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57) The right pleural cavity contains: A) heart B) trachea C) left lung D) right lung E) both lungs

Answer: D

transverse

A bone fracture perpendicular to the bone's axis is called a(n) ________ fracture. A) nondisplaced B) linear C) transverse D) incomplete

7) Anatomical features that change during illness are studied in ________ anatomy. A) gross B) surface C) microscopic D) pathological E) regional

Answer: D

18) The layer of the serous membrane that covers an organ is known as the ________ layer. A) bursa B) visceral C) lamina propria D) parietal

B

The cells in the skin that store the most melanin granules are A) dendritic cells. B) tactile epithelial cells. C) basal keratinocytes. D) melanocytes.

C) basal keratinocytes.

In the thick skin of the palm, the layer of the epidermis directly deep to the stratum corneum is the stratum ________. A) granulosum. B) basale. C) lucidum. D) spinosum.

C) lucidum

The white half-moon visible under the proximal part of a fingernail is the A) matrix. B) bed. C) lunule. D) cuticle.

C) lunule.

20) Type of membrane adapted for absorption or secretion

C) mucous membrane

The "cheesy" layer on the skin of a newborn is A) lanugo. B) baby sweat. C) seborrhea. D) vernix caseosa.

D) vernix caseosa.

3) When an individual is exposed to extremely low air temperatures, the capillaries of the skin will dilate so that blood will flush into skin capillary beds and heat will be dissipated.

FALSE

9) Collagen and elastic fibers are common in the epidermis of the skin.

FALSE

embryology concerns the structural changes that occur in an individual from conception through old age

False

the elbow is proximal to the shoulder

False

the serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity wall is called visceral peritoneum

False

a

For intramembranous ossification to take place, which of the following is necessary? A) Ossification centers form in the fibrous connective tissue membrane. B) A bone collar forms around the cartilage model. C) A medullary cavity forms. D) The cartilage matrix begins to deteriorate

Buttock

Gluteal

Endosteum

The lining of the marrow cavity

Foramen

round or oval opening through a bone

20) The type of gland responsible for body temperature regulation is the ________ gland. A) sebaceous B) eccrine (sweat or sudoriferous) C) apocrine (sweat or sudoriferous) D) oil

B

an immediate concern with a burn patient is loss of fluids, so fluids must be administered immediately.

true

lungs carry out an excretory function

true

regardless of the variable being regulated, all homeostatic control mechanism have at least three interdependent components

true

the epigastric region is located superior to the umbilical region

true

23) Epithelial tissues have one free surface or edge known as the ________ surface. A) basement B) apical C) matrix D) attached

B

24) The type of tissue consisting of cells embedded in an extracellular matrix is ________ tissue. A) epithelial B) connective C) muscle D) nervous

B

In thin skin, the epidermis is comprised of how many layers?

4

10) The outermost layer of the epidermis is keratinized and known as stratum ________. A) basale B) granulosum C) corneum D) spinosum

C

c

Spongy bone contains ________. A) lamellar bone B) osteons C) trabeculae D) osseous lamellae

True

T or F: The term osteoid refers to the organic part of the matrix of compact bones.

True

T or F: The trabeculae of spongy bone are oriented toward lines of stress.

1) Cutaneous membranes are the only dry membranes.

TRUE

12) Hair is produced by the hair bulb and is composed primarily of dead keratinized cells.

TRUE

13) Nails and hair are composed of keratin.

TRUE

14) The matrix of hyaline cartilage consists of abundant collagen fibers hidden in a rubbery matrix.

TRUE

16) The rule of nines is used to estimate how much of the body surface is burned.

TRUE

17) Apocrine gland secretions are normally odorless, and may be milky or yellowish in color.

TRUE

20) Squamous cell carcinoma arises from cells of the stratum spinosum.

TRUE

4) The dermis is composed mostly of dense connective tissue.

TRUE

5) The pinkish hue of healthy individuals with fair skin is the result of the crimson color of oxygenated hemoglobin circulating in the dermal capillaries and reflecting through the dermis.

TRUE

6) The pattern that produces fingerprints is produced by dermal papillae in the dermis.

TRUE

7) The epidermis is made up of stratified squamous epithelium.

TRUE

8) The majority of the cells in the epidermis are keratinocytes.

