SWT301_p1

अब Quizwiz के साथ अपने होमवर्क और परीक्षाओं को एस करें!

456: Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities? A. Regression testing B. Integration testing C. System testing D. User acceptance testing

457: Which of the following is false? A. Incidents should always be fixed. B. An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ. C. Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement. D. An incident can be raised against documentation.

100: Methodologies adopted while performing Maintenance Testing:- A. Breadth Test and Depth Test B. Re-testing C. Confirmation Testing D. Sanity Testing

110: The Test Cases Derived from use cases A. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the system B. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testing use of the system C. Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world use of the system D. Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level

384: What test items should be put under configuration management? A. The test object, the test material and the test environment B. The problem reports and the test material C. Only the test object. The test cases need to be adapted during agile testing D. The test object and the test material

409: Test basis documentation is analyzed in which phase of testing A. Test Analysis B. Test Design C. Test Execution D. Test Planning

415: Verification activities during design stages are A. Reviewing and Inspecting B. Inspecting and Testing C. Reviewing and Testing D. Reviewing, Inspecting and Testing.

59: Which of the following is a potential risk in using test support tools? A. Under estimating the effort needed to maintain the test assets B. Losing access to important testing information when needed C. Relying too much on qualitative and quantitative assessments D. Lowering the morale of the test team because of repetition

65: Which of the following is the standard for the Software product quality A. ISO 9126 B. ISO 829 C. ISO 1012 D. ISO 1028

73: Arc testing is known as A. Branch testing B. Agile testing C. Beta testing D. Ad-hoc testing

83: The principle of Cyclomatic complexity, considering L as edges or links, N as nodes, P as independent paths A. L-N +2P B. N-L +2P C. N-L +P D. N-L +P

87: PDCA is known as A. Plan, Do, Check, Act B. Plan, Do, Correct, Act C. Plan, Debug, Check, Act D. Plan, Do, Check, Accept

88: Which is the non-functional testing A. Performance testing B. Unit testing C. Regression testing D. Sanity testing

89: Which of the following is a MAJOR test planning task? A. Determining the exit criteria B. Measuring and analyzing results C. Implementing corrective actions D. Monitoring and documenting progress

93: White Box Techniques are also called as: A. Structural Testing B. Design Based Testin C. Error Guessing Technique D. Experience Based Technique

207: Software testing accounts to what percent of software development costs? A. 10-20 B. 40-50 C. 70-80 D. 5-10

208: Which tool can be used to support and control part of the test management process? A. Coverage management tool B. Test management tool C. Data preparation tool D. Performance testing tool

210: When should we stop our testing? A. This question is difficult to answer B. The answer depends on the contract with the client, special requirements if any & risks your organization is willing to take C. The answer depends on the experience & maturity of your developers D. The answer should be standardized for the software development industry

241: The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is: A. ISO/IEC 12207 B. BS7925-1 C. BS7925-2 D. ANSI/IEEE 829 E. ANSI/IEEE 729

242: What are the main objectives of software project risk management? A. Increase focus on preventive processes and improve tester job satisfaction B. Reduce the probability of occurrence and decrease the potential impact C. Control contractor problems and minimize the impact of corporate politics D. Increase the probability of project success regardless of the cost involved

343: Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing? A. IEEE829 B. IEEE610 C. BS7925-1 D. BS7925-2

368: If a program is tested and 100% branch coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage criteria is then guaranteed to be achieved? A. 100% Equivalence class coverage B. 100% Condition coverage and 100% Statement coverage C. 100% Statement coverage D. 100% Multiple condition coverage

372: Which of the following activities differentiate a walkthrough from a formal review? A. A walkthrough does not follow a defined process B. For a walkthrough individual preparation by the reviewers is optional C. A walkthrough requires meeting D. A walkthrough finds the causes of failures, while formal review finds the failures

37: What principle is BEST described when test designs are written by a third party? A. Exploratory testing B. Independent testing C. Integration testing D. Interoperability testing

434: Regression testing mainly helps in A. Re-testing fixed defects B. Checking for side-effects of fixes C. Checking the core gaps D. Ensuring high level sanity

469: The oracle assumption: A. Is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked. B. Is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test. C. Is that the tester knows everything about the software under test. D. Is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.

473: Integration testing in the small: A. Tests the individual components that have been developed. B. Tests interactions between modules or subsystems. C. Only uses components that form part of the live system. D. Tests interfaces to other systems.

498: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has � 4000 of salary tax free. The next � 1500 is taxed at 10%. The next � 28000 after that is taxed at 22%. Any further amount is taxed at 40%. To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case? A. � 28000. B. � 33501. C. � 32001. D. � 1500.

54: Contract and regulation testing is a part of A. System testing B. Acceptance testing C. Integration testing D. Smoke testing

64: The ___________ Testing will be performed by the people at client own locations A. Alpha testing B. Field testing C. Performance testing D. System testing

307: Software quality is not relevant to _______ A. Correctness B. Usability C. Viability D. Reusability.

354: When should you stop testing? A. When time for testing has run out. B. When all planned tests have been run C. When the test completion criteria have been met D. When no faults have been found by the tests run

146: During this event the entire system is tested to verify that all functional information structural and quality requirements have been met. A predetermined combination of tests is designed that when executed successfully satisfy management that the system meets specifications A. Validation Testing B. Integration Testing C. User Acceptance Testing D. System Testing

261: One of the fields on a form contains a text box, which accepts alphabets in lower or upper case. Identify the invalid Equivalance class value. A. CLASS B. cLASS C. CLass D. CLa01ss

396: Which of the following items need not to be given in an incident report? A. The version number of the test object B. Test data and used environment C. Identification of the test case that failed D. The location and instructions on how to correct the fault

399: The _______ testing should include operational tests of the new environment as well as of the changed software A. System Testing B. Integration testing C. Component testing D. Maintenance testing

425: Which one is not characteristic of test management tool? A. Support for the management of tests and the testing activities carried out B. Interfaces to test execution tools C. Quantitative analysis related to tests D. Check for consistency and undefined requirements E. None of the above

432: Which test approach uses all combinations of input values and preconditions? A. Component testing B. Error guessing C. Keyword driven testing D. Exhaustive testing

435: Review is one of the methods of V&V. The other methods are A. Inspection B. Walkthrough C. Testing D. All of the above

115: Which of the following is a Key Characteristics of Walk Through A. Scenario , Dry Run , Peer Group B. Pre Meeting Preparations C. Formal Follow Up Process D. Includes Metrics

43: What is the name of a skeletal implementation of a software component that is used for testing? A. Use case B. Domain C. Driver D. Stub

443: Path coverage includes A. Statement coverage B. Condition coverage C. Decision coverage D. None of these

449: Which test is usually run many times and generally evolve slowly? A. Performance testing B. Stress testing C. Reliability testing D. Regression testing

82: Which aspects of testing will establishing traceability help? A. Configuration management and test data generation B. Test case specification and change control C. Test condition and test procedure specification D. Impact analysis and requirements coverage

467: Error guessing: A. Supplements formal test design techniques. B. Can only be used in component, integration and system testing. C. Is only performed in user acceptance testing. D. Is not repeatable and should not be used.

130: Which of the following is a MAJOR task when evaluating the exit criteria? A. Creating test suites and cases for efficient execution B. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders C. Handing the testware to the maintenance organization D. Identifying any required infrastructure and tools

133: Which of the following is a valid objective of an incident report? A. Prove that the tester is contributing to the quality of the system. B. Provides test management ideas for test process improvement. C. Gives a statistical way to determine which modules to redesign. D. Provides developers a way to critique their individual work processes.

144: What type of tools to be used for Regression Testing A. Performance B. Record/Playback C. A. & B. D. None

196 What is a group of test activities that are organized and managed together? A. Test procedure specification B. Test level C. Test case specification D. Test plan

200: What is the difference between testing software developed by contractor outside your country, versus testing software developed by a contractor within your country? A. Does not meet people needs B. Cultural difference C. Loss of control over reallocation of resources D. Relinquishments of control

494: What is the MAIN purpose of a Master Test Plan? A. To communicate how incidents will be managed. B. To communicate how testing will be performed. C. To produce a test schedule. D. To produce a work breakdown structure.

499: Which of the following tools is most likely to contain a comparator? A. Dynamic Analysis tool. B. Test Execution tool. C. Static Analysis tool. D. Security tool.

52: Poor software characteristics are A. Only Project risks B. Only Product risks C. Project risks and Product risks D. Project risks or Product risks

81: The ________ and ________ are used within individual workbenches to produce the right output products. A. Tools and techniques B. Procedures and standards C. Processes and walkthroughs D. Reviews and update

86: Which is not a test Oracle A. The existing system (For a bench mark) B. The code C. Individual� s knowledge D. User manual

111: One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alpha numeric values. Identify the Valid Equivalence class A. BOOK B. Book C. Boo01k D. book

123: Exhaustive Testing is A. Is impractical but possible B. Is practically possible C. Is impractical and impossible D. Is always possible

135: Which of the following are success factors for reviews? I. Clear objectives for each review. II. Checklists and/or roles are used to increase effectiveness of defect identification. III. There is an emphasis on process improvement. IV. People issues and psychological aspects are not reviewed. A. I and III B. II, III and IV C. I, II and III D. IV

139: Performs sufficient testing to evaluate every possible path and condition in the application system. The only test method that guarantees the proper functioning of the application system is called as _____________ A. Regression Testing B. Exhaustive Testing C. Basic Path Testing D. Branch Testing

13: Given the following state transition diagram Which of the following series of state transitions contains an INVALID transition which may indicate a fault in the system design? Exhibit: A. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Checkout Pay Logout. B. Login Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout. C. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Logout. D. Login Browse Basket Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout.

145: System Integration testing should be done after A. Integration testing B. System testing C. Unit testing D. Component integration testing

153: The testing technique that requires devising test cases to demonstrate that each program function is operational is called A. Black-box testing B. Glass-box testing C. Grey-box testing D. White-box testing

155: Which summarizes the testing activities associated with one or more test design specifications. A. Test Summary report B. Test Log C. Test Incident Report D. Test Script

162: Typical defects discovered by static analysis includes A. Programming standard violations B. Referring a variable with an undefined value C. Security vulnerabilities D. All Above

176: "How much testing is enough?" A. This question is impossible to answer B. This question is easy to answer C. The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements D. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers

178: Features to be tested, approach, item pass / fail criteria and test deliverables should be specified in which document? A. Test case specification B. Test procedure specification C. Test plan D. Test design specification

18: Which defects are OFTEN much cheaper to remove? A. Usability defects found by customers B. Defects in infrequently used functionality C. Defects that were detected early D. Minor defects that were found by users

198: Regression testing should be performed: v) Every week w) After the software has changed x) As often as possible y) When the environment has changed z) Wwhen the project manager says A. v & w are true, x � z are false B. w, x & y are true, v & z are false C. w & y are true, v, x & z are false D. w is true, v, x y and z are false E. All of the above are true

209: If an expected result is not specified then: A. We cannot run the test B. It may be difficult to repeat the test C. It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed D. We cannot automate the user inputs

248: Which of the following can help testers understand the root causes of defects from previous projects? A. Ishikawa diagram B. Cause-and-effect diagram C. Lessons learned D. Fishbone diagram

290: Which of the following has highest level of independence in which test cases are: A. Designed by persons who write the software under test B. Designed by a person from a different section C. Designed by a person from a different organization D. Designed by another person

313: How are error guessing and exploratory testing similar? A. Both are widely used formal techniques B. Both are white-box test design techniques C. Both are experience-based testing D. Both are effective at all testing levels

119: Incidents would not be raised against: A. Requirements B. Documentation C. Test cases D. Improvements suggested by users

35: For which of the following would a static analysis tool be MOST useful? A. Supporting reviews. B. Validating models of the software. C. Testing code executed in a special test harness. D. Enforcement of coding standards.

