SWE102 Full
Which bearings are made of softer material than that of a shaft or slide?
plain bearings
Three types of bearings
plain, thrust, axial
what type of heat exchanger is used to cool jacket water, lube oil, and marine gas turbines?
plate type
what can result from errors in parallelism between mating gears?
poor teeth contact
How is tin measured in a spectrometric oil analysis?
ppm
what type of hydraulic pump accessory is used to reduce heat build up to save energy when the system is not doing work?
pressure compensator
back flushing is needed when
pressure drop throughout unit drops by 10psi
______ are used to adjust pressure valves to required values
pressure gauges
What is the common problem with meter out circuits?
pressure intensification
2 types of OWS
pressureized type and vacuum gravity type
Waster ring in the sea chest is for what?
prevent microbial growth
biocides do what?
prevent microbial growth
Convection
primary form of heat transfer in fluids from of heat
When taking on fuel, when should you do a clear and bright test?
prior to accepting fuel
What kind of oil pump is used on a vacuum gravity OWS?
progressive cavity
The R/O system...
provides fresh water by filtering seawater through a semi-permeable membrane under pressure
when removing ari impurities, it's called
purification
doubling the inside diameter of a line ________ the cross sectional area
quadruples
what type of movement do bearings limit
radial and axial
Which bearings support rotating shafts and limit radial motion?
radial bearings
What is the most common air compressor type?
reciprocating type
If slugging occurs in evaporator
reduce injection rate by 40-50%
Red Gear: what function does the piston and spring serve on the oil return pipe assembly?
regulate the low pressure oil supply
The most common type of pressure control valve is the
relief valve
On the 25' RBS trailer, what is a possible cause of the brakes having poor performance?
residual pressure in the brake lines
40 PSI or less on a TANB trailer is _____ discrepancy?
restrictive
crankshafts changes reciprocating motion into
rotary motion
Torque has what type of movement?
rotational
What is the Section 1 of the Cutter Engineering Report
safety
What is the primary concern during all training events?
safety
What state is the refrigerant in an AC/R system in when it is in liquid and gas from the same place?
saturated
What is applied to room temperature water when the temperature of the water rises?
sensible heat
When testing a P-1000 pyrometer and you read 0 ohms...
sensor is good / closed
What is used in a casrep to identify all casrep messages associated with a given casualty?
serial number
What circuit has only one path of current flow?
series circuit
A _____ is a directional valve that maybe invinitely positioned to provide control of both the quality and the direction of fluid flow.
servo valve
How many clutch plates are in the red gear of a 41 UTB?
seven
What does SPE stand for?
severity, probability, exposure
On a schematic, what will not be shown on an ID block?
sheet index
What is the name of the maximum pressure that a pump can produce?
shut off head
The two classiciations of centrifugal pumps are ____ and ____
singe stage and multi-stage
What electrical motors are used today that exceed the total of all other types together?
single plane AC induction motors
What type of pump does a P-100 have?
single stage, single suction, centrifugal pump
The color of wire terminals is used to determine the _____ of the wire it can be used on?
size
plain bearing is a
solid surface with a rolling contact
What is the ratio of the weight of a certain volume of liquid to the weight of the same volume of water called?
specific gravity
two terms used to describe gear type mechanisms are
speed and gear ratios
What is the most common seal found on a shaft
split inflatable seal
What kind of gears are on the output shaft gear?
spur
ESD sensitive components may be protected by one of what following methods?
Grouding, Isolation, Prevention
Which cutter fired the first shots of the Civil War?
Harriet Lane
COM M5000.3 Article 4-1-15 prohibits what?
Hazing
What cut are red gear teeth?
Helical
When troubleshooting with an ammeter use the ____ amp scale
Highest
C. None of the others
How is the system organized in a client-server model? A. A set of services is provided by clients and servers access and use these services B. All of the others C. None of the others D. A set of services is provided by servers and clients access and use these services
what cutter and torpedo boat USS Winslow have engaged in battle with spanish gunboats and shore batteries?
Hudson
What is Section 2 of the Cutter Engineering Report Cover?
Hull Inspection
All units with 50 or more full time billets are required what?
Human Relations Council
What does 1 parts line in a casrep do?
IDs parts required and quantity
What cutter forced the surfacing of a german submarine by using depth charges?
Icarus
Who served 39 years at Lime Rock Light House?
Ida Lewis
What does the 1parts line in a casrep do?
Identifies parts required and quantity.
A. localize critical operations and minimize communications; use large rather than fine-grain components
If performance is a critical requirement the architecture should be designed to A. localize critical operations and minimize communications; use large rather than fine-grain components B. All of the others C. include redundant components and mechanisms forfault tolerance D. use a layered architecture with critical assets in the inner layers
Fuel tanks are considered
Immediately dangerous to life or health, IDLH
A. Specification
In Component-based software engineering approach, which phase takes the least cost? A. Specification B. Design C. Development D. Integration and testing
Vacuum gauges indicate in what?
In HG
What does SSS stand for in a SSS clutch?
Sycro-Self-Shifting
SSS clutch stands for
Synchro Self Shifting
what does SSS stand for in an SSS clutch
Synchro Self Shifting
When testing relief valves on fin stabilizers put gauge on:
T54 and T55 main hydraulic distribution manifold
What are used to change anything on trailers?
TCTO
What was saw a higher percentage of Coast Guard personnel killed than any other service?
WWI
In what war did Cutter Jefferson capture first prize?
War of 1812
Fuel purifiers separate into three major components, what are they?
Water (heavy), Purified Fuel (light), Solids/Sludge
What is potable water
Water of drinking quality
When do you change the RO membrane?
Water output drops by 10-15% during first 48hrs of operation
interpersonal relationships are unauthorized between members at what type of unit?
cutters, units with less than 60 people, chiefs and below
what is the name of the maximum boiler TDS as a function of make-up tds?
cycles of concentration
Oxidation rates for petroleum based oil ________ for each 18f rise in temp higer than 140f
double
A ________ line carries leakage oil back to the reservoir to prevent pressure buildup?
drain line
In AC&R system, where does the mold grow?
drip pan
Primary Cell batteries are commonly known as ______ batteries
dry cell
How are allowances calculated for PCS?
effective date of orders
What is the biggest concern when working on electronic equipment?
electrostatic discharge
Which of the following is not an indication that the fluid has already exceeded the water saturation value?
emulsification
Lube Oil used continuously will form free fatty acids that react with oil to form
emulsion
In a casrep, what must be included in all propulsion systems?
engine type, hours, and serial numbers for each engine
what are used by the Coast Guard to administer configuration management process?
engineering change requests
US National flag called when displaced on a vessel or facility?
ensign
Audits of tag out logs are to be done...
every 2 weeks
Surface inspections of compressed air are performed
every 6 months
One of the major problems associated with piston type rotary actuators has been:
excessive leakage
What is not an indication of unloader valve trouble?
excessive pressure
Marine propulsion gas turbines typically add power torbinein the _____ of the gas turbine?
exhaust stream
The _____ fluid movess the _____ heat it can transfer
faster / more
what electronic info system contains supply info for all parts listed in the federal supply system?
fedlog
_____ valves are available in non pressure compensated or pressure compensated versions
flow control valves
counter flow is
fluids enter opposite sides of unit
In a heat exchanger, what are three things that reduce heat transfer?
fouling, scaling, blockage
How long will a P6 run on a fuel tank?
four hours
What type of clutch is commonly found on smaller high speed engines up to 500hp
friction clutch
anti friction bearing
friction is relatively low, journal bearing (radial load) and thrust bearing (axial load)
what type of bearings are used for guiding or supporting rotating components?
frictionless
The velocity is most commonly stated in ___________
ft/sec
This battery is a "recombatant" meaning that the oxygen that is normally provided on a positive plate in all lead-acid batteries
gel cell
what is the most common stop valve found in the cg?
globe valve
Who did america fight in 1812
great britain
What are the colors on an 87led pcb?
green, red, yellow, yellow
In a read gear, what design feature in the plate face allows the flow of cooling and lubricating oil to pass with equal distribution?
grid pattenrs
Who handles incident planning?
he incident planner
What does the pre-heater in an HVAC system do?
heat intake air preventing condensation
What cut are RG teeth?
helical
What cut are red gear teeth?
helical
what is used to shutdown the burner in the event the operative pressure controls do not secure the boiler?
high limit pressure control
Heat will always flow from?
high temp to low temp
When using the ammeter to trouble shoot a system, always use the _________ amp scale
highest
parallel flow in a heat exchange is?
hot and cold fluids enter the same end of unit
What are the major factors influencing shaft and bearing alignments?
hull deflection caused by temp variations, load and ballast conditions, hull speeds, heavy seas
What is produced while charging batteries?
hydrogen sulfide
High temp scale is formed by?
improper operation of heat exchangers over 200°f
How do you hook up an ammeter?
in series
In a red gear, what is the common cause of scoring or wear
inadequate lubrication
if scaling occurs in the evap:
increase injection rate by 40-50%
As RO input water temp rises, output ____
increases
What is an electronic component that stores energy in the form of a magnetic field and consists of a wire loop or coil?
inductor
the _____ function is used in CMPlus to request parts and/or materials from a units inventory
initial request
On a Honda 225/150, which valve does VTEC control?
intake
if the difference between TW and TS is over 4° then
intake air is being heated in the supply duct
Members willingness to aquire knowledge and the ability to use knowledge, skill, and direction to accomplish work fall under what leadership category?
performance
What are the two types of corrosive agents that affect bearing alloys
organic acids and electrolytes
How does a rise in RO input water temp affect the output rate?
output increases
a cause of center wear on a trailer tire is
over inflation
What is used in oil to prevent oil from thickening, sludge, or varnishing?
oxidation inhibitors
What circuit has more than one path of electrical circuit?
parallel
3 basic types of arrangements?
parallel flow, counter flow, cross flow
plate exchangers are?
parallel plates separated by gaskets
most shell and tube heat exchangers are
passive devices, no controls, no actual operation
B. False
If the applications or components are developed in difference programming language from the programming language you are using then you can not reuse that A. True B. False
D. To help develop stories that defines the requirements
In the extreme programming, what is the role of customer? A. To help define working process that would be followed by the development team B. To help define the team members C. To help code refactoring D. To help develop stories that defines the requirements
C. The architectural should be designed to localise critical operations and minimise communications, use large-grain rather than fine-grain components
Select the BEST solution for architectural design of a software system that performance is a critical requirement A. The architectural should be designed to localise critical operations and minimise communications, use fine-grain rather than large-grain components B. The architectural should be designed to localise critical operations and maximise communications, use large-grain rather than fine-grain components C. The architectural should be designed to localise critical operations and minimise communications, use large-grain rather than fine-grain components
C. Project manager should allocate experienced people to do the tasks on the critical path
Select the BEST statement about critical path A. Project manager do not need to know critical path B. Project manager do not need allocate experienced people to do the tasks on the critical path, any slippage in the completion in any critical activity not causes project delay C. Project manager should allocate experienced people to do the tasks on the critical path
D. The software system is large and that is need developed at several sites
The Waterfall approach is the BEST approach to development software when __ A. Adding some new features to a system B. Un-stable requirement systems C. The software system is small, unclear requirements D. The software system is large and that is need developed at several sites
B. True
The current trends suggest that the economies of ALL developed and developing nations are dependent on software A. False B. True
B. False
The distribution of the costs of software engineering NOT depends on the process model that is used A. True B. False
D. testing from a business perspective
The main focus of acceptance testing is: A. finding faults in the system B. ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users C. testing the system with other systems D. testing from a business perspective
A. People not process
The practices pair programming, collective ownership of the system code, and sustainable pace in Extreme Programming fit into which principle of agile methods? A. People not process B. Incremental delivery C. Maintain simplicity D. Customer involvement E. Embrace change
B. Embrace change
The practices regular system release, test-first development and continuous integration in Extreme Programming fit into which principle of agile methods? A. Maintain simplicity B. Embrace change C. Customer involvement D. People not process E. Incremental delivery
E. Incremental delivery
The practices small, frequent releases of the system, the approach to requirements description base on customer stories or scenarios in Extreme Programming fit into which principle of agile methods? A. Maintain simplicity B. People not process C. Embrace change D. Customer involvement E. Incremental delivery
B. The dependencies between activities, the estimated time required to reach each milestone and the allocation of people to activities
The project schedule shows ___ A. The resources available to the project, the work breakdown and a schedule for carrying out the work. B. The dependencies between activities, the estimated time required to reach each milestone and the allocation of people to activities
B. Maximize the reuse of existing software
The trend of Reuse-based software engineering is an approach to development that tries to ___ A. Design system from the scratch B. Maximize the reuse of existing software C. Minimize the reuse of existing software D. Design system from original software development
C. Reuse of existing system or component
The trend of design process in most software engineering disciplines is base on ___ A. Design system from the scratch B. Design system from original software development C. Reuse of existing system or component
A. Application system, Component reuse, Object and function
Which part of the system can be reuse? (Choose one) A. Application system, Component reuse, Object and function B. Application system, Object and function, Production environment C. Application system, Component reuse, Project team member
A. False
You can not to combine multiple patterns in the complex software system A. False B. True
GAR model 0-23 is what color?
