Review Questions
Fusion of the amnion and chorion usually occurs by ___ weeks gestation.
16
What is the stage of the conceptus that implants within the decidualized endometrium? A. Blastocyst B. Morula C. Zygote D. Ovum
A. Blastocyst
The most malignant form of gestational trophoblastic disease is: A. Choriocarcinoma B. Hydidaform mole C. Anembryonic D. Hydropic villi
A. Choriocarcinoma
In the first trimester, normal hCG levels will: A. Double every 48 hours B. Triple every 24 hours C. Double every 24 hours D. Double every 12 hours
A. Double every 48 hours
The most common cause of pelvic pain with pregnancy is: A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Heteroectopic pregnancy C. Missed abortion D. Molar pregnancy
A. Ectopic pregnancy
What is the name of the dominant follicle prior to ovulation? A. Graafian follicle B. Corpus luteum C. Morula D. Corpus albicans
A. Graafian follicle
The herniation of the embryological bowel into the base of the umbilical cord at 9 weeks is referred to as: A. Physiologic bowel herniation B. Pseudo-omphalocele C. Omphalocele D. Gastroscisis
A. Physiologic bowel herniation
The placenta performs all of the following functions except: A) Protection B) Absorption C) Nutrition D) Respiration
Absorption
The most common site of fibrin deposition is which one of the following? A) Along the subchorionic area B) Along the retroplacental area C) Within the chorioangioma D) Within the hydatidiform mole
Along the subchorionic area
Which one of the following abnormalities might demonstrate a small placenta? A) Maternal anemia B) Rh sensitivity C) Maternal diabetes D) Aneuploidy
Aneuploidy
Compared with a normal IUP, the ectopic pregnancy will have a: A. High hCG B. Low hCG C. Markedly elevated hCG D. High AFP
B. Low hCG
All of the following would be associated with a lower-than-normal human chorionic gonadtotropin level except: A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Molar pregnancy C. Blighted ovum D. Spontaneous abortion
B. Molar pregnancy
What hormone, produced by the corpus luteum, maintains the thickened endometrium? A. Estrogen B. Progesterone C. Human chorionic gonadotropin D. Lutenizing hormone
B. Progesterone
All of the following are associated with an abnormal nuchal translucency except: A. Trisomy 21 B. Trisomy 16 C. Trisomy 18 D. Turner syndrome
B. Trisomy 16
The structure created by the union of sperm and egg: A. Blastocyst B. Zygote C. Morula D. Ampulla
B. Zygote
What maternal side of the placenta is decidua _____.
Basalis
A marginal or an eccentric insertion of the umbilical cord into the placenta is which one of the following? A) Velamentous Placenta B) Vasa Previa C) Battledore Placenta D) Placenta Accreta
Battledore placenta
The fetal membranes are comprised of all of the following except the: A) Chorion B) Amnion C) Blasocyst D) Yolk Sac
Blastocyst
The normal gestational sac will grow: A. 2 mm per day B. 3 mm per day C. 1 cm per day D. 1 mm per day
C. 1 cm per day
Fertilization typically occurs within _____ after ovulation? A. 40 hours B. 12 hours C. 24 hours D. 56 hours
C. 24 hours
All of the following are sonographic findings consistent with ectopic pregnancy except: A. Decidual thickening B. Complex free fluid within the pelvis C. Bilateral, multiloculated ovarian cysts D. Complex adnexal mass separate from the ipsilateral ovary
C. Bilateral, multiloculated ovarian cysts
The first sonographically identifiable sign of pregnancy is the: A. Amnion B. Yolk sac C. Decidual reaction D. Chorionic cavity
C. Decidual reaction
During a first trimester ultrasound examination, you note a cystic structure within the fetal head. The most likely represents the: A. Prosencephalon B. Mesencephalon C. Rhombencephalon D. Proencephalon
C. Rhombencephalon
