T1- EPQ #4 (from Best GK)

PM will make what calls during non-precision approach?

"100' above" (MDA), "Minimums" (at MDA), "Runway in sight" (when runway is and will remain in sight or "Go Around (at MAP w/o runway environ in sight or other issue)

How should you check if gear handle is fully down?

"Visually"

Weather criteria for flying precontact (astern) and contact positions are an inflight visibility of _______ and ______.

1 mile and clear of clouds.

During a rolling takeoff, as a technique, increase power from idle to TRT in approximately _____ seconds to avoid any chance of compressor stall or overspeed.

1 to 3 seconds

The minimum altitude for seat changes is ______ feet.

1,000 FT AGL

Practice lost wingman will be performed in day VMC above ______.

1,000' AGL

During the engine shutdown checklist, set the preselect altitude a minimum of _____ feet above field elevation.

1,500'

For locally published routes, slow routes, and instrument routes, aircrew will ensure a minimum ceiling and visibility of ____ and ____.

1,500'; 3SM

If the ambient temperature is below ______, the outside air temperature switch, located on the condenser, will open and the VCCS will not operate.

20F

At what altitude does the IAS/MACH indicator switch?

FL295

Pilots should adjust pattern spacing as to not exceed ___ degrees of bank in the final turn or on final. ____ degrees of bank should not be exceeded anywhere else in the traffic pattern.

30; 45

Minimum fuel for the T-1A is ______ pounds.

500

When the bleed air switch is set to HIGH, how much airflow is provided?

10-23 lb/minute

For an ACM off takeoff, adjust the control knob approximately _____ revolutions counterclockwise.

8

When configured how does the aircraft's attitude sensitivity impacted?

Increases attitude sensitivity

When placing the battery to EMER, what should you see?

Instrument flood lights and AC bus shed illuminated. Left N1 & N2, RTU 1, BATT CUT OFF/INV 1 FAIL, AOA indexer, ldg gear indicators, and copilot's clock are illuminated

Main gear strut extension should be _____ minimum.

1.1 inches

A temperature drop of _____ will reduce pressure by ______ percent.

100F; 20%

The wipers are functional at flight speeds up to _____ KIAS.

200

The full horizontal stab deice cycle requires approximately ____ minutes.

3.5

How many cabin windows are there on the T-1A?

6

How many latch pins in Entrance Door? What about the escape hatch?

8; 2

T/F? If remaining in the visual traffic pattern, the flaps MUST be retracted to the full up position.

FALSE, they can be left at 10 degrees****

T/F? If accomplishing a full stop taxi back, the aircrew does not have to accomplish the After Landing Checklist.

TRUE

T/F? The flaps can be set to 10 degrees and the gear lowered PRIOR to calling for the Before Landing checklist.

TRUE

When does the WG ICE TEMP LO annunciator illuminate?

Temperature in the duct falls below 140F

Do not fly precontact (astern) or contact positions in conditions exceeding _____ turbulence.

LIGHT

On a GPS instrument approach which minimums are we not equipeed to use?

LPV or GLS (not WAAS equipped)

VCCS malfunctions w/auto cutoff compressor - UNDER PRESSURE LOCKOUT/OVER PRESSURE LOCKOUT

Low pressure refrigerant line falls below 10 PSI for more than 20 seconds/High pressure refrigerant line exceeds 320 PSI

What power setting should you set when leveling off and accelerating to cruise speed?

MCT

What power setting should you set when recovering from a practice TP stall?

MCT

On all sorties, how many aircrew members must carry the dash 1, 1-1? ("Complete set of aircraft technical orders")

One aircrew member

What inputs do the ADCs use for the navigation system

Pitot static system and air temperature

Normally accomplish steep turns at speeds of ____, ____, and ____ KIAS.

160; 200; 230

Two-engine rate climb = _______; Two-engine range climb = ______; One-engine range climb = _______

220; 250; 170

When performing an ACM OFF takeoff, what should be set on the aux temp control at a minimum?

BLO 1

What is connected to the right pitot static system?

Copilot's air data system, the standby airspeed indicator, and standby altimeter.