Green
What does I stand for in an electrical circuit?
current
Under what article of the UCMJ gives Pos apprehension authority?
7th
All standard hydraulic hoses have a normal replacement cycle of __________
8 years
What does section IV cover in the cutter engineering report?
Admin
Who was the founder of the Coast Guard?
Alexander Hamilton
What are the tthree shapes that roller bearings come in?
Cylindrical, tapered, barrel
MPU-23 card exhibits what colors when operating normally?
Green, yellow, yellow
The 25' RBS tire pressure above 50psi is what?
Major
2 categories of bearings
Plain and anti friction
What are 2 categories of bearings?
Plain and anti friction
two types of bearings
Plain and anti friction
What is required for moisture separators below 125 psi
Plastic or metal bowls
How do you hook up batteries in a series
Pos to neg, neg to pos
PWQL stands for?
Potable water quantity log
What is osmotic pressure?
Pressure between saline and pure water sides
Two types of OWS
Pressurized / vacuum, gravity
Biocides
Prevent microbial growth
what type of engine is the P-100... how much horse power does it have?
4 cycle diesel engine, 10hp
What is the time limit for resetting an ECM on a honda 225
4-5 second cycles, 20 seconds
How long is a sea trial period required to last?
4-6 hours
How long does a dump cycle last on an OWS
4-6 seconds
How long is the oil dump cycle last on a vacuum gravity OWS?
4-6 seconds
What kind of valve is needed when a straight-line flow and minimum flow restriction is needed?
Gate valve
What is the most common oil pump used in the CG?
Gear pump.
What are the 3 types of displacement pumps?
Gear, Vane, Piston
1918 sisters ______ and ______ became the 1st uniform women into the CG
Geneviene and Lucille Baker
A. AFDEI
Given the project activities chart as below, please define the critical path (the values mention in each arrow are activity name and activity duration) A. AFDEI B. ABCIE C. AFGHI D. ABCI
In an evaporator, how is the steam feed heater vented to the shell of the fins and stage condensor?
...
Three types of bearings
...
sodium hypochlorite (liquid bleach)"
...
Chlorine low + high range
.1-1.0ppm and 2.0-10.0ppm
In an evaporator, what is the maximum salinity that water cannot exceed?
.25 grains per gallon
What is the acceptable leakage past an emergency inflatable shaft seal?
0-1...
LP air
0-150psi
how thin are plates in a plate exchanger?
0.024
what is 1/8 in decimal?
0.125
Free available Chlorine (FAC) 30 minutes after treatment?
0.2ppm
What should the total bromine residual (TBR) 30 minutes after treatment?
0.2ppm
max tube hole diameters for 3/8 and 1/4
0.395 and 0.265
The driving power of a P-100?
1 cylinder / 4 stroke diesel
P100 is a ____
1 cylinder 4 stroke diesel motor
The driving power for a P-100
1 cylinder/ 4 stroke diesel- P100 TP S6226-NM-MMC-010, Chapter 3 pg.11
What is a battery
1 or more cells
What identifies MILSTRIP info?
1 strip
rugger bearing clearanges:
1" and 2": 0.005" to 0.05" / 3": 0.006" to 0.06"
First 10 cutters
1)Active, 2)Vigilant, 3) Argus, 4)GenGreen, 5)Diligence, 6)Scammel, 7)Eagle, 8)Virginia, 9)South Carolina, 10)Massachusetts
When do you change lube oil on the MDEs
1,000hrs
When cleaning "light" to "medium" fouling, use a flow rate of...
1-2ft per second
what year was the mexican american war
1846
The federal life saving service took shape in what year?
1848
what year in the navy did specialty marks come available?
1866
In ______ Samuel C Kimball recreated the life saving service
1871
what year was the life service "reborn"?
1871
In the Navy, what year did pay grades come available E4 to E6?
1886
Air sirens provided warnings when?
1887
What year did Chief Petty Officer become a rank in the Navy?
1893
What is the full throttle speed of a P6? Idle speed?
3900 / 1400
2 approved biocides
"Biopor - JF Nal-Fleet 9-303"
2 types of chlorine?
"Calcium hypochlorite (granular)
2 forms of chlorine
"Calcium hypochlorite (granular) sodium hypochlorite (liquid bleach)"
What are the limits on EMI?
"EMI normally will not be conducted for more than two hours per day conducted at a reasonable time outside normal working hours. EMI will not be conducted over a period that is longer than necessary to correct the performance deficiency for which it was assigned EMI will not be performed on the member’s Sabbath. EMI will not be used to deprive the member of normal liberty to which the member is otherwise entitled."
"What type of bearings are commonly used as wrist pin bearings? What are the common sizes?"
"Needle Bearings 5/64 to 5/32"
5 levels of FPCon?
"Normal, Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta"
What 3 things should red gears be free of?
"Oil Water Dirt"
STAAR?
"Spread out Transfer Avoid Accept Reduce"
What are the four originating authorities authorize?
"The Commandant, Area District Commander, MLC Command, Commanding Officers"
He also wrote ____."
"WWI and in Korea Roots"
Fuel purifiers separate into three major components, what are they?
"Water (heavy) purified fuel (light) solids and sludge"
What is the greatest threat to mounted bearings and what is the cause?
"britteling of the races poor handling"
Gas containers should be labeled
"flammable"
a report of survey is needed when the value is over $______
$500
What is the formula for converting Celsius to Fahrenheit?
(C*1.8)+32
check sensor coil resistance calibration
(x10 ohms) scale
To test resistance on a charge coil calibrate OHMeter to
(x100 ohms) scale
.
.
How thick must the safety chains be on the trailer?
1/2 inch
The two safety chains on a 25 foot RBS trailer must be _____ galvanized steel.
1/2"
What is the size length of the breakline on trailers?
1/8th
Hydraulic hoses shall not exceed how many years?
10
In a boat inspections report, how long do you have to report submitted to MLC?
10 days after completion of inspection
Potable water hoses shall be labeled every
10 feet
there should be no more than ____ inches of Hg of vacuum lost in 10 minute son a P-250 vacuum test
10 inches of Hg
static load test of davit should be how long?
10 minutes
How many points will a minor safety violation be deducted?
10 or 15 points
What is a hose shelf life?
10 years
In a heat exchanger, what is the maximum the tubes can be plugged?
10%
The ISO viscosity grade for the 2135th fluid is 68, meaning the fluid viscosity at 104f (40c) will be 68c, +/- _______
10%
To check if charge coil is shorted to ground, calibrate ohmeter to?
10,000 ohms scale
what is the tow capacity of the rbs trainer?
10,000lbs
The hitch receiver for the 26' TANB must be rated at _____ lbs of dead weight.
10,600lbs
what is the tow capacity of the tanb trainer?
10,600lbs
For petroleum based fluids, a water content of less than _____ percent is desirable.
100...?
When the oil changed on a red gear?
1000hrs
B: Heterogeneity
10: Which is NOT the general issue that affects most software? A: Security and trust B: Heterogeneity C: The life time challenge D: Business and social change
How many headquarters directorates are there?
11
How many missions are under the 5 coast guard roles?
11
Before use, subject temporary hoses to a shop hydrostatic test pressure of at least _____% of the max pressure to which the hose will be subject to during temporary use on the ship
110%
How many active duty days are reservists allowed per year?
12
How many days ADT are reservist allowed a year?
12
On a boiler, after you perform a blowdown, how long must you wait before retesting the feed water?
12 hours
what must a battery terminal votlage be to test?
12.6v
For the 25' RBS trailer you should periodically check hub assemblies to make sure that they are within normal specs _____ during each trip.
130-175°
The hand can usually be held in with a surface below what temp?
131°f
What Casualty Category causes a loss of at least the primary mission?
4
Flashpoint of F-76?
140deg
Flashpoint of F-76?
140°
What is the flashpoint of F-76
140°
What code gives the CG its law enforcement authority?
14usc89a
Dynamic Load test is performed at _____% of davits rated load
150%
What % of working pressure do you test a temp hose to?
150%
What percent of working pressure do you test a temporary hose to?
150%
What is the air starting pressure required to be?
150-250psi
fire mains operate at approximately
150psi
What is the low operating pressure of an air compressor
150psi or less
What is the medium operating pressure of an air compressor?
151-1000
Medium pressure air
151-1000psi
What is the normal operating range of diesel start air?
151-1000psi
medium pressure air is
151psi to 1000psi
OWS will not discharge if oil content is over ______
15ppm
In an evaporator, the water in the first stage must be what temp or else it will be dumped overboard?
165
What year did Congress authorize the seizure of a French vessel
1798
What year did congress authorize the CG to seize french vessels off the US Coast
1798
What year was the navy established?
1798
what year were cutters charged with preventing slaves coming from america?
1798
Ida lewis served 39 years at lime rock light house and saved how many lives?
18 lives
What year did the petty officer become official?
1808
How many degrees does the crankshaft travel between TDC and BDC?
180°
What temp do you clean used bearings in?
180°
in what year did the cutter jefferson capture the 1st prize?
1812
What year was the Mexican American War
1846
What year was the Mexican American War?
1846
What caused the revenue cutter service to take over ice patrols?
1912 sinking of the titanic
What year was the formal creation of the CG?
1915
What years was the official CG seal and emblem designated?
1927
CG Auxiliary was created when?
1939
What year did the lighthouse service come into the coast guard?
1939
What year was the Coast Guard given cold weather operations in greenland?
1941
What year and who was the first ever masterchief?
1958 Jack Kerwin
What year did the CG Standard change to the CG Flag?
1962
What year did the coast guard "slash" appear throughout the coast guard?
1967
What year and who was the first MC of the coast guard
1969 Charles Calhoun
What year did congress enact the magnuson-stevens act that resulted in the creation of the EEZ?
1976
What year did all officers and enlisted ratings become open to all women?
1978
What year was all officer and career fields and ratings open for women?
1978
What 4 fields must be completed in the empoyee review tab?
1: Effective Date, 2: From/To Date, 3: Review type, 4: Retina Scale
B: Specification
1: In Component-based software engineering approach, which phase takes the most cost? A: Development B: Specification C: Design D: Integration and testing
How much do you fill an oil sample bottle for NOAP?
1ml
What is an O2 in the army?
1st LT
How many bags does it take to pack a P6?
2
How many dipsticks are there on a P-100?
2
What casualty category is a primary mission or a major degradation or loss of secondary mission?
2
How far from base is the fittings on the bottom of the boiler?
2 3/8"
What is the size of the ball on the trailer hitch?
2 5/16
How many days must you wait before you can do the final alignment on a shaft?
2 days / 48 hours
What is crossflow?
2 fluids flow at right angles
Max EMI
2 hours
What is the max time for EMI?
2 hours per day.
For the boat master trailer and the sure lube bearing system, a zerk fitting should be greased about every...
2 months
What should the air gap be on a potable water pipe?
2 times the diameter
How long are casreps/cascors held for?
2 years
How long can you store a dry cell battery under proper conditions?
2 years
How long shoul evan sheets be kept for drills?
2 years
How long will all training evaluations sheets be kept for?
2 years
Potable water with bromine levels exceeding _____ should not be ingested
2.7 milligrams
How long will a P100 operate for with one tank of fuel?
2.75 hours
Bromine levels higher than ____ are unusable
2.7ml
Static load test is performed at _____ of the davits rated load.
200%
In a boiler, what is the feed water temperature that assists in the removal of dissolved oxygen?
200f
plate exchangers are designed for continuous use at...
200f and 180psig
what date did the CG officially transfer to homeland security?
23-Feb-03
What temp has been established as the maximum limit for general bearing applications?
230f
max limit for general bearing app
230f
How long do you have to submit a casrep?
24 hours
No flammable liquid permitted within ____ feet of flight deck
25'
After an oil and filter change, how many hours of engine operation should be allowed before oil sampling?
25hrs
What is the minimum amount of operating hours you can take samples from machinery?
25hrs
what should the air gap be for potable water pipes?
2x^s diameter
What casualty category causes a major degradation but not a loss of a primary mission?
3
How long are CSMPs held for?
3 years
How long are boat inspection reports kept for?
3 years
what is the breakline assembly rated for on a trailer?
3,000psi
A6 hose would be _____ in inside diameter?
3/8"
How long should you wait to perform a bottom blowdown on a boiler to remove sludge?
30 minutes
electrostatic discharge voltage
3000v (damage occurs at 1000v)
What is the boat inspections report form #?
3022
Fatalities have occurred from circuits as low as?
30volts
How many CG units report directly to headquarters?
35
highest temp and pressure of plate type exchanger?
350f and 350psig
Normal osmosis occurs under what osmotic pressure?
350psi
For the 25' RBS, what is the torque on the m111.5 caliper ataching bolt is
38-40ft/lbs
How many points will be deducted for a major safety violation during a drill?
40
What is the smallest particle size visible to the naked eye?
40 microns
What is the smallest visible particle to the naked eye?
40 microns
What is considered a hot surface?
400*+
With regards to flange shields on a diesel fuel system, what is considered a hot surface?