A sonographic examination was performed on a pregnant patient who complained of vaginal bleeding. Sonographically, a crescent-shaped anechoic area is noted adjacent to the gestational sac. The gestational sac contained a 6-week single live intrauterine pregnancy. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Molar pregnancy C. Subchorionic hemorrhage D. Anembryonic gestation
C. Subchorionic hemorrhage
What structure lies within the extraembryonic coelom? A. Gestational sac B. Embryo C. Yolk sac D. Amnion
C. Yolk sac
A circumscribed complex mass protruding from the fetal surface of the placenta is demonstrated on ultrasound.This appearance most likely represents which one of the following? A) Succenturiate placenta B) Abruptio placenta C) Cirumvallate placenta D) Choriangioma
Chorioangioma
The major functioning unit of the placenta is which of the following? A) Chorionic villi B) Yolk sac C) Amnion D) Cotyledons
Chorionic villi
The attachment of the placental membrane to the fetal surface of the placenta describes which one of the following? A) Circummarginate placenta B) Succenturiate placenta C) Battledore placenta D) Placenta accreta
Circummarginate placenta
All of the following are clinical features of an ectopic pregnancy except: A. Pain B. Vaginal bleeding C. Shoulder pain D. Adnexal ring
D. Adnexal ring
All of the following are contributing factors for an ectopic pregnancy except: A. Pelvic inflammatory disease B. Assisted reproductive technology C. Intrauterine contraceptive device D. Advanced paternal age
D. Advanced paternal age
Another name for the chorionic sac is the: A. Chorionic cavity B. Embryo C. Yolk sac D. Amnion
D. Amnion
The most common site of fertilization is within the:] A. Isthmus of the uterine tube B. Uterine fundus C. Cornu of the uterine tube D. Ampulla of the uterine tube
D. Ampulla of the uterine tube
The most common location of an ectopic pregnancy is the: A. Ovary B. Interstitial portion of the uterine tube C. Cornual portion of the uterine tube D. Ampullary portion of the uterine tube
D. Ampullary portion of the uterine tube
The most common pelvic mass associated with pregnancy is the: A. Uterine leiomyoma B. Dermoid cyst C. Theca lutein cyst D. Corpus luteum cyst
D. Corpus luteum cyst
All of the following may be sonographic findings in the presence of an ectopic pregnancy except: A. Pseudogestational sac B. Corpus luteum cyst C. Adnexal ring D. Double sac sign
D. Double sac sign
The first definitive sonographic sign of an intrauterine pregnancy is the recognition of a/an: A. Yolk sac B. Embryo C. Decidual reaction D. Gestational sac
D. Gestational sac
The trophoblastic cells produce: A. Estrogen B. Progesterone C. Follicle-stimulating hormone D. Human chorionic gonadotropin
D. Human chorionic gonadotropin
All of the following are sonographic findings consistent with a hydidaform mole except: A. Heterogeneous mass within the endometrium B. Bilateral theca lutein cysts C. Hyperemesis gravidarum D. Low hCG
D. Low hCG
Which of the following locations is most likely with metatastic gestational trophoblastic disease? A. Rectum B. Brain C. Spleen D. Lungs
D. Lungs
All of the following are clinical findings consistent with a molar pregnancy except: A. Vaginal bleeding B. Hypertension C. Uterine enlargement D. Small for dates
D. Small for dates
The decidual reaction that changes in the endometrium opposite the site of implantation is which of the following? A) Decidua basalis B) Dedidua capsularis C) Decidua frondosum D) Decidua vera
Decidua vera
The chorionic plate is related to which one of the following? A) Maternal surface of the fetus B) Fetal surface of the placenta C) Allantois of the yolk stalk D) Cotyledons and intervillous spaces
Fetal surface of the placenta
The chorion around the gestational sack on the opposite side of implantation is chorion _____.
Laeve
By nine weeks, the yolk sac should measure ___ (mm) millimeters in diameter.