5: Which is a potential product risk factor? A. Failure of third party vendor B. Training issues C. Problems requirements definition D. Poor software functionality

104: Link Testing is also called as : A. Component Integration testing B. Component System Testing C. Component Sub System Testing D. Maintenance testing

275: Test Conditions are derived from: A. Specifications B. Test Cases C. Test Data D. Test Design

276: Which of the following is the task of a Test Lead / Leader. i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project. ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the information gathered during testing iii. Decide what should be automated , to what degree and how. iv. Create the Test Specifications A. i, ii, iii is true and iv is false B. ii,iii,iv is true and i is false C. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false D. iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

376: This part of a program is given: WHILE (condition A) Do B END WHILE How many decisions should be tested in this code in order to achieve 100% decision coverage? A. 2 B. Indefinite C. 1 D. 4

379: Which of the following is correct about static analysis tools A. They help you find defects rather than failures B. They are used by developers only C. They require compilation of code D. They are useful only for regulated industries

117: Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase :- A. Test Analysis and Design B. Test Implementation and execution C. Test Closure Activities D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

154: A white box testing technique that measures the number of or percentage of decision directions executed by the test case designed is called A. Condition coverage B. Decision/Condition coverage C. Decision Coverage D. Branch coverage

363: Which of the following techniques are black box techniques? A. State transition testing, code testing, agile testing B. Equivalence partitioning, state transition testing, decision table testing C. System testing, acceptance testing, equivalence partitioning D. System integration testing, system testing, decision table testing

149: What is a scripting technique that uses data files to contain not only test data and expected results, but also keywords related to the application being tested? A. Automation technique B. Scripting language C. Process-driven testing D. Keyword-driven testing

151: In ______ testing doesn't know anything about the sofware being tested; it just clicks or types randomly. A. Random testing B. Gorilla testing C. Adhoc testing D. Dumb monkey testing

157: Which test ensures that modifications did not introduce new problems? A. Stress testing B. Black-box testing C. Structural testing D. Regression testing

206: Which of the following is not a characteristic for Testability? A. Operability B. Observability C. Simplicity D. Robustness

211: The purpose of requirement phase is A. To freeze requirements B. To understand user needs C. To define the scope of testing D. All of the above

244: How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 % decision coverage? If (p = q) { s = s + 1; if (a < S) { t = 10; } } else if (p > q) { t = 5; } A. 3 B. 6 C. 5 D. 4

289: Which input combinations will a knowledgeable tester MOST LIKELY use to uncover potential errors when testing a surname field? A. Wilson, de Costa and Morgan B. Go, Cheenaswamimuthusami and Venkatsewaran C. Smit, Smyth and Smithson D. O'Lever, Lesa-Brit and Jewel D� e

318: Testing is not done to ______ A. Find faults B. Improve quality C. Check user friendliness. D. Improve software accuracy

439: Which of the following is TRUE when introducing a new tool into a test environment? A. Changes to existing test processes should not be needed with the new tool. B. A site license will be needed to reduce the cost per seat of the tool. C. The tool should be rolled out as quickly as possible to maximize ROI. D. Introducing the tool to the organization should start with a pilot project.

476: Test cases are designed during: A. Test recording. B. Test planning. C. Test configuration. D. Test specification.

56: Which is not the testing objectives A. Finding defects B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information C. Preventing defects. D. Debugging defects

142: Which of the following are MAJOR test implementation and execution tasks? I. Repeating test activities II. Creating test suites III. Reporting discrepancies IV. Logging the outcome V. Analyzing lessons learned A. II, III and IV B. I, III, IV and V C. I, II, III and IV D. III, IV and V

150: The principal attributes of tools and automation are A. Speed & efficiency B. Accuracy & precision C. All of the above D. None of the above

296: Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities? i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered ii. Defect report analysis. iii. Finalizing and archiving testware. iv. Analyzing lessons. A. i , ii , iv are true and iii is false B. i , ii , iii are true and iv is false C. i , iii , iv are true and ii is false D. All of above are true

385: This part of a program is given: WHILE (condition A) Do B END WHILE How many paths should be tested in this code in order to achieve 100% path coverage? A. One B. Indefinite C. Two D. Four

448: Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle? A. It allows the identification of changes in user requirements. B. It facilitates timely set up of the test environment. C. It reduces defect multiplication. D. It allows testers to become involved early in the project.

474: Which of the following requirements is testable? A. The system shall be user friendly. B. The safety-critical parts of the system s all contain 0 faults. C. The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load. D. The system shall be built to be portable.

479: Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets? v - Test control w - Test monitoring x - Test estimation y - Incident management z - Configuration control 1 - Calculation of required test resources 2 - Maintenance of record of test results 3 - Re-allocation of resources when tests overrun 4 - Report on deviation from test plan 5 - Tracking of anomalous test results A. v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4 B. v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3 C. v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2 D. v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5

480: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has � 4000 of salary tax free. The next � 1500 is taxed at 10% The next � 28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40% To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case? A. � 1500 B. � 32001 C. � 33501 D. � 28000

481: Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria? A. Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite. B. A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered. C. A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found. D. Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.

487: Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model? A. All document reviews involve the development team. B. Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding test activities. C. Each test level has test objectives specific to that level. D. Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is complete.

53: System testing should investigate A. Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements B. Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements C. Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements D. Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements

75: Which factors contribute to humans making mistakes that can lead to faulty software? I. Setting aggressive schedule II. Integrating complex systems III. Allocating adequate resources IV. Failing to control changes A. I and II are true; III and IV are false B. II and IV are true; I and III are false C. I, II and IV are true; III is false D. I, II and III are true; IV is false

79: Which test can be performed at all test levels? A. System testing B. Operational testing C. Structural testing D. Integration testing

8: Which of the following would you NOT usually find on a software incident report? A. The name and / or organisational position of the person raising the problem. B. Version of the Software Under Test. C. Suggestions as to how to fix the problem. D. Actual and expected results.

92: What can static analysis NOT find? A. The use of a variable before it has been defined B. Unreachable ("dead") code C. Memory leaks D. Array bound violations

101: The Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and then it is turned on when the temperature is more than 21. When the temperature is more than 21. Identify the Equivalance values which belong to the same class. A. 12,16,22 B. 24,27,17 C. 22,23,24 D. 14,15,19

107: Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part of which phase A. Test Implementation and execution B. Test Analysis and Design C. Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting D. Test Closure Activities

156: Which test investigates both functional and non-functional system requirements? A. Alpha testing B. System testing C. Acceptance testing D. Confirmation testing

223: Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management: A. Status accounting of configuration items B. Auditing conformance to ISO9001 C. Identification of test versions D. Record of changes to documentation over time E. controlled library access

224: A test plan defines A. What is selected for testing B. Objectives and results C. Expected results D. Targets and misses

470: In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to: A. Find as many faults as possible. B. Test high risk areas. C. Obtain good test coverage. D. Test whatever is easiest to test.

383: Without testing all possible transitions, which test suite will test all marital statuses? A. SO-S1-S2-S4-S1-S4 B. SO-S1-S2-S3-S1-S2 C. SO-S1-S4-S1-S2-S3 D. SO-S1-S2-S3-S4-S1

20: Which of the following is TRUE? A. Confirmation testing is testing fixes to a set of defects and Regression testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes. B. Confirmation testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes and Regression testing is testing fixes to a set of defects. C. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes. D. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing fixes to a set of defects.

21: Given the following decision table: Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID? Rule 1 Rule 2 Rule 3 Rule 4 Conditions Age <21 yrs 21-29 yrs 30-50yrs > 50yrs Insurance Class A A or B B. C or D C or D Actions Premium � 100 � 90 � 70 � 70 Excess � 2,500 � 2,500 � 500 � 1000 A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500. B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500. C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500. D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000.

22: When should configuration management procedures be implemented? A. During test planning. B. During test analysis. C. During test execution. D. When evaluating exit criteria

24: Which of the problems below BEST characterize a result of software failure? A. Damaged reputation B. Lack of methodology C. Inadequate training D. Regulatory compliance

28: Which of the following can be considered as success factors when deploying a new tool in an organization? A. Providing coaching to users and defining usage guidelines B. Monitoring tool usage and reducing the need for risk analysis C. Improving processes and focusing more on component testing D. Assessing testing completion and minimizing code reviews

29: What is the purpose of exit criteria? A. To define when a test level is complete. B. To determine when a test has completed. C. To identify when a software system should be retired. D. To determine whether a test has passed.

34: Which type of test design techniques does the following statement best describe a procedure to derive test cases based on the specification of a component? A. Black Box Techniques. B. White Box Techniques. C. Glass Box Techniques. D. Experience Based Techniques.

4: Based on the IEEE Standard for Software Test Documentation (IEEE Std 829 - 1998), which of the following sections are part of the test summary report? a) Summary b) Test incident report identifier c) Test deliverables d) Risks and contingencies e) Variances f) Approvals g) Output specifications A. a, e and f B. a, c and d C. a, b and f D. a, d and e

50: Measurement dysfunction is a problem because: A. Even though the numbers you look at appear better, to achieve these numbers, people are doing other aspects of their work much less well. B. We don't know how to measure a variable (our measurement is dysfunctional) and so we don't know how to interpret the result. C. You are measuring the wrong thing and thus reaching the wrong conclusions. D. All of the above.

57: Which of the following is a KEY task of a tester? A. Reviewing tests developed by others B. Writing a test strategy for the project C. Deciding what should be automated D. Writing test summary reports

77: What is the main purpose of Informal review A. Inexpensive way to get some benefit B. Find defects C. Learning, gaining understanding, effect finding D. Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems

7: Who would USUALLY perform debugging activities? A. Developers. B. Analysts. C. Testers. D. Incident Managers.

90: Testing where in we subject the target of the test , to varying workloads to measure and evaluate the performance behaviors and ability of the target and of the test to continue to function properly under these different workloads. A. Load Testing B. Integration Testing C. System Testing D. Usability Testing

95: Component Testing is also called as :- i. Unit Testing ii. Program Testing iii. Module Testing iv. System Component Testing . A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false B. i,ii,iii,iv are false C. i,ii,iv are true and iii is false D. all of above is true

9: Which of the following defines the expected results of a test? A. Test case specification. B. Test design specification. C. Test procedure specification. D. Test results.

15: What is beta testing? A. Testing performed by potential customers at the developers location. B. Testing performed by potential customers at their own locations. C. Testing performed by product developers at the customer's location. D. Testing performed by product developers at their own locations.

45: Complete statement and branch coverage means: A. That you have tested every statement in the program. B. That you have tested every statement and every branch in the program. C. That you have tested every IF statement in the program. D. That you have tested every combination of values of IF statements in the program

6: Who typically use static analysis tools? A. Customers and users B. Developers and designers C. Business and systems analysts D. System and acceptance testers

76: Which sections are included as part of the test summary report? W. Variances X. Comprehensive assessment Y. Evaluation Z. Summary of activities A. W, X and Y B. W, X, Y and Z C. W and X D. W, X and Z

17: You have designed test cases to provide 100% statement and 100% decision coverage for the following fragment of code. if width > length then biggest_dimension = width else biggest_dimension = length end_if The following has been added to the bottom of the code fragment above. print "Biggest dimension is " & biggest_dimension print "Width: " & width print "Length: " & length How many more test cases are required? A. One more test case will be required for 100 % decision coverage. B. Two more test cases will be required for 100 % statement coverage, one of which will be used to provide 100% decision coverage. C. None, existing test cases can be used. D. One more test case will be required for 100" statement coverage.

