Serology Prelims Platings

Set up 10 test tubes on the test tube rack and label them 1-10. Place 9 mL saline to tube no.1 and 5 mL of saline to tubes number 2-10. Add 1 mL of the patient's serum to tube number 1, mix and transfer 5 mL to tube number 2. Then mix and transfer 5 mL of the mixture to tube number 3. Mix and continue dilutions up to tube number 10. Discard 5 mL from tube number 10. Finally, add 5 mL of the reagent to each tube. What is final dilution in tube number 10?

1 : 10240

Set up 10 test tubes on the test tube rack and label them 1-10. Place 9 mL saline to tube no.1 and 5 mL of saline to tubes number 2-10. Add 1 mL of the patient's serum to tube number 1, mix and transfer 5 mL to tube number 2. Then mix and transfer 5 mL of the mixture to tube number 3. Mix and continue dilutions up to tube number 10. Discard 5 mL from tube number 10. Finally, add 5 mL of the reagent to each tube. What is initial dilution for tube number 8?

1 : 1280

Along with IgM, this is a B cell receptor: a. IgA b. IgD c. IgE d. IgG

IgD

Bacterial suspension is compared at: a. 0.5 McFarland standard b. 1.0 McFarland standard c. 2.0 McFarland standard d. Any of the above

a. 0.5 McFarland standard

Response time of alpha 1 antitrypsin: a. 24 hours b. 48 hours c. Both d. Neither

a. 24 hours

Peak time of CRP: a. 24-72 hours b. 4-6 hours c. Both d. Neither

a. 24-72 hours

Immunity obtained from vaccination: a. Active Artificially Acquired Immunity b. Active Naturally Acquired Immunity c. Both d. Neither

a. Active Artificially Acquired Immunity

Which of the following statement is true? a. B cells eliminate extracellular pathogen while T cells eliminate intracelular pathogen. b. Cell mediated immunity is mediated by B cells. c. NK cells are traditionally part of adaptive immune response. d. Humoral immunity is mediated by T cells and B cells.

a. B cells eliminate extracellular pathogen while T cells eliminate intracellular pathogen.

Marker for acute inflammation: a. CRP b. Serum amyloid c. Both d. Neither

a. CRP

Include emigration of neutrophils, followed by the emigration of monocytes: a. Cellular response b. Vascular response c. Both d. Neither

a. Cellular response

The Thymus is considered to be: a. Central lymphoid organ b. Reticuloendothelial organ c. Secondary lymphoid organ d. Specialized lymph node

a. Central lymphoid organ

True about lgA EXCEPT: a. Cross the placenta b. Exist as secretory lgA c. Exist as serum lgA d. Major protective factor in colostrum

a. Cross the placenta

Most abundant of the coagulating factors in the plasma: a. Fibrinogen b. Serum amyloid c. Both d. Neither

a. Fibrinogen

Activates eosinophils: a. IL-5 b. IL-6 c. IL-12 d. IL-9

a. IL-5

Agar used in determining the bactericidal power of heated and unheated serum: a. NA b. TSI c. BAP d. Thioglycollate

a. NA

No prior exposure is required a. Natural b. Adaptive c. Both d. Neither

a. Natural

In phagocytosis, the final structure during engulfment is: a. Phagosome b. Lysis c. Both d. Neither

a. Phagosome

Leukocytes display: a. Positive chemotaxis b. Negative chemotaxis c. Both d. Neither

a. Positive chemotaxis

Method of choice for serologic determination of antigen-specific IgE: a. RAST b. RIST c. Both d. Neither

a. RAST

In this stage, antigen-specific IgE is formed and attach to mast cells: a. Sensitization b. Activation c. Both d. Neither

a. Sensitization

Complement is found in the: a. Serum b. PRBC c. Both d. Neither

a. Serum

Which of the following statement is true? a. T cells mature and differentiate in a generative lymphoid organ. b. Majority of T cells have surface antibody. c. Helper T lymphocytes release perforins to stimulate other cells to proliferate d. CD56 and CD16 are specific for cytotoxic T cells.

a. T cells mature and differentiate in a generative lymphoid organ.

Cell-mediated immune reaction means that it does not involve the participation of antibodies but is due primarily to the interaction of T cells with antigens: a. The statement is true b. The statement is false

a. The statement is true

Type IV hypersensitivity is a cell-mediated immune reaction: a. The statement is true b. The statement is false

a. The statement is true

Pain: a. Tumor b. Rubor c. Both d. Neither

a. Tumor

Product after the antibody is treated with papain treatment a. Two Fab fragments and one Fc b. One F(ab)2 fragment and LMW peptides c. Both d. Neither

a. Two Fab fragments and one Fc

In what type of hypersensitivity that the reactions are characterized by tissue damage caused by the activation of complement in response to antigen-antibody (immune) complexes that are deposited in tissues: a. Type III hypersensitivity b. Type II hypersensitivity c. Type I hypersensitivity d. Type Iv hypersensitivity

