Test 3 questions
Match the following with their correct answers: A. Internal urethral sphincter. 1. Involuntary control B. External urethral sphincter 2. Voluntary control C. Tubular reabsorption. 3. hydrogen ions and excess potassium are actively moved out of the bloodstream into the renal tubules D. Tubular secretion 4. 99% of the water, and most electrolytes that were filtered into the renal tubules into the bloodstream.
A = 1 B= 2 C= 4 D= 3
Which age-related changes are expected in kidney function? SATA: A. Decreased GFR B. Nocturia C. Decreased bladder capacity D. Weakened urinary sphincter muscles in women E. Tendency to retain urine in men (due to enlargement of the prostate) F. Decreased nerve pathways from bladder to the brain
A, B, C, D, E
What is the function of the nephrons in the kidneys? a. They form blood from urine b. They form urine from blood c. They help with vitamin D synthesis d. They control the blood pressure
Answer: b They form urine from blood
What is the length of the urethra in women? a. 6-8 inches b. 12-18 inches c. 1-1.5 inches d. 2-3 inches
Answer: c 1-1.5 inches
What is the normal range for serum creatinine? a. 0.5 - 1.2 b. 1.2 - 2.0 c. 2.0 - 3.0 d. 3.0 - 4.0
Correct answer: A 0.5 - 1.2
After micturition, the nurse performs a bladder scan. The nurse knows that an expected residual volume is: A. 35 mL B. 57 mL C. 60 mL D. 75 mL
Correct answer: A 35 mL is within the range of 30-50 mL
A nurse is caring for a client who has just returned to the nursing unit after an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). The nurse determines that which of the following is important in the post-procedure care of this client? a) encouraging increased intake of oral fluids b) ambulating the client in the hallway c) encouraging the client to try to avoid frequently d) maintaining the client on bedrest
Correct answer: A encouraging increased intake of oral fluids
What is the length of the urethra in men? a. 6-8 inches b. 12-18 inches c. 1-1.5 inches d. 2-3 inches
Correct answer: A 6-8 inches
Which of the following conditions can increase GFR? SATA a. Dehydration b. Decreased cardiac output c. Severe hypotension (SBP < 70) d. Drinking more fluids or receiving IV hydration e. Diabetes Mellitus
Correct answer: A,B,C
What is the name for urine collections that are done over a specified number of hours? a. Timed urine collections b. Composite urine collections c. Specific gravity urine collections d. Osmolarity urine collections
Correct answer: B
A nurse is giving a client with polycystic kidney disease instructions in replacing elements lost in the urine as a result of impaired kidney function. The nurse instructs the client to increase intake of which of the following in the client? a) sodium and potassium b) sodium and water c) water and phosphorus d) calcium and phosphorus
Correct answer: B Clients with polycystic kidney disease waste sodium rather than retain it and therefore need an increase in sodium and water in the diet. Potassium, calcium, and phosphorus do not need to be increased in this condition.
What is the normal range for serum blood urea nitrogen (BUN)? a. 5 - 10 b. 10 - 20 c. 20 - 30 d. 30 - 40
Correct answer: B 10 - 20
Which diagnostic test uses serum creatinine in combination with age, sex, and race to estimate GFR? a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) b. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) c. Serum osmolarity d. Serum creatinine
Correct answer: B Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
A client with glomerulonephritis is at risk of developing acute renal failure. The nurse monitors the client for which sign of this complication? a) bradycardia b) hypertension c) decreased cardiac output d) decreased central venous pressure
Correct answer: B Hypertension
What is the most accurate and sensitive indicator of kidney function? a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) b. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) c. Serum osmolarity d. Serum creatinine
Correct answer: B glomerular filtration rate
Which patient should the nurse see first? A. 55 year old female with a BUN of 9 who has symptoms of skin tenting B. 67 year-old male with a serum osmolarity of 350 mOsm/L C. 22 year-old male with a serum creatinine of 0.9 D. 45 year old female with a urine specific gravity of 2
Correct answer: B 67 year-old make with a serum osmolarity of 350 mOsm/L. This is an indication of concentrated blood which can lead to concentration of electrolytes in the blood putting the patient at risk for arrhythmias caused by hyperkalemia.
What is the post-procedure care for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP)? SATA a. Administer steroid prep and antihistamine for clients with allergies to contrast dye or iodine or shellfish b. all dyes must be flushed from the system and renal status must be closely monitored. c. Give diuretics to flush the dye through the kidneys d. Monitor BUN and creatinine levels and intake and output to assess for signs of renal failure
Correct answer: B and C all dyes must be flushed from the system and renal status must be closely monitored!
What is the primary hormone produced by the kidneys that has systemic effects on the body? SATA a. Renin b. Erythropoietin c. Insulin d. Cortisol e. Plasma
Correct answer: Both A and B
What is CVA tenderness a sign of? a. Renal calculi b. Bladder cancer c. Kidney infection d. Urinary incontinence
Correct answer: C
A strong sense of fullness is generally experienced once the bladder fills to about: A. 175 mL B. 350 mL C. 400 mL D. 250 mL
Correct answer: C 400 mL
What is an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP)? a. A test to assess arterial blood supply to the kidneys and to detect bleeding from trauma b. A nuclear medicine test done in the nuclear medicine department c. A test where a radiopaque dye is injected intravenously and x-rays are taken to provide an outline of the kidneys, ureters and bladder d. A test to measure renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate
Correct answer: C A test where a radiopaque dye is injected intravenously and x-rays are taken to provide an outline of the kidneys, ureters and bladder.
