
In order to speciate a swarming proteus organsim found on eosin methylene blue agar plate, the best approach would be to:
determine indole productions, phenylalanine and urease activity P. mirabilis is usually: Indole - negative Urease - positive Phenylalanine - positive
Rise of antibodies is
diagnostic
Smear techniques for processing bone marrow aspirate samples
differential smear coverslip smear pull prep T-prep
Indole
dimenthylaminobenzaldehyde
Fluorescent In Situ Hybridization (FISH)
direct nucleic acid test that does not use amplification
nephelometry
directly measures the amount of light scattered by particles in a solution
Salmonella, shigella
disseminated infection
Vibrio vulnificus
disseminated infection
Pasteurella multocida
domestic cats
The major crossmatch is performed using
donor's red cells and recipient's serum or plasma
When are data collected in a real-time PCR procedure?
during nucleic acid amplification
Precipitation
reaction that occurs when a soluble antigen is mixed with its specific antibody
Titer is best defined as
reciprocal of maximum reactive dilution
Anti-HBs
recovery
The degree in which a measure is consistent in producing the same results when measuring the same analyte is called
reliability
IgM antibodies directed against red cells generally react best at
room temperature
The quality of the test to show a positive result in the presence of disease it was designed to detect is known as
sensitivity
Characteristic features of acute iron deficiency anemia
serum iron decreased, transferrin saturation decreased, TIBC increased
Post transfusion purpura (PTP) symptoms
severe thrombocytopenia one week after transfusion
Fresh frozen plasma
should be transfused within 24 hours of thawing
bDNA
signal amplification using alkaline phosphatase and no thermal cycling
Scedosporium apiospermum is commonly associated with
sinusitis
Adult Ascaris lumbricoides worms live in the
small intestines
Contributes the most to serum osmolality
sodium
Routine electrolyte (lytes) panel
sodium, potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate
Pappenheimer bodies are usually seen in patients who have
splenectomies
Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP)
stain used to differentiate a neutrophilic leukemoid reaction from chronic myelogenous leukemia LAP scores are characteristically low or absent in CML (<15) LAP scores are characteristically high in leukamoid reaction (>100)
The international Normalized Ratio (INR) is a calculation used to
standardize PT results between different reagent sensitivities
Alcaligenes faecalis (odorans)
sweet odor of freshly peeled apples
Primary
target gland
The measurement of 17-ketosteroids in urine is performed to assess primarily which organs?
testes and adrenal cortex
reticulocyte count evaluates
the activity of bone marrow
What is the most helpful feature in differentiating the Zygomycetes from the other hyaline molds in clinical mycology laboratory?
the production of spores with sporangia
ergonomics
the study of human capabilities in relation to work demands
Circulating organic iodine is found primarily in the form of
thyroxine
Trichophyton rubrum is commonly associated with
tinea pedis, an itching, scaling skin infection of the feet
lipid test least affected by the fasting status of the patient
total cholesterol
TIBC (total iron binding capacity) is an indirect measurement of
transferrin
Lipemia in a serum sample is most likely caused by an increase in serum levels of
triglycerides
The iodine prep is least helful in the identification of what parasitic stage
trophozoites trophs are not generally motile in iodine stained wet preps. Typically a small drop of iodine stain may be placed on the slide prior to adding the coverslip. The slide is then thoroughly examined microscopically for larvae, eggs, and cysts
