rehab exam

Which of the following tests requires the patient to stand with feet together and arms at the side with eyes open and then closed for 20 seconds each? A. Romberg test B. Balance Error Scoring System test C. Single-leg stance test D. Functional reach test

..

__________ is the ability to detect movement.

...

_______________ the body's ability to detect and sense limb position and movement providing a conscious awareness of motion and location of body parts in space

...

Identify the three primary factors related to increased tensile strength of the scar matrix during scar maturation.

1. Collagen transition 2. increased number of stronger collagen cross-links 3. linear alignment of collagen fibers

the progression of events leading to secondary hypoxic/ischemic injury once a soft tissue injury

1. Vasodilation and increased cell permeability result in exudation and increased blood viscosity 2. Edema formation - fluid collection outside of vessels in interstitial spaces due to vascular and cellular responses 3. Increased interstitial pressure - excess fluid (edema) creates increased pressure 4. Ischemia - increased pressure reduces the flow of blood 5. Hypoxia - decreased blood supply lowers available oxygen 6. cellular necrosis - inadequate oxygen levels results in tissue death

Synthesis of Type III collagen begins within ______ hours after injury with significant deposition in the damaged area within _____ days.

24, 4

Which of the following is an example of using the "cause of the cause" principle? A. A baseball pitcher complaining of shoulder pain should be treated for the factors that cause the shoulder pain, such as dysfunctional mechanics, rather than just treating the shoulder pain B. When a football player tears his Achilles tendon, all objective findings should be grouped together to look for a common cause instead of considering each finding individually C. When considering the history of a tennis player with hip pain, each part of her history is equally important and all parts, no matter how insignificant, should be considered when evaluating her and making a diagnosis D. A long jumper complaining of knee pain should be treated with a combination of therapeutic exercise and therapeutic modalities to return to activity as soon as safely possible.

A. A baseball pitcher complaining of shoulder pain should be treated for the factors that cause the shoulder pain, such as dysfunctional mechanics, rather than just treating the shoulder pain

Which of the following would not be marked as an error when taking the Balance Error Scoring System test? A. Abducting hip 15 degrees B. Taking a hand off the hip C. Opening eyes D. Rear foot coming up off the ground

A. Abducting hip 15 degrees

To develop a plan of treatment, the rehabilitation clinician must identify the patient's rehabilitation diagnosis. A differential diagnosis is the basis from which the rehabilitation diagnosis is selected. The clinician must be able to ____________ to create a differential diagnosis. A. All of the these B. recognize signs, symptoms, and causes of various diagnoses C. use deductive reasoning to identify the correct rehabilitation diagnosis D. compare the patient's signs, symptoms, and history with those of known conditions

A. All of the these

Which of the following does not serve as a distal attachment for the internal oblique? A. Anterior superior iliac spine B. Iliopsoas fascia C. Inguinal ligament D. Iliac crest

A. Anterior superior iliac spine

Failure to receive informed consent from an athlete before providing treatment could result in A. Battery B. Gross negligence C. Misfeasance D. Malpractice

A. Battery

How often must a patient be evaluated after the initial evaluation? A. Before and after every subsequent treatment B. At least once per week C. At least three times per week D. Before every subsequent treatment

A. Before and after every subsequent treatment

As related to the biological events of connective tissue repair, substances such as serotonin, histamine, and prostaglandins are most accurately described as: A. Chemical mediators B. Growth factors C. Coagulation factors D. Vitamins

A. Chemical mediators

Which of the following is not true about the psoas major muscle? A. Contraction decreases spinal compression B. Provides stability to the spine during hip flexion C. Contributes to static pelvic posture affecting the lumbar spine D. Provides stability to the pelvis during hip flexion

A. Contraction decreases spinal compression

__________ are found near the musculotendinous junction and they monitor muscle __________. A. Golgi tendon organs; tension B. Muscle spindles; stretch C. Muscle spindles; tension D. Golgi tendon organs; stretch

A. Golgi tendon organs; tension

Following an injury or surgery, when should the rehabilitation process be initiated? A. Immediately after B. When pain subsides C. 24 hours later D. 3 to 4 days later

A. Immediately after

What is the correct progression order of fracture healing? A. Inflammation, soft callus formation, hard callus formation, bone remodeling B. Inflammation, hard callus formation, soft callus formation, bone remodeling C. Inflammation, hard callus formation, bone remodeling, soft callus formation D. Inflammation, bone remodeling, hard callus formation, soft callus formation