A client in a short-procedure unit is recovering from renal angiography in which a femoral puncture site was used. When providing post-procedure care, the nurse should: a) keep the client's knee on the affected side bent for 6 hours. b)apply pressure to the puncture site for 30 minutes. c)check the client's pedal pulses frequently. d)remove the dressing on the puncture site after vital signs stabilize.
Correct answer: C Check the client's pedal pulses frequently
Which of the following is not a symptom of urinary and renal disorders? a. Hematuria b. Change in urine color c. Increased appetite d. Urinary incontinence
Correct answer: C Increased appetite
A client with pyelonephritis is being discharged from the hospital, and the nurse provides instructions to the client to prevent recurrence. The nurse determines that the client understands the information that was given if the client states an intention to: a) increase fluids for 2 days if signs and symptoms of a urinary tract infection develop b) take the prescribed antibiotics until all symptoms subside c) return to the physician's office for scheduled follow-up urine cultures d) decrease fluid intake if frequent urination occurs
Correct answer: C Return to the physician's office for scheduled follow-up urine cultures The client with pyelonephritis should take the full course of antibiotic therapy that has been prescribed and return to the physician's office for follow-up urine cultures if so instructed. The client should learn the signs and symptoms of a urinary tract infection, and report them immediately if they occur. The client should also drink 3 L of fluid per day.
What is the normal value for glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? a. 80 mL/minute b. 100 mL/minute c. 120 mL/minute d. 150 mL/minute
Correct answer: C Normal value is about 120 mL/minute; that means that 120 mL of blood is filtered through the glomeruli every minute
What is the relationship between GFR and urine output? SATA a. The greater the GFR, the less urine is produced b. The lower the GFR, the more urine is produced c. The greater the GFR, the more urine is produced d. The lower the GFR, the less urine is produced
Correct answer: C, D
Which of the following substances are too big to filter through the glomerular capillary walls? a. Water and electrolytes b. Creatinine and urea nitrogen c. Glucose d. Albumin and red blood cells
Correct answer: D
1. In adults, the first sensation to void is generally experienced once the bladder fills with about: A. 300 mL of urine B. 75 mL of urine C. 200 mL of urine D. 150 mL of urine
Correct answer: D 150 mL of urine
What is the proper procedure for collecting timed urine samples? a. Begin the collection with the first urine void of the day b. Collect all urine for the specified time period and keep it at room temperature c. Discard the first urine void of the day and start the collection with the second void d. Collect all urine for the specified time period and keep it on ice
Correct answer: D Collect all urine for the specified time period and keep it on ice.
Which of the following is NOT a regulatory function of the kidneys? a. Regulation of body fluid volume b. Regulation of elimination of waste products c. Regulation of electrolyte and acid-base balance d. Production of cortisol
Correct answer: D Cortisol is created by the adrenal gland not the kidneys.
If the BUN level is increased but the creatinine level is normal, it usually indicates: A. Adequate kidney function B. Protein metabolism by liver C. Dehydration along with kidney damage D. Dehydration and does not indicate kidney damage
Correct answer: D Dehydration and does not indicate kidney damage
Which of the following is the correct amount of urine needed for a urine culture and sensitivity (Urine C & S)? a. 14 ml b. 3 ml c. 5 ml d. 10 ml
Correct answer: D 10 mL
Care of a patient going for a KUB x-ray should include: SATA a) Assess for allergies to dye b) Patient is to be NPO for a few hours prior to test c) Patient is given solution to drink to illuminate blood vessels under x-ray d) Patient does not need to be NPO as the procedure doesn't require fasting. e) Draw labs to assess creatinine.
Correct answer: a, b The nurse should be assess the patient for allergies to dye and the patient should not eat a few hours prior to test.
Pre-procedure interventions for a renal biopsy are: SATA a. Check coagulation studies b. HgB c. Hct d. NPO for 6-8 hours e. lay patient supine
Correct answer: a, b, c
Which of the following is true of I & O's? SATA: a) Record ice chips as fluid at approximately half their volume b) Include your patient's water carafe at the bedside in your I & O c) if irrigating a nasogastric or another tube or the bladder, measure the amount instilled and subtract it from total output d)Measure drainage in a hard-sided, calibrated container e) i. Take the reading at the bottom of the meniscus f) i. Fluid measurements are not accurate when taken from soft-sided containers (example: foley bag, IV bag, etc.)
Correct answer: a, b, c, d, e, f
Which of the following substances should NOT be present in normal urine? SATA a. Glucose b. Ketones c. Protein d. Red blood cells e. Plasma f. Leukoesterase g. Nitrites
Correct answer: a, b, c, d, f, g
The nurse should know that which foods are considered liquid? SATA a. Pudding b. Gelatin (Jell-O) c. All soups d. Popsicles e. Ice cream f. liquid, watery stools g. soft, formed stools h. cream of wheat
correct answer: a, b, c, d, e, f, h