Less than 5
The function of the human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is to form which one of the following? A) Produce amniotic fluid B) Maintain the corpus luteum in early pregnancy C) Develop Wharton's Jelly around the cord D) Stimulate the yolk sac development
Maintain the corpus luteum in early pregnancy
Example of a low-pressure bleed is which one of the following? A) Marginal abruption B) Retroplacental abruption C) Decompression of the uterus D) Trauma to the uterus
Marginal abruption
The primary cause of placentomegaly is which one of the following abnormalities? A) Intrauterine Growth Restriction B) Battledore Placenta C) Maternal Diabetes D) Intrauterine Infection
Maternal diabetes
The velamentous placenta refers to a:
Membranous insertion of the cord
Severe blood loss may occur with placenta ____.
Percreta
The growth of the chorionic villi superficially into the myometrium describes which one of the following? A) Succenturiate placenta B) Placenta accreta C) Placental migration D) Placenta increta
Placenta accreta
The presence of one or more accessory lobes connected to the body of the placenta by blood vessels is a _____ placenta.
Succenturiate
Complications of placenta previa include all of the following except: A) Premature delivery B) Maternal hemorrhage C) Postpartum hemorrhage D) Succenturiate Placenta
Succenturiate placenta
Which one of the following statements about a placental abruption is false? A) Bleeding in the decidua basalis occurs with separation. B) Placental abruption may be retroplacental or marginal abruption. C) The bleed may lead to a chorioangioma D) Preterm labor may result
The bleed may lead to a chorioangioma
A marginal placenta previa demonstrates which one of the following? A) The edge of the placenta is near the internal cervical os. B) The placenta is in the right lateral position. C) The placenta touches but does not cross the internal cervical os. D) The placenta partially covers the internal cervical os.
The placenta touches but does not cross the internal cervical Os.
Which one of the following occurs when the intramembranous vessels course across the internal cervical os? A) Placenta previa B) Battledore placenta C) Vasa previa D) Velamentous placenta
Vasa previa
24. A pelvic abscess is will likely appear as which one of the following? a. Complex cul-de-sac mass that distorts the pelvic anatomy b. Hypoechoic adnexal mass with a separate normal ovary c. Complex ovarian mass with anechoic cul-de-sac fluid d. Hypoechoic cul-de-sac mass
a. Complex cul-de-sac mass that distorts the pelvic anatomy
15. Enlarged ovaries with multiple cysts and indistinct margins describe which one of the following conditions? a. Peri-ovarian inflammation b. Tubo-ovarian complex c. Para-ovarian inflammation d. Oophoritis
a. Peri-ovarian inflammation
20. A 24-year-old woman h as a fever, vaginal discharge, and intense pelvic pain Transabdominal and transvaginal images demonstrate a complex mu ltiloculated irregular mass in the pouch of Douglas. This clinical presentation mos t likely represents which one of the following? a. Ovarian torsion b. A tuboovarian abscess c. Degenerating pedunculated fibroid d. Endometrioma
b. A tuboovarian abscess
14. Sonographic findings of PID include all of the following except: a. Endometritis b. Endometriosis c. Peri-ovarian inflammation d. Salpingitis
b. Endometriosis
7. PID is an inclusive term that refers to all of the following pelvie infections except: a. Oophoritis b. Endometriosis c. Parametritis d. Myometritis
b. Endometriosis
22. Which one of the following statements about diffuse endometriosis is false? a. It is the most common form of endometriosis. b. Endometriosis is easily diagnosed by sonography. c. Endometriosis leads to the disorganization of pelvic anatomy d. Its appearance is similar to PID.
b. Endometriosis is easily diagnosed by sonography.