a. Type III hypersensitivity

Greatest half life: a. lgG1 b. IgG4 c. IgG3 d. IgG2

a. lgG1

Highest concentration in the serum: a. lgG1 b. IgG4 c. IgG3 d. IgG2

a. lgG1

How many hours does the Type IV hypersensitivity will have its reactions after the introduction of antigen to the system: a. 10 -15 hrs b. 18-24 hrs c. 8-10 hrs d. 10-12 hrs

b. 18-24 hrs

The disulfide bonds connecting the Fc potions of lgM can be broken down by: a. dithiothreitol b. 2-mercaptoethanol and dithiothreitol c. 2-methane and dithiothreitol d. 2-mercaptoethanol

b. 2-mercaptoethanol and dithiothreitol

In intradermal test for immediate hypersensitivity, the result is read after: a. 15 minutes b. 20 minutes c. Both d. Neither

b. 20 minutes

Response time of complement and ceruloplasmin: a. 24-48 hours b. 48-72 hours c. Both d. Neither

b. 48-72 hours

Type of immunity that develops during convalescence from an infection: a. Passive Naturally Acquired Immunity b. Active Naturally Acquired Immunity c. Both d. Neither

b. Active Naturally Acquired Immunity

In lgA, J chain is made up of: a. Plasma cell b. B cell and plasma cell c. Epithelial cell d. B cell

b. B cell and plasma cell

In bactericidal power of serum, result is reported as: a. Titer b. CFU/mL c. IU/mL d. No unit

b. CFU/mL

Principal copper transporting protein in human plasma: a. Haptoglobulin b. Ceruloplasmin c. Both d. Neither

b. Ceruloplasmin

Type III hypersensitivity: a. Characterized by deposition of antigen-antibody complex b. Characterized by deposition of antibody-antibody complex c. Both d. Neither

b. Characterized by deposition of antibody-antibody complex

Activated by antigen-antibody complex: a. Alternative pathway b. Classical pathway c. Lectin pathway d. All of the above

b. Classical pathway

Which of the following is the most efficient antigen presenting cells? a. NK cell b. Dendritic cell c. Macrophage d. Monocyte

b. Dendritic cell

In a resting lymphocyte, B cells and T cells can be distinguished from each other via a simple blood smear. a. True b. False

b. False

The number of disulfide bonds in lgG3: a. One b. Fifteen c. Four d. Two

b. Fifteen

Primary function in binding irreversibly to free hemoglobin: a. Ceruloplasmin b. Haptoglobulin c. Both d. Neither

b. Haptoglobulin

Who discovered attenuation or weakening of virulence factors for microorganisms used for vaccination? a. Edward Jenner b. Louis Pasteur c. Koch d. Salk, Sabin

b. Louis Pasteur

Away from the stimulating substance: a. Positive chemotaxis b. Negative chemotaxis c. Both d. Neither

b. Negative chemotaxis

Product after the antibody is treated with pepsin treatment a. Two Fab fragments and one Fc b. One F(ab)2 fragment and LMW peptides c. Both d. Neither

b. One F(ab)2 fragment and LMW peptides

Develops after the placental passage of antibody from mother to fetus: a. Passive Artificially Acquired Immunity b. Passive Naturally Acquired Immunity c. Both d. Neither

b. Passive Naturally Acquired Immunity

The tuberculin test is based on a delayed hypersensitivity reaction: a. The statement is true b. The statement is false

b. The statement is true

Major macrophage activator a. Type 4 interferon b. Type 2 interferon c. Type 1 interferon d. Type 3 interferon

b. Type 2 interferon

IgM, IgG and complement are involved but the reaction is directed against soluble than cellular antigens: a. Type II hypersensitivity b. Type III hypersensitivity c. Both d. Neither

b. Type III hypersensitivity

Isotypes have different: a. Fab region b. heavy chains c. Heavy and light chains d. Light chains

b. heavy chains

Half life of lgE: a. 3-8 days b. 1-2 days c. 2-5 days d. 5-10 days

c. 2-5 days

If I have 200 colonies and the dilution is 1:100, the result is: a. 0.5 b. 2 c. 20,000 d. 1:20,0000

c. 20,000

It is referred a toxic or foreign substance that causes an immune reaction, except: a. Ab b. Allergen c. Ag d. Antigen

c. Ab

Acquired immunity: a. B cells b. T cells c. Both d. Neither

c. Both

Acute phase reactant increases or decreases rapidly due to a. Infection b. Trauma c. Both d. Neither

c. Both

Common cause/s of contact dermatitis: a. Poison ivy b. Poison sumac c. Both d. Neither

c. Both

Non-specific immunity a. Lactic acid in sweat b. Acidity of vagina c. Both d. Neither

c. Both

Phagocytosis can be initiated as a result of: a. Microbial multiplication b. Trauma c. Both d. Neither

c. Both

Present at time of birth or that develops during maturation a. Innate Immunity b. Natural immunity c. Both d. Neither

c. Both

TRUE about testing for immediate hypersensitivity: a. Intradermal tests uses greater amount of antigen and are more sensitive than cutaneous testing b. Intradermal testing is only performed if prick tests are negative and allergy is suspected. c. Both d. Neither