400f
Test condenser tubes at ___ psi for ___ minutes
400psi / 5 minutes
At what RPM does the VTEC Honda 150 switch from LO to HI?
4300
At what speed/RPM does the VTED on a honda ISO switch from the low speed to the high speed cam?
4300rpm
1987 BMCM Donald Horsley retired after _____ years of service.
44
On a Honda 250, what RPM does the VTech engage?
4500
What valve has 3 different types of functions: straight flow, angle flow, and cross flow?
Globe Valve
What is the Cutter Engineering Report form number?
4874
A: There are no right or wrong software processes
4: Which statement is correct about software processes? A: There are no right or wrong software processes B: There are right or wrong software processes
How long will a p6 run on a fuel tank
4hrs
Non-standard hydraulic hose that are installed in the weather and exposed to the elements, and do not have an outer covering specifying designed for such abuse should be replaced every ______ years
5 years
what percentage of hours is reccomended changed to eliminate all hoses changed at once?
5%
for the boat mast trailer, you should grease the actuators four rollers every _____ miles or _____ days of use
5,000 miles and 90 days
What is the acceptable leak rate for a screw type hydraulic shaft seal
50 milliliters
RO dumps overboard at what PPM?
500 or more?
"large" heat exchanges have
500+ tubes
What is the max allowable water content for petroleum base fluids?
500ppm
What is the acceptable leakage rate for a screw type hydraulic pump seal?
50mil
acceptable leak rate of hydraulic shaft seal?
50ml
B: Software engineering is concerned with theories, methods and tools for professional software development
7: What is software engineering concerned with? A: Software engineering is concerned with theories and methods that underlie computers and software systems B: Software engineering is concerned with theories, methods and tools for professional software development
ECR form #?
5682
B. This standard allows a service interface and its bindings to be defined
5: What is the correct sequence of the following activities in the debugging process? (1) Repair error (2) Design error repair (3) Locate error (4) Re-test program
What is the size of the placard that need sto be mounted by the OWS?
5x8
How many pulls do you have to start a P6?
6
What are the tie down straps rated for on the trailer?
6,000lbs
How much HP does a P6 have, GPM at what suction lift?
6.5hp, 250gpm at 12ft lift
If a can buss has 120 ohms resistance at each end, what is the total resistance on a good can buss?
60 ohms
Air flask
600+ psi
Air flask holds?
600+ psi
How would the fourth casualty of the year 2006 be reported?
6004
air receiver should be kept below
600psi
What section of the clean air act must a technician be certified to open a refridgerant system?
608
If a CAN bus has 120 ohm resistors on each end what is the total resistance
60ohm
In a high lift suction how much will the P100 deliver and at what PSI?
68gpm, 45psi when lifting 39ft
A: Specification
6: In Waterfall approach, which phase takes the least cost? A: Specification B: Integration and testing C: Design D: Development
If you parallel 4 6 volt batteries what is your voltage
6v
When drawing a hydraulic sample, the bottle should be about ______% full
70%
Reverse osmosis occurs under what osmotic pressure?
700-1000psi
when "punching tubes" do not exceed
7000psi
Acceptable pH level for taking water?
8.5 or less
It is estimated that over _____ percent of hydraulic system failures are due to poor fluid condition.
80%
What percent of hydraulic failures are due to contamination?
80%
When conducting performance test engines should normally operate at ___% of CG load?
80-90%
when conducting engine performance test, they should be operated at what %
80-90% of CG rated load
when should single hearing protection and double hearing protection be worn?
85 and 104
For the boat master trailer log nuts are torqued to
85-95ftlbs
what type of fuel does the p6 use?
86 octane
B: The processes of specification, design and implementation are concurrent
8: Which is NOT related to a characteristic of rapid application development processes? A: It is always possible to arrive at a stable, consistent set of system requirements B: The processes of specification, design and implementation are concurrent C: System user interfaces are usually developed using an interactive development system D: The system is developed in a series of increments. End users evaluate each increment and make proposals for later increment
In the AMPN, what is the maximum continuation lines can be used?
9
What should the start rope position be on the p6?
9 oclock
Use -/- copper nickel allow condensers on surface ships
90/10
Failure to ober an order violates what two articles?
91 and 92
casrep/cascoor: what is the maximum continuation lines in the remarks (RMKS) section?
99
B: reMaintaining simplicity reduce effort
9: Which is NOT a problem with agile methods? A: Difficult to keep the interest of customers who are involved in the process B: reMaintaining simplicity reduce effort C: Team members may be unsuited to the intense involvement that characterises agile methods D: Prioritising changes can be difficult where there are multiple stakeholders
Are there the best software engineering techniques and methods? A. No, You can't say that one method is better than another. B. Yes, You can use the best methods for all types of software system
A
What is software engineering discipline concerned with? A. Using appropriate theories and methods to solve problems bearing in mind organizational and financial constraints B. Using appropriate program languages to solve problems bearing in mind organizational and financial constraints C. Using appropriate tools to program to solve problems bearing in mind organizational and financial constraints
A
Which is CORRECT statement about the Rational Unified Process? A. Brings together aspects of the 3 generic process models include the waterfall model, incremental development and Reuse-iented software engineering B. Rational Unified Process is NOT an iterative software development process C. The whole set of phases can NOT be enacted incrementally
A
Which is CORRECT statement describe product backlog concept in SCRUM method? A. Product backlog is a prioritized list of the features and other capabilities needed to develop a successful product. B. Product backlog helps everyone involved understand and embrace the Scrum values, principles, and practices. C. Product backlog is the single authority responsible for deciding which features and functionality to build and the order in which to build them. D. Product backlog is an agile approach for developing innovative products or services
A
Which is NOT a key characteristic of Sprints in SCRUM method? A. long and NOT consistent duration B. Timeboxed C. Have a short and consistent duration D. have a goal that shouldn't be altered once started
A
Which is NOT an advantage of incremental delivery? A. Lower risk of overall project failure. B. The highest priority system services tend to receive the most testing. C. Early increments act as a prototype to help elicit requirements for later increments. D. The specification is developed in conjunction with the software
A
Which is correct statement about all aspects of software production? A. All aspects of software production are not just only technical process of development of tools, methods etc. to support software production B. All aspects of software production are just only project management and software production development but also project management and the development of tools, methods etc. to support C. All aspects of software production are just only technical process of development
A
Which is the CORRECT statement about common process activities? A. The four basic process activities of specification, development, validation and evolution are organized differently in different development processes B. The four basic process activities of specification, development, validation and evolution are always has the same order in different development processes C. The four basic process activities of specification, development, validation and evolution NOT always involve in all types of software processes model
A
What fuel type can the P-100 use?
Grade 2 F76 or JP5
Which is the CORRECT statement about development and validation sector in Boehm's spiral model? A. A development model for the system is chosen which can be any of the generic models B. A development model for the system is chosen which can only be the incremental development C. A development model for the system is chosen which can only be the waterfall model D. A development model for the system is chosen which can only be the reuse-oriented software engineering
A
Which is the advantage of incremental development compare to waterfall process model? A. The amount of analysis and documentation that has to be redone is much less than is required with the waterfall model B. incremental development is only appropriate when the requirements are well-understood and changes will be fairly limited during the design process C. Incorporating further software changes becomes increasingly difficult and costly.
A
Which of the following requirement statements belongs to functional requirements? A. An article information shall include Author, Title, Description and other related information B. The response time for each screen is must be less than 2 seconds C. The user interface shall be implemented as simple HTML without frames D. The system is implemented by using Java, Oracle database
A
C. Facilities to compare test results with expected results.
A configuration management system would NOT normally provide: A. Restricted access to the source code library. B. The precise differences in versions of software component source code. C. Facilities to compare test results with expected results. D. Linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
C. 3,10,22
A program validates a numeric field as follows: values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected A. 10,11,21 B. 3,20,21 C. 3,10,22 D. 10,21,22
B. False
A successful defect test is a test which causes a program to behave in an normal way A. True B. False
D: 3 => 2 => 1 => 4
A: 4 => 3 => 1 => 2 B: 2 => 4 => 3 => 1 C: 1 => 2 => 4 => 3 D: 3 => 2 => 1 => 4
Who served 38 years at Mantinicus Rock Light House?
Abbie Burgess
_____ _____ served 38 years at Matineus Rock & White Head Light House while tending to her family?
Abbie Burgess
HP air
Above 1000psi
C. User
Acceptance testing will be done by A. Developer B. Project manager C. User D. Tester
What type of bolts must be used on trailers?
Grade 8
B. Reduce maintenance costs
All of the fallowings are main benefits of software reuse EXCEPT A. Accelerated development B. Reduce maintenance costs C. Increased dependability D. Reduced process risk E. Effective use of specialists
A. To test all functions of the completed system
All of the fallowings are the ways that a software prototype may be used EXCEPT A. To test all functions of the completed system B. To run back-to-back tests with the implemented system C. To explore software design solutions and support user interface design D. To help with the elicitation and validation of requirements
C. Object-oriented evolution
All of the following are stages in an object-oriented development process EXCEPT? A. Object-oriented analysis B. Object-oriented design C. Object-oriented evolution D. Object-oriented programming
A. Conversion
All of the following are the complementary strategies to achieve survivability EXCEPT A. Conversion B. Resistance C. Recognition D. Recovery
B. How will data be exchanged between different modules
All of the following are the design choices have to be made when reusing COTS products EXCEPT A. Which COTS products offer the most appropriate functionality B. How will data be exchanged between different modules C. How will data be exchanged between different products D. What features of a product will actually be used.
D. Reduce maintain cost
All of the following are the main benefits of software reuse EXCEPT A. Increased dependability B. Effective use of specialists, standards compliance C. Accelerated development D. Reduce maintain cost E. Reduced process risk
A. Component generators
All of the following are types of program generator EXCEPT A. Component generators B. Parser and lexical analyser generators C. Application generators D. Code generators
A. All of the others
All of the following statement about design pattern are true EXCEPT ( tat ca deu dung) A. A pattern description should include a pattern name, a problem and solution description, and a statement of the results and trade-offs of using the pattern B. They are fundamental to design reuse in object-oriented development C. Design patterns are detail-level abstractions that document successful design solutions.
What is needed to keep a distribution list that is not listed on your platform?
Allowance of change.
A. Generalization
Another name for .. . is a...] relationship is ___ A. Generalization B. Aggregation C. Association D. Composition
A. Composition
Another name for .. .has a...] relationship is ___ A. Composition B. Association C. Realization D. Generalization
B. Generalization
Another name for inheritance is ___ A. Association B. Generalization C. Aggregation D. Composition
What coolant is used in keel coolers?
Anti freeze
B. True
Applications frameworks are collections of concrete and abstract objects that are designed to be reused through specialization and the addition of new objects. A. False B. True
Almis
Asset Logistics Management Information Systems
What year was the MCPOCG established?
Aug 17th, 1969
What is the birthday of the Coast Guard?
Aug 4, 1790
The lighhouse service came into the trasury dept when?
Aug 7th 1789
Who can sign to place or remove tags?
Authorizing officer
Two types of brominators?
Auto proportion, recirculating
Thrust bearings support which type of movement
Axial
Are the software engineering methods and tools used depending on the requirements of the customer and the background of the development team? A. No B. Yes
B
What is SCRUM? A. Scrum is a water-fall-based approach for developing innovative products or services B. Scrum is an agile approach for developing innovative products or services C. Scrum is a plan-based approach for developing innovative products or services D. Scrum is a component-based approach for developing innovative products or services
B
Which are types of non-functional requirement? (Choose one) A. Organizational requirements; External requirements; Non-Functional Requirements B. Product requirements; Organizational requirements; External requirements C. Organizational requirements; External requirements; System Requirements D. User requirements; Organizational requirements; External requirements
B
Which is the CORRECT describe Scrum Master in Scrum team? A. Scrum Master is who responsible for designing, building, and testing the desired product. B. Scrum Master helps everyone involved understand and embrace the Scrum values, principles, and practices. C. Scrum Master is the single authority responsible for deciding which features and functionality to build and the order in which to build them.
B
Which is the CORRECT statement about four basic process activities in incremental development? A. The four basic process activities of specification, development, validation and evolution NOT always involve in incremental development B. The four basic process activities of specification, development, validation and evolution are inter-leaved in sequence in cremental development C. The four basic process activities of specification, development, validation and evolution are organized in sequence in incremental development
B
Which of the following requirement statements belongs to non-functional requirements? A. An article information shall include Author, Title, Description and other related information B. The user interface shall be implemented as simple HTML without frames C. The system shall be able to search either all of the initial set of databases or select a sub set from it, D. The system shall provide appropriate viewers for the user to read documents in the document store
B
Which is an example of customized software product? A. Software for specific markets such as appointments systems for dentists B. Project management tools C. Air traffic control software
C
Why water-fall model cannot be applied in Rapid development? A. It requires requirement changing during the development phase B. Within the rapid development model, requirement can be change frequently C. This is not a modern model D. It requires deployment phase
B
Who served 44 years, four months, and 27 days in the Coast Guard
BMCM Donald Horsley
Rudder stock is supported by what?