27: Which of the following benefits are MOST likely to be achieved by using test tools? i) Easy to access information about tests and testing. ii) Reduced maintenance of testware. iii) Easy and cheap to implement. iv) Greater consistency of tests. Options: A. ii and iv B. ii and iii C. i and iv D. i and iii

31: With which of the following categories is a test comparator tool USUALLY associated? A. Tool support for performance and monitoring. B. Tool support for static testing. C. Tool support for test execution and logging. D. Tool support for the management of testing and tests.

11: Which of the following is correct? A. Impact analysis assesses the effect on the system of a defect found in regression testing. B. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a new person joining the regression test team. C. Impact analysis assesses whether or not a defect found in regression testing has been fixed correctly. D. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a change to the system to determine how much regression testing to do. color=#800000 size=2 face=Arial>

12: In software testing what is the main purpose of exit criteria? A. To enhance the security of the system B. To prevent the endless loops in code. C. To swerve as an alternative or "Plan-B" D. To define when to stop testing

58: Which is not the project risks A. Supplier issues B. Organization factors C. Technical issues D. Error-prone software delivered

68: Which of the following MAIN activity is part of the fundamental test process? A. Initiating and planning B. Documenting r oot-causes C. Capturing lessons learned D. Planning and control

74: The purpose of exit criteria is A. Define when to stop testing B. End of test level C. When a set of tests has achieved a specific pre condition D. All of the above

47: Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic testing are: A. Deviations from standards, B. Requirement defects, C. Design defects, D. Insufficient maintainability and incorrect interface specifications. E. All of the above.

346: Which of the following is not the integration strategy? A. Design based B. Big-bang C. Bottom-up D. Top-down

1: How many test cases are required to cover 100% 0 - switch coverage respectively from X2? Exhibit: A. 4 B. 1 C. 3 D. 2

106: Which of the following statements regarding static testing is false: A. Static testing requires the running of tests through the code B. Static testing includes desk checking C. Static testing includes techniques such as reviews and inspections D. Static testing can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity

108: A Type of functional Testing, which investigates the functions relating to detection of threats, such as virus from malicious outsiders. A. Security Testing B. Recovery Testing C. Performance Testing D. Functionality Testing

114: A Project risk includes which of the following : A. Organizational Factors B. Poor Software characteristics C. Error Prone software delivered. D. Software that does not perform its intended functions

121: Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks? i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts. ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution. iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly. iv. Determining the exit criteria. size=2 face=Arial> A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false B. i,,iv are true and ii is false C. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false D. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

122: One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts numeric values in the range of 18 to 25. Identify the invalid Equivalance class A. 17 B. 19 C. 24 D. 21

129: Majority of system errors occur in the _________ phase A. Requirements Phase. B. Analysis and Design Phase C. Development Phase D. Testing Phase

134: When to stop Testing? A. Stop when scheduled time for testing expires B. Stop if 75% of the pre-defined number of errors is detected. C. Stop when all the test cases execute with detecting few errors. D. None above

141: A formal assessment of a work product conducted by one or more qualified independent reviewer to detect defects. A. Inspection. B. Walkthrough. C. Review D. Non Conformance

147: What is the normal order of activities in which software testing is organized? A. Unit, integration, system, validation B. System, integration, unit, validation C. Unit, integration, validation, system D. None of the above

152: A series of probing questions about the completeness and attributes of an application system is called A. Checklist B. Checkpoint review C. Decision table D. Decision tree

159: Which testing is used to verify that the system can perform properly when internal program or system limitations have been exceeded A. Stress Testing B. Load Testing C. Performance Testing D. Volume testing

160: In any software development life cycle (SDLC) model, which of the following are characteristics of good testing? I. Providing complete test coverage of all branches of the system code. II. Having a corresponding testing activity for each development activity. III. Testers should be involved in reviewing documents as soon as drafts are available. IV. Each test level has test objectives specific to that level. A. II, III and IV B. I and III C. I, III and IV D. I and II

161: What is the ratio of the number of failures relative to a category and a unit of measure? A. Failure rate B. Defect density C. Failure mode D. Fault tolerance size=2 face=Arial>

164: What test can be conducted for off - the - shelf software to get market feedback? A. Beta testing B. Usability testing C. Alpha testing D. COTS testing

165: CAST stands for A. Computer Aided Software Testing B. Computer Aided Software Tools C. Computer Analysis Software Techniques D. None

168: _______ includes both Black box and White Box Testing features A. Gray Box Testing B. Hybrid Testing C. A. & B. D. None

172: As a test leader you are collecting measures about defects. You recognize that after the first test cycle � covering all requirements - subsystem C has a defect density that is 150% higher than the average. Subsystem A on the other hand has a defect density that is 60% lower than the average. What conclusions for the next test cycle could you draw from this fact? A. It is probable that subsystem C has still more hidden defects. Therefore we need to test subsystem C in more detail. B. Because we have already found many defects in subsystem C, we should concentrate testing resources on Subsystem A. C. Observed defect density does not allow any conclusions about the amount of additional testing. D. We should try to equalize the amount of testing over all modules to ensure that we test all subsystems evenly.

174: Failure is _________ A. Incorrect program behavior due to a fault in the program B. Bug found before product Release C. Bug found after product Release D. Bug found during Design phase

180: Fault Masking is A. Error condition hiding another error condition B. Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault C. Masking a fault by developer D. Masking a fault by a tester

183: Statement Coverage will not check for the following. A. Missing Statements B. Unused Branches C. Dead Code D. Unused Statement

184: Given the Following program IF X <>= Z THEN Statement 2; END McCabe� s Cyclomatic Complexity is : A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

190: A common test technique during component test is A. Statement and branch testing B. Usability testing C. Security testing D. Performance testing

192: Acceptance test cases are based on what? A. Requirements B. Design C. Code D. Decision table

193: Which documents specify features to - be tested, approach, and pass / fail criteria? A. Test plan and test design specification B. Test plan and test case specification C. Test procedure specification and test design specification D. Test case specification and test procedure specification

19: Which activity in the fundamental test process creates test suites for efficient test execution? A. Implementation and execution. B. Planning and control. C. Analysis and design. D. Test closure.

201: The inputs for developing a test plan are taken from A. Project plan B. Business plan C. Support plan D. None of the above

203: Which of the following is not a static testing technique A. Error guessing B. Walkthrough C. Data flow analysis D. Inspections

204: Which document specifies the sequence of test executions? A. Test procedure specification B. Test design specification C. Test case specification D. Test plan

213: Cyclomatic Complexity method comes under which testing method. A. White box B. Black box C. Green box D. Yellow box

220: The difference between re-testing and regression testing is A. Re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects B. Re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests C. Re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier D. Re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment E. Re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers

237: Unreachable code would best be found using: A. Code reviews B. Code inspections C. A coverage tool D. A test management tool E. A static analysis tool

238: What information need not be included in a test incident report: A. How to fix the fault B. How to reproduce the fault C. Test environment details D. Severity, priority E. The actual and expected outcomes

245: Which of the following statements about the component testing standard is false: A. Black box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique B. White box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique C. Cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique D. Black box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique E. White box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique

253: Beta testing is: A. Performed by customers at their own site B. Performed by customers at their software developer� s site C. Performed by an independent test team D. Useful to test bespoke software E. Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle

255: A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT: A. Generating expected outputs B. Replaying inputs according to a programmed script C. Comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes D. Recording test inputs E. Reading test values from a data file

256: Consider the following statements about early test design: i. Early test design can prevent fault multiplication ii. Faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix iii. Early test design can find faults iv. Early test design can cause changes to the requirements v. Early test design takes more effort A. i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false B. iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false C. iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false D. i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false E. i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false

262: The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following: A. Explaining the objective B. Fixing defects found typically done by author C. Follow up D. Individual Meeting preparations

265: Success Factors for a review include: i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively iii. Management supports a good review process. iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement. A. ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect B. iii , i , iv is correct and ii is incorrect C. i , iii , iv , ii is in correct D. ii is correct

267: Defects discovered by static analysis tools include: i. Variables that are never used. ii. Security vulnerabilities. iii. Programming Standard Violations iv. Uncalled functions and procedures A. i , ii,iii,iv is correct B. iii ,is correct I,ii,iv are incorrect. C. i ,ii, iii and iv are incorrect D. iv, ii is correct

270: Features of White Box Testing Technique: i. We use explicit knowledge of the internal workings of the item being tested to select the test data. ii. Uses specific knowledge of programming code to examine outputs and assumes that the tester knows the path of logic in a unit or a program. iii. Checking for the performance of the application iv. Also checks for functionality. A. i, ii are true and iii and iv are false B. iii is true and i,ii, iv are false C. ii ,iii is true and i,iv is false D. iii and iv are true and i,ii are false

271. The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the configurations items is called as A. Configuration Control B. Status Accounting C. Configuration Identification D. Configuration Identification

277: Impact Analysis helps to decide: A. How much regression testing should be done. B. Exit Criteria C. How many more test cases need to written. D. Different Tools to perform Regression Testing

283: Which typical defects are easier to find using static instead of dynamic testing? L. Deviation from standards M. Requirements defects N. Insufficient maintainability O. Incorrect interface specifications A. L, M, N and O B. L and N C. L,N and O D. L,M and N

287: We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification as the input for writing: A. User Acceptance Test Cases B. Integration Level Test Cases C. Unit Level Test Cases D. Program specifications

291: Test planning has which of the following major tasks? i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing. ii. Determining the test approach (techniques,test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the teams involved in testing , testware) iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements,architecture,design,interface) iv. Determining the exit criteria. face=Arial> A. i,ii,iv are true and iii is false B. i,,iv are true and ii is false C. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false D. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

299: Which of the following statements is true of static analysis: A. Compiling code is not a form of static analysis. B. Static analysis need not be performed before imperative code is executed. C. Static analysis can find faults that are hard to find with dynamic testing. D. Extensive statistic analysis will not be needed if white- Box testing is to be performed.

300: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has $4000 of salary tax free. The next $1500 is taxed at 10% The next $28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40% Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class? A. $5800; $28000; $32000 B. $0; $200; $4200 C. $5200; $5500; $28000 D. $28001; $32000; $35000

304: Which tool will be used to test the flag memory leaks and unassigned pointers A. Dynamic analysis tool B. Static Analysis tool. C. Maintenance tool. D. Configuration tool.

308: Match the following: 1. Test estimation 2. Test control 3. Test monitoring a. Measures of tracking process b. Effort required to perform activities c. Reallocation of resources A. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a B. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b D. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c

312: Integration testing in the large involves: A. Testing the system when combined with other systems. B. Testing a sub-system using stubs and drivers. C. Testing a system with a large number of users. D. Combing software components and testing them in one go.

314: What technique would be MOST appropriate to check status changes based on certain events? A. State transition B. Equivalence partitioning C. Boundary value analysis D. Decision table

315: In a formal review, who is primarily responsible for the documents to be reviewed? A. Author B. Manager C. Moderator D. Reviewers

321: What is failure? A. Deviation from expected result to actual result B. Defect in the software. C. Error in the program code. D. Fault in the system.

322: Which test support tool can be used to enforce coding standards? A. Static analysis tool B. Performance testing tool C. Test comparator D. Test management tool

325: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of User Acceptance Testing? A. Use of automated test execution tools. B. Testing performed by users. C. Testing against acceptance test criteria. D. Integration of system with user documentation.

339: A company by the name Software Testing Genius Inc. decides to use functional test execution automation tool for testing GUI of their product. The GUI is expected to change frequently. Software Testing Genius Inc. has put some of the manual testers through a 3-day training program on how to use the tool. Which of the following is likely to be true? A. Automation is likely to fail because of frequent changes and lack of experience B. Automation is likely to fail because of GUI automation is not the right way to automate C. Automation is likely to succeed because automation is very useful for frequent changes D. Automation is likely to succeed because the team has been trained on tool.