Which doors could activate the door unlock light?

Crew access or aft fuselage NOT emergency hatch

The maximum number of aircraft in formation is _____.

TWO

For an enroute descent, establish an IMN of ______ when above 32,300 and an IAS of ______ when below 32,300.

0.70 IMN; 250 KIAS

At what speed do you perform a rapid descent (both IMN and IAS)?

0.78 IMN when above 24,800 and 330 KIAS when below 24,800

No later than departing the circling MDA, lower the flaps to ______ and maintain what airspeed until approaching final.

30 degrees, Vapp +10

Low level routes must be entered no earlier than ___ minutes after sunrise and exit no later than ____ minutes prior to sunset.

30 minutes; 30 minutes (1 hour for mountainous terrain)

Emergency fuel for the T-1A is ______ pounds.

300

Taxi spacing will be a minimum of ____ feet and on taxiway center line at night.

300'

PWC 2 pilots require weather minimums of no less than a ceiling of ____ and a visibility of ____, or published approach minimums, whichever is greater.

300'; 1SM

Prior ot reaching the ACU the pressure regulator/shutoff valves reduce bleed air pressure to ?

30PSI

The STB ANTI ICE FAIL light will illuminate when the over temperature sensor detects a temperature of ______.

310F

The L/R ENG EFC OFF light should extinguish by approximately ______% N2

38% N2

The wings are protected from ice formation by engine bleed air pressure regulated at ____ to ____ psi.

38-44 psi

How long after selecting applying wheel brakes following ANTI-SKID OFF check do you wait before turning anti-skid on?

4 seconds

At what airspeed and altitude shall the flaps be raised?

400 (1500) AGL with a minimum airspeed of Vco + 10

When performing a go-around, retract the flaps at what altitude and airspeed?

400' AGL and Vref+20 KIAS

When checking the lavatory, ensure the knife valve is open at least ______.

1/4 inch

How far should the lavatory knife valve be open?

1/4in

Never taxi with less than ____ feet of wingtip obstacle clearance.

10 feet

When using the wing anti-ice, how long should it take for the operation light to illuminate?

10 seconds

The ON switch position allows the wiper to operate at a rate of __ to __ cycles per ___ seconds on a wet windshield.

10-13 cycles; 10 seconds

The rate of change knob should be set at what position?

10-o'clcok

Minimum runway width for single-ship takeoffs and landings is _____ feet.

100

Takeoffs and touch-and-go landings will not be accomplished unless the plowed portion of a runway is a minimum of _______ feet wide and meets the length requirements for takeoff/landing.

100

Minimum altitude to initiate a practice single-engine go-around is _____ feet AGL.

100 feet AGL

Maximum fuel imbalance is ______ pounds if a touch-and-go landing is to be performed.

100 lbs

For steep climb rates, cut the pitch in half ______' before leveloff altitude and then use ____ percent of the VSI to complete the leveloff.

1000'; 10%

Automatic starter dropout snould occur by ______% N2

45% N2

If crosswinds are greater than _____ knots, takeoff separation between aircraft (wake turbulence) can be reduced.

5 knots

The PM will announce heading deviations, airspeed deviations of ____ knots or more below desired, and altitude deviations of _____ or more from desired.

5 knots; 100'

Complete approach to stalls, traffic pattern stalls, slow flight, unusual attitudes, and flight characteristic demonstrations above ______.

5,000' AGL

Cell phone use is prohibited within _____ feet of aircraft refueling operations.

50 feet

Minimum taxiway width is _____ feet unless waived by OG approval.

50 feet

Performance data is predicated on landing gear retraction initiated by _____ feet above field elevation.

50 feet

Smoking is prohibited within how many feet of the aircraft?

50 feet

The cabin rate of change controller ranges from ___ to ___ feet per minute.

50 to 2000 fpm

How long is the icing probe signal cycle?

50-70 seconds

Airdrop configuration is ____ degrees flap setting and ___ KIAS minimum.

10; 140

Do not operate anti/deice systems at an RAT greater than _______ unless in actual icing conditions, as indicated by illumination of the ICING annunciator or airframe ice accumulation.