A. Inflammation, soft callus formation, hard callus formation, bone remodeling

Which of the following muscles acting on the core has attachments from spinous process to spinous process? A. Interspinales B. Multifidus C. Longissimus D. Intertransversarii

A. Interspinales

Of the following, which is true regarding collagen? A. It is synthesized by fibroblasts. B. It is the principal component of ground substance. C. It is formed by the conversion of fibrin to fibrinogen. D. Type III is stronger than Type I

A. It is synthesized by fibroblasts.

When performing core stability, which of the following is incorporated with static stability? A. Maintaining posture B. Coordination of endurance C. Production of movement D. Coordination of flexibility

A. Maintaining posture

Treatment outcomes can be used to __________________. A. Rationalize treatment and evaluate the effectiveness of a facility's or individual's treatment B. Evaluate the effectiveness of a facility's or individual's treatment C. Establish national evaluation of care D. Rationalize treatment

A. Rationalize treatment and evaluate the effectiveness of a facility's or individual's treatment

Which of the following muscles does not make up the abdominal wall? A. Rectus abdominis B. Transverse abdominis C. External obliques D. Internal obliques

A. Rectus abdominis

Which of the following systems primarily provides feedback regarding the body's position in space relative to other body parts? A. Somatosensory B. Auditory C. Visual D. Vestibular

A. Somatosensory

Which of the following is not true regarding the feedback and feed forward mechanisms of the somatosensory system? A. The feedback mechanism has no delay in motor response B. Feedback requires sensory information to be used by the CNS to coordinate muscle activity C. Feedback is a reactive response while feed forward is a preparatory response D. Feed-forward allows you to tense your muscles to prevent injury based on your prior knowledge

A. The feedback mechanism has no delay in motor response

Mechanoreceptors are located throughout the body in muscles, tendons, and joints to provide sensory awareness of: A. The position of a joint B. The rate of movement at a joint C. The temperature of a joint D. The pain in a joint

A. The position of a joint

Which of the following is not true concerning the rectus abdominis muscle? A. The primary function is stabilization of the core. B. The muscle is sectioned by intramuscular tendons. C. It has a proximal attachment on the xiphoid process. D. It has a distal attachment on the pubic rami.

A. The primary function is stabilization of the core.

During the repair process following tissue injury, the newly developing collagen fibrils are: A. Thin and unorganized B. Laid down in alignment exactly replicating the fibers that were damaged C. Slow to be deposited D. Ready to withstand normal stresses by 3 weeks

A. Thin and unorganized

Which of the following is not a distal attachment site for the external oblique? A. Thoracolumbar fascia B. Linea alba C. Iliac crest D. Pubis

A. Thoracolumbar fascia

Which type of collagen has large fiber sizes, a large number of intermolecular cross links, and an organized fiber orientation? A. Type I B. Type III C. Type II

A. Type I

A soccer player sees that an opponent is about to collide with her. To maintain balance, she would use which of the following types of neuromuscular control? A. anticipatory B. adaptive C. reactive

A. anticipatory

The continual, simultaneous processes of collagen production and collagen degradation is termed: A. collagen turnover B. fibrolysis C. collagen synthesis D. fibrogenesis

A. collagen turnover

Progression of a rehabilitation program coincides with the A. healing of the tissue B. physician's personal preferences C. age of the patient D. type of injury sustained

A. healing of the tissue

A key muscle that provides stability to the spine is the A. transverse abdominis B. trapezius C. quadriceps group

A. transverse abdominis

List each factor associated with the SAID Principle. SAID principle - Specific Adaptations to Imposed Demands

Ability of the body to adapt to stress and overload imposed on it overtime Too much stress indications Healing progresses - exercise intensity increases

When writing short-term treatment goals for a patient, what's the maximum amount of time it should take to achieve the goal? A. 1 week B. 2 weeks C. 3 weeks D. 4 weeks

B. 2 weeks

Angiogenesis and the formation of a new vascular network begins to form in the tissue matrix at what time period? A. 24-48 hours B. 48-72 hours C. 7-10 days D. 2-4 months

B. 48-72 hours

An individual can move into phase 3 of the rehabilitation program when what percentage of normal passive and active range of motion is achieved? A. 70% B. 80% C. 60% D. 90%

B. 80%

Input for the overall motor system is required from all but which of the systems? A. Visual B. Auditory C. Somatosensory D. Vestibular