33: Match the following terms and statements. 1.Decision Table Testing 2.Decision Testing 3.State Transition Testing 4.Exploratory Testing W. Testing carried out w boxes to achieve specific test objectives, possibly to complement structured testing. X. A test technique used which may be used to verify different system re depending on current conditions or previous history. Y. A test technique which combines combinations of inputs that might not otherwise have been exercised during testing. Z. A form of control flow testing based on decision outcomes. Options: A. 1Y, 2Z, 3X, 4W. B. 1X ,2W, 3Z, 4Y. C. 1Z, 2X, 3W, 4Y. D. 1Z, 2Y, 3X, 4W.

340: A test design technique is A. A process for selecting test cases B. A process for determining expected outputs C. A way to measure the quality of software D. A way to measure in a test plan what has to be done

342: Testware(test cases, test dataset) A. Needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code B. Should be newly constructed for each new version of the software C. Is needed only until the software is released into production or use D. Does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released software system

349: Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, will affect the time needed for testing (the test phases) by: A. Reducing test time B. No change C. Increasing test time D. Can� t say

356: Which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional test? A. State-Transition B. Usability C. Performance D. Security

359: Which of the following are KEY tasks of a test leader? i. Understanding the project risks ii. Measuring performance of components iii. Scheduling tests and other activities iv. Using monitoring tools as needed A. i and iii B. i and ii C. iii and iv D. ii and iii

360: Which of the following is a static test? A. Code inspection B. Coverage analysis C. Usability assessment D. Installation test

364: What is the KEY difference between black-box and white-box testing? A. Black-box is functional; white-box is structural B. Black-box is functional; white-box is non-functional C. Black-box has a wider statement coverage than white-box D. Black-box can only be performed after white-box

366: What makes an inspection different from other review types? A. It is led by a trained leader, uses formal entry and exit criteria and checklists B. It is led by the author of the document to be inspected C. It can only be used for reviewing design and code D. It is led by the author, uses checklists, and collects data for improvement

370: In system testing... A. Both functional and non-functional requirements are to be tested B. Only functional requirements are tested; non-functional requirements are validated in a review C. Only non-functional requirements are tested; functional requirements are validated in a review D. Only requirements which are listed in the specification document are to be tested

378: Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem: An integer field shall contain values from and including 1 to and including 15 A. Less than 1, 1 through 15, more than 15 B. Negative numbers, 1 through 15, above 15 C. Less than 1, 1 through 14, more than 15 D. Less than 0, 1 through 14, 15 and more

380: Which of the following is most often considered as components interface bug? A. For two components exchanging data, one component used metric units, the other one used British units B. The system is difficult to use due to a too complicated terminal input structure C. The messages for user input errors are misleading and not helpful for understanding the input error cause D. Under high load, the system does not provide enough open ports to connect to

386: What is the purpose of test exit criteria in the test plan? A. To specify when to stop the testing activity B. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs C. To ensure that the test case specification is complete D. To know when a specific test has finished its execution

389: Which test approaches or strategies are characterized by the descriptions below? S. Analytical approaches T. Model-based approaches U. Methodical approaches V. Consultative approaches 1. Relies on guidelines from domain experts 2. Includes error guessing and fault-attacks 3. Uses statistical information about failure rates 4. Focuses on areas of greatest risk A. S4, T3, U2, V1 B. S1, T2, U3, V4 C. S2, T3, U1, V4 D. S3, T4, U2, V1

394: Why is incremental integration preferred over "big bang" integration? A. Because incremental integration has better early defects screening and isolation ability B. Because "big bang" integration is suitable only for real time applications C. Incremental integration is preferred over "Big Bang Integration" only for "bottom up" development model D. Because incremental integration can compensate for weak and inadequate component testing

395: V-Model is: A. A software development model that illustrates how testing activities integrate with software development phases B. A software life-cycle model that is not relevant for testing C. The official software development and testing life-cycle model of ISTQB D. A testing life cycle model including unit, integration, system and acceptance phases

39: The above diagram represents the following paths through the code. A. vwy B. vwz C. vxy D. vxz What is the MINIMUM combination of paths required to provide full statement coverage? Exhibit: A. A B. ABD C. ABCD D. ACD

3: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test planning? A. Scheduling test analysis and design tasks. B. Initiating corrective actions. C. Monitoring progress and test coverage. D. Measuring and analyzing results.

400: Using the diagram below, which test suite will check for ALL valid state transitions using the LEAST effort? A. SO-S1-S2-S4-S1-S4-S1-S2-S3-S1 B. SO-S1-S2-S4-S1-S2-S3-S1 C. SO-S1-S4-S1-S2-S3-S1 D. SO-S1-S2-S4-S1-S4-S1-S2-S3

402: Branch Coverage A. Another name for decision coverage B. Another name for all-edges coverage C. Another name for basic path coverage D. All the above

414: Stochastic testing is an example of which test approach or strategy? A. Model-based B. Analytical C. Methodical D. Heuristic

429: If the application is complex, but NOT data intensive and is to be tested on one configuration and 2 rounds, the easiest method to test is A. Manual testing B. Automation testing C. Both D. None

42: Which of the following is a KEY test control task? A. Initiating corrective actions B. Determining the scope C. Implementing the test policy D. Scheduling test implementation

436: Which review is inexpensive A. Informal Review B. Walkthrough C. Technical review D. Inspection

438: Random Testing A. Program is tested randomly sampling the input. B. A black-box testing technique C. Both A. and B. D. None of the above.

441: Test Plan A. Road map for testing B. Tells about the actual results and expected results C. Both a and b D. None of the above

44: Which is the best definition of complete testing: A. You have discovered every bug in the program. B. You have tested every statement, branch, and combination of branches in the program. C. You have completed every test in the test plan. D. You have reached the scheduled ship date.

451: We split testing into distinct stages primarily because: A. Each test stage has a different purpose. B. It is easier to manage testing in stages. C. We can run different tests in different environments. D. The more stages we have, the better the testing.

453: What should be considered when introducing a tool into an organization? A. Assessing the organizational maturity B. Counting the number of systems to be tested C. Calculating the ratio between programmers and testers D. Reviewing the exit criteria of previous projects

460: How are integration testing and use case testing similar and dissimilar? A. Both checks for interactions: integration for components, use case for actions B. Both are black-box techniques: integration is low-level, use case is high-level C. Both are static testing: developers perform integration, users execute use case tests C. Both are V&V techniques: integration is for validation, use case is for verification

463: Which of the following is NOT true of incidents? A. Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test. B. Incidents may be raised against user requirements. C. Incidents require investigation and/or correction. D. Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.

464: Which of the following characterizes the cost of faults? A. They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases. B. They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then. C. Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then. D. Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.

472: Which of the following are potential drawbacks of independence in testing? 01. Independent testers may feel they are not part of the development team 02. Developers may lose a sense of personal responsibility for quality 03. Project managers will not have as much control on the project 04. Customers may end up requesting features that are technically impossible A. 01 and 02 B. 01, 02 and 03 C. 03 and 04 D. 01, 02, 03 and 04

475: An important benefit of code inspections is that they: A. Enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready. B. Can be performed by the person who wrote the code. C. Can be performed by inexperienced staff. D. Are cheap to perform.

482: Analyze the following highly simplified procedure: Ask: "What type of ticket do you require, single or return?" IF the customer wants � return� Ask: "What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?" IF the customer replies � Cheap-day� Say: "That will be � 11:20" ELSE Say: "That will be � 19:50" ENDIF ELSE Say: "That will be � 9:75" ENDIF Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all replies given. A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

486: Which of the following are disadvantages of capturing tests by recording the actions of a manual tester? i The script may be unstable when unexpected events occur. ii Data for a number of similar tests is automatically stored separately from the script. iii Expected results must be added to the captured script. iv The captured script documents the exact inputs entered by the tester. v When replaying a captured test, the tester may need to debug the script if it doesn� t play correctly. A. i, iii, iv, v. B. ii, iv and v. C. i, ii and iv. D. i and v.

488: The process of designing test cases consists of the following activities: i. Elaborate and describe test cases in detail by using test design techniques. ii. Specify the order of test case execution. iii. Analyse requirements and specifications to determine test conditions. iv. Specify expected results. According to the process of identifying and designing tests, what is the correct order of these activities? A. iii, i, iv, ii. B. iii, iv, i, ii. C. iii, ii, i, iv. D. ii, iii, i, iv.

48: Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have the same objective A. Identifying defects. B. Fixing defects. C. A. and B D. None of the above

496: Which of the following is a major task of test planning? A. Determining the test approach. B. Preparing test specifications. C. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting. D. Measuring and analyzing results.

49: What techniques would be MOST appropriate if the specifications are outdated? A. Structure-based and experienced-based techniques B. Black-box and specification-based techniques C. Specification-based and structure-based techniques D. Structure-based technique and exhaustive testing

500: When software reliability measures are used to determine when to stop testing, the best types of test cases to use are those that A. Exercise system functions in proportion to the frequency they will be used in the released product B. Push the system beyond its designed operation limits and are likely to make the system fail C. Exercise unusual and obscure scenarios that may not have been considered in design D. Exercise the most complicated and the most error-prone portions of the system

94: Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase A. Test Analysis and Design B. Test Implementation and execution C. Test Closure Activities D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

102: What is an equivalence partition (also known as an equivalence class)? A. A set of test cases for testing classes of objects B. An input or output range of values such that only one value in the range becomes a test case C. An input or output range of values such that each value in the range becomes a test case D. An input or output range of values such that every tenth value in the range becomes a test case.

105: Who are the persons involved in a Formal Review :- i. Manager ii. Moderator iii. Scribe / Recorder iv. Assistant Manager A. i,ii,iii,iv are true B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false. C. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false. D. i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.

109: A Person who documents all the issues, problems and open points that were identified during a formal review. A. Moderator. B. Scribe C. Author D. Manager

10: Some tools are geared more for developer use. For the 5 tools listed, which statement BEST details those for developers i) Performance testing tools. ii) Coverage measurement tools. iii) Test comparators. iv) Dynamic analysis tools. v) Incident management tools. A. i, iii. and iv. are more for developers. B. ii. and iv. are more for developers. C. ii, iii and iv. are more for developers. D. ii. and iii. are more for developers.