18. Perihepatic inflammation ascending from a pelvic infection is called ____syndrome a. Stein-Leventhal b. Fritz-Hugh-Curtis c. Turner d. de Quervain
b. Fritz-Hugh-Curtis
19. An asymptomatic 32-year-old woman is diagnosed with a left adnexal mass on transvaginal images demonstrate an anechoic tubular structure in the left lower physical examination. A history of PID has been reported. Transabdominal and quadrant. This finding most likely represents which one of the following? a. Iliac vessels b. Hydrosalpinx c. Theca-lutein cysts d. Ectopic pregnancy
b. Hydrosalpinx
16. Sexually transmitted PID is spread via which one of the following? a. Bloodstream b. Mucosa c. Serosa d. Fallopian tubes
b. Mucosa
10. Which one of the following is an infection within the uterine serosa and broad ligaments? a. PID b. parametritis c. myometeritis d. peri-ovarian inflammation
b. Parametritis
8. Which one of the following is the most common cause of PID? a. Intrauterine devices b. Sexually transmitted diseases c. Postsurgical complications d. Endometritis
b. Sexually transmitted diseases
2. Risk factors in pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) include all of the following except: a. Early sexual contact b. Single sexual partner c. Sexually transmitted disease d. Intrauterine contraceptive device
b. Single sexual partner
1. An infection that involves the fallopian tube and the ovary is called which one of the following conditions? a. Pelvic inflammatory disease b. Tubo-ovarian abscess (TOA) c. Pyosalpinx d. Salpingitis
b. Tubo-ovarian abscess (TOA)
21. A 25-year-old woman complains of painful menstrual cycles and infertility Transabdominal and transvaginal images demonstrate a hypoechoic well-defined adnexal mass. Normal ovaries are seen bilaterally. This sonographic appearance most likely represents which one of the following? a. A tubo-ovarian abscess b. Para-ovarian cyst c. Endometrioma d . Hemorrhagic corpus luteum cyst
c. Endometrioma corpus luteum
Early in the disease, the clinical presentation of both PID and endometriosis may mimic which one of the following? a. Para-ovarian cyst b. Subserosal fibroid c. Functional bowel disease d. Adenomyosis
c. Functional bowel disease
12. The differential considerations of a solid-appearing adnexal mass include all of the following except: a. Endometrioma b. Hemorrhagic cyst c. Hydrosalpinx d. Pedunculated uterine fibroid
c. Hydrosalpinx
23. Inflamm ation of the serous membrane lining the abdominal cavity and covering the viscera is which one of the following? a. Periangitis b. Omentitis c. Peritonitis d. Retroperitonitis
c. Peritonitis
13. The differential considerations of PID may include all of the following except: a. Dermoid b. Endometriosis c. Serous cystadenoma d. Ovarian neoplasm
c. Serous cystadenoma
4. Which one of the following statements about the fallopian tube is false? a. The normal lumen is not usually visualized. b. Detection is easier if fluid or pus is in the tube. c. The tube is best seen transabdominally d. Ascites is helpful to outline the tube.
c. The tube is best seen transabdominally
25. Which one of the following statements about interventional pelvic sonography is true? a. Is not a valuable diagnostic tool. b. Lacks a safe biopsy route. c. Decreases patient care. d. Decreases patient cost.
d. Decreases patient cost
11. Clinical symptoms of PID may include which one of the following? a. Fever b. Dull pelvic aching c. No symptoms d. Fever and dull pelvic aching
d. Fever and dull pelvic aching
3. Which one of the following statements about PID is false? a. PID is almost always a bilateral collection of pus and fluid. b. Patients may experience pelvic pain and have a history of infertility. c. PID includes vaginal discharge with bleeding d. PID confers a decreased risk of ectopic pregnancy
d. PID confers a decreased risk of ectopic pregnancy
17. A complex (tubular) adnexal mass most likely represents which on of the following? a.salpingitis b. Hydrosalpinx c.Oophoritis d. Pyosalpinx
d. Pyosalpinx
5. Which one of the following is an infection in the fallopian tube? a. Parametritis b. Oophoritis c. Pyosalpinx d. Salpingitis
d. Salpingitis
9. Fusion of the inflamed dilated tube and ovary is called which one of the following? a. A tuboovarian abscess b. Pyosalpinx c. Pelvic inflammatory disease d. Tubo-ovarian complex
d. Tubo-ovarian complex