B. Auditory

Which of the following is not true about the thoracolumbar fascia? A. Provides stabilization B. Has its distal attachment on the anterior superior iliac spine C. Has its proximal attachment on L1 to L4 spinous processes D. Provides proprioceptive feedback

B. Has its distal attachment on the anterior superior iliac spine

_________ is the first chemical mediator to appear during the inflammatory stage of tissue healing. A. Serotonin B. Histamine C. Bradykinin D. Heparin

B. Histamine

When defining core stability, which of the following is not true concerning local stability? A. Involves deep, intrinsic muscles of abdominal wall B. Involves prime movers of trunk flexion C. Involves muscles associated with segmental stability of the lumbar spine D. All are true about local stability.

B. Involves prime movers of trunk flexion

Which of the following is not suggested when performing core stabilization exercises? A. Focus on strength and endurance of core muscles B. Isolate and work on one muscle at a time C. Avoid loaded end range of motions D. Encourage abdominal bracing during activity

B. Isolate and work on one muscle at a time

Which of the following areas does not need to be addressed before starting a core strengthening program? A. Core flexibility B. Lower extremity endurance C. Lower extremity flexibility D. Core endurance

B. Lower extremity endurance

When an injury causes cell membranes to rupture, what happens as a direct result of intracellular proteins entering the extracellular matrix? A. Neutrophils cause vasodilation B. Mast cells release histamine C. Injured cells release cytokines D. Monocytes migrate to the injured area

B. Mast cells release histamine

Which of the following statements is true of joint mechanoreceptors? A. Merkel's corpuscles respond to deep pressure faster than Pacinian corpuscles B. Meissner's corpuscles in the skin are activated by light touch C. Pacinian corpuscles in the joint respond to noxious stimuli D. Ruffini's corpuscles respond to extreme mechanical, thermal, or chemical energy

B. Meissner's corpuscles in the skin are activated by light touch

Which of the following is not a joint receptor located within the ligaments and capsule surrounding joints? A. Free nerve endings B. Merkel cells C. Ruffini receptors D. Pacinian corpuscles

B. Merkel cells

Which of the following muscles can improve core stability the most when strengthened? A. Rectus abdominis B. No individual muscle can adequately stabilize the core. C. Erector spinae D. Obliques

B. No individual muscle can adequately stabilize the core.

Which aspect of the somatosensory system is being tested when a patient's eyes are closed, the clinician places the ankle in plantar flexion, and the patient correctly identifies that the ankle has been placed in a plantar flexed position? A. Neither kinesthesia or proprioception B. Proprioception C. Both kinesthesia and proprioception D. Kinesthesia

B. Proprioception

What muscle is considered the forgotten muscle of the core? A. Iliocostalis B. Quadratus lumborum C. Transverse abdominis D. Longissimus

B. Quadratus lumborum

Discussions on how to progress an athlete through a rehabilitation program should be based on: A. The desire and compliance of the athlete B. The healing process C. The range of motion of the joint D. The strength of the musculature

B. The healing process

What three things belong in the same part of a SOAP note? A. The strength testing results, the joint specific testing results, and the patient's treatment plan B. The patient's diagnosis, the problem list, and the treatment goals C. The patient's chief complaint, the neurological examination results, and the special test results D. The patient's past medical history, the mechanism of injury, and the findings from palpation

B. The patient's diagnosis, the problem list, and the treatment goals

Mechanoreceptors are located throughout the body in muscles, tendons, and joints to provide sensory awareness of: A. The temperature of a joint B. The position of a joint C. The pain in a joint D. The rate of movement at a joint

B. The position of a joint

What system is most important in maintaining balance when the environment surrounding the patient is static? A. Vestibular B. Visual C. Somatosensory D. Auditory

B. Visual

Which of the following systems primarily provides feedback regarding the patient's position in space? A. Somatosensory B. Visual C. Vestibular D. Auditory

B. Visual

Which of the following indicates that a rehabilitation activity has been more than the patient's injury can tolerate? A. increased pain in the area B. all of these C. new swelling developed after the treatment session D. a decrease in performance ability since the last treatment session

B. all of these

Phase IV of a rehabilitation program coincides with the _____________ phase(s) of healing. A. early proliferation B. remodeling C. late proliferation D. inflammation

B. remodeling

At most, how long can the remodeling/maturation phase of tissue healing typically take? A. 18 months B. 12 months C. 24 months D. 6 months