TRUE

Positive feedback mechanism tend to increase the original stimulus

TRUE

imaging is useful in discovering obstructed blood supplies in organs and tissues

TRUE

the anatomical position means the body is standing at attention with the palms facing forward and the thumbs pointing away from the body

TRUE

Epiphyseal line

The appearance of this structure signals the end of bone growth

Diaphysis

The area of long bones where cartilage cells are replaced by bone cells

blood vessels and nerve fibers

The canal that runs through the core of each osteon (the Haversian canal) is the site of ________. A) cartilage and interstitial lamellae B) osteoclasts and osteoblasts C) yellow marrow and spicules D) blood vessels and nerve fibers

osteoblast

The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the ________. A) osteocyte B) osteoblast C) osteoclast D) chondrocyte

d

The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the ________. A) osteocyte B) chondrocyte C) osteoclast D) osteoblast

Chondrocytes

The cells responsible for the early stages of endochondral ossification

a

The central (Haversian) canal that runs through the core of each osteon is the site of ________. A) blood vessels and nerve fibers B) yellow marrow and spicules C) cartilage and interstitial lamellae D) adipose tissue and nerve fibers

Describe the vascularization of the skin.

The dermis contains two vascular plexi. The dermal plexus is located between the hypodermis and the dermis, nourishing the hypodermis and the deeper portions of the dermis. The subpapillary plexus is located just deep to the dermal papillae and supplies the upper dermal layer. It also provides nourishment to cells of the deeper layers of the epidermis by diffusion.

Appositional growth

The growth pattern of bone in which matrix is laid down on the surface

True

True/False Sixty-five percent of the mass of bone is a compound called hydroxyapatite

False

True/False The hormone that is primarily involved in the control of bone remodeling is calcitonin

False

True/False The periosteum is a tissue that serves only to protect the bone because it is not supplied with nerves or blood vessels.

True

True/False The structural unit of compact bone (osteon) resembles the growth rings of a tree trunk

Diaphysis

Tubular shaft that forms long axis, and compact bone surrounds the medullary cavity (lined by endosteum)

Melanin functions to "shade" keratinocyte DNA molecules from harmful _______

UV radiation

Kidneys, bladder, ureters

Urinary

irregular

Vertebrae are considered ________ bones. A) long B) flat C) short D) irregular

The diaphysis bone is composed almost entirely of compact bone (except in irregular and short bones) while the epiphyses are composed almost entirely of spongy bone. The epiphyses are on the ends of the bone while the diaphysis is the "shank" of the bone. The diaphysis in long bones has a large medullary cavity while the epiphyses do not.

What are the differences between the diaphysis and the epiphyses of long bones?

b

What can a deficiency of growth hormone during bone formation cause? A) decreased osteoclast activity B) decreased epiphyseal plate activity C) increased osteoclast activity D) inadequate calcification of bone

Blood vessels and nerve fibers.

What is found in a Haversian canal?

a

What is the structural unit of compact bone? A) the osteon B) lamellar bone C) osseous matrix D) spongy bone

hyaline cartilage

What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo? A) elastic connective tissue B) dense fibrous connective tissue C) fibrocartilage D) hyaline cartilage

d

When an osteoblast becomes completely surrounded by its own matrix secretions it is referred to as an ________. A) osteogenic cell B) chondrocyte C) osteoclast D) osteocyte

a

Which bone would likely take the longest to heal? A) thigh bone of an elderly individual B) finger bone of a young individual C) thigh bone of a young individual D) finger bone of an elderly individual

greenstick

Which fracture would be least likely in a 92-year-old? A) compression B) greenstick C) comminuted D) spiral

parathyroid hormone

Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream? A) calcitonin B) thyroxine C) parathyroid hormone D) estrogen

thyroid

Which of the following glands or organs produces hormones that tend to decrease blood calcium levels? A) pineal gland B) thyroid C) parathyroid D) spleen

communication

Which of the following is (are) not the function(s) of the skeletal system? A) support B) storage of minerals C) production of blood cells (hematopoiesis) D) communication

a

Which of the following is implicated in osteoporosis in older women? A) estrogen deficiency due to menopause B) heritage such as African or Mediterranean C) poor posture D) abnormal PTH receptors

b

Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system? A) production of blood cells (hematopoiesis) B) communication C) storage of minerals D) support

b

Which of the following is the single most important stimulus for epiphyseal plate activity during infancy and childhood? A) calcium B) growth hormone C) thyroid hormone D) parathyroid hormon

b

Which of the following statements best describes interstitial growth of cartilage? A) Unspecialized cells from mesenchyme develop into chondrocytes, which divide and form cartilage. B) Chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix, allowing the cartilage to grow from within. C) Growth occurs in the lining of the long bones. D) Fibroblasts give rise to chondrocytes that differentiate and form cartilage

Chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix, allowing the cartilage to grow from within

Which of the following statements best describes interstitial growth? A) Growth occurs in the lining of the long bones. B) Fibroblasts give rise to chondrocytes that differentiate and form cartilage. C) Unspecialized cells from mesenchyme develop into chondrocytes, which divide and form cartilage. D) Chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix, allowing the cartilage to grow from within.

c

Which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood? A) epiphyseal line B) lacuna C) epiphyseal plate D) osteon

Periosteum

White, double-layered membrane that covers external surfaces except joint surfaces. -outer fibrous layer of dense irregular connective tissue -many nerve fibers and blood vessels -anchoring points for tendons and ligaments

Bones of children are not completely calcified, with a higher ratio of more flexible organic fibers. Bones in the elderly are more completely calcified, which gives the characteristic of rigidity.