112: Which of the following are potential benefits of using test support tools? A. Ensuring greater consistency and minimizing software project risks B. Reducing repetitive work and gaining easy access to test information C. Performing objective assessment and reducing the need for training D. Allowing for greater reliance on the tool to automate the test process

120: The Planning phase of a formal review includes the following :- A. Explaining the objectives B. Selecting the personnel, allocating roles. C. Follow up D. Individual Meeting preparations

124: Which tool needs to interface with other office automation software in order to generate reports in the format required by the organization? A. Progress tracking tools B. Test management tools C. Metrics management tools D. Test execution tools

143: Which tasks are performed by a test leader versus a tester? S. Writing a project test strategy T. Selecting tools to support testing U. Preparing and acquiring data V. Scheduling tests A. Test leader: S and V; Tester: T and U B. Test leader: S, T and V; Tester: U C. Test leader: S, U and V; Tester: T D. Test leader: S; Tester: T, U and V

158: Which of the following are potential benefits of adding tools to the test process? I. Reduction of repetitive testing procedures. II. Ability to hire testers with fewer technical skills. III. Ability to get an objective assessment of progress. IV. Greater consistency in testing procedures. A. II, III and IV B. I, III and IV C. I, II and III D. I, II and IV

163: EULA stands for A. End Usability License Agreement B. End User License Agreement C. End User License Arrangement D. End User License Attachment

167: Which test may not mimic real world situations A. Functional testing B. Structural Testing C. All of the above D. None of the above

16: Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% decision coverage? if width > length then biggest_dimension = width if height > width then biggest_dimension = height end_if else biggest_dimension = length if height > length then biggest_dimension = height end_if end_if A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 D. 1

170: Tool which stores requirement statements, check for consistency and allow requirements to be prioritized and enable individual tests to be traceable to requirements, functions and features. A. Incident management tools B. Requirements management tools C. Configuration management tools D. None

179: What is the difference between component testing and integration testing? A. Component testing tests interfaces; integration testing searches for defects B. Component testing searches for defects; integration testing tests Interfaces C. Developers perform component testing; testers perform integration testing D. Testers perform component testing; users perform integration testing

185: To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data. A. Stub B. Driver C. Proxy D. None of the above

187: Boundary value testing A. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests B. Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes C. Tests combinations of input circumstances D. Is used in white box testing strategy

191: In a review meeting a moderator is a person who A. Takes minutes of the meeting B. Mediates between people C. Takes telephone calls D. Writes the documents to be reviewed

214: A reliable system will be one that: A. Is unlikely to be completed on schedule B. Is unlikely to cause a failure C. Is likely to be fault-free D. Is likely to be liked by the users

215: Which, in general, is the least required skill of a good tester? A. Being diplomatic B. Able to write software C. Having good attention to detail D. Able to be relied on

216: A regression test: A. Will always be automated B. Will help ensure unchanged areas of the software have not been affected C. Will help ensure changed areas of the software have not been affected D. Can only be run during user acceptance testing

218: The process starting with the terminal modules is called: A. Top-down integration B. Bottom-up integration C. None of the above D. Module integration

219: Verification is: A. Checking that we are building the right system B. Checking that we are building the system right C. Performed by an independent test team D. Making sure that it is what the user really wants

226: The cost of fixing a fault: A. Is not important B. Increases as we move the product towards live use C. Decreases as we move the product towards live use D. Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design E. Can never be determined

230: Given the following: Switch PC on Start "outlook" IF outlook appears THEN Send an email Close outlook A. 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage B. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage C. 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage D. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage E. 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

233: When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by: A. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool B. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool C. The independent testing team D. The managers to see what projects it should be used in E. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

236: Given the following code, which is true: IF A > B THEN C = A � B ELSE C = A + B ENDIF Read D IF C = D Then Print "Error" ENDIF A. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage B. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage C. 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage D. 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage E. 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

23: Which of the following are characteristic of regression testing ? i) Regression testing is run ONLY once ii) Regression testing is used after fixes have been made iii) Regression testing is often automated iv) Regression tests need not be maintained Options: A. ii, iv. B. ii, iii. C. i, iii, iv. D. iii.

250: Non-functional system testing includes: A. Testing to see where the system does not function properly B. Testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability C. Testing a system feature using only the software required for that action D. Testing a system feature using only the software required for that function E. Testing for functions that should not exist

257: Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage: Read P Read Q IF P+Q > 100 THEN Print "Large" ENDIF If P > 50 THEN Print "P Large" ENDIF A. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage B. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage C. 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage D. 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage E. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

259: Error guessing is best used A. As the first approach to deriving test cases B. After more formal techniques have been applied C. By inexperienced testers D. After the system has gone live E. Only by end users

260: Exit Criteria may consist of: i. Thoroughness measures, such as coverage of code, functionality or risk ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures. iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas iv. Verifying the Test Environment. A. iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect. B. i,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect C. ii is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect D. iii and iv are correct and i,ii are incorrect

264: Validation involves which of the following i. Helps to check the Quality of the Built Product ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product. iii. Helps in developing the product iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness. A. Options i,ii,iii,iv are true. B. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false C. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false D. iii is true and i,ii,iv are false.

266: Which test measures the system at or beyond the limits of its specified requirements? A. Structural testing B. Stress testing C. Error guessing D. Black-box testing

268: Which defect can typically be discovered using a static analysis tool? A. Inconsistencies in numerical calculations B. Programming standards violations C. Problems related to system usability D. Internal and external system reliability

269: Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique? A. State transition testing B. LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump) C. Syntax testing D. Boundary value analysis

26: What is the MAIN benefit of designing tests early in the life cycle? A. It is cheaper than designing tests during the test phases. B. It helps prevent defects from being introduced into the code. C. Tests designed early are more effective than tests designed later. D. It saves time during the testing phases when testers are busy.

272: The selection of a test approach should consider the context: i. Risk of Failure of the Project, hazards to the product and risks of product failure to humans ii. Skills and experience of the people in the proposed technique, tools and methods iii. The objective of the testing endeavor and the mission of the testing team. iv. The size of the testing Team A. i,ii,iii,iv are true B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false. C. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false. D. i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.

273: Benefits of Independent Testing A. Independent testers are much more qualified than Developers B. Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased. C. Independent Testers cannot identify defects. D. Independent Testers can test better than developers

274: Minimum Test Required for Statement Coverage: Disc = 0 Order-qty = 0 Read Order-qty If Order-qty >=20 then Disc = 0.05 If Order-qty >=100 then Disc =0.1 End if End if A. Statement coverage is 4 B. Statement coverage is 1 C. Statement coverage is 3 D. Statement Coverage is 2

279: Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach? A. Top down B. Big-bang C. Bottom up D. Functional incrementation.

280: A Person who documents all the issues, problems and open points that were identified during a formal review. A. Moderator. B. Scribe C. Author D. Manager

281: In case of Large Systems : A. Only few tests should be run B. Testing should be on the basis of Risk C. Only Good Test Cases should be executed. D. Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed.

284: Based on the IEEE Standard for Software Test Documentation (IEEE Std 829-1998), which sections of the test incident report should the following details be recorded? a) Test incident report identifier b) Summary c) Incident description d) Impact 1. Expected results 2. Actual results 3. Procedure step 4. Environment 5. Revision level 6. Date and time A. a: 3; b: 5; c: 1, 2, 4 and 6 B. b: 5; c: 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6 C. b: 5 and 6; c: 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. a: 5; c: 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6

305: Cyclomatic complexity is used to calculate A. Number of independent paths in the basis set of a program B. Number of binary decisions + 1 C. Number bound for the number of tests that must be conducted to ensure that all statements have been executed at least once D. Number of branches and decisions

309: When do you stop testing? A. When the specified number of faults are found. B. When the test completion criteria are met. C. When all high and medium priority tests are complete. D. When all statements have been executed

30: Which test design technique relies heavily on prior thorough knowledge of the system? A. Data driven testing technique B. Experience-based technique C. White-box technique D. Structure-based technique

310: What is the smallest number of test cases required to Provide 100% branch coverage? If(x>y) x=x+1; else y=y+1; while(x>y) { y=x*y; x=x+1; } A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

311: Match the following. 1. Configuration identification 2. Configuration control 3. Status reporting 4. Configuration auditing a. Maintains of CI� s in a library b. Checks on the contents of the library c. Function recording and tracking problems. d. Requires the all CI� s and their versions in the system are known A. 1-d, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a. B. 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b. C. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c. D. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d.

320: People who don� t participate in technical reviews A. Analysts B. Management C. Developers D. Testers

32: Which activities form part of test planning? i) Developing test cases. ii) Defining the overall approach to testing. iii) Assigning resources. iv) Building the test environment v) Writing test conditions. A. i, ii & iv are true, iii & v are false. B. ii & iii are true, i, iv & v are false. C. iv & v are true, i, ii & iii are false. D. i, ii & iii are true iv & v are false.

331: For software to be reliable it must: A. Be easy to maintain. B. Be unlikely to cause a failure. C. Never fail under any circumstances. D. Be written according to coding standards

333: Faults found by users are due to: A. Poor quality software B. Poor software and poor testing C. Bad luck D. Insufficient time for testing

345: What analysis determines which parts of the software have been executed? A. Impact analysis B. Code coverage C. Gap analysts D. Cyclomatic complexity

350: Which of the following is a black box design technique? A. Statement testing B. Equivalence partitioning C. Error- guessing D. Usability testing

355: Coverage measurement A. Is nothing to do with testing B. Is a partial measure of test thoroughness C. Branch coverage should be mandatory for all software D. Can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing

367: Why does the boundary value analysis provide good test cases? A. Because it is an industry standard B. Because errors are frequently made during programming of the different cases near the � edges� of the range of values C. Because only equivalence classes that are equal from a functional point of view are considered in the test cases D. Because the test object is tested under maximal load up to its performance limits

375: Which of the following is true A. Testing is the same as quality assurance B. Testing is a part of quality assurance C. Testing is not a part of quality assurance D. Testing is same as debugging

377: In a flight reservation system, the number of available seats in each plane model is an input. A plane may have any positive number of available seats, up to the given capacity of the plane. Using Boundary Value analysis, a list of available � seat values were generated. Which of the following lists is correct? A. 1, 2, capacity -1, capacity, capacity plus 1 B. 0, 1, capacity, capacity plus 1 C. 0, 1, 2, capacity plus 1, a very large number D. 0, 1, 10, 100, capacity, capacity plus one

381: Which of the following is correct about static analysis tools? A. Static analysis tools are used only by developers B. Compilers may offer some support for static analysis C. Static analysis tools help find failures rather than defects D. Static analysis tools require execution of the code to analyze the coverage

387:If a program is tested and 100% condition coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage criteria is then guaranteed to be achieved? A. 100% branch coverage B. 100% condition coverage and 100% statement coverage C. Equivalence class and boundary value coverage D. No other white box coverage criterion is guaranteed to be fulfilled 100%

388: Using the diagram below, which test suite will uncover invalid state transitions for employee status reporting software? A. Prospective - Active - Resigned - Active - Terminated - Purged B. Prospective - Active - On Leave - Active - Resigned - Retired C. Prospective - Active - Retired - Active - On Leave - Purged D. Prospective - Active - On Leave - Active - Retired - Active

391: Which of the following project inputs influence testing? (I) Contractual requirements (II) Legal requirements(III) Industry standards (IV) Application risk (V) Project size A. (I) through (III) are correct B. All alternatives are correct C. (II) and (V) are correct D. (I), (III) and (V) are correct size=2 face=Arial>

392: Which of the following are USUALLY stated as testing objectives? I. Finding defects in the software II. Reducing maintenance costs II. Confirming that the system works IV. Assessing the quality of the software V. Meeting schedule milestones A. I and II B. I, III; and IV C. II, IV, and V D. III and IV

401: Input and output combinations that will be treated the same way by the system can be tested using which technique? A. Boundary value B. Equivalence partition C. Decision table D. State transition size=2 face=Arial>

407: A test plan defines A. What is selected for testing B. Objectives and results C. Expected results D. Targets and misses

411: if (condition1 && (condition2 function1())) statement1; else statement2; A. Decision coverage B. Condition coverage C. Statement coverage D. Path Coverage

412: _________ reviews are often held with just the programmer who wrote the code and one or two other programmers or testers. A. Formal Reviews B. Peer Reviews C. Semi Formal Reviews D. All of the above

41: Which of the following combinations correctly describes a valid approach to component testing: i) Functional testing of the component in isolation. ii) Structure-based testing of the code without recording incidents. iii) Automated tests that are run until the component passes. iv) Functional testing of the interfaces between modules. A. i and ii. B. I, ii and iii C. iii. D. ii and iv size=2 face=Arial>

426: Code Walkthrough A. Type of dynamic testing B. Type of static testing C. Neither dynamic nor static D. Performed by the testing team

427: Risk analysis talks about A. The data required for testing, the infrastructure requirements to manage the data as well as the methods for preparing test data, requirements, converters and sources B. Details what types of tests must be conducted, what stages of testing are required and outlines the sequence and timing of tests C. A testing goal. It is a statement of what the tester is expected to accomplish or validate during a testing activity. These guide the development of test cases and procedures D. None of the above

431: Structural Testing A. Same as black box testing B. Same as white box testing C. Same as functional testing D. None of the above.

437: Following are some of the testing risks A. Budget, Test environment B. Budget, Number of qualified test resources C. Budget, Number of qualified test resources, Test environment D. None of the above

440: Reliability, usablility, efficiency are A. Functional characteristics B. Non functional characteristics C. Both A. & B. D. None of the above

444: Which of the following demonstrates independence in testing? J. Independent testers are external to the organization K. Independent testers are part of the development team L. Independent testers are from the user community M. Programmers who wrote the code serve as independent testers N. Customers who wrote the requirements serve as independent testers A. J. L and N B. J. K, L and N C. K. M and N D. J, L, M and N

452: Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan? A. Features to be tested B. Incident reports C. Risks D. Schedule

465: Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct? A. They are used to support multi-user testing. B. They are used to capture and animate user requirements. C. They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool. D. They capture aspects of user behaviour.

477: A failure is: A. Found in the software; the result of an error. B. Departure from specified behaviour. C. An incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program. D. A human action that produces an incorrect result.

484: Enough testing has been performed when: A. Time runs out. B. The required level of confidence has been achieved. C. No more faults are found. D. The users won� t find any serious faults.

492: What is the difference between a project risk and a product risk? A. Project risks are potential failure areas in the software or system; product risks are risks that surround the project� s capability to deliver its objectives. B. Project risks are the risks that surround the project� s capability to deliver its objectives; product risks are potential failure areas in the software or system. C. Project risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues; product risks are typically related to skill and staff shortages. D. Project risks are risks that delivered software will not work; product risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues.

493: During which fundamental test process activity do we determine if MORE tests are needed? A Test implementation and execution. B Evaluating test exit criteria. C Test analysis and design. D Test planning and control.

495: Which of the following defines the sequence in which tests should be executed? A. Test plan. B. Test procedure specification. C. Test case specification. D. Test design specification.

70: One person has been dominating the current software process improvement meeting. Which of the following techniques should the facilitator use to bring other team members into the discussion? A. Confront the person and ask that other team members be allowed to express their opinions. B. Wait for the person to pause, acknowledge the person� s opinion, and ask for someone else� s opinion. C. Switch the topic to an issue about which the person does not have a strong opinion. D. Express an opinion that differs from the person� s opinion in order to encourage others to express their ideas.

84: FPA is used to A. To measure the functional requirements of the project B. To measure the size of the functionality of an Information system C. To measure the functional testing effort D. To measure the functional flow

91: Which of the following is the task of a Tester? i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project. ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests. iv. Create the Test Specifications A. i, ii, iii is true and iv is false B. ii,iii,iv is true and i is false C. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false D. iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

97: Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:- i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author). ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations iii. Formal Follow up process. iv. Main Objective is to find defects A. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false C. i,iii,iv are false and ii is true D. iii is true and I,ii,iv are false

99: Testing activity which is performed to expose defects in the interfaces and in the interaction between integrated components is : A. System Level Testing B. Integration Level Testing C. Unit Level Testing D. Component Testing

118: In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to : i. Determine the test technique to be employed ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible. iv. Determine the cost of the project A. ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false C. ii & iii are True; i, iv are False D. ii, iii & iv are True; i is false

128: What is the process of analyzing and removing causes of failures in software? A. Validation B. Testing C. Debugging D. Verification

132: When a defect is detected and fixed then the software should be retested to confirm that the original defect has been successfully removed. This is called A. Regression testing B. Maintenance testing C. Confirmation testing D. None of the above

137: ________indicates how important it is to fix the bug and when it should be fixed A. Severity B. Priority C. All of the above D. None of the above

138: The person who leads the review of the document(s), planning the review,running the meeting and follow-up after the meeting A. Reviewer B. Author C. Moderator D. Auditor

171: Which of the following are success factors when rolling out a new tool? I. Roll the tool out to the entire organization to ensure reasonably even coverage. II. Avoid changing existing processes to reduce impact of the tool. 0in 0in 0pt" class=MsoBodyText>III. Provide training and mentoring to new users. IV. Allow users to determine where the tool fits into the process best. A. I and II B. I, III and IV C. III D. IV

175: During the software development process, at what point can the test process start? A. When the code is complete. B. When the design is complete. C. When the software requirements have been approved. D. When the first code module is ready for unit testing

181: Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126 Standard? A. Functionality B. Usability C. Supportability D. Maintainability

186: Pick the best definition of quality A. Quality is job one B. Zero defects C. Conformance to requirements D. Work as designed

188: An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004 The boundary values for testing this field are A. 0,1900,2004,2005 B. 1900, 2004 C. 1899,1900,2004,2005 D. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005

189: How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths) for the following program fragment? Assume that the two conditions are independent of each other: if (Condition 1) then statement 1 else statement 2 fi if (Condition 2) then statement 3 fi A. 2 Test Cases B. 3 Test Cases C. 4 Test Cases D. Not achievable

199: During which test activity could faults be found most cost effectively? A. Execution B. Design C. Planning D. Check Exit criteria completion

217: Function/Test matrix is a type of A. Interim Test report B. Final test report C. Project status report D. Management report

222: Which test technique is based on requirements specifications? A. White-box technique B. Component testing C. Black-box technique D. Data driven testing

227: Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries: A. 1000, 5000, 99999 B. 9999, 50000, 100000 C. 10000, 50000, 99999 D. 10000, 99999 E. 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000

228: When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called: A. An error B. A fault C. A failure D. A defect E. A mistake

231: Test managers should not: A. Report on deviations from the project plan B. Sign the system off for release C. Re-allocate resource to meet original plans D. Rise incidents on faults that they have found E. Provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement

234: Which of the following is not part of performance testing: A. Measuring response time B. Measuring transaction rates C. Recovery testing D. Simulating many users E. Generating many transactions

243: Consider the following state transition diagram of a two-speed hair dryer, which is operated by pressing its one button. The first press of the button turns it on to Speed 1, second press to Speed 2 and the third press turns it off. Which of the following series of state transitions below will provide 0-switch coverage? A. A,C,B B. B,C,A C. A,B,C D. C,B,A

249: Which technique is appropriate to test changes on old and undocumented functionalities of a system? A. Specification-based technique B. Black-box technique C. White-box technique D. Data driven testing technique

251: Which of the following is NOT a black box technique: A. Equivalence partitioning B. State transition testing C. LCSAJ D. Syntax testing E. Boundary value analysis

258: The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is: A. Attend a tool exhibition B. Invite a vendor to give a demo C. Analyse your needs and requirements D. Find out what your budget would be for the tool E. Search the internet

263: Peer Reviews are also called as : A. Inspection B. Walkthrough C. Technical Review D. Formal Review

278: Drivers are also known as: i. Spade ii. Test harness iii. Scaffolding A. i , ii are true and iii is false B. i , iii are true and ii is false C. ii , iii are true and i is false D. All of the above are true

285: Repeated Testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes in the software being tested or in another related or unrelated software component: A. Re Testing B. Confirmation Testing C. Regression Testing D. Negative Testing

286: Consider the following state transition diagram of a switch. Which of the following represents an invalid state transition? A. OFF to ON B. ON to OFF C. FAULT to ON

288: Regression testing should be performed: i. Every week ii. After the software has changed iii. As often as possible iv. When the environment has changed v. When the project manager says A. i & ii are true, iii, iv & v are false B. ii, iii & iv are true, i & v are false C. ii & iv are true, i, iii & v are false D. ii is true, i, iii, iv & v are false

292: Deciding How much testing is enough should take into account :- i. Level of Risk including Technical and Business product and project risk ii. Project constraints such as time and budget iii. Size of Testing Team iv. Size of the Development Team A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false B. i,,iv are true and ii is false C. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false D. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

294: Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage: Read P Read Q If p+q > 100 then Print "Large" End if If p > 50 then Print "pLarge" End if A. Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2 B. Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2 C. Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2 D. Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2

297: What principles do "avoiding author bias" and "communicating problems constructively" represent? A. Preventive testing and reactive testing B. Experience-based testing and interoperability testing C. Independent testing and good interpersonal skills D. Criticism avoidance and effective relationships

2: From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration Management?: i) Identifying the version of software under test. ii) Controlling the version of testware items. iii) Developing new testware items. iv) Tracking changes to testw are items. v) Analysing the need for new testware items. A. ii, iv and v. B. ii, iii and iv, C. i, ii and iv. D. i, iii and v.

301: Cost of the reviews will not include. A. Review process itself B. Metrics analysis C. Tool support. D. Process improvement.

302: Regression testing always involves A. Testing whether a known software fault been fixed. B. Executing a large number of different tests. C. Testing whether modifications have introduced adverse side effects. D. Using a test automation tool.

316: What type of testing will you perform on internet banking solution? A. System integration B. Functional testing C. Non-functional testing. D. Requirements testing

317: Which of the following are false? A. Incidents should always be investigated and resolved. B. Incidents occur when expected and actual results differ. C. Incidents can be analyzed to assist in test process improvement. D. An incident can be raised against documentation.

319: A field failure occurs when multiple users access a system. Which of the following is true? A. This is an acceptable risk of a multi-user system. B. Insufficient functional testing has been performed. C. This indicates an important non-functional requirement was not specified and tested. D. It is not possible to test against such events prior to release.

324: A standard for software testing terminology is: A. IEEE 802.11 B. ISO 9001 C. BS 7925-1 D. BS 7925-2

327: What type of testing is done to supplement the rigorous testing? A. Regression testing. B. Integration testing. C. Error Guessing D. System testing.

328: To make a test effective it is most important that: A. It is easy to execute. B. It is designed to detect faults if present. C. The expected outcome is specified before execution. D. It is unlikely to delay progress.

334: An incident logging system A. Only records defects B. Is of limited value C. Is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents D. Should be used only by the test team.

335: The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. Why? A. The documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing. B. Wages are rising C. The fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc D. None of the above

347: Which of the following tools would you use to detect a memory leak? A. State analysis B. Coverage analysis C. Dynamic analysis D. Memory analysis

348: Which of the following statements are true? A. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix. B. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix. C. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix D. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.

352: Which of the following statements is not true A. Performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of whole system B. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test C. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc) D. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible

353: Which test may OPTIONALLY be included in the common type of the V-model? A. Component (unit) testing B. Acceptance testing C. System integration testing D. Validation and verification

358: A program validates a numeric field as follows: Values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected. Which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions? A. 10,11,21 B. 3,20,21 C. 3,10,22 D. 10,21,22

365: What technique captures system requirements that contain logical conditions? A. Boundary value B. Equivalence partition C. Decision table D. State transition

369: A defect management system shall keep track of the status of every defect registered and enforce the rules about changing these states. If your task is to test the status tracking, which method would be best? A. Logic-based testing B. Use-case-based testing C. State transition testing D. Systematic testing according to the V-model

371: Integration testing has following characteristics I. It can be done in incremental manner II. It is always done after system testing III. It includes functional tests IV. It includes non-functional tests A. I, II and III are correct B. I is correct C. I, III and IV are correct face=Arial>

373: Why is testing necessary? A. Because testing is good method to make there are not defects in the software B. Because verification and validation are not enough to get to know the quality of the software C. Because testing measures the quality of the software system and helps to increase the quality D. Because testing finds more defects than reviews and inspections.

374: In foundation level syllabus you will find the main basic principles of testing. Which of the following sentences describes one of these basic principles? A. Complete testing of software is attainable if you have enough resources and test tools B. With automated testing you can make statements with more confidence about the quality of a product than with manual testing C. For a software system, it is not possible, under normal conditions, to test all input and output combinations. D. A goal of testing is to show that the software is defect free.

382: Which of the following list contains only non-functional tests? A. Interoperability (compatibility) testing, reliability testing, performance testing B. System testing, performance testing C. Load testing, stress testing, component testing, portability testing D. Testing various configurations, beta testing, load testing

38: Which of the following is a benefit of test independence? A. It does not require familiarity with the code. B. It is cheaper than using developers to test their own code. C. It avoids author bias in defining effective tests. D. Testers are better at finding defects than developers.

390: Which of the following statements is correct? A. Static analysis tools produce statistics during program execution B. Configuration management systems allow us to provide accurate defect statistics of different configurations C. Stress testing tools examine the behavior of the test object at or beyond full load D. Performance measurement tools can be used in all phases of software life-cycle

393: Maintenance testing is: A. Testing management B. Synonym of testing the quality of service C. Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of existing software D. Testing the level of maintenance by the vendor

398: Acceptance testing means A. Testing performed on a single stand � alone module or unit of code B. Testing after changes have been made to ensure that no unwanted changes were introduced C. Testing to ensure that the system meets the needs of the organization and end user. D. Users test the application in the developers environment

403: The _________ Is the activity where general testing objectives are transformed into tangible test conditions and test designs A. Testing Planning B. Test Control C. Test analysis and design D. Test implementation

406: Who should have technical and Business background. A. Moderator B. Author C. Reviewer D. Recorder

40: Which of the following is MOST characteristic of specification based (black-box) techniques? A. Test cases can be easily automated. B. Test cases are independent of each other. C. Test cases are derived systematically from models of the system . D. Test cases are derived systematically from the delivered code.

413: In ________ testing test cases i.e input to the software are created based on the specifications languages A. State Transition Testing B. Random Testing C. Syntax Testing D. Penetration testing

416: Based on the IEEE Standard for Software test Documentation (IEEE Std 829-1998), which of the following sections is part of the test summary report? a) Test summary and report identifier of Summary c) Variances d) Anomalies e) Comprehensive assessment f) Approvals A. a, b, e and f B. a, b, c, d and f C. a, b, c, e and f D. a, b, c and f

418: Size of a project is defined in terms of all the following except A. Person days B. Person hours C. Calendar months D. None of the above

420: Objective of review meeting is A. To identify problems with design B. To solve the problems with design C. Both A. and B D. None of the above.

421: QC is A. Phase building activity B. Intermediate activity C. End of Phase activity D. Design activity

422: Which tool store information about versions and builds of software and testware A. Test Management tool B. Requirements management tool C. Configuration management tool D. Static analysis too;

424: Preparing and automating test cases before coding is called A. Test first approach B. Test-driven development C. Both A. & B. D. None of the above

428: What are the 2 major components taken into consideration with risk analysis? A. The probability the negative event will occur B. The potential loss or impact associated with the event C. Both A. and B. D. Neither A. nor B.

430: Which of the following are typical tester tasks? A. Decide what should be automated, to what degree, and how. B. Set up configuration management of testware; review tests developed by others. C. Prepare and acquire test data; review tests developed by others. D. Initiate the specification, preparation, implementation and execution of tests and monitor and control the execution.

442: User Acceptance Testing A. Same as Alpha Testing B. Same as Beta Testing C. Combination of Alpha and Beta Testing D. None of the above

445: Recovery testing is a system test that forces the software to fail and verifies that data recovery is properly performed. The following should be checked for correctness 1. Re-initialization 2. Restart 3. Data Recovery 4. Check Point Mechanism A. 1 and 2 B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. 2 and 4

446: Data flow analysis studies: A. Possible communications bottlenecks in a program. B. The rate of change of data values as a program executes. C. The use of data on paths through the code. D. The intrinsic complexity of the code.

450: Alpha testing is: A. Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer� s site. B. The first testing that is performed. C. Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer� s site. D. Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.

455: Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard? A. Syntax testing B. Equivalence partitioning C. Stress testing D. Modified condition/decision coverage

458: Which document specifies the execution order of test cases? A. Test design specification B. Test item C. Test procedure specification D. Test plan

462: Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST? A. Test management B. Test design C. Test execution D. Test planning

471: The most important thing about early test design is that it: A. Makes test preparation easier. B. Means inspections are not required. C. Can prevent fault multiplication. D. Will find all faults.

485: Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts? A. Actual results B. Program specification C. User requirements D. System specification

490: Given the following specification, which of the following values for age are in the SAME equivalence partition? If you are less than 18, you are too young to be insured. Between 18 and 30 inclusive, you will receive a 20% discount. Anyone over 30 is not eligible for a discount. A. 17, 18, 19. B. 29, 30, 31. C. 18, 29, 30. D. 17, 29, 31.

55: Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal review A. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick off B. Planning, Individual preparation, Kick off, Rework C. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Follow up D. Planning, Individual preparation, Follow up, Kick off

60: How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 % statement coverage? if ((temperature < 0) or (temperature > 100)) { alert ("DANGER"); if ((speed > 100) and (load <= 50)) { speed = 50; } } else { check = false; } A. 5 B. 4 C. 2 D. 3

61: � X� has given a data on a person age, which should be between 1 to 99. Using BVA which is the appropriate one A. 0,1,2,99 B. 1, 99, 100, 98 C. 0, 1, 99, 100 D. � 1, 0, 1, 99

63: What consists of a set of input values, execution pre conditions and expected results? A. Test script B. Test procedure specification C. Test case D. Test data

69: Purpose of test design technique is A. Identifying test conditions only, not Identifying test cases B. Not Identifying test conditions, Identifying test cases only C. Identifying test conditions and Identifying test cases D. Identifying test conditions or Identifying test cases

71: Stochastic testing using statistical information or operational profiles uses the following method A. Heuristic testing approach B. Methodical testing approach C. Model based testing approach D. Process or standard compliant testing approach

72: A software model that can� t be used in functional testing A. Process flow model B. State transaction model C. Menu structure model D. Plain language specification model

96: Based on the IEEE Standard for Software Test Documentation (IEEE Std 829-1998), which sections of the test incident report should the following items be recorded? Sections a) Test incident report identifier b) Summary c) Incident description d) Impact Items 1. Impact on test plans 2. Unique identifier 3. Anomalies 4. Procedure step 5. Environment 6. References to other relevant documents A. a: 2; b: 4; c: 1, 3 and 5; d: 6 B. a: 2; b: 3; c: 4, 5 and 6; d: 1 C. a: 2; b: 6; c: 3, 4 and 5; d: 1 D. a: 2; b: 1; c: 3, 4 and 5; d: 6

98: The Phases of formal review process is mentioned below arrange them in the correct order. i. Planning ii. Review Meeting iii. Rework iv. Individual Preparations v. Kick Off vi. Follow Up A. i,ii,iii,iv,v,vi B. vi,i,ii,iii,iv,v C. i,v,iv,ii,iii,vi D. i,ii,iii,v,iv,vi

103: Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase A. Creating test suites from the test cases B. Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools C. Comparing actual results D. Designing the Tests

113: Which statements correctly describe certain phases of a formal review? A. Looking for defects occurs during kick-off phase Fixing defects found happens during rework phase B. Personnel selection occurs during planning phase Gathering metrics happens during the review meeting phase C. Distributing documents occurs during the planning phase Personal review happens during individual preparation phase D. Personnel selection occurs during planning phase Fixing defects found happens during rework phase

116: Which of the following techniques is NOT a White box technique? A. Statement Testing and coverage B. Decision Testing and coverage C. Condition Coverage D. Boundary value analysis

125: Which one is not comes under international standard A. IEC B. IEEE C. ISO D. All of the above

126: In which phase static tests are used A. Requirements B. Design C. Coding D. All of the above

127: What's the disadvantage of Black Box Testing A. Chances of having repetition of tests that are already done by programmer. B. The test inputs needs to be from large sample space. C. It is difficult to identify all possible inputs in limited testing time. So writing test cases is slow and difficult D. All above

131: How much percentage of the life cycle costs of a software are spent on maintenance. A. 10% B. 30% C. 50% D. 70%

136: Structure is unknown for which type of development project A. Traditional system development B. Iterative development C. System maintenance D. Purchased/contracted software

140: Which of the following statements contains a valuable objective for a test team? A. Prove that the remaining defects will not cause any additional failures. B. Run all of the tests that are defined for the test object as quickly as possible. C. Prove that all faults have been identified through thorough testing. D. Cause as many failures as possible so that faults can be identified and corrected.

148: During testing, a defect was found in which the system crashed when the network got disconnected while receiving data from the server. The defect was fixed by correcting functionality which checks the network availability during data transfer. Existing test cases did cover 100% of the module statements. To verify the fix and ensure more extensive coverage, some tests were designed and added to the test suite. What types of testing are mentioned above? I. Functional testing II. Structural testing III. Confirmation testing IV. Performance testing A. I, III and IV B. I and III C. II and IV D. I, II and III

14: Which of the following is a KEY test closure task? A. Ensuring proper environment setup B. Writing a test summary report C. Assessing the need for additional tests D. Finalizing and archiving testware.

166: How can software defects in future projects be prevented from reoccurring? A. Creating documentation procedures and allocating resource contingencies B. Asking programmers to perform a thorough and independent testing C. Combining levels of testing and mandating inspections of all documents D. Documenting lessons learned and determining the root cause of problems

169: Which of the following are the main stages of a formal review? A. Initiation, Preparation, Informal Review Meeting, Status, Rework, and Follow up. B. Planning, Preparation, Technical Review, Rework, and Closure. C. Preparation, Inspection, Rework, Closure, and Follow up. D. Planning, Kick off, Individual Preparation, Review Meeting, Rework, and Follow up.

173: Which of these are objectives for software testing? A. Determine the productivity of programmers B. Eliminate the need for future program maintenance C. Eliminate every error prior to release D. Uncover software errors

177: Which approaches can help increase the quality of software? I. Incorporating rigorous testing II. Preventing change requests III. Establishing defects metrics IV. Allocating schedule contingencies A. I and II are true; III and IV are false B. II and IV are true; I and II are false C. I and IV are true; II and III are false D. I and III are true; II and IV are false

182: One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is : A. Lack of technical documentation B. Lack of test tools on the market for developers C. Lack of training D. Lack of Objectivity

194: Independent Verification & Validation is A. Done by the Developer B. Done by the Test Engineers C. Done By Management D. Done by an Entity Outside the Project� s sphere of influence

195: Defect Management process does not include A. Defect prevention B. Deliverable base-lining C. Management reporting D. None of the above

197: What is the key difference between (a) contract and regulation acceptance testing, and (b) alpha and beta testing? A. (a) are performed outside the company and (b) are conducted by the test team B. (a) are conducted by regulators and (b) are performed by system administrato rs C. (a) are mandatory test for government applications and (b) are usually optional D. (a) are for custom-developed software and (b) are for off � the - shelf software

202: A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called: A. A dynamic analysis tool B. A test execution tool C. A debugging tool D. A test management tool E. A configuration management tool

205: Inspections can find all the following except A. Variables not defined in the code B. Spelling and grammar faults in the documents C. Requirements that have been omitted from the design documents D. How much of the code has been covered

212: Which of these can be successfully tested using Loop Testing methodology? A. Simple Loops B. Nested Loops C. Concatenated Loops D. All of the above

225: A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called: A. A dynamic analysis tool B. A test execution tool C. A debugging tool D. A test management tool E. A configuration management tool

229: Which of the following can be tested as part of operational testing? A. Component interaction B. Probe effect C. State transition D. Disaster recovery

239: Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard: A. Test items (i.e. software versions) B. What is not to be tested C. Test environments D. Quality plans E. Schedules and deadlines

246: Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing: A. No, because they apply to development documentation B. No, because they are normally applied before testing C. No, because they do not apply to the test documentation D. Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality E. Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities

247:The main focus of acceptance testing is: A. Finding faults in the system B. Ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users C. Testing the system with other systems D. Testing for a business perspective E. Testing by an independent test team

252: Expected results are: A. Only important in system testing B. Only used in component testing C. Never specified in advance D. Most useful when specified in advance E. Derived from the code

25: Which of the following activities should be performed during the selection and implementation of a testing tool? i) Investigate the organisation's test process. ii) Conduct a proof of concept. iii) Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save time. iv) Identify coaching and mentoring requirements for the use of the selected tool. Options: A. i, ii, iii. B. ii, iii, iv. C. i, iii, iv. D. i, ii, iv.

282: What is the expected result for each of the following test cases? vAlign=top width="30%"> Rule1 Rule2 Rule3 Rule4 Conditions Citibank Card Member Yes Yes No No Type of Room Silver Platinum Silver Platinum Actions Offer upgrade To Gold Luxury Yes No No No Offer upgrade to Silver N/A Yes N/A No A. Citibank card member, holding a Silver room B. Non Citibank-member, holding a Platinum room A. A � Don� t offer any upgrade, B � Don� t offer any upgrade. B. A � Don� t offer any upgrade, B � Offer upgrade to Gold. C. A � Offer upgrade to Silver, B � Offer upgrade to Silver. D. A � Offer upgrade to Gold, B � Don� t offer any upgrade.

293: Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing: A. The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works. B. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free. C. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to do. D. Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.

295: Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle: i. Hi-level design a Unit tests ii. Code b Acceptance tests iii. Low-level design c System tests iv. Business requirements d Integration tests A. i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b B. i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b C. i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c D. i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b

298: Which test is OFTEN the responsibility of the customers or users of the system? A. Usability testing B. Functional testing C. Maintenance testing D. Acceptance testing

303: Capture and replay facilities are least likely to be used to _______ A. Performance testing B. Recovery testing C. GUI testing D. User requirements.

306: Which of the following is not included in Test Plan. A. Features to be tested. B. Environmental needs. C. Suspension criteria. D. Expected results.

323: Which of the following is least important in test management? A. Estimating test duration. B. Incident Management. C. Configuration Management. D. De-bugging.

326: Which of the following provides the biggest potential cost saving from use of CAST? A. Test management B. Test design C. Test planning D. Test execution

329: Error guessing is: A. An appropriate way of deriving system tests. B. Only used if good requirements are not available. C. Only used when good requirements are available. D. The most appropriate way of deriving system tests.

330: Amount of testing performed will not depend on A. Risks involved B. Contractual requirements C. Legal requirements D. Test data.

332: Which test design techniques should a tester use to respectively achieve the following: (a) Check the documented features of the system, (b) ensure 100 % decision c overage, and (c) detect likely defects and distribution? A. Specification-based, data driven testing, and defect density techniques B. Specification-based, branch coverage, and exploratory techniques C. Structure-based, equivalence partitioning, and exploratory techniques D. Specification-based, structure-based, and experience-based techniques

336: Which set of test data demonstrates equivalence partitioning to check whether a customer is a teenager or not? A. 10, 15 and 19 years B. 13, 19 and 25 years C. 13, 16 and 19 years D. 12, 13 and 20 years

337: Which technique if OFTEN considered as an extension of equivalence partitioning? A. Decision table testing B. State transition testing C. Use case testing D. Boundary value analysis

338: Software testing activities should start A. As soon as the code is written B. During the design stage C. When the requirements have been formally documented D. As soon as possible in the development life cycle

341: What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it? A. To show that system will work after release B. To decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release C. To find as many bugs as possible before release D. To give information for a risk based decision about release

344: Based on the IEEE Standard for Software Test Documentation (IEEE Std 829-1998), which of the following sections are part of the test summary report? a) Test summary and report identifier b) Comprehensive assessment c) Summary of results d) Evaluation e) Observers f) Approvals A. a, b, c, d and e B. a, b, c, e and f C. a, c, d, e and f D. a, b, c, d and f

351: When reporting faults found to developers, testers should be: A. As polite, constructive and helpful as possible B. Firm about insisting that a bug is not a "feature" if it should be fixed C. Diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism D. All of the above

357: Which of the following is the component test standard? A. IEEE 829 B. IEEE 610 C. BS7925-1 D. BS7925-2

361: A program with high cyclometic complexity is almost likely to be: A. Large B. Small C. Difficult to write D. Difficult to test

362: Which of the following is the odd one out? A. White box B. Glass box C. Structural D. Functional

36: Which test approaches or strategies are characterized by the descriptions below? S. Process-compliant approaches T. Heuristic approaches U. Consultative approaches V. Regression-averse approaches 1. Includes reuse of existing test material 2. Listens to suggestions from technology experts 3. Adheres to industry-specific standards 4. Runs test execution and evaluation concurrently A. S4, T3, U2, V1 B. S1, T2, U3, V4 C. S2, T3, U1, V4 D. S3, T4, U2, V1

397: Who should be responsible for coordinating the test strategy with the project manager and others? A. Tester B. Developer C. Customer D. Test leader

404: Integration testing where no incremental testing takes place prior to all the system� s components being combined to form the system. A. System testing B. Component Testing C. Incremental Testing D. Big bang testing

405: A test case design technique for a component in which test cases are designed to execute statements is called as? A. State transition Testing B. Static Testing C. Transition testing D. Statement testing

408: Features to be tested, approach refinements and feature pass / fail criteria BUT excluding environmental needs should be specified in which document? A. Test case specification B. Test plan C. Test procedure specification D. Test design specification

410: Which one is not the task of test leader? A. Coordinate the test strategy and plan with project managers and others B. Decide about the implementation of the test environment C. Write test summary reports D. Review and contribute to test plans

417: What is the name of a temporary software component that is used to call another component for testing purposes? A. Domain B. Use case C. Stub D. Driver

419: Testing responsibilities: Tester 1 � Verify that the program is able to display images clearly on all 10 of the monitors in the lab Tester 2 - Make sure the program instructions are easy to use Security concerns are important for which type of applications Tester 3 � Verify that the calculation module works correctly by using both scripts and ad hoc testing. Which term is used to refer to the testing that is performed by Tester 3 in the above scenario? A. Unit testing B. Algorithm specific testing C. Compatibility testing D. Black box testing

423: Testing Process comprised of A. Test Plan and Test Cases B. Test log and Test Status C. Defect Tracking D. All of the above

433: Which technique describes process flows through a system based on its likely usage? A. Data driven testing B. State transition testing C. Decision table testing D. Use case testing

447: Which of the following is NOT a white box technique? A. Statement testing B. Path testing C. Data flow testing D. State transition testing

454: Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true? A. System tests are often performed by independent teams. B. Functional testing is used more than structural testing. C. Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix. D. End-users should be involved in system tests.

459: Which of the following statements is NOT correct? A. A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage. B. A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage. C. A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage. D. A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.

461: What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection? A. An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator. B. An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader. C. Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs. D. A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.

466: Which of the following is true of the V-model? A. It states that modules are tested against user requirements. B. It only models the testing phase. C. It specifies the test techniques to be used. D. It includes the verification of designs.

468: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has � 4000 of salary tax free. The next � 1500 is taxed at 10% The next � 28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40% Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class? A. � 4800; � 14000; � 28000 B. � 5200; � 5500; � 28000 C. � 28001; � 32000; � 35000 D. � 5800; � 28000; � 32000

46: There are several risks of managing your project's schedule with a statistical reliability model. These include (choose one or more of the following): A. Testers spend more energy early in the product trying to find bugs than preparing to do the rest of the project's work more efficiently B. Managers might not realize that the testing effort is ineffective, late in the project, because they expect a low rate of bug finding, so the low rate achieved doesn't alarm them. C. It can increase the end-of-project pressure on testers to not find bugs, or to not report bugs. D. All of the above

478: How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required? A. Metrics from previous similar projects B. Discussions with the development team C. Time allocated for regression testing D. A. & B.

483: Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test? A. To find faults in the software. B. To assess whether the software is ready for release. C. To demonstrate that the software doesn� t work. D. To prove that the software is correct.

489: Which is the MOST important advantage of independence in testing? A. An independent tester may find defects more quickly than the person who wrote the software. B. An independent tester may be more focused on showing how the software works than the person who wrote the software. C. An independent tester may be more effective and efficient because they are less familiar with the software than the person who wrote it. D. An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the person who wrote the software.

491: Consider the following statements: i.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage. ii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage. iii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage. iv.100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage. v.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage. A. ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False B. i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False C. ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False D. ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False

497: What is the main purpose of impact analysis for testers? A. To determine the programming effort needed to make the changes. B. To determine what proportion of the changes need to be tested. C. To determine how much the planned changes will affect users. D. To determine how the existing system may be affected by changes.

51: Important consequences of the impossibility of complete testing are (Choose one or more answers): A. We can never be certain that the program is bug free. B. We have no definite stopping point for testing, which makes it easier for some managers to argue for very little testing. C. We have no easy answer for what testing tasks should always be required, because every task takes time that could be spent on other high importance tasks. D. All of the above. face=Arial>

62: Which is not a testing principle A. Early testing B. Defect clustering C. Pesticide paradox D. Exhaustive testing

66: Which is not a black box testing technique A. Equivalence partition B. Decision tables C. Transaction diagrams D. Decision testing

67: Find the mismatch A. Test data preparation tools � Manipulate Data bases B. Test design tools � Generate test inputs C. Requirement management tools � Enables individual tests to be traceable D. Configuration management tools � Check for consistence

78: Which is not a Component testing A. Check the memory leaks B. Check the robustness C. Check the branch coverage D. Check the decision tables

80: Which is not the fundamental test process A. Planning and control B. Test closure activities C. Analysis and design D. None

85: A _____ is the step-by-step method followed to ensure that standards are met A. SDLC B. Project Plan C. Policy D. Procedure

221: Testing should be stopped when: A. All the planned tests have been run B. Time has run out C. All faults have been fixed correctly D. Both A. and C. E. I depends on the risks for the system being tested

232: Which of the following is NOT part of system testing: A. Business process-based testing B. Performance, load and stress testing C. Requirements-based testing D. Usability testing E. Top-down integration testing

235: What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan: A. To know when a specific test has finished its execution B. To ensure that the test case specification is complete C. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs D. To know when test planning is complete E. To plan when to stop testing

240: IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except: A. Test items B. Test deliverables C. Test tasks D. Test environment E. Test specification

254: Consider the following: Pick up and read the newspaper Look at what is on television If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the television on and watch the program Otherwise Continue reading the newspaper If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword A. SC = 1 and DC = 1 B. SC = 1 and DC = 2 C. SC = 1 and DC = 3 D. SC = 2 and DC = 2 E. SC = 2 and DC = 3

SWT301_p1

संबंधित स्टडी सेट्स

CIS CH9

b law trade secrets

Psych Chapter 14

Med Surg Exam 1 All Together

Mgmt Chapter 9 quiz questions

Unit 1 Web Development Fundamentals_HTML_&_CSS

Chapter 4

Chapter 7 - Consolidation

US History Objectives Week 2

Ch 5 Entrepreneurship and Starting a Small Business SmartBook...

Campbell Chpt 8-13

MARA 301-401 Final

Econ Final Set B

Finance - Chapter 9

Microscopy and Cell Pre-lab

chapter 7 decision making (management)

Ch. 20 Resp func N327

life

Data Management for Programmers

Management - Ch. 5