C. 24 months

Which of the following components should be focused on when designing a rehabilitation program for the core? A. Neuromuscular control B. Muscular endurance C. All components should be focused on. D. Muscular strength

C. All components should be focused on.

Which of the following muscles is not activated during the abdominal bracing technique? A. External oblique B. Internal oblique C. All three are activated by the abdominal bracing technique. D. Transverse abdominis

C. All three are activated by the abdominal bracing technique.

Which of the following structures does not contain proprioceptive fibers? A. Joint B. Tendon C. Bone D. Muscle

C. Bone

What is the main function of the multifidus muscles? A. Flexion B. Side bending C. Extension D. Rotation

C. Extension

What muscle is responsible for flexion, side bending, and rotation to the opposite side? A. Transverse abdominis B. Rectus abdominis C. External oblique D. Internal oblique

C. External oblique

Which of the following muscles is not activated during the abdominal hollowing technique? A. Transverse abdominis B. Internal oblique C. External oblique D. All three are activated by the abdominal hollowing technique.

C. External oblique

Which of the following time periods accurately portrays the typical duration of the fibroblastic repair phase? A. From 4 days to 3 weeks B. From time of injury to 4 days C. From 4 days to 6 weeks D. From 6 weeks to 2 years

C. From 4 days to 6 weeks

Which of the following statements is true of the maturation-remodeling phase of healing? A. It is the shortest phase of healing. B. It involves the initial formation of a delicate connective tissue called granulation tissue. C. It involves a decrease in Type III collagen fibers and an increase in Type I fibers. D. It is characterized by a decrease in the tensile strength of the scar matrix.

C. It involves a decrease in Type III collagen fibers and an increase in Type I fibers.

When asking about the characteristics of symptoms, the athletic trainer should determine A. Previous injuries, congenital abnormalities, and family history B. Limitations in sport, occupational, and ADL's C. Location, onset, severity, frequency, and duration D. Location, onset, limb position, and direction of force

C. Location, onset, severity, frequency, and duration

Which of the following statements is not true regarding mechanoreceptors? A. The information sent from mechanoreceptors is used to make voluntary motor control decisions B. Mechanoreceptors send information through monosynaptic pathways to the spinal cord C. Mechanoreceptors send information through monosynaptic pathways to the brain D. The information sent from mechanoreceptors is used to make unconscious motor control decisions

C. Mechanoreceptors send information through monosynaptic pathways to the brain

Which of the following muscles acting on the core has proximal attachments to the spinous processes and progress distally to attach at different sites on the mamillary process, iliac crest, and sacrum? A. Interspinales B. Intertransversarii C. Multifidus D. Longissimus

C. Multifidus

How is muscle healing different from other types of soft tissue healing? A. Surgery is usually required to make the ends of ruptured muscle stay close together. B. Satellite cells make collagen unnecessary, so it is not present in healing muscle tissue. C. Muscle fibers are regenerated at the same time that scar tissue forms. D. There is no scar tissue formation in muscle as long as healing muscle tissue is not disturbed.

C. Muscle fibers are regenerated at the same time that scar tissue forms.

The feed forward mechanism of the somatosensory system incorporates ____ experience in the production of a motor response for ____ muscle activity. A. Current; reactionary B. Current; preparatory C. Past; preparatory D. Past; reactionary

C. Past; preparatory

What are the two primary functions of neutrophils? A. Cause vasodilation and increased blood vessel permeability B. Release of oxygen and cause swelling C. Phagocytosis and release of cytokines

C. Phagocytosis and release of cytokines

Which of the following is a correct list of nutrients needed for normal fracture healing? A. Calcium, amino acids, vitamin A, vitamin D B. Calcium, phosphorus, vitamin B, vitamin C C. Protein, phosphorus, calcium, vitamin D D. Protein, calcium, vitamin A, vitamin C

C. Protein, phosphorus, calcium, vitamin D

Which of the following tests requires the patient to maintain balance while standing on one leg with progressive challenges to the visual and somatosensory systems? A. Romberg test B. Functional reach test C. Single-leg stance test D. Balance Error Scoring System test

C. Single-leg stance test

Which muscle is not one of the primary muscles strengthened through bridging exercises? A. Obliques B. Lumbar erector spinae C. Transverse abdominis D. Multifidus

C. Transverse abdominis

Which type of collagen has smaller fiber size, few intermolecular cross links, and a more randomized fiber organization? A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III