Why are the bones of young children much more flexible than those of the elderly?

The type of sweat gland that begins to function at puberty and is involved in sexual signaling is A) apocrine. B) eccrine. C) sebaceous. D) holocrine.

a) apocrine

"Goose bumps" on the skin are due to action of the A) arrector pili muscles. B) sweat glands. C) sebaceous glands. D) flexion creases.

a) arrector pili muscles

The type of skin cancer that is most common and has the lowest metastasis rate is A) basal cell carcinoma. B) squamous cell carcinoma. C) malignant melanoma. D) leukopenia.

a) basal cell carcinaoma

The appearance of wrinkles in skin with age is largely due to changes in the A) collagen and elastic fibers in the dermis. B) keratin of the epidermis. C) carotene in the epidermis. D) blood vessels in the dermis.

a) collagen and elastic fibers in the dermis

Diffusion of chemicals from a transdermal patch must reach what layer of the skin to be effective? A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis

a) dermis

Identify the layer of the skin that contains most of the sensory receptors. A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis

a) dermis

Visible stretch marks on the skin surface are actually the result of microscopic tears in collagen fibers in which layer? A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis

a) dermis

When a blister forms due to friction, liquid pools between the epidermis and what other layer of the integument? A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis

a) dermis

choose the anatomical topic and definition that is not correctly matched

cytology; study of structures in a particular region

The colour of red or blonde hair is due to A) carotene. B) oxygenated hemoglobin. C) porphyrins. D) a different type of melanin.

d) a different type of melanin

he reticular layer of the dermis consists of ________ connective tissue. A) reticular B) stratified squamous C) dense regular D) dense irregular

d) dense irregular

An appendage or layer of the skin that does not develop from ectoderm is the A) stratum spinosum. B) hair follicle. C) stratum corneum. D) dermis.

d) dermis

Which connective tissue layer is discussed in the chapter on the integumentary system but is truly not a part of it? A) dermal papilla B) hair C) nail D) hypodermis

d) hypodermis

The thickness of skin is determined by the presence of the stratum lucidum and the thickness of the A) papillary layer of the dermis. B) reticular layer of the dermis. C) stratum basale. D) stratum corneum.

d) stratum corneum

First-degree burns are the most severe type of burn.

false

If you are truly "smelly" after a workout that causes you to work up a sweat, the smell is due to secretions from your eccrine glands.

false

Keratinocytes begin to die in the stratum granulosum.

false

consumer goods made of leather are produced from the subcutaneous adipose layer of animals.

false

the contraction of skeletal muscle cells of the arrector pili muscles, attached to hair follicles, causes "goose bumps."

false

the right hypochondriac region contains the majority of the stomach

false

the ability to sense changes in the environment and respond to them is called

irritability

in which abdominopelvic cavity is the stomach located ?

left upper

Movement (functions of bones)

levers for muscle action

the parietal pleural would represent a serous membrane

lining the thoracic cavity

Axial Skeleton

long axis of body, skull, vertebral column, and rib cage

The stratum ________ lies between the stratum granulosum and the stratum corneum of thick skin.

lucidum

the immune system is closely associated with the

lymphatic system

Osteocytes

mature bone cells in lacunae. Monitor and maintain the bone matrix.

fully describe the anatomical position for the human body

the body is erect, arms hanging at the sides, palms forward and thumbs pointed away from the midline

The letter A in the ABCD rule for melanoma detection stands for asymmetry.

true

a major function of serous membranes is to decrease friction

true

without some sort of negative feedback mechanism it would be impossible to keep our body chemistry in balance

true

Comminuted

Bone fragments into many pieces

Osteoblasts

Bone-forming cells. secrete osteoids and that includes collagen and calcium binding proteins

Osteoclasts

Bone-resorbing cell

Bone only appears lifeless in gross anatomy. Microscopically, bone is full of cells and blood vessels which maintain and renew bone tissue. Approximately 5 to 7% of our bone mass is recycled each week. Up to 0.5 g of calcium may enter or leave the bones each day, depending on the negative feedback hormonal mechanism and gravitational forces.

Bones appear to be lifeless structures. Does bone material renew itself?

c

Bones are constantly undergoing resorption (breaking bone down) for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process? A) osteoblast B) stem cell C) osteoclast D) osteocyte