Bearings
What is the rudder stock supported by?
Bearings
A. Unit testing
Before doing integration testing this testing must have been done A. Unit testing B. System testing C. Stress testing
Air receiver
Below 600 psi
What are 2 approved biocides?
Biobor-JF and NalFleet 9-303
B. True
Both the waterfall model of the software process and the prototyping model can be accommodated in the spiral process model. A. False B. True
2 approved halogens for disinfecting water
Bromine and chlorine
How are contaminants introduced into the system?
Built in, ingress, and internally generated
What are metrics for specifying non-functional requirements? (Choose one) A. Speed, Multilanguage, Ease of use, Reliability, Robustness, Portability B. Speed, GUI(Graphic User Interface), Ease of use, Reliability, Robustness, Portability C. Speed, Size, Ease of use, Reliability, Robustness, Portability
C
Which is CORRECT statement about Boehm's spiral model? A. The process is represented as a sequence of activities B. The phases such as specification or design - loops in the spiral are fixed C. No fixed phases such as specification or design - loops in the spiral are chosen depending on what is required
C
Which is NOT a basic role of Scrum team? A. Product owner B. Development team C. Tester D. Scrum master
C
Which is NOT the general issue that affects most software? .A. Business and social change B. Security and trust C. The life time challenge D. Heterogeneity
C
Which is the BEST case to use Agile methods? A. Agile methods used in product development where a software company is developing a large-sized product and large team members B. Agile methods used in product development where a software company is developing a large-sized product for sale C. Agile methods used in product development where a software company is developing a small or medium-sized product for sale
C
Which is the CORRECT describe Product owner in Scrum team? A. Product owner helps everyone involved understand and embrace the Scrum values, principles, and practices. B. Product owner is who responsible for designing, building, and testing the desired product. C. Product owner is the single authority responsible for deciding which features and functionality to build and the order in w ich to build them.
C
What is the advances worksheet?
CG PSC 2010
what is the form # for report of survgey?
CG5269
Which cutter was captured by the british frigate narcissis during the war of 1812?
CGC Surveyor
What system does the supervisor of an engine overhaul use to document completion of an overhaul?
CMPlus
Who designates the authorizing officer in a tag out log?
CO
In 1982, the 1st ______ conversed
CPOA
Which cutter sank a sub by ramming it
Campbell
Which cutter sank a submarine by ramming it?
Campbell
B. Yes
Can two objects associate with one another in more than one way? A. No B. Yes
when d oyou have to submit a casrep?
Cannot be fixed within 48hrs. Unit cannot perform primary and/or secondary mission.
Gasoline is classified
Cat I, flammable
Gasoline is classified
Category 1, flammable
D. All of the others
Change request is proposal due to ______ A. Market forces B. Customers C. Developers D. All of the others
Who was the first MCPOCG
Charles C. Callhoun
What are the two approved halogens?
Chlorine and Bromine
In a red gear, what kind of action occurs when the oil level is too high and begins to foam?
Churning
The hitch required when towing the 25' RBS EZ Loader trailer shall be a minimum of...
Class V
What is the minimum class hitch required to tow a boat?
Class V
What are the 5 major sections of a marine turbine?
Compressor, Combustion chamber, gas generator turbine, accessor drive, free turbine
4 parts of a turbine
Compressor, combustor, turbine, auxiliary
What are the four parts of a turbine
Compressor, combustor, turbine, auxiliary
Why shouldn't bearings be stored in unheated areas? What temp should bearings not be stored above?
Condensation may form on cols areas. 120*f
B. System users are authenticated using a login name/password combination. Requires user change password after 2 months
Consider security design for username and password protection, what is the good design? (Choose one) A. Username and Password cannot be blank. Username can be any characters B. System users are authenticated using a login name/password combination. Requires user change password after 2 months C. Requires user change password after 2 months. Username can be any characters D. Username can be any characters. Password can be blank
80% of hydraulic failure is due to?
Contamination
What do governors do?
Control fuel rack position
In a "CAN BUS" what does CAN stand for?
Controller area network
In can buss, what does can stand for?
Controller area network
3 types of maintenance?
Corrective, Preventative, Alternative
What is plotted during DEMPS?
Crank case vacuum, Intake Air Pressure, Exhaust Pressure, Lube Oil Consumption
During the Spanish - American war, what cutter carrying 6 guns, 10 officers, and 95 crew members engaged in the batle of Manilla Bay?
Cutter McCulloch
Which cutter during the Quasi War captured 10 prizes, one of which carried 44 guns and 200 men?
Cutter Pickering
Who captured 10 prizes during the Quazi war?
Cutter Pickering
Who captured 10 prizes one having 44 guns and 200 men during the Quasi war?
Cutter Pickering
who captures 10 prizes during the quasi war?
Cutter Pickering
What are types of interface? (Choose one) A. User interfaces, Data structures that are exchanged, Data representations B. Graphic User interfaces, Data structures that are exchanged, Data representations C. Procedural interfaces, Data structures that are exchanged, Data flow D. Procedural interfaces, Data structures that are exchanged, Data representations
D
Which is NOT a benefit of short-duration in SCRUM method? A. Frequent checkpoints B. Difficult of planning C. Fast feedback D. Ease of planning
D
Which is NOT a problem with agile methods? A. Prioritising changes can be difficult where there are multiple stakeholders. B. Difficult to keep the interest of customers who are involved in the process. C. Team members may be unsuited to the intense involvement that characterises agile methods. D. Maintaining simplicity reduce effort
D
Which is the main drawback of the waterfall process model? A. The waterfall process model is visible. B. The waterfall process model is NOT visible. C. System structure tends to degrade 6. D. The difficulty of accommodating change after the process is underway.
D
What symbol is a circle with a + and - in it?
DC power supply
What is the oil analysis request form?
DD2026
What is the oil type you use on trailers?
DOT3
When are blow downs done and what RPM?
Daily and 1000rpm
The CGC _____ had the largest migrant rescue of 578 migrants from a 75' coastal freighter
Dauntless
B. An exploitation of a system's vulnerability. Generally, this is from outside the system and is a deliberate attempt to cause some damage
Define the security terms 'attack' A. The possible loss or harm that could result from a successful attack. This can be loss or damage to data or can be a loss of time and effort if recovery is necessary after a security breach. B. An exploitation of a system's vulnerability. Generally, this is from outside the system and is a deliberate attempt to cause some damage C. A weakness in a computer based system that may be exploited to cause loss or harm
First enlisted woman OIC affloat?
Dianne Bucci in 1988
Demps
Diesel Engine Maintenance Program
During an oil change on a Honda outboard you find metal shavings. What do you do?
Disassemble and inspect
What are two types of friction clutches?
Disc and Band
_____ is a high frequency low amplitude A/C signal used to offset the effects known as hystrisis
Dither
B. True
Domain requirements may be functional or non-functional requirements A. False B. True
Which cutter aground on Long Island
Eagle
Which cutter ran aground on Long Island?
Eagle
What is commonly comprised of sulfuric acid and distilled water?
Electrolyte
Which two cutters delivered rifles to the troops before the battles of Monterey and Buena Vista?
Ewing and Legare
What portion of the gas turbine cycle is harnessed to clo work?
Exhaust
JP5 is known as
F-44
What fuel is used in a P-100?
F76 or JP5
What fuel is used in a P100?
F76-JP5
What interactive query is the most commonly used query in the CG
FLIS
What components should you check prior to engine disassembly for an overhaul?
Face and bore alignment between flywheel and flexible coupling.
This terms refers to repeated stressing of a surface.
Fatigue
Gas containers should be labeled
Flammable
Which component can be pressure compensated or non pressure compensated
Flow control valve
Torque
Force that causes rotational movement
What is the dry docking / underwater inspections form #?
Form 2926
4 baisc types of oil contamination
Fuel Dilution, Acid Contamination, Water, Insolubles
Which electrical component code starts with an "F"?
Fuse, circuit breaker, or power supply
Who did America fight in the war of 1812
Great Britain
C. Specification
In Iterative development approach, which phase takes the least cost? A. Iterative development B. System Testing C. Specification D. Design
How would you test a 4-20ma sensor?
In MA series
D. Specification
In Waterfall approach, which phase takes the least cost? A. Design B. Integration and testing C. Development D. Specification
D. Specification
In Waterfall approach, which phase takes the least cost? A. Development B. Integration and testing C. Design D. Specification
A. Integration and testing
In Waterfall approach, which phase takes the most cost? A. Integration and testing B. Design C. Specification D. Development
A. Dynamic perspective, Static perspective, Practice perspective
In contrast, the RUP (Rational Unified Process) is normally described from which types of perspectives? A. Dynamic perspective, Static perspective, Practice perspective B. Dynamic perspective, Static perspective, Deployment perspective C. Dynamic perspective, Static perspective, Behavior perspective D. Dynamic perspective, Static perspective, Iterative perspective
A. True
In reality, the distinction between different types of requirements is not clear-cut A. True B. False
Vacuum gauges indicate in what?
Inches Hg
As reverse osmosis input water temperature rises, output....
Increases
What are the two types of A/C motors?
Induction and Synchronous
On a Honda 225 / 150 which valve does VTEC control?
Intake
What type of training team must cutters 175 ni length or larger have to have?
Integrated Training Team
What OBTT must be established specifically for cutters 175 in length
Integrating Training Team
What does the 1 parts line in a casrep do?
It identifies the parts required and quantity
what is modern hydraulics best fittings?
JIC 37°
what is the most common flare fitting in the cg?
JIC 37°
What year was the current CG flag approved?
Jan 28th, 1964
When is your cutter engineering report due?
Jan 31s as per ComDinst M9000.6E
When is the cutter engineering report due?
Jan 31st
What year did the revenue cutter service and the life saving service merge to create the Coast Guard?
January 28th, 1915
What is an O9 in the army?
LT General
The CG ensign represents what and dates back to what year?
Law enforcement, 1799
How many volts does it take to damage most components?
Less than 1,000 volts.
The law of electrical charges states that
Like repeal, unlike attract
Sweat forming on the system compressor is evidence of what?
Liquid flood back
Sweats on the compressor indicates
Liquid flood back
First time charge on a battery should be?
Long and low rate
What causes aeration in a hydraulic system without leaks
Low Fluid
Bromine low + high range
Low: .2-2.2ppm / High: 4.4-22.2
Personnel Manual?
M1000.6
uniform regulations manual?
M1020.6
Enlisted Performance Qualification Manual?>
M1414.8
EPME Manual
M1510.2
Boat operations and training manual?
M16114.32 and M16114.33
Boat Crew Seamenship manual
M16114.5
CG Medals and Awards manual?
M1650.25
what is the casrep form number?
M3501.3F
Enlisted Billet Manual
M5320.6
Health promotion manual?
M6200.1
What is the ordnance manual?
M8000.2
Equipment tag out manual
M9077.1
1969 BMCM Callhoun becomes the first _____.
MCPOCG
Name the four people who are needed to have an inspections board
MLC/NSM Rep, 1st LT, CO/OinC, EO/EPO
Installed in all PIM1 and PIM2 cards?
MP623
What does section 3 of the cutter engineering report cover?
Machinery / Electrical
Parts ID set reports pertinent info about equipment items being reported in a casrep.
Mandatory on initial and cancellation conditional on an update casrep. (what the ****?)
What year did we give 10 cutters to Great Britain?
Mar-41
Who is the only person to win both the medal of honor and gold life saving medal?
Marcus Hanna
Which cutter carrying six guns and manned by 10 officers and 95 crewmen was engaged in the battle of Manilla Bay?
McCulloch
Marcus Hanna served at Cape Elizabeth Light, what 2 awards does he have that no one else probably has?
Medal of Honor / Gold Life Saving Medal
What is required for a moisture separator above 125 psi
Metal bowls
Most common cause of failure in a piston rotary actuator
Metal to metal contact
Which war was the first time steam boats were used in war?
Mexican American war
1 strip line on a casrap provides what?
Milstrip info for parts in 1parts
Classification of bearings
Movement: axial and radial, load: radial and thrust and radial-thrust, all are sliding or rolling
Where can DEMPS procedures be found?
NEM 233-11
where can demps procedures be found?
NEM 233-11
What is the manual when and how to send test samples in the engine out?
NEM M9000.6
Where do you find anything electrical?
NSTM 300
what manual deals with hydraulics
NSTM Chapter 556
Who do you send dempts info to?
NavSea in Philadelphia
What is the most common fuel used on CG Auxiliary engines?
Number 2 marine diesel oil
Who ensures that ambient temperature in spaces do not exceed 100°f?
OBTT team leader
B. Iterative
Object identification is a(n)_process A. Waterfall B. Iterative C. Recursive
Four basic types of oil contamination
Oil dilution, acid contamination, water, insolubles
Gas container should be stowed
On the weather deck
How many hot and cold strarts does each air bank have on a diesel engine?
One cold, nine hot
Four center positions of a dcv
Open, closed, tandem, floating
What 2 categories is bi-level maintenance broken down?
Organizational Level Maintenance, Depot Level Maintenance
Three levels of maintenance
Organizational, intermediate, depot
What are the three levels of maintenance in the USCG?