C. Type III

Which of the following systems primarily provides feedback regarding the position of the head? A. Visual B. Somatosensory C. Vestibular D. Auditory

C. Vestibular

If the healing process is not a factor, progressing a patient is based on: A. How easy the exercise is for the patient to perform B. Whether or not the exercise is painful C. Whether or not the patient achieves the objectives of the exercise or task D. How the patient feels

C. Whether or not the patient achieves the objectives of the exercise or task

The role of the clinician in the psychological recovery following injury is to A. keep the program easy and the same from patient to patient B. tell the patient you know what she is feeling C. be an active listener throughout the rehab process D. identify the clinician's goals for the patient to achieve during rehab

C. be an active listener throughout the rehab process

The most significant effect of histamine is to A. stimulate clotting B. increase capillary membrane permeability C. cause vasodilation D. attract neutrophils

C. cause vasodilation

Standard of care is defined as A. committing an act that is not one's responsibility to perform B. committing an act that is one's responsibility to perform but using the wrong procedure C. committing an act that another minimally competent professional would do in the same circumstances D. failing to perform one's legal duty of care

C. committing an act that another minimally competent professional would do in the same circumstances

Chemicals responsible for vascular permeability include A. histamine, fibrinolysin, serotonin B. serotonin, histamine, factor VIII C. histamine, prostaglandins, serotonin D. prostaglandin, histamine, fibrinolysin E. prostaglandins, factor VIII, serotonin

C. histamine, prostaglandins, serotonin

Tissue that has any ability to regenerate includes A. ligament B. tendon C. muscle

C. muscle

During the objective examination, the clinician tries to A. provide relief to the patient B. obtain an accurate history C. produce a comparable sign D. all of these

C. produce a comparable sign

A hiker trips on a tree root in a hiking trail. To regain balance, the hiker uses which of the following types of neuromuscular control? A. anticipatory B. adaptive C. reactive

C. reactive

What is the purpose or objective(s) of immediate vasoconstriction following soft tissue damage? A. to increase the permeability of involved capillary membrane B. to promote the invasion of neutrophils into the damaged tissue C. to minimize the loss of red blood cells D. to increase hemophilia

C. to minimize the loss of red blood cells

CO-FIVR-P

Choice Order Frequency Intensity Volume Rest Progression

What abdominal muscle is recruited more when performing the dead bug exercises? A. Rectus abdominis B. Internal oblique C. External oblique D. All are recruited equally.

D. All are recruited equally.

Which of the following is not a movement that the multifidi perform when contracted? A. Extension B. Rotation C. Side bending D. Flexion

D. Flexion

Which of the following is NOT an indicator of being overly aggressive with exercise? A. Spasm B. Swelling C. Pain D. Increased flexibility

D. Increased flexibility

What muscle is responsible for flexion, side bending, and rotation to the same side? A. Transverse abdominis B. External oblique C. Rectus abdominis D. Internal oblique

D. Internal oblique

Which aspect of the somatosensory system is being used when a patient's eyes are closed, yet they can detect when the clinician passively moves their elbow? A. Both kinesthesia and proprioception B. Proprioception C. Neither kinesthesia and proprioception D. Kinesthesia

D. Kinesthesia

If a muscle is immobilized in a shortened position, which of the following will occur? A. Immediate improved flexibility when immobilization is removed B. Enlargement of muscles C. Increase in muscle protein D. Loss of contractile function

D. Loss of contractile function

Which of the following is an intersegmental muscle? A. Latissimus dorsi B. Psoas C. Quadratus lumborum D. Multifidus

D. Multifidus

______________ are located in muscles and they relay information to the central nervous system regarding muscle ________________. A. Muscle spindles; tension B. Golgi tendon organs; stretch C. Golgi tendon organs; tension D. Muscle spindles; stretch

D. Muscle spindles; stretch

The process of ingesting microorganisms, other cells, or foreign particles commonly performed by monocytes is called: A. Permeability B. Margination C. Proliferation D. Phagocytosis

D. Phagocytosis

A side bridge strengthens all but which of the following muscles? A. External oblique B. Internal oblique C. Quadratus lumborum D. Rectus abdominis

D. Rectus abdominis

Which of the following muscles does not have an attachment of the thoracolumbar fascia? A. Internal oblique B. Latissimus dorsi C. Transverse abdominis D. Rectus abdominis