c. Both

This is an example of type lI hypersensitivity where the reaction is directed against self-antigens because individuals with this disease form abs to their own red blood cells: a. WAIHA b. CAIHA c. Both d. Neither

c. Both

Patch testing is different from prick and intradermal tests because it does not break the skin. It is most often used when someone has a type of skin condition called dermatitis that develops more slowly than other allergic reactions: a. The first statement is true and the second statement is true b. The first statement is false and the second statement is false c. Both statements are true d. Both statements are false

c. Both statements are true

Which of the following cells is NOT part of innate immunity? a. Dendritic cell b. Neutrophil c. Cytotoxic T cell d. NK cells

c. Cytotoxic T cell

Greatest in complement binding: a. lgG1 b. IgG4 c. IgG3 d. IgG2

c. IgG3

Which is NOT true? a. Innate and adaptive immunity are dependent upon one another. b. Natural immunity is similar to innate immunity. c. Innate immunity requires prior exposure to foreign substances. d. Memory and specificity results in an increased response to a pathogen.

c. Innate immunity requires prior exposure to foreign substances.

Most abundant agranulocyte in the blood of normal human is the: a. Eosinophil b. Neutrophil c. Lymphocyte d. Monocyte

c. Lymphocyte

Which of the following statement is TRUE? a. Naive B lymphocytes are capable of eliminating antigens. b. Memory cells die by the process of apoptosis and are replaced by new cells. c. The effector cells in the B lymphocyte lineage are antibody secreting cells. d. CD8+ T cells mediate the helper function of T cells.

c. The effector cells in the B lymphocyte lineage are antibody secreting cells.

How many mL of unheated serum was used in this activity: a. 0.5 mL b. 1 mL c. 3 mL d. 5 mL

d. 0.5 mL

There are different components that can trigger type 1 hypersensitivity responses, including antigens that come from 1. food products 2. animal sources 3. environmental sources 4. allergic conditions: a. 1 and 3 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1,2,3, and 4

d. 1,2,3, and 4

Serum is inactivated at: a. 37C for 30 mins b. 56C for 15 mins c. 56C for 30 mins d. 56C for 60 mins

d. 56C for 30 min

Reaction is specific for each indivicual pathogen: a. Natural b. Adaptive c. Both d. Neither

d. Adaptive

Blood tests for allergies measure IgE antibodies to certain allergens in the blood. The testing that is most often used is called RAST radioallergosorbent test: a. The first statement is true and the second statement is true b. The first statement is false and the second statement is false c. Both statements are true d. Both statements are false

d. Both statements are true

Membrane attack complex starts with the activation of: a. C1 b. C2 c. C3 d. C5

d. C5

Which of the following glycoprotein expressed on the surface of NK cells is a receptor for nonspecific end of antibodies? a. CD 56 b. CD 15 c. CD 18 d. CD 16

d. CD 16

The main function of this interleukin is proliferation of T cells, thymocytes, mast cells a. IL-5 b. IL-6 c. IL-12 d. IL-9

d. IL-9

Major IFN produced by virus induced leukocyte cultures: a. INF D b. INF B c. INF g d. INF a

d. INF a

In the Type 1 hypersensitivity, the body responds to an antigen by producing a specific type of antibody is called: a. IgD b. IgM c. IgG d. IgE

d. IgE

Least reactive in placental transfer: a. lgG1 b. IgG4 c. IgG3 d. IgG2

d. IgG2

Which of the following statement is TRUE? a. Haptens are immunogens. b. Immunogenic property is found in all antigen. c. Not all immunogen will trigger host immune system. d. Immunogen are antigenic in nature.

d. Immunogen are antigenic in nature.

Has the ability to cause bacteriolysis: a. Aged serum b. Serum heated at 56oC c. Both d. Neither

d. Neither

Innate Immunity a. Reaction time is slow b. There is a memory c. Both d. Neither

d. Neither

Which area of the spleen is considered to be "T cell rich" a. Primary follicles b. Medulla c. Cortex d. Paracortex

d. Paracortex

Which of the following produce antibodies (Igs) and differentiate upon the stimulation of CD4+ T cells a. Regulator T cells b. Naive B lymphocytes c. CD8+ T cells d. Plasma cells

d. Plasma cells

In this test, a small drop of material is injected into the skin at a single point. After 20 minutes, a spot is examined and the reaction is recorded. A wheal with erythema as a result is consIdered positive. This IS a test for: a. Type IV hypersensitivity b. TYpe II hypersensitivity c. Type III hypersensitivity d. Type I hypersensitivity

d. Type I hypersensitivity

The mother makes lgG antibodies in response and crosses the placenta to cause destruction of fetal RBCs. This is associated with: a. Type I hypersensitivity b. Type IV hypersensitivity c. Type III hypersensitivity d. Type II hypersensitivity

d. Type II hypersensitivity

First to appear after primary antigenic stimulus a. IgG b. lgA c. IgE d. IgD e. IgM

e. IgM