Organizational, intermediate, depot
The controller on a reverse osmosis unit is called?
PLC, programmable logic controller
1st African American and first female engineer to advance to E7
Pamela Autry 1988
2 types of gate valves
Parallel and wedge
What are the 2 types of gate valves?
Parallel and wedge
What are two types of gate valves?
Parallel and wedge
Cunduction
Passes directly from one particle to another trough a material
D. All of the other choices
Password should be changed A. On regular basis B. When you suspect that password is compromised C. When you leave the place D. All of the other choices
Disinfecting the water destroys
Pathogenic organisms
What is product water called in an RO?
Permeate
What is the most common type of hydraulic fluid used in shipboard systems?
Petroleum based
What gas is created when freon is burned?
Phosgene
What maintenance outlines minimum maintenance requirements and procedures for hull, mechanical, and electrical, damage control, electronic onboard CG cutters and standard boats?
Preventative maintenance
Education, training, and OKM are essential elements of what?
Preventing mishaps
What energy is derived from an essential irrevirsable electrochemical reaction and cannot be efficiently recharged?
Primary cell battery
In a SSMR what action requires immediate action?
Priority 1
In a SSMR, what priority is a 6 month to 2 year wait?
Priority 2
In a SSMR, what priority is it when it is normal backlog of 5 years?
Priority 3
A. Reliability
Probability of a software failure is the A. Reliability B. Defect rate C. Correctness D. Testability
What leadership category does a member's ability to measure those qualities that the CG values in its people?
Professional Qualities
Which bearings support rotating shafts and limit axial and radial motion?
Radial thrust bearings
A. a high level statement/ a detailed system specification
Requirements are usually presented at_ and _ levels of detail in requirements document A. a high level statement/ a detailed system specification B. a high level statement/ a user specification C. All of the others D. a high level statement/ a low system specification
As wire size increases
Resistance goes down and amperage goes up
As wire size increases, resistance /amperage
Resistance goes down and amperage goes up
In an electrical diagram, what does K stand for?
Resistor
40psi in a TANB trailer is a ____ discrepancy.
Restrictive
For the 25' RBS EZ Loader, what type of discrepancy/casualty is a missing lug nut?
Restrictive
On the 26' TANB, tire depth is less than 4/32 (1/8)... what type of discrepancy is this?
Restrictive
On the 26' TANB, what type of casualty/discrepancy is a tire pressure below 40psi?
Restrictive
In the compressor stage of the gas turbine cycle, what components compress air?
Rotors and Stators
What is the most common lubricating oil classification?
SAE
Which type of connection offers the very best in leakage control available today?
SAE flat face O-Ring
what type of oil is to be used in red gears?
SAE-API and MIL-L-2104B
1962 YNCM Pearl Favrine becomes the first _____ _____
SPAR E9
What is a 3307 used for?
SRB
In what stage is refrigerant when it is liquid and a gas?
Saturated
A. Interrupt-driven model
Select the BEST model when you want to design a software system that very fast responses to events is a critical requirement? A. Interrupt-driven model B. Manager model C. Call-return model D. Broadcast model
What two cutters were first assigned to do ice patrols in 1913?
Seneca and Miami
What is SENA?
Senior enlisted needs assistance
When testing a p1000 pyrometer and you read 0 ohms
Sensor is good / closed
How do you hook up an ammeter
Series
What is the most common type of heat exchanger used in the CG?
Shell and Tube
As wire gauge increases
Size decreases
What do you clean a battery terminal with
Sodium bicarbonate or ammonia
D. Developers, Users, Market forces
Software systems are subject to continual change requests from ___ A. Users, Project managers, Chief Executive Officer B. Developers, Project managers, Chief Executive Officer C. Project managers, Project Director, Chief Executive Officer D. Developers, Users, Market forces
Name some priviledges that can be withheld?
Special Liberty, Exchange of duty, base parking, commsasary or exchange runs
Tests for wear metals in oil
Spectrometric analysis
what is the test for wear metals in oil?
Spectrometric analysis
What cutter tracked a submarine through a convoy?
Spencer
What is a disadvantage to a centrifugal pump
Suction lift
A. The waterfall model
Suggest a most appropriate software process model that might be used as a basic for managing the developing of the software system that support categorizing goods based on consumption pattern, tracking payments from the customers. A. The waterfall model B. All of the others C. Component-based software engineering model D. Incremental delivery model
A. Waterfall model
Suggest the most appropriate generic software process model that might be used as a basic for managing the development of the following system: A university accounting system that replaces an existing system A. Waterfall model B. Throw-away prototyping C. Exploratory development D. None of the others
The most common type of media for coarse filtration is?
Surface media
_______ media are most commonly used for a coarse filtration?
Surface media
most common type of media for coarse filtration is?
Surface media
A. The requirements are well-understood and changes will be fairly limited during the design process
The Waterfall approach is the BEST approach to development software when A. The requirements are well-understood and changes will be fairly limited during the design process B. Adding some new features to a system C. Un-stable requirement systems D. Software system is small, unclear requirements
B. True
The change control board assess the impact of proposed changes from a strategic and organizational perspective rather than a technical perspective A. False B. True
Who are the four originating authorities?
The commandant, area district group, MLC commander, CO or OINC
D. effect of the change on the project schedule, cost, quality, and risks
The customer wants to make a change to the project scope. The best thing for the project team to evaluate is the: A. effect of the change on the project baselines B. effect of the change on scope planning C. effect of the change on the project scope D. effect of the change on the project schedule, cost, quality, and risks
B. False
The decision where the programmers can reuse a pattern or need to develop a special-purpose solution always easy A. True B. False
A. True
The economies of all developed nations are dependent on software. A. True B. False
D. Maintainability
The effort required for locating and fixing an error in an operational program is: A. Usability B. Testability C. Effeciency D. Maintainability
In 1958, Jack Kerwin becomes the first _____.
The first Master Chief
Where is the triple guard grease used on a Honda 225 outboard?
The splines
B. Computer-Aided Software Engineering
The term 'CASE' is the acronym of A. Computer Aided System Engineer B. Computer-Aided Software Engineering C. Computing Automation System Extension
A. Regression testing
The testing intended to show that previously correct software has not been adversely affected by changes is call: A. Regression testing B. Black box testing C. White box testing
B. False
There are only one approach to reuse software applications or components that can be used. A. True B. False
Shell plating must be repaired when?
Thickness is less than 1/3 of original thickness
Why would you back out a packing nut on a shaft?
To ensure the packing gland does not act as a bearing.
Waster ring in the sea chest is for what?
To prevent galvanic corrosion
What is the purpose of a red gear?
To transmit the high speed of an engine to a low speed of the propeller
TBR
Total bromine residual
Which OBTT member is responsible for record keeping during and after the drill?
Training Team Leader
What type of environment must exist onboard a ship?
Training safe
In a red gear, what reduces the propeller RPM while permitting high engine RPM required for operation of engine accessories?
Trolling valve assembly
What part reduces the propeller RPM while permitting the high engine RPM required for operation of engine accessories?
Trolling valve assembly
A. White box testing
Unit testing is a __ A. White box testing B. Black box testing C. Stress testing
The _____ allows a compressor to start at reduced load.
Unloader
what are two types of pump casings?
Volble and Diffuser
A float charge monitors what?
Voltage
In what war was the entire USCG transferred to the Navy?
WW1
When was the entire Coast Guard transferred to the Navy?
WW1
A. Each test stage has a different purpose.
We split testing into distinct stages primarily because: A. Each test stage has a different purpose. B. It is easier to manage testing in stages. C. We can run different tests in different environments. D. The more stages we have, the better the testing.
C. Stakeholder communication; System analysis; Large-scale reuse
What are advantages of explicitly designing and documenting software architecture? A. Stakeholder communication; System analysis; Detail enough for programmers to coding B. Stakeholder communication; Large-scale reuse; Not abstract, stakeholders can understand and discussion with the development team, detail enough for developers to coding C. Stakeholder communication; System analysis; Large-scale reuse
B. All of the others
What are advantages of pipeline model? A. Intuitive organization for stakeholder communication B. All of the others C. Easy to add new transformations D. Supports transformation reuse
A. Customer involvement; incremental delivery; people not process; embrace change; maintain simplicity
What are common principles of agile methods? A. Customer involvement; incremental delivery; people not process; embrace change; maintain simplicity B. Customer involvement; incremental delivery; people not process; embrace change; Increments are delivered to customers every 2 weeks C. Customer involvement; incremental delivery; people process; embrace change; maintain simplicity
B. Deliverables are project results delivered to customers
What are deliverables? (Choose one) A. Deliverables are the output of project design B. Deliverables are project results delivered to customers C. Deliverables are the output of project planning D. Deliverables are the output of project implementation
C. Requirements that come from the application domain of the system and that reflect characteristics and constraints of that domain
What are domain requirements? A. Constraints on the services or functions offered by the system such as timing constraints, constraints on the development process, standards, etc B. Statements of services the system should provide how the system should react to particular inputs and how the system should behave in particular situations. C. Requirements that come from the application domain of the system and that reflect characteristics and constraints of that domain
B. Maintainability; Dependability; Efficiency; Acceptability
What are essential attributes of good software? A. Maintainability; Undependability; Efficiency; Usability B. Maintainability; Dependability; Efficiency; Acceptability C. Maintainability; Efficiency; Usability; Good look and feel
C. Statements of services the system should provide how the system should react to particular inputs and how the system should behave in particular situations.
What are functional requirements? A. Constraints on the services or functions offered by the system such as timing constraints, constraints on the development process, standards, etc B. Requirements that come from the application domain of the system and that reflect characteristics of that domain C. Statements of services the system should provide how the system should react to particular inputs and how the system should behave in particular situations.
D. Waterfall, Iterative development, Component-based software engineering
What are generic software process models? (Choose one) A. Waterfall, Iterative development, Agile development B. Waterfall, Component-based software engineering, Agile development C. Waterfall, Iterative development, Extreme programming development D. Waterfall, Iterative development, Component-based software engineering
D. Testable, complete, clear, consistent, unambiguous
What are good attributes of requirements? (Choose one) A. Testable, complete, clear, inconsistent, unambiguous B. Testable, complete, clear, consistent, ambiguous C. Testable, incomplete, clear, consistent, unambiguous D. Testable, complete, clear, consistent, unambiguous
A. The object is a parallel process with methods corresponding to the object operations. Methods execute in response to external requests
What are included in a quality plan? A. The resources and schedule used for system validation B. All of the others C. The quality procedures and standards that should be used in a project Which of the followings belong to Server type of concurrent object implementation? A. The object is a parallel process with methods corresponding to the object operations. Methods execute in response to external requests B. The state of the object is changed by internal operations within the object itself. The process executing these operations runs continuously. C. All of the others
C. Milestones are the end-point of a process activity
What are milestones in project planning? A. Milestones are the end-point of a project phase B. Milestones are project results delivered to customers C. Milestones are the end-point of a process activity
A. Constraints on the services or functions offered by the system such as timing constraints, constraints on the development process, standards, etc
What are non - fun ctional requirements? A. Constraints on the services or functions offered by the system such as timing constraints, constraints on the development process, standards, etc B. Requirements that come from the application domain of the system and that reflect characteristics and constraints of that domain C. Statements of services the system should provide how the system should react to particular inputs and how the system should behave in particular situations.
B. Logical interface design, Message design, WSDL description
What are stages of service interface design? A. Logical interface design, Java object interface design, WSDL description B. Logical interface design, Message design, WSDL description C. Logical interface design, Message design, Java object interface design
A. A structured document setting out detailed descriptions of the system's functions, services and operational constraints
What are system requirements? A. A structured document setting out detailed descriptions of the system's functions, services and operational constraints B. Constraints on the services or functions offered by the system such as timing constraints, constraints on the development process, standards, etc C. Statements in natural language plus diagrams of the services the system provides and its operational constraints
B. Process not people
Which of the following does NOT belong to important principles of agile methods? A. Embrace change B. Process not people C. Incremental delivery D. Customer involvement E. Maintain simplicity
C. A structured document setting out detailed descriptions of the system's functions, services and operational constraints.
What are system requirements? A. None of the others B. Requirements that come from the application domain of the system and that reflect characteristics of that domain C. A structured document setting out detailed descriptions of the system's functions, services and operational constraints. D. Statements in natural language plus diagrams of the services the system provides and its operational constraints. Written for customers
B. All of the others
What are the advantages of explicitly designing and documenting software architecture? A. It improves stakeholder communications B. All of the others C. It encourages a detailed analysis of the system
B. To have faster delivery of system, lower cost, increased software quality
What are the benefits of software re-using? A. To have better software in shorter duration, fewer software resource involve in software development, easy deployment B. To have faster delivery of system, lower cost, increased software quality C. To have better software at lower cost, shorter duration, fewer software resource involve in software development D. To have fewer software resource involve in software development, easy deployment
A. All of the others
What are the components of an object class definition in the UML? A. All of the others B. The name of the object class C. The operations or methods associated with the class D. The attributes of the class
A. All of the others
What are the distinctions between an object and an object class? A. All of the others B. The object includes state variables and operations on that state as defined in the object class definition C. An object is created at run-time by instantiating an object class.