D. Rectus abdominis

Identify the joint mechanoreceptor that is most active in the end ranges of motion. A. Meissner's corpuscles B. Merkel's corpuscles C. Pacinian corpuscles D. Ruffini's corpuscles

D. Ruffini's corpuscles

How long does it take for a ruptured tendon to return to preinjury tensile strength? A. 8 to 12 weeks B. 4 weeks C. Up to 1 year D. Ruptured tendon will never return to preinjury tensile strength

D. Ruptured tendon will never return to preinjury tensile strength

What is a function of Schwann cells following peripheral nerve injury? A. They provide nutrients to the area so that conditions are optimal for angiogenesis to occur. B. They protect the damaged peripheral neurons from being injured by the inflammatory response. C. They become new peripheral neurons to replace the dead or damaged neurons. D. They divide to increase the likelihood that an injured neuron will contact them and regenerate.

D. They divide to increase the likelihood that an injured neuron will contact them and regenerate.

When defining core stability, which of the following is not a global stability muscle? A. Obliques B. Paraspinals C. Rectus abdominis D. Transverse abdominis

D. Transverse abdominis

The tensile strength of a wound is directly related to the A. types of leukocytes in the area B. size of the inflammation C. number of neutrophils in the area D. amount of collagen present

D. amount of collagen present

The prominent phagocyte at the end of acute inflammation is the A. basophil B. T lymphocyte C. neutrophil D. macrophage

D. macrophage

What receptors assist position sense when joint and ligament proprioceptors are damaged following an injury? A. Golgi tendon organs B. Pacinian corpuscles C. cutaneous receptors D. muscle spindles

D. muscle spindles

Approximation of wound ends during wound contraction is attributed to the activity of which cell? A. fibroblasts B. mast cells C. leukocytes D. myofibroblasts E. actomyosin

D. myofibroblasts

_____________ is the ability to determine the position of a joint in space. A. kinesthesia B. traction C. atrophy D. proprioception

D. proprioception

Which of the following is a distinguishing functional and structural characteristic of granulation tissue? A. linear collegen fiber orientation B. resorption of new blood vessels C. synthesis of type I collagen D. synthesis of type III collagen E. pale avascular scar tissue

D. synthesis of type III collagen

Prehabilitation is used A. to educate the patient on what to expect following surgery B. when surgery is not an option for the patient C. as a means of preventing the need for surgery D. to minimize the patient's atrophy so postoperative strength is greater than it would have been without an intervention

D. to minimize the patient's atrophy so postoperative strength is greater than it would have been without an intervention

The appropriate order in which deficiencies are addressed in a rehabilitation program is A. Flexibility exercises, strength exercises, function progression activities, and performance-specific activities B. Strength and mobility exercises, performance-specific activities, and functional drills C. Performance-specific activities, strength and flexibility exercises, and functional exercises D. Cardiovascular exercise, flexibility and range of motion exercises, strength and endurance exercises, Functional and performance-specific activities E. Flexibility and range of motion exercises, strength and endurance exercises, balance, coordination and agility, functional activities, and performance-specific activities

E. Flexibility and range of motion exercises, strength and endurance exercises, balance, coordination and agility, functional activities, and performance-specific activities

Identify the four phases of a therapeutic exercise program and briefly state the main goals in each phase. Phase II

Establishing core stability Reestablishing neuromuscular control Neuromuscular control Restoring postural control and stability Restoring range of motion Passive range of motion Flexibility Stretching technique Active assisted and active range of motion Resisted range of motion Proprioception and kinesthesia Regaining proprioception

T/F: Collagen fibers arranged in varied fashion have greater strength than those arranged in a linear fashion.

False

T/F: Following an injury, early motion through partial weight-bearing exercise can interfere with proper joint lubrication.

False

T/F: Informed consent is only required in the treatment of minors.

False

T/F: It is important to include flexibility exercises in phase I of a rehabilitation program so contractures following an injury are avoided.

False

T/F: Modalities should be included throughout an entire rehabilitation program.

False

T/F: Nutrition plays little if any role in the healing process.

False

T/F: Proprioceptors are important for body movement and activity but not for static functions such as standing.

False

T/F: Rehabilitation of an athlete should center on recovery of the affected part only.

False

T/F: Short-term goals change little during the course of a therapeutic exercise program.

False

T/F: Stages of healing occur in a coordinated fashion with distinct stages and timelines.

False

T/F: The rectus abdominis is an example of a global muscle, while the quadratus lumborum is an example of a local muscle.

False

T/F: The spine obtains the majority of its stability from its supporting ligaments.

False

T/F: The term chemotaxis refers to the process in which cells stimulate chemicals that repel specific cells in a particular area.

False

T/F: When having someone perform new coordination activities in a therapeutic exercise program, the clinician should have the patient continue to work at that activity after fatigue and decreased accuracy have occurred.

False

FITT-VPP

Frequency Intensity Time Type Volume Progression Pattern

_________________ detect tension within a muscle and so respond to both contraction and stretch. Its stimulation results in muscle __________________.

GTO, relaxation

An athlete sustained a grade 2 lateral ankle sprain three (3) weeks ago. It was given proper immediate and follow-up care. What physiological changes will take place during this next phase of healing? (Select all that apply) I. Increased tensile strength of the healing tissue II. Fibrogenesis III. Wound contraction IV. Alignment of collagen fibers along lines of stress V. Transition of collagen deposition from Type III to Type I VI. Reduction in overall vascularity to healing tissue VII. Coagulation VIII. Phagocytosis IX. Collagen synthesis X. Reduction of fibroblasts XI. Permeability changes XII. Increased number of collagen cross-links

I. Increased tensile strength of the healing tissue IV. Alignment of collagen fibers along lines of stress V. Transition of collagen deposition from Type III to Type I VI. Reduction in overall vascularity to healing tissue X. Reduction of fibroblasts XII. Increased number of collagen cross-links

Which of the following biological events occur during the phase of soft tissue repair referred to as fibroplasia: (Select all that apply) I. collagen synthesis II. angiogenesis III. platelet adherence IV. Granulation tissue formation V. wound contraction

I. collagen synthesis II. angiogenesis IV. Granulation tissue formation V. wound contraction

Pelvic neutral is: (Select all that apply) I. the position in which the spine should always be placed II. one of the first positions taught to a patient with a weak core III. a position that provides no support for the spine

I. the position in which the spine should always be placed II. one of the first positions taught to a patient with a weak core

he optimal time to begin therapeutic exercise is usually during the proliferative phase of healing due to what development at the healing site? (Select all that apply.) I. Chemical mediation II. Neovascularization III. Transition of collagen deposition from Type III to Type I IV. Increased number of collagen cross-links V. Proliferation of fibroblasts VI. Permeability changes VII. Formation of granulation tissue VIII. Wound contraction IX. Coagulation X. Alignment of collagen fibers along lines of stress XI. Phagocytosis XII. Fibrosis

II. Neovascularization V. Proliferation of fibroblasts VII. Formation of granulation tissue VIII. Wound contraction XII. Fibrosis

Identify the four phases of a therapeutic exercise program and briefly state the main goals in each phase. Phase IV

Plyometric exercise Understanding integrated functional movement Functional testing Sport specific functional testing Criteria for full recovery

Identify the four phases of a therapeutic exercise program and briefly state the main goals in each phase. Phase III

Restoring muscular strength, endurance and power Functional progression Stabilization phase Strength phase Strength Dynamic Isokinetic exercise Power phase

What is the mnemonic device used to represent the principle in which the body, given stressors on the human system, whether biomechanical, physiological, neurological, or metabolic, adjusts and becomes better at withstanding the new stress?

SAID

T/F: A long-term goal of any rehabilitation program is to return the athlete to participation as quickly and as safely as possible.

True

T/F: A prognosis is a prediction of the course of the condition.

True

T/F: A therapeutic exercise program begins with patient assessment.

True

T/F: Abdominal bracing provides for better recruitment of core muscles than abdominal hollowing, and it also provides for greater pelvic and spinal stability.

True

T/F: An important element to be included before and after any treatment is an assessment to determine the appropriateness of that treatment.

True

T/F: Clinicians have an ethical responsibility to keep accurate and factual records.

True

T/F: Dead bug and bird dog exercises are designed to promote core muscle activation during arm and leg movements.

True

T/F: Eccentric contractions are critical for deceleration of limb motion, especially during high-velocity dynamic activities.

True

T/F: Full range of motion of an affected body part is a major criterion before the athlete returns to participation.

True

T/F: Functional progressions must be incorporated into a rehabilitation program to help the athlete achieve normal range of motion, adequate strength, and neuromuscular control.

True

T/F: Growth factors influence fibrin-plug formation, angiogenesis, and collagenase production.

True

T/F: Hip muscles play a role in providing core stability because they are attached to the pelvis. Hip muscles play a role in providing core stability because they are attached to the pelvis.

True

T/F: How aggressive the clinician can be during the objective examination is based on the findings of the subjective examination.

True

T/F: If a patient's hip flexors are tight, the hip extensors will probably be weak.

True

T/F: Intra-abdominal pressure provided by contraction of the diaphragm, pelvic floor muscles, and transverse abdominis converts the trunk into a strong structure that protects the spine.

True

T/F: It can take more than a year for an injured part to achieve maximal tensile strength.

True

T/F: Joint mobilization for mobility gains are usually included in phase II of the rehabilitation program.

True

T/F: Not everyone with a sprained ankle will go through the same rehabilitation program.

True

T/F: Periodic measurement of girth, range of motion, muscle strength, endurance, power, and cardiovascular fitness will determine if progress is occurring in the therapeutic exercise program.

True

T/F: Phase II of a therapeutic exercise program focuses on regaining any deficits in range of motion and stimulating proprioception.

True

T/F: Poor core stability can reduce the body's efficiency during movement.

True

T/F: Proprioception and balance training must be incorporated into a rehabilitation program to help the athlete maintain postural stability.

True

T/F: Rhythmic stabilization uses an isometric contraction of the agonist muscles, followed by an isometric contraction of the antagonist muscles.

True

T/F: The mental aspects of how an individual deals with an injury are a critical yet often neglected factor in the rehabilitation process.

True

T/F: The multifidus contracts when the transverse abdominis activates in normal persons, but this is not usually the case in persons with a history of back pain.

True

T/F: The number of capillaries in a wound decreases during the remodeling phase.

True

T/F: The primary goal of the third phase of rehabilitation is to fully restore strength, endurance and power of the injured part, as well as the entire body.

True

T/F: The sequence of progressive exercises lies on a continuum that begins with flexibility and ROM exercises and progresses to strengthening and balance exercises and finally to coordination, agility, plyometric, and performance-specific exercises.

True

Identify the four phases of a therapeutic exercise program and briefly state the main goals in each phase. Phase I

Using therapeutic modalities Using medication Control swelling Protection Restricted activity Optimal loading ICE Control pain Pain scale

tort

a wrong done to an individual

__________________ is the ability to control the direction of the body or a body segment during rapid movement.

agility

The growth of new blood vessels is called ________________.

angiogenesis

negligence

breach of one's duty of care

active cell for cartilage

chondrocyte

______________is the secondary hemostatic mechanism and occurs in three phases. In phase I, the formation of __________________ occurs. In Phase 2, there is a conversion of Prothrombin II to ____________________ and then in phase III, conversion of _____________________to fibrin. This creates a stable and insoluble clot through the formation of fibrin filaments.

coagulation, prothrombinase, thrombin, fibrinogen

malfeasance

committing an act that is not one's job to act

_________________ is the complex process by which a smooth pattern of activity is produced through a combination of muscles acting together with appropriate intensity and timing.

coordination

nonfeasance

failing to perform one's duty of care

active cell for ligament

fibroblast

active cell for tendon

fibroblast

The period of scar formation is known as ___________________.

fibrosis

difference between abdominal hollowing and abdominal bracing

hallowing: contracts local muscles, bracing: contracts global and local muscles

difference between local and global muscles

local: stabilization, global: movement

__________________________ are specialized afferent nerve endings that respond to mechanical stimulation such as pressure, tension, and vibration.

mechanoreceptors

_____________ respond to the stretch of a muscle. Its stimulation results in muscle ________________.

muscle spindles, contraction

active cell for bone

osteocyte

misfeasance

performing an act that is legal but not properly performed

battery

physical contact with somebody without consent

Collagen is produced primarily during the ______________ phase.

proliferation

_____________________ is the body's ability to transmit position sense, interpret the information, and respond consciously or unconsciously to stimulation through appropriate execution of posture and movement.

proprioception

At the time an injury occurs, there is a brief period of ____________________ followed by _______________________ .

vasoconstriction, vasodilation

Primary mechanisms of hemostasis in response to an injury include ________________ in response to pain, ________________ that lasts for several seconds to minutes, and a platelet response caused by the release of serotonin and thromboxane that leads to a temporary _________________.

vasospasm, vasoconstriction, platelet plug