10C

Do not operate engine anti-ice on the ground at temperatures above ______ OAT/SAT except for preflight check.

10C

Except for preflight check, do not operate engine anti-ice during ground operations at temperatures above _____ OAT/SAT.

10C

Do not operate engine anti-ice during ground operations, except for preflight test, at temperatures above _______.

10C OAT/SAT

How many total static wicks are on the airplane?

12

Passenger oxygen masks automatically extend with oxygen ready pulled at

12,500 +/- 500

Outflow safety valves prevent cabin pressure from exceeding _______ feet.

12,500±1,500

If the temperature is below ______, the L or R ENG ICE TEMP LO annunciator will illuminate.

120F

The LH and RH ENG ICE TEMP LO annunciators will extinguish when the engine inlet temperature rises to ______.

120F

After the PM calls "rotate", rotate the aircraft to a ___ to ___ degree pitch attitude for takeoff.

13-15

Initiate unusual attitude recoveries above ____ KIAS and below ____ KIAS. Do not exceed _____ degrees of bank.

130; 270; 45deg

The WG ICE TEMP LO annunciator extinguishes at what temperature?

140F

If actual cruise time will be a short duration (approximately ___ minutes), the cruise checklist does not have to be accomplished.

15 minutes

Minimum runway width for formation takeoffs (normal) is _____ feet.

150 (Feed-on method is 100')

Do not start second engine until generator load decreases to less than _____ amps during battery start.

150 amps

Maintain a minimum of _____ feet behind other aircraft while taxiing. If ice or snow is present, _____ feet of spacing is required.

150; 300

Minimum break turn speed in the tactical pattern?

160 KIAS

The minimum airspeed to begin the closed pull-up is ____ KIAS.

160 KIAS

Below what temperature is the nitrogen pressure allowed to fall into the yellow arc?

17F (Can be as low as 1305Psi at 0F)

For cruise above _______, windshield heat must be on _______.

18,000; LOW or HIGH (only low for extended high-altitude cruise)

Recommended holding speed is ____ KIAS.

180

Target airspeed during VCOA departure is ____ KIAS.

180

During a penetration descent, establish an airspeed of ______.

180 KIAS

Prior to initiating the instrument approach, slow the aircraft to _____ KIAS in the clean configuration.

180 KIAS

During descent, cabin pressure is set to landing field pressure altitude plus ______ feet.

500 feet

A restricted low approach is defined as no lower than ______ feet AGL or as directed by the controlling agency.

500 feet AGL

Do not initiate practice simulated engine failure below _____ during takeoff or landing.

500' AGL

Aircrew will fly a minimum of ____ feet above the highest UNSEEN obstacle within ____ of the aircraft.

500'; 2NM

MCT should be readjusted approximately every ______ feet during the climb.

5000'

The minimum allowable altitude on all low levels is ____ feet above the highest terrain or obstacle within _____ feet of the aircraft.

500; 2,000'

The ITT during ground start normally will not exceed _____C

550C

The rollout lead point for a 30-degree AOB turn is approximately ____ degrees and ____ degrees for a 45-degree AOB turn.

5; 10 degrees

Engine anti-ice must be on for taxi and takeoff when in visible moisture at an OAT/SAT of ______ or colder.

5C

An external power unit is required for engine start at ambient temperatures below ________. ?

5F (-15C); Ice may form on compressor blades below that temperature -

Touchdown speed is ____ knots less than the approach speed.

6 knots

When testing the AOA system when does stick shaker and go light activate?

1st cycle : passing .4-.5; 2nd cycle: passing .7-1.0

How long after preceding aircraft can you land for wake turbulence?

2 mins for large or helicopters (+41000bs) or 3 mins for heavy (boeing 757 or larger)

At night for single engine or no flap patterns and approaches, the weather must be at least _____ or _____, whichever is greater.

2,000' and 3SM or circling minimums

The minimum climbout factor for all takeoffs is ______.

2.5

Except for climbout after takeoff, the maximum airspeed for operations at an uncontrolled airfield is ____ KIAS.

200

On radar downwind, maintain ____ KIAS.

200 KIAS

Any crewmember will announce an altitude variation of ____ feet or more, an airspeed deviation of ____ knots or more from desired.

200'; 10 knots

Planned ground speeds on military training routes are ____ and ____ knots (maximum planned ground speed is ____ knots).

210; 240; 270

How many volts are required for a battery start? Ground power unit start?

22; 28

The minimum runway length for T-1A takeoffs is _______ feet, _________, or the distance required to reach ________, whichever is greater.

6,000 feet; CFL; Reference Zero

The minimum runway length for full-stop landings is _____ feet or _______, whichever is greater.

6,000 feet; computed landing distance

While in the traffic pattern, never exceed more than ______ degrees of bank.

60

The ACU is capable of maintaining the cabin temperature between ____ and ____ at all ambient temperatures up to and including the service ceiling.

60-90F

When landing, ______ feet minimum spacing is required behind other aircraft unless the aircraft is airborne.

6000 feet (this includes touch-and-go and full-stop landings)

Normally bleed air at the engine will not exceed _____F and _____psi at takeoff rated thrust.

600F; 150 psi

How many rotations must you turn the manual pressurization control knob to manually depressurize the cabin?

7 counter clockwise (8 depending on where you read it in the -1) Naw says 7 to 8.

Limit power during ground operations to approximately ______ percent N2 in congested areas?

70% N2

What throttle setting is required when testing the wing and engine anti-ice?

70% N2

What throttle setting must be set in order for the wing anti-ice to function?

70% N2 or greater

When setting the manual pressurization control knob for an ACM off takeoff, rotate approximately _______ to allow the outflow valve to evacuate any cabin smoke during takeoff.

8 revolutions counter clockwise

For a static takeoff, set the throttles to approximately ______ to confirm proper flight deck and engine instruments.

80% N1

When throttles are advanced to the TO position on the ground, the cabin is pressured to a positive ____ to ____ foot differential.

80-120

When the bleed air switch is set to L or R ENG, ___ to ___ lb/minute of airflow is supplied.

9 to 10 lb/minute

When operating properly, the outflow valves will keep cabin pressure differential from exceeding ____ psi.

9.1

If the electronic flight display's internal temperature exceeds _____, an overtemp signal is sent and a red ADI TEMP or HSI TEMP is displayed.

95C

FCS mistrim condition annunciators

A - spoiler mistrimmed, E - elevator mistrimmed, R - rudder mistrimmed - boxed yellow on flashes for 5 sec(EADI?)

Do not taxi until what annunciator extinguishes on both pilot and copilot panels?

AHRS ALIGNING DO NOT TAXI

After what step and before what step do you pause the before starting engines check when not on GPU?

After fuel system; before fuel crossfeed

During a touch and go, when can the pilot call for FLAPS 10?

After the nosewheel as touched down

Do not taxi with less than _____ feet of wingtip obstacle clearance unless a marshaller is used in conjunction with a wing walker at each affected wingtip. (Except at home field with fixed taxi lines which provide a minimum of 10' wingtip clearance)**

25 feet **NO LONGER IN 2tv3

The maximum crosswind limitation for takeoff and landings is ____ knots for a dry runway, ____ knots for a wet runway, and ____ knots for an icy runway.

25, 15, 10

The maximum airspeed for number two is _____ below ______. (Formation)

250 KIAS; 10,000' MSL

The final flap setting should be selected prior to passing _______.

250' AGL

During unusual attitudes, the maximum pitch is ____ degrees nose up and _____ degrees nose down.

25; 20

PM will make what calls during precision approach?

"100 above DH/DA", "Continue" if at decision height and runway environ is in sight BUT red terminate or side bars are not in sight -> may continue to 100' above TDZE/THRE, "Land" if runway environ in sight and can safely land, "Go around"

The icing probe detects ice and illuminates the ICING annunciator when approximately _____ inches of ice form on the probe.

.020 inches

For a maximum range descent, establish IMN of _____ (above 35,900') or an IAS of _____ KIAS (below 35,900')

.70 IMN; 230 KIAS

During an approach to stall recovery, attempt to recover using approximately ___ to ___ AOA.

.8 to .85

The Mach speed display and legend is visible when Mach speed is _____ or greater.

0.45

When the temperature of the horizontal stabilizer leading edge drops below ____, power is automatically initiated. When the temperature sensor detects a maximum temperature of _____, power is interrupted.

260F; 280F

The AOA heating element maintains a surface temperature of ___ with an internal temp between ___ to ___.

260F; 90-125F

The yaw damper is required for flight above FL_____.

280

The reference airspeed display will automatically transition to the Mach reference as the aircraft climbs through ______ feet.

29,500'

Allow a minimum of _____ minutes before takeoff following (behind) large aircraft or helicopters and a minimum of _____ minutes behind a heavy jet aircraft.

2; 3

The seat restraint system provides freedom of movement until a forward deceleration of approximately _____ g's.

3 g's

How long until the STB ANTI-ICE FAIL illuminates when the system is set to test?

3 seconds

It will require _____ seconds for the STB ANTI-ICE FAIL light to illuminate due to the test position causing an open circuit in the thermostat and activiating the failure light delay relay.

3 seconds

The minimum altitude for visual flight routes VFR point-to-point navigation is _____.

3,000' AGL

In order to fly a VFR pattern at an uncontrolled field, the weather at the field must be equal to or greater than _______ and ______ SM.

3,000'; 3SM

What is the typical strut extension for the nose gear?

3.5 inches

Do not practice a single-engine go-around after selecting _____ degree flaps.

30

When the backup horizontal deice switch is held momentarily in the MANUAL position, a deice cycle of _____ seconds starts.

30

When does avionics blower run?

Any time galley CB is powered, which is when battery is on

Describe the recovery for a nose high unusual attitude.

Assess aircraft attitude, decrease pitch and roll toward the nearest horizon while simultaneously adding power as necessary. Do not exceed 45 degree bank.

What are the five critical phases of flight?

1) Takeoffs and landings; 2) Traffic pattern ops after initiating the base turn; 3) low-level navigation (below 1,000ft AGL); 4) Precontact (astern) and contact positions; 5) Airdrop maneuver (IP to target)

The minimum altitude for formation position changes is ______.

1,000' AGL

The simulated airdrop maneuver is performed at a minimum of ______ feet AGL or _____ feet above the planned route altitude.

1,000' AGL; 500'

Receiver aircraft will maintain _______ below air refueling base altitude until visual contact is established with the tanker.

1,000' BELOW

The cabin pressure controller should be set the higher of ______ feet above cruise altitude or ______ feet above field elevation.

1,000'; 500'

If necessary, service the hydraulic fluid with what type?

MIL-H-5606

What type of engine oil does the T-1A use?

MIL-L-23699

Chartered performance data is based on what type of braking?

Maximum Braking

The PM will adjust the ____ speed to the computed ____ before reaching ____ KIAS.

N1 fan speed; TRT; 60 KIAS

Is a life raft required if the only overwater portion of a flight is during the departure or approach phase?

NO

What is the performance difference between a rolling and static takeoff? What about its effect on TOLD?

Negligible; Also negligible but takeoff roll and CFL may increase slightly

IF you are not using the galley does the galley CB need to be checked?

No

With bleed air off how fast could the cabin depressurize at FL410?

Normally 200fpm up to 3846

If the pitch attitude exceeds ____ degrees nose high or ____ degrees nose low, or if the bank attitude exceeds ____ degrees, all attitude information except the AC symbol, attitude, cross-side attitude annunciation and IAS display is removed from the EADI.

30 deg NH; 20 deg NL; ±65 deg bank

Whenever an EFD over temperature condition exists, what should you do?

Nothing, the problem should correct itself within 2 minutes. If it doesn't, then use composite mode.

How many flashlights are required during sorties that will be flown between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight?

One per crewmember

The windshield heat consists of two heating elements (an upper and lower). Which element(s) is/are used when the heat is set to HIGH?

Only the lower element is used when the windshield heat is set to HIGH. Both are used on LOW.

Where should cabin window shades be for TO and LDG?

Open

For night operations the filed and alternate destination require operable what? What about a circling approach?

Operable straight-in approach and glide path guidance. For night circling approaches only the landing runway requires glide path guidance

Which has a higher stalling speed, overshooting final or undershooting final turn stall?

Overshooting (greater AOB)

The multifunctional display receives pilot or copilot side information?

PILOT

Which is pilot/copilots static ports?

Pilot: Top left/bottom right, Copilot opposite

What system provides ram air pressure to both ADCs, the standby altimeter, and standby airspeed indicator.

Pitot system

A positive rate of climb is established when?

The VSI and altimeter or outside references show a climb

During practice stalls, the recovery is complete when?

The aircraft is clean (or simulated clean), not descending, and airspeed exceeds Vref + 20 knots.

What seals are checked on the entrance door?

The inflatable seal inside the door hatch (15+-1psi) and the weather seal on the door

When will the crew declare minimum or emergency fuel?

When it becomes apparent the fuel remaining at final touchdown will be less than required.

What should be turned off before turning on the VCCS?

Windshield heat

If an obstacle only presents a hazard to one wing tip, is the marshaller allowed to also act as a wing walker?

YES

Can you test the AHRS battery from either side?

Yes, but only once total since the test wastes battery life

Bleed air HIGH does what?

increases bleed air by opening the flow increasing solenoid valve and both engine bleed air valves (solenoid valve opens allowing 10 to 23 lb/min to the cabin)

The pilot's clock is powered by the _____ while the copilot's clock is powered by the ______.

left load bus; emergency bus

The door seal is inflated and deflated by a solenoid operated door seal valve controlled by the ____ and _____.

left main gear safety switch and entrance door No. 1 lock switch.

STB DEICE FAIL means

malfunction in the sequence timer, heater mat, or current sensor

How do you check the galley circuit breaker?

must remove the hot beverage container and reach behind

What is a good technique to ensure you are recovering from a stall as efficiently as possible?

nibbling in and out of the stick shaker

Do not practice _____ full-stop landings.

no-flap

During low speed flight when power is changed from idle to go-around N1, there is an initial _______ tendency due to the high-mounted engines.

nose-down

What kind of natural indications of stall does the T-1 exhibit?

only moderate buffet/mild rolling which does not increase at full stall - easily missable

At what attitude does the EADI declutter

pitch exceeds 30 high or 20 low, bank exceeds 65; restored at +25NH/-15NL and 60 or lessBANK

In order to call "land" at 100 feet, the _______ or ______ must be visible and identifiable.

red termination bars or the red side row bars

Why no crossfeed during takeoff/final approach/landing?

risk of dual engine flameout

Before opening the crew entrance door, ensure ________ and that all lose items are secured.

the cabin is depressurized

What can you do besides the steps in max performance braking to slow down on a slippery runway?

turn EFCs off to reduce further idle thrust

Why is pressure controller set to 10 O'Clock position?

~300fpm which is manageable, varies from 2000' to 50' fpm

The standby attitude indicator will provide indications within ____ degrees for a period of ____ minutes when complete power is lost.

±6; 9 minutes

When does the AIR COND FAIL annunciator illuminate?

Pressures above 53 psi or temperatures above 400F (pressure regulator shutoff valve closes and the emergency pressure valve opens shutting off ACU) --or-- bleed air is selected to EMER.

When must the final flap setting be selected on landing?

Prior to 250' AGL so pilot has time to compesnate for changes in trim

_____ must be available during all operations utilizing GPS as the primary navigational source.

RAIM

Under what conditions is the VCCS automatically shed?

Engine starts, windshield deice system operation, horizontal anti-ice/deice system operations.

T/F? During cross-side operations, comparator warnings are available.

FALSE

T/F? Open containers of food or drink are allowed to be passed over the center console or circuit breaker panel.

FALSE

T/F? Staggered taxi operations are permitted with T-1 aircraft.

FALSE

T/F? Personnel may not enter and exit the crew entrance door with the right engine operating and the left engine shutdown?

FALSE - Cannot enter with the left engine running due to FOD consideration

T/F? The right gear's ground safety switch will prevent the manual backup deice from working on the ground.

FALSE, the backup deice system bypasses the ground safety switch.

T/F? Fuel anti-icing inhibitors may be manually mixed during aircraft refueling.

FALSE, they must be premixed.

T/F? When ready to park the windshield wipers, it is permissible to move the switch from ON directly to PARK.

FALSE, you must place in OFF first, then PARK.

T-1A aircraft are allowed to begin their takeoff roll as long as there is a minimum of 6000 feet between the preceding aircraft.

FALSE. Preceding aircraft must be airborne or clear of the runway.

T/F? Only one copy of the pilot's abbreviated checklist is required for the entire crew?

FALSE; all crewmembers must carry their personal

When the battery feed test button is pressed, what should you see?

FDR FAIL, STBY POWER ON, left ITT illuminated, standby instruments illuminated, RTU 1 operates.

Use no greater than a 10 flap approach after encountering icing conditions UNLESS

Icing conditions lasted less than 10 mins and RAT for each encounter was warmer than -8C -- OR -- a RATof +10C or more occurs during descent, approach, or landing

When does the WING OV HT light illuminate?

When any of the overtemperature switches close (three total, one at 350F and two further down system at 212F)

When should you turn ignition switches ON?

When flying through turbulence and/or visible precipitation, TO & LDG, Low level operations

How many seals are around the main crew entrance door?

Two; pressure and weather seal

If a GPU is not available, what must be turned on during start to prevent erroneous engine fault montior recorder activation during a battery start?

Both the aircraft and standby batteries

CABIN AIR OV HT illuminates when?

Cabin air supply exceeds 390 ± 15F

When does the CABIN PRESSURE LO annunciator illuminate?

Cabin altitude exceeds 9500±500 feet

When does the CABIN PRESSURE HI annunciator illuminate?

Cabin pressure differential exceeds 11±1 psi

What is the ridge along the side of the nose gear tire for?

Called a chine, it is to direct water away from the engine inlets on a wet runway

IF the wx radar gets stuck in standby what should you do?

Cycle the right nonessential bus off then on, however ensure the VCCS is off first

During takeoff, the weather vaning tendency is _______ as forward speed increases.

Decreases

What special considerations should be taken when checking the rudders?

Do not fully displace the rudders to avoid damaging the linkage; ensure both pilot and copilot check for proportional pedal displacement - abnormal could mean a cracked rudder pedal assembly

What is/are the only objects allowed to be placed on the flight deck glare shield?

Flight gloves

When checkining the emergency lights how many are you looking for?

Four "packs"

What EADI/CDU errors require termination of RNAV approach and alternate clearance/missed appch?

GPS-FMS DISAGREE, GPS NOT AVAILABLE, NO GPS RAIM, NO APPR GPS RAIM *First three also for terminating RNAV 2 en route procedures

In the event of a hard landing, what should you do?

Gear should remain down and the mission terminated. Document in AF781

In a real world scenario, what power setting do you set when recovering from an inadvertent TP stall?

Go-around N1

What are the five indicators you check for on the autopilot check with it engaged?

Green: roll, pitch, AP/L, YD - White: ALTS

Do not use windshield heat on ______ for takeoff and landing.

HIGH

With asymmetric thrust is the aircraft easier to control at higher or lower speeds?

Higher, due to increased effectiveness of other aerodynamic forces

For generator assisted starts, the operating engine must be at _____ or generator may be damaged.

IDLE

Charted performance is based on throttles ______ at ______ feet AGL.

IDLE; 50 feet AGL

IF icing is encountered in flight, when can you use greater than 10 flaps?

IF -icing conditions were less than 10 mins and RAT was warmer than -8C OR RAT of +10C encountered during descent, approach , or landing

L/R WSHLD OV HT

Respective winshield temp exceeds 130F, extinguish at 115F ***NOT IN -1****

When the engines are operating, the VCCS is powered by _____.

Right nonessential bus

When _____ is operating, the magnetic compass is erratic and unreliable.

Side window defog heater/blowers

During an electrical failure, what supplies lighting to both the standby altimeter and attitude indicator?

Standby battery

The _______ system provides ambient air pressure to both ADCs and the standby altimeter and airspeed indicator.

Static

What needs to be checked before beginning exterior inspection?

Static wire disconnected and wheels chocked

(T/F) Should you add power in a turn proportional to the turn's bank angle?

TRUE

T/F? Asterisk (*) items need not be accomplished on subsequent flights by the same crew flying the same aircraft on the same day.

TRUE

T/F? Discoloration or crazing does not affect the structural strength of the windshield.

TRUE

T/F? Do not practice single-engine circling approaches or single-engine low-closed patterns.

TRUE

T/F? Ensure both main tires are the same brand.

TRUE

T/F? It is permissible for reference zero calculations to take into account runway distance past a departure end arresting cable, provided it does not occur past the DER.

TRUE

T/F? Pilots will utilize ceiling AND visibility to determine adequate departure weather.

TRUE

T/F? Required technical orders are allowed to be stored using the jumpseat provided the restraint belts are used to secure them.

TRUE

T/F? Single-engine and no-flap tactical overheads are prohibited (simulated or actual).

TRUE

T/F? When power is lost, the clocks continue to run internally (although time is not displayed) due to an internal 6-volt battery.

TRUE

At uncontrolled airfields, no more than ____ aircraft total, military or civilian may be in the pattern.

TWO

If either horizontal stab anti-ice or deice system fails, what must you do?

The operating system must be turned off.

Where are the Pitot Heat CBs to check in the pitot heat off checklist?

They are the switches on the overhead panel (L or R PITOT)

What are the requirements for the main gear check per -1?

Tire wear, wheel damage, leaking fluid, cut/chafing electrical bundles, 1.1 in extension, and check that both tires have same brand

Windshield heat operation

When internal sensors reach 95F or lower then the heat is reengerized, High - high temp at bottom of window, Low - low temp throughout window

The PM will make what calls during climbout?

Transition altitude; At 1,000' below assigned altitude.

The PM will make what calls during the descent?

Transition level; At 1,000' above assigned altitude; At 1,000' above initial approach fix altitude or holding altitude; At 100' above procedure turn and final approach fix altitude

Describe the windshield construction?

Two L/R piece assembly consisting of inner acrylic and outer glass sheet with sandwiched restance wires between for heating.

For slow flight, configure the aircraft and slow to ______.

Vapp - 5 knots

If the OIL LEVEL OK indicator fails to come on, what should you do?

Visually check with the dip stick

While practicing TP stalls, during your recovery, at what airspeed will you call FLAPS UP?

Vref + 20 knots

If oxygen pressure begins to drop while the aircraft is in level flight or descending, what can be suspected?

an oxygen leak

When taxiing how wide should the T1 be turned?

as wide as possible

At what pressure does the white operation light illuminate above the SYS 1 or SYS 2 WING?

at or above 11 psi

The fresh air blower will not operate with the _____ switch on or while the aircraft is in flight.

bleed air

Certified PWC 1 pilots require weather equivalent to published ___ and ____ approach minimums.

ceiling and visibility

Describe the H STB DEICE TEST?

checks the deice timer through the 12 segment positions for .6 seconds each with pause between each six. If any light remains off for 1-2 seconds an element is open

Do not perform any afterlanding checklist items until the aircraft is _______.

clear of the active runway

To prevent dual engine flameout, ______ must not be used for takeoff, final approach, or landing.

crossfeed

DEFOG AIR OV HT illuminates when?

defog duct temperature exceeds 200F

what must be done before AUX COOL is operated?

environmental scoop plug must be removed

Instrument effects of DEFOG or windshield heat high

erratic magnetic compass operation

The magnetic compass is not reliable when the windshield heat is set to _____.

high

BL AIR DCT FAIL illuminates when?

if any of the four bleed air thermal switches detect an air temperature greater than 350F due to a ruptured bleed air duct or greater than 3.5 plus or minus 0.5psi in the wing anti-ice duct.

What considerations occur with engine start in visible moisture at or below 5C

in that situation try and ensure takeoff occurs within 10mins of engine start to prevent ice buildup, if unable slowly advance throttles as high as practical (above 70% N2) for 10 seconds with engine anti ice on for every ten minute interval