B. The heterogeneity challenge, the delivery challenge, the trust challenge
What are the key challenges facing software engineering in the 21st century? (Choose one) A. The heterogeneity challenge, the trust challenge, the life time challenge B. The heterogeneity challenge, the delivery challenge, the trust challenge C. The delivery challenge, the trust challenge, the life time challenge D. The heterogeneity challenge, the delivery challenge, the life time challenge
C. Static, Dynamic, Interface, Relationship, Distribution
What are the models in architecture design? (Choose one) A. Static, Dynamic, Validation, Relationship, Distribution B. Static, Dynamic, Interface, Relationship, Evolution C. Static, Dynamic, Interface, Relationship, Distribution
C. To help the analyst to understand more about the functionalities of the system, and help communicating with customer
What are the purposes of system modelling? (Choose one) A. To validate user requirement, define the boundaries of the system B. To define the boundaries of the system, validate system requirement C. To help the analyst to understand more about the functionalities of the system, and help communicating with customer
A. The statements in a natural language plus diagrams that describe the services' system and their constraints
What are the user requirements? A. The statements in a natural language plus diagrams that describe the services' system and their constraints B. The high-level abstract requirement C. The requirements are written for contractor managers D. All of the others
B. System organisation; decomposition styles; Control styles
What are three general architectural styles? (Choose one) A. System organisation; decomposition styles; Procedure styles B. System organisation; decomposition styles; Control styles C. System organisation; decomposition styles; Object oriented program D. System organisation; decomposition styles; Logical styles
A. Statements in natural language plus diagrams of the services the system provides and its operational constraints
What are user requirements? A. Statements in natural language plus diagrams of the services the system provides and its operational constraints B. Constraints on the services or functions offered by the system such as timing constraints, constraints on the development process, standards, etc. C. A structured document setting out detailed descriptions of the system's functions, services and operational constraints
D. The sequence of activities in the process along with their inputs, outputs and dependencies.
What can be represented by a workflow model? A. The process as a set of activities, each of which carries out some data transformation. B. The roles of the people involved in the software process and the activities for which they are responsible C. All of the others D. The sequence of activities in the process along with their inputs, outputs and dependencies.
B. Coupling is a measure of the strength of association established by a connection from one object or software component to another.
What do you mean by coupling in software design? A. Coupling are two objects or two software components B. Coupling is a measure of the strength of association established by a connection from one object or software component to another. C. Coupling are two software components or two sub-systems
A. Computer science is concerned with theories and methods that underlie computers and software systems
What does computer science concern with? A. Computer science is concerned with theories and methods that underlie computers and software systems B. Computer science is concerned with the practicalities of developing and delivering useful software C. All of the others
C. A message exchange standard that supports service communication
What is SOAP standard? A. Defines the components of a service specification that may be used to discover the existence of a service B. This standard allows a service interface and its bindings to be defined C. A message exchange standard that supports service communication D. A standard for workflow languages used to define service composition
B. This standard allows a service interface and its bindings to be defined
What is WSDL standard? A. A standard for workflow languages used to define service composition B. This standard allows a service interface and its bindings to be defined C. A message exchange standard that supports service communication D. Defines the components of a service specification that may be used to discover the existence of a service
B. An instance of a system which is distributed to users outside of the development team.
What is a release? A. An instance of a system which is functionally distinct in some way from other system instances B. An instance of a system which is distributed to users outside of the development team. C. An instance of a system which is functionally identical but non-functionally distinct from other instances of a system
D. A simplified representation of a software process, presented from a specific perspective
What is a software process model? A. A simplified representation in a waterfall B. A simplified representation in a cycle of a software process C. A simplified representation in a step by step of a software process D. A simplified representation of a software process, presented from a specific perspective
D. A set of activities whose goal is the development or evolution of software
What is a software process? A. A set of cycles whose goal is the development or evolution of software B. A set of steps whose goal is the development or evolution of software C. A set of models whose goal is the development or evolution of software D. A set of activities whose goal is the development or evolution of software
B. It is a requirement expressed as scenario
What is a user story in extreme programming? A. It is a history of user B. It is a requirement expressed as scenario C. It is a small card D. It is a small table
C. Application security is a software engineering problem where the system is designed to resist attacks
What is application security? A. Application security is a systems management problem where the infrastructure is configured to resist attacks. B. All of the others C. Application security is a software engineering problem where the system is designed to resist attacks
C. The development and use of standards and procedures for managing an evolving software system
What is meant by configuration management? A. All of the others B. Configuration management is concerned with ensuring that software has a low number of defects and that it reaches the required standards of maintainability, reliability, and portability and so on C. The development and use of standards and procedures for managing an evolving software system
A. Sets out the breakdown of the project into activities and identifies the milestones and deliverables associated with each activity
What is the BEST way to do work breakdown structure? A. Sets out the breakdown of the project into activities and identifies the milestones and deliverables associated with each activity B. Sets out the breakdown of the project into smaller activities C. Sets out the breakdown of the project into smaller tasks D. Sets out the breakdown of the project into smaller functional
D. Should include both a definition of user requirements and a specification of the system requirements
What is the BEST way to write requirement document? A. Should include HOW the system will be implemented in a specification of the system requirements B. Should NOT include a definition of user requirements in a specification of the system requirements C. Requirement document should set of WHAT the system should do and HOW it should do D. Should include both a definition of user requirements and a specification of the system requirements
C. The tasks that are broken down by the team from the scenarios or user stories written cards
What is the basis of schedule and cost estimates in the extreme programming? A. The way that the team would develop the test-first B. The overall requirements that customer provide to the team C. The tasks that are broken down by the team from the scenarios or user stories written cards D. The way that the team would perform code refactoring
A. 2 => 1 => 4 => 3
What is the correct sequence of the following iterations in the RUP(Rational Unified Process) model? (1) Elaboration (2) Inception (3) Transition (4) Construction A. 2 => 1 => 4 => 3 B. 1 => 2 => 4 => 3 C. 2 => 4 => 3 => 1 D. 4 => 3 => 1 => 2
A. Architectural design is a creative process, the activities in the process differs depending on the type of system being developed
What is the correct statement about software architectural design decisions? A. Architectural design is a creative process, the activities in the process differs depending on the type of system being developed B. Architectural design only focus on non-functional requirements and choose architectural style or styles are appropriate for the system C. Architectural design only focus on functional requirements and choose architectural style or styles are appropriate for the system
D. The architectural design is normally expressed as a block diagram presenting an overview of the system structure
What is the correct statement about software architectural design? A. The architectural design is normally expressed as a sequence diagram presenting an overview of the system structure B. The architectural design is normally expressed as a use case diagram presenting an overview of the system structure C. The architectural design is normally expressed as a state diagram presenting an overview of the system structure D. The architectural design is normally expressed as a block diagram presenting an overview of the system structure
B. Most large systems are heterogeneous architectural styles
What is the correct statement about software architectural styles? A. Most large systems follow two architectural styles B. Most large systems are heterogeneous architectural styles C. Most large systems follow one architectural style
B. The critical path is the sequence of dependent activities that defines the time required to complete the project
What is the critical path? A. The critical path is the shortest path in the activity network B. The critical path is the sequence of dependent activities that defines the time required to complete the project C. The critical path is the path in the activity network
B. Review system requirements and architecture.
What is the first stage in survivability analysis A. Identity softspots and survivability strategies. B. Review system requirements and architecture. C. Identify attacks and compromisable components. D. Identify critical services and components.
C. Identify softspots and survivability strategies.
What is the last stage in survivability analysis A. Identity attacks and compromisable components. B. Review system requirements and architecture. C. Identify softspots and survivability strategies. D. Identify critical services and components.
B. Phase are more closely related to business rather than technical concerns
What is the main difference between the RUP (Rational Unified Process) and other software processes models? A. The goal of Inception phase B. Phase are more closely related to business rather than technical concerns C. The construction phase is essentially concerned with system design, programming and testing D. System design with re-use
A. The explicit recognition of risk in the Spiral model
What is the main difference between the Spiral model and other software processes models? A. The explicit recognition of risk in the Spiral model B. The goal of Objective setting phase C. The goal of Development and validation phase D. The goal of Planning phase
C. Unit test, integration test, validation test, system test
What is the normal order of activities in which software testing is organized? A. System test, integration test, unit test, validation test B. Unit test, integration test, system test, validation test C. Unit test, integration test, validation test, system test
B. Report that recommends whether or not to continue development project
What is the output of Feasibility study phase in the requirements engineering process? A. User requirement document B. Report that recommends whether or not to continue development project C. Stakeholders list D. Project plan
A. Feasibility study report document
What is the output of the first milestone in software requirement engineering process? A. Feasibility study report document B. Requirements document C. Requirements analysis document D. Requirements elicitation document
A. System models
What is the outputs of Requirements elicitation and analysis? (Choose one) A. System models B. User and system requirements document C. Requirements document
D. Lack of user's understandability
What is the problem that cannot arise when requirements are written in natural language? A. Lack of clarity B. Requirement confusion C. Requirement amalgamation D. Lack of user's understandability
B. The main objective of the analysis is to capture a complete, unambiguous, and consistent picture of requirements of the system and what the system must do to satisfy the users' requirement and needs
What is the purpose of analysis? A. The main objective of the analysis is to capture a incomplete, unambiguous, and inconsistent picture of requirements of the system and what the system must do to satisfy the users' requirement and needs B. The main objective of the analysis is to capture a complete, unambiguous, and consistent picture of requirements of the system and what the system must do to satisfy the users' requirement and needs C. The main objective of the analysis is to capture a complete, ambiguous, and inconsistent picture of requirements of the system and what the system must do to satisfy the users' requirement and needs
C. To discover faults that make software's behavior incorrect
What is the purpose of defect testing? A. To verify that the software meet its requirements B. To test individual program components C. To discover faults that make software's behavior incorrect D. To ensure about the performance of the software
C. Risk analysis
What is the second stage of risk management process? A. Risk planning B. Risk monitoring C. Risk analysis D. Risk identification
A. All of the others
What key factors should be considered when planning reuse? A. All of the others B. The development schedule for the software C. The background, skills and experience of the development team D. The expected software lifetime
B. In the class diagram, you first list the states of the object and then focus on the attributions, operations
What's the BEST way to start creating a class diagram? A. In the class diagram, you list all the classes and then wrestle with the interclass associations, attributions, operations B. In the class diagram, you first list the states of the object and then focus on the attributions, operations
B. In the data-flow diagram, you should start by analyzing the overall procurement process and then move on to the analysis of sub-processes
What's the BEST way to start creating a data-flow diagram? A. In the class diagram, you list all the classes and then wrestle with the interclass associations, attributions, operations B. In the data-flow diagram, you should start by analyzing the overall procurement process and then move on to the analysis of sub-processes
A. In the state diagram, you first list the states of the object and then focus on the transition
What's the BEST way to start creating a state diagram? A. In the state diagram, you first list the states of the object and then focus on the transition B. In the state diagram, you list all the classes and then wrestle with the interclass associations
B. None of the others
What's the difference between functional and non-functional requirements? A. The functional requirement is described in details, the other is described in high-level abstract B. None of the others C. The functional requirement describes system properties and constraints, the other describes system services
When do you change membranes on a reverse osmosis unit?
When production drops 10 to 15 percent or TDS exceeds 500 ppm.
D. DFD is used to showing the data exchange between a system and other systems in its environment
When should you use data flow diagrams (DFD)? (Choose one) A. DFD is used to describing all of the things that can be done with a database system B. DFD is used to illustrate the sequence of steps that must be performed in order to complete a task C. DFD is used to showing all of system's functionalities available D. DFD is used to showing the data exchange between a system and other systems in its environment
D. Should use sequence diagram to illustrate the sequence of steps that must be performed in order to complete a task
When should you use sequence diagram? (Choose one) A. Should use sequence diagram to represent exception behavior (when errors happen) B. Should use sequence diagram to describing branching behaviors of the TCP/IP network protocol C. Should use sequence diagram to represent all of the people who might use the functionalities of the system D. Should use sequence diagram to illustrate the sequence of steps that must be performed in order to complete a task
B. Describe how a system responses to external and internal events; It shows system states and events that cause transition from one state to another
When should you use state machine model? (Choose one) A. State machine used to define the boundaries of the system, validate system requirement B. Describe how a system responses to external and internal events; It shows system states and events that cause transition from one state to another C. State machine used to help the analyst to understand the functionality of the system, communicating with customer D. State machine used in showing the data exchange between a system and other systems in its environment
D. Should use use-case diagram to represent all of the people who might use the functionalities of the system
When should you use use-case diagram? (Choose one) A. Should use use-case diagram to represent exception behavior (when errors happen) B. Should use use-case diagram to illustrate the sequence of steps that must be performed in order to complete a task C. Should use use-case diagram to describing branching behaviors of the TCP/IP network protocol D. Should use use-case diagram to represent all of the people who might use the functionalities of the system
B. Platform-level. Application-level. Record-level|
Which are levels of protection in application security engineering? (Choose one) A. Unix-level. Application-level. Database-level B. Platform-level. Application-level. Record-level| C. Windows-level. Application-level. Database-level D. Linux-level. Application-level. Record-level
B. Object-oriented analysis, Object-oriented design, Object-oriented programming
Which are object-oriented strategies? (Choose one) A. Object-oriented design, Object-oriented programming, Object-oriented document B. Object-oriented analysis, Object-oriented design, Object-oriented programming C. Object-oriented design, Object-oriented programming, Object-oriented deployment D. Object-oriented analysis, Object-oriented design, Object-oriented package
A. Product requirements; Organizational requirements; External requirements
Which are types of non-functional requirement? (Choose one) A. Product requirements; Organizational requirements; External requirements B. Organizational requirements; External requirements; Non-Functional Requirements C. Organizational requirements; External requirements; System Requirements D. User requirements; Organizational requirements; External requirements
C. Test case
Which document identifies and describes the testing that will be implemented and executed? A. Test report B. Test plan C. Test case D. Test script
C. The name of the application or component reuse
Which is NOT a key factor that you should consider when planning reuse? A. The criticality of the software and it's non-functional requirements B. The background, skill and experience of the development team C. The name of the application or component reuse D. The development schedule of the software; The application domain E. The expected software lifetime; The platform in which the system will run
A. Be dependent on particular programming language
Which is NOT a primary goal in the design of the UML? A. Be dependent on particular programming language B. Support higher-level development concepts C. Provide users a ready-to-use, expressive visual modeling language so they can develop and exchange meaningful models D. Integrate best practices and methodologies
A. The inheritance graphs of analysis, design and implementation have different functions and should be separately maintained.
Which is NOT an advantage of inheritance? A. The inheritance graphs of analysis, design and implementation have different functions and should be separately maintained. B. The inheritance graph is a source of organisational knowledge about domains and systems. C. It is a reuse mechanism at both the design and the programming level. D. It is an abstraction mechanism which may be used to classify entities.
C. Only senior programmer are capable of taking the kind of decisions required during the development process
Which is NOT an advantage of rapid software development? A. The end result is the high quality software in least possible time duration and satisfied customer B. Rapid software development methodology has an adaptive team which is able to respond to the changing requirements C. Only senior programmer are capable of taking the kind of decisions required during the development process D. Face to face communication and continuous inputs from customer representative leave no space for guesswork E. The documentation is crisp and to the point to save time
C. Designing the test case
Which is NOT the main activity in design process? A. Designing the user interface B. Designing the access layer C. Designing the test case D. Designing classes (their attributes, methods, etc....) E. Iterating and refining the design
B. Creating and maintaining a component library
Which is NOT the main benefit of software reuse? A. Increased dependability B. Creating and maintaining a component library C. Reduced process risk D. Accelerated development. E. Effective use of specialists, standards compliance
D. Minimize task dependencies to avoid delays caused by one task waiting for another to complete
Which is the BEST principle of project scheduling? A. All tasks are organized concurrently B. Maximize task dependencies to avoid delays caused by one task waiting for another to complete C. All tasks are organized sequence D. Minimize task dependencies to avoid delays caused by one task waiting for another to complete
D. All of the other choices
Which is the change management concerned with? A. Keeping track the change B. System rebuilding, releasing C. Ensuring that the change is made D. All of the other choices
A. 1=>3=>2=>4
Which is the correct sequence of the following activities in the Component-based software engineering? (1) Component analysis (2) System design with reuse (3) Requirements modification (4) Development and integration A. 1=>3=>2=>4 B. 1=>3=>4=>2 C. 1=>2=>4=>3 D. 1=>2=>3=>4
C. 2=>1=>4=>3=>5
Which is the correct sequence of the following activities in the Waterfall model? (1) System and software design (2) Requirement definition (3) Integration and system testing (4) Implementation and unit testing (5) Operation and maintenance A. 1=>4=>3=>2=>5 B. 1=>2=>3=>4=>5 C. 2=>1=>4=>3=>5 D. 2=>3=>4=>1=>5
B. 2=>1=>4=>3
Which is the correct sequence of the following activities in the process of System evolution? (1) Assess existing systems (2) Define system requirements (3) Modify systems (4) Propose system changes A. 2=>1=>3=>4 B. 2=>1=>4=>3 C. 2=>3=>1=>4 D. 2=>3=>4=>1
A. Architectures must be structured in such a way to separate different sub-systems and to allow them to be modified
Which is the correct statement about Product line architectures? A. Architectures must be structured in such a way to separate different sub-systems and to allow them to be modified B. Architectures must be structured in such a way to include different sub-systems and do not allow them to be modified
B. Coupling deals with interactions between objects or software components
Which is the correct statement about coupling? A. Coupling deals with the interactions within a single object or software component B. Coupling deals with interactions between objects or software components C. Coupling concerned with how classes are interrelated
D. Extent to which access to software or data by an unauthorized persons can be controlled
Which is the correct statement about integrity? A. Extent to which a program satisfies its specifications and fulfils the user's mission and goals B. Effort required for learning, operating, preparing input interpreting output of a program C. Effort required to couple one system with another D. Extent to which access to software or data by an unauthorized persons can be controlled
C. Object identification is an iterative process; it relies on the skill, experience and domain knowledge of system designers
Which is the correct statement about object identification? A. Object identification is a waterfall process; it does not relies on the skill, experience and domain knowledge of system designers B. Object identification is a waterfall process; it relies on the skill, experience and domain knowledge of system designers C. Object identification is an iterative process; it relies on the skill, experience and domain knowledge of system designers D. Identifying objects (or object classes) is the easiest part of object oriented design
B. Measurements suggest that development productivity with pair programming is similar to that of two people working independently
Which is the evidence when said that "pair programming is as efficient as the same number of programmers working individually"? (Choose one) A. In pair programming, all project team members have the same level B. Measurements suggest that development productivity with pair programming is similar to that of two people working independently C. In pair programming, all project team members have the same skills D. In pair programming, project team member does not need to study requirement
C. Develop an understanding of the relationships between the software being designed and its external environment
Which is the first stage in an object-oriented design process? A. Design the system architecture B. Specify object interfaces. C. Develop an understanding of the relationships between the software being designed and its external environment D. Identify the principal system objects;
B. Develop an understanding of the relationships between the software being designed and its external environment
Which is the first stage in an object-oriented design process? A. Specify object interfaces. B. Develop an understanding of the relationships between the software being designed and its external environment C. Identify the principal system objects; D. Design the system architecture
D. 2 => 1 => 4 => 3
Which is the right sequence in the process of prototype development? (1) Define prototype functionality (2) Establish prototype objectives (3) Evaluate prototype (4) Develop prototype A. 2 => 4 => 3 => 1 B. 1 => 2 => 4 => 3 C. 2 => 1 => 3 => 4 D. 2 => 1 => 4 => 3
B. 2=>1=>4=>3
Which is the right sequence in the risk management process? (1) Risk analysis (2) Risk identification (3) Risk monitoring (4) Risk planning A. 1=>4=>2=>3 B. 2=>1=>4=>3 C. 1=>2=>4=>3 D. 2=>1=>3=>4
C. 2 => 1 => 3 => 4
Which is the right sequence in the software testing process? (1) Prepare test data (2) Create test case (3) Perform test (4) Create test report A. 2 => 1 => 4 => 3 B. 2 => 4 => 3 => 1 C. 2 => 1 => 3 => 4 D. 1 => 2 => 4 => 3
A. 2 => 1 => 4 => 3=>5
Which is the right sequence of the change management process? (1) Analyze change request (2) Request change by completing a change request form (3) Make changes to software (4) Submit request to change control board (5) Create new system version A. 2 => 1 => 4 => 3=>5 B. 1 => 5 => 4 => 3=>2 C. 2 => 1 => 3 => 4=>5 D. 2 => 1 => 5 => 3=>4
B. Object model; Data model; Architectural model;
Which models give a static view of a system? A. Object model; Data-flow model; Context model; Architectural model; B. Object model; Data model; Architectural model; C. Object model; Data model; Context model; State machine model;
D. Performance, Security, Safety, Availability, Maintainability
Which non-functional system requirements that the software system architecture may depend on? (Choose one) A. Performance, Security, Safety, Availability, Easy deploy B. Performance, Efficiency, Safety, Availability, Maintainability C. Performance, Security, Safety, Availability, Easy implement D. Performance, Security, Safety, Availability, Maintainability
D. Cost of software project maintenance is higher than other type of projects
Which of the fallowings does NOT belong to the important differences between software project management and other types of project management? A. There are no standard for software processes B. Large software projects are often one-off projects C. The product (software) is intangible D. Cost of software project maintenance is higher than other type of projects
A. Contractual problems, validation problems, management problems and maintenance problems
Which of the following BEST describes the major difficulties with incremental development? A. Contractual problems, validation problems, management problems and maintenance problems B. Requirement problems, design problems, implementation problems and validation problems C. Contractual problems, requirement problems, implementation problems and management problems D. Design problems, management problems, validation problems and maintenance problems
C. All of the others
Which of the following are the testing process goals? A. Discover faults or defects in the software B. The check that the software meets its requirements C. All of the others
D. Avoid using redundancy and diversity to reduce risk
Which of the following design guidelines for secure systems engineering is NOT true? A. Validate all inputs B. Use redundancy and diversity to reduce risk. C. Avoid a single point of failure. D. Avoid using redundancy and diversity to reduce risk E. Base security decisions on an explicit security policy.
A. There are not many CASE tools that support structured methods
Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of structured methods? A. There are not many CASE tools that support structured methods B. They tend to produce too much documentation C. They do not support non-functional requirements modeling D. They rarely include guidelines to help users decide if they can be used in a particular area E. The models produced are detailed and often hard to understand
E. Systems are often have good structures
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using incremental development and delivery? A. More extensive testing of critical customer functionality B. Early delivery of critical functionality to customer C. Lower risk of overall project failure D. Early increments serve as prototypes to explore requirements E. Systems are often have good structures
B. Use Event-based analysis
Which of the following is NOT an approach that may be used to identify object classes? A. Identify tangible things in the application domain B. Use Event-based analysis C. Grammatical analysis identifying nouns and verbs D. Use scenario-based analysis E. Use an approach based on the behavior of the system.
B. Workflow model
Which of the following is NOT object model that may be developed? A. Object aggregation models B. Workflow model C. Object behavior model D. Inheritance models
C. The people in the project team
Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management? A. controlled library access B. status accounting of configuration items C. The people in the project team D. identification of software versions
B. An role/action model
Which of the following is a type of software process model that represents the roles of the people involved in the software process and the activities for which they are responsible? A. An actor model B. An role/action model C. None of the others D. An activity model
A. All of the other choices
Which of the following is the source for software version up? A. All of the other choices B. For different machines/OS6 C. Offering different functionality D. Tailored for particular user requirements
D. Live data
Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management? A. user requirement documents B. Design documentation C. Operating systems D. Live data
A. Call-return model, Manager model
Which of the following models belong to Centralised control? (Choose one) A. Call-return model, Manager model B. Shared data control model, Shared services control model C. Object - oriented control model, Function - Oriented control model
B. Broadcast models, Interrupt-driven models
Which of the following models belong to Event-driven systems? (Choose one) A. Call-return model, Manager model B. Broadcast models, Interrupt-driven models C. Object - oriented control model, Function - Oriented control model
B. There shall be a standard user interface to all database that shall be base on the Z39.50 standard
Which of the following requirement statements belongs to domain requirements? A. Students can reserve a library item online B. There shall be a standard user interface to all database that shall be base on the Z39.50 standard C. The staff member should be able to issue a library item by scanning the bar codes of the library item and the student card D. The user should be able to search for a library item by specifying a key word
C. An article information shall include Author, Title, Description and other related information
Which of the following requirement statements belongs to functional requirements? A. The system is implemented by using Java, Oracle database B. The response time for each screen is must be less than 2 seconds C. An article information shall include Author, Title, Description and other related information D. The user interface shall be implemented as simple HTML without frames
B. The user interface shall be implemented as simple HTML without frames
Which of the following requirement statements belongs to non-functional requirements? A. An article information shall include Author, Title, Description and other related information B. The user interface shall be implemented as simple HTML without frames C. The system shall be able to search either all of the initial set of databases or select a sub set from it, D. The system shall provide appropriate viewers for the user to read documents in the document store
E. The integration team does NOT have access to the source code of the system.
Which of the following statement about the two distinct phases of system testing is NOT true? A. The release testing team treat the system as a black-boxwhile testing B. None of the others C. Release testing where the version of the system to be released to users is tested. D. Integration testing where the components and subsystems making up the system are integrated and tested E. The integration team does NOT have access to the source code of the system.
B. Enterprise Resource Planning systems are very widely used
Which of the following statements about Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) systems is NOT true? A. Specific ERP systems are created by configuring a generic system at development time with information about the customer's business B. Enterprise Resource Planning systems are very widely used C. All of the others
D. None of the others
Which of the following statements about Equivalence partitioning are NOT true? A. Equivalence partitioning is a way of deriving test cases B. Often, the value that is most likely to lead to a successful testis a value at the boundary of a partition. C. It depends on finding partitions in the input and output data sets and exercising the program with values from these partitions D. None of the others
A. Service-oriented software engineering is based on the notion that programs can be constructed by composing independent services that encapsulate reusable functionality
Which of the following statements about Service-oriented software engineering is true? A. Service-oriented software engineering is based on the notion that programs can be constructed by composing independent services that encapsulate reusable functionality B. Services are language dependent and their implementation is based on widely adopted XML-based standards C. All of the others
C. The intangibility of software systems poses special problems for software project management
Which of the following statements about project management is true? A. The process of project planning is straightforward B. All of the others C. The intangibility of software systems poses special problems for software project management D. The best programmers always make the best software managers
C. Security threats can be threats to the only confidentiality and integrity of a system or its data.
Which of the following statements about security is NOT true? A. None of the others B. Security engineering focuses on how to develop and maintain software systems that can resist malicious attacks that are intended to damage a computer-based system or its data C. Security threats can be threats to the only confidentiality and integrity of a system or its data. D. Security risk management involves assessing the losses that might ensue from attacks on a system and deriving security requirements that are aimed at eliminating or reducing these losses.
A. All of the others
Which of the following statements about service interfaces is true? A. All of the others B. Service interfaces are defined in an XML-based language called WSDL C. A WSDL specification includes a definition of the interface types and operations, the binding protocol used by the service and the service location
A. All of the others
Which of the following statements about test first development are true? A. All of the others B. When a system feature is identified, the tests of the code implementing that feature are written before the code C. Tests are automated and all tests are run when a new increment is added to the system.
B. Its goal is to fix errors of the software system
Which of the following statements about testing is NOT true? A. Testing can only show the presence of errors in a program B. Its goal is to fix errors of the software system C. None of the others D. It cannot demonstrate that there are no remaining faults
A. The integrating testing test the result of the component while the component testing test its internal structure
Which of the following statements about the differences between integrating testing and component testing are true? A. The integrating testing test the result of the component while the component testing test its internal structure B. All of the others C. The integrating testing tests the result of the component interaction D. The component testing tests the system's goals that will be applied to integrating system
A. Centralised control, Event-based control
Which of the following styles belong to Control styles? (Choose one) A. Centralised control, Event-based control B. Object - oriented control, Function - Oriented control C. Shared data control, Shared services control
C. The repository model; The Client-server model; The Abstract machine (layered) model
Which of the following styles belong to System organization? (Choose one) A. Centralised control, Event-based control B. Object - oriented control, Function - Oriented control C. The repository model; The Client-server model; The Abstract machine (layered) model
D. New versions may be built several times per day
Which of these statements about extreme programming are true? A. All tests should only be run in the last time B. All of the others C. Increments are delivered to customers at the end of process D. New versions may be built several times per day
D. End-users should be involved in system tests.
Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true? A. System tests are often performed by independent teams. B. Functional testing is used more than structural testing. C. Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix. D. End-users should be involved in system tests.
A. Data-flow models
Which system model is described in the following graphic? A. Data-flow models B. State machine models C. Context models D. Object models
A. Customer
Who chooses the stories for inclusion in the next release based on their priorities and the schedule estimates? A. Customer B. Developer C. Tester D. Project Manager
A. Change control board
Who review and approves the change request? A. Change control board B. Project manager C. Chief executive officer D. Project director
D. To protect the system against external attack
Why do we need consider security for project? (Choose one) A. To allow administrators manage user B. To have good architecture design C. Security is a part of Software process D. To protect the system against external attack
B. Because the requirements of software projects are not the same
Why many software projects are 'one-off' projects? A. Because the requirements of software projects should document in multi languages B. Because the requirements of software projects are not the same C. Because the requirements of software projects are the same D. Because the requirements of software projects are always complex
Which cutter made the first recorded narcotics seizure?
Wolcott
D. All of the other choices
Workbenches are also called ___ A. Phases B. Steps C. Tasks D. All of the other choices
When was the entire Coast Guard transferred to the Navy?
World War 1
"Alex Haley retires after serving in ____ and in ____.
World War I and Korea
Formula to raise X amount of P/W 1ppm
X / 70 = run time of brominator
Formula to raise X amount of P/W 1ppm
X/70=runtime of brominator
24-44 of GAR is what color on the GAR model?
Yellow/Amber
What device turns chemical energy into electrical energy?
a battery
Master tasks have a periodicity of?
conditional
In a pneumatic system, what does the installed on air dehydrator increase?
absorption of vapors by dessicant
What will engine lube oil increase due to byproducts containing nitrogen and sulfur?
acidity
When the OBTT is planning an exercise drill, consideration must be given to the possibility of what situation?
actual hazarous conditions
In 1945 the first time _____ _____ ____ entered SPARS
african american females
Movement of air throuh its natural means
air circulation
oil fog out of a rig is?
air in the system
What alignment function is used to eliminate shafted = excited vibration and noise?
align bearings to support the shaft
at a modernized unit, wherei syour boat inspection report recorded?
almis
What improves system performance by changing configurations to meet environmental, safety, operational, or economic requirements?
alternative maintenance
What are the two types of combustion chambers on a turbine?
annular and can-annular
What coolant is used in a keel cooler?
anti-freeze
What is the formula for the cap end of a linear actuator?
area = D^2x0.7854
What type of motion will thrust bearings prevent on a shaft?
axial
a thrust bearing supports what type of movement?
axial
RO removes
bacteria/salts/sugars/protein/dyes/>150-250 daltons
Rubber stock is supported by what?
bearings
What may happen if metal particles are left in a red gear?
become embedded in the bearing metal, cause wear on bearings, remove metal from teeth
What is the packing drip rate for a P100?
between 5 and 100 drops per minute
What color are the fuel lines on a honda 150bf?
black
what cycle does a gas turbine operate?
brayton
What are permanent magnet and field wound synchronous motors are used in?
brushless
in an ows, what is used to check for graping?
bull's eye sight glass
What valve has a 90° turn movement?
butterfly valve
how is the p100 engine cooled?
by air
3 types of heat transfer?
conduction, convection, radiation
Erosion, corrosion, and wear _______ occurs in hydraulic system?
continually
What is the performance of scheduled and unscheduled tasks designed to restore equipment to serviceable condition after a failure or pending failure?
corrective maintenance
Spotty wear on a tire is what kind of wear?
cuppin
What type of casrep is submitted once the machinery is corrected?
cascor
Failure to remove cleaners from seals could
cause O-Ring failure
What happens when bearings are subjected to heavy duty or high speed service?
cavitation
If the oil level is above the permitted maximum and the bull gear runs in the oil, oil foams and heats as a result of
churning action
what do you do if a compressor has to be shut off for more than four hours?
close the compressor shutoff valves
The natrual ability of two dissimilar liquids to separate is called
coalescing
casrep/cascor: AIGs are predetermined lists of action/info addresses controlled by:
cognizant authority
What is the most important part of a drill exercise?
collecting and providing accurate feedback
US flag called while carried by foot?
colors
What feature has been designed into the forward clutch in the even of a hydraulic system failure?
come home feature
What is the liquid called that results when saturated steam gives up it's heat?
condensate
A master task has the periodicty of what?
conditional
In a boiler, how often should feed water supply be tested?
daily
This refers to a lubricants ability to readily separate from water
demulsibility
What is the greatest contribution you can make as a good supervisor?
develop good leaders
F-76 fuel is known as?
diesel fuel #2
What are the two types of pistons commonly used in air compressors?
diffrential and trunk
What is used on low voltage and is powered by batteries?
direct current
Technical publications fall under what category?
directive
Galvanic corrosion
dissimilar metals used together and immersed in saltwater, electrical current flows from one ot the other inhibiting corrosion
What are the physical barriers of effective communication?
distance, noise, distractions
What kind of water do you pour in batteries?
distilled water
A. Object-oriented Analysis
is concerned with developing an oriented system model to implement requirements A. Object-oriented Analysis B. Object-oriented Design C. Object-oriented Paradigm D. None of the others
1981 women were allowed to be assigned where?
isolated unit
What type of bearings support a rotating shaft?
journal bearings
what is it called when the temp stop rising, even though heat is still applied?
latent heat
Salt content of potable water?
less than 500ppm or less than 1,000 microns/cm conductivity
What kind of bearings prevent lfooding on the inside of the ship?
line shaft bearings
______ seals are low pressure dynamic seals used primarily to seal rotating shafts
lip seals
what is the best mthod to account for shaft droop
load ring method
First time charge on a battery should be?
long / low rate
In a hydraulic system, the air can enter due to a leak in the inlet lines or due to...
low fluid in reservoir
When an HVAC secures via the low pressure switch, this is an indicator of?
lower pressure on the low side
The _____ report describes maintenance performed during specific time periods by a work center
maintenance summary
a permanent type of instruction containing 25 or more pages?
manual
A gas turbine operates on the theory that the potential energy of a pressurized gas can be converted to kinetic or _____ energy.
mechanical energy
What type of bowls are required in moisture separators above 125psi?
metal bowls
what does spectrometric analysis measure in an engine?
metal particles
What is the most common cause of failure in a piston ring actuator?
metal to metal
How are filters in a hydraulic system rated?
micron
What is the best lubricant for modern machinery?
mineral based
if you have a bearing failure in a centrifugal pump, the excessive vibration, what is most likely the cause?
misalignment
How often should jacket water be tested?
monthly
On a boiler, what energizes or deenergizes the burner motor?
motor relay
What has information for storage and handling of paint and solvents?
msds
Where is the historical data for a casrep stored?
naval inventory control point (navicp)
when can you connect PW into JW?
never
Gell Cell batteries must _____ if opened, the cell loses its pressure and the outside ______ the plates.
never be opened / poison
Chlorine use____ approved respirater
niosh
What type of material works best with petroleum based products?
nitrilite
can you deprive someone of his/her normal liberty as punishment?
no
Pressure rise on pneumatic valves
no more than 200psi per second
what type of refridgerant bottles can be placed on CG cutters?
non shattering
graping is
oil and water don't separate
Red Gear: What is the rotary gear type unit mounted on the manifold and driven by splined sleeves on the reverse clutch shaft?
oil pump assembly
If lint or dirt is left in a red gear, what part of the system may become clogged?
oil spray nozzles
Diesel start air banks capacity
one cold and 9 hot
test brakes on davit by holding load stationary for at least
one minute
what is a battery?
one or more cells
What is a two stroke engine?
one stroke of a piston is one full cycle
How long are notices good for?
one year
what are the 4 center positions of a DCV?
open, closed, tandem, floating
On large cutters, which departments have tag out logs?
ops and engineering
What color is the out of calibration tag?
orange
types of bearing failures
squeaking (insufficient lube), metallic (insufficient clearance), smooth tone (brineling of surfaces), intermittent (damaged ball bearing), crunching (dirt)
US national flag displayed on a vehicle or facility is called?
standard
In a red gear, what is the best method to remove local hump or deformation?
stoning of gears
Secondary cell batteries are commonly known as _____ batteries
storage
What are two common types of valves used on air compressors?
strip and disc
Drawings under SWBS #101 pertain to what?
structual drawings
What failure does not cause a low oil pressure in a propulsion transmission?
stuck regulating piston in the selector valve assembly
What is a disadvantage to a centrifugal pump
suction lift
What is the disadvantage of a centrifugal pump
suction lift
what is classified as a confined space?
tanks, voids, unventilated spaces
what is the largest bearing in the red gear?
tapered roller bearing
heat transfer rate depends on
temp difference between 2 fluids
Where is the triple guard grease used on a Honda 225 outboard?
the splines
In a zone type hvac system, where will one duct go?
to several spaces
What is the purpose of a prop shaft?
to transfer torque created by the MDE and trasmit thrust developed by the propeller
What do heat exchangers do?
transfer heat between fluids
What are the four main requirements of hydraulic fluid?
transmit power, cool, seal, lubricate
where does the heat transfer occur in a tube heat exchanger?
tube bundles
What can be written if the NSN is non eistent on a casrep?
unknown
The _____ permits compressor starting at reduced load.
unloader
You find something wrong with a piece of equipment already casreped, you should send an?
update
Process of moving stale air and providing fresh air is called
ventlilation
what device is used to absorb torsion vibrations? (twisting and turning)
vibration dampers
R/O systems should be quiet and free from
vibrations, clicking, or metallic noise
What is the most important characteristic of oil?
viscosity
A float charge monitors what?
voltage
If you have no display on your RCS, what should you check?
voltage
With a floating charge the charger monitors what?
voltage
For machinery spaces, fresh air is ducked to where?
watch station
The most common liquid contaminations in a hydraulic system is____
water
What may cause pitting and corrosion in a red gear?
water
How often will the supervisor of an engine overhaul conduct and complete a progress report?
weekly
what battery is one where electrodes and electrolytes are altered by a chemical reaction tha takes place when a cell delivers current?
wet cell
When do you do the final shaft alignment?
when the boat is in the water
when is a position excempt from a casrep?
when the cutter is underway for opsec
What are the most common used electrical diagrams
wiring and schematic
How do you correct a casrep with errors that has been already transmitted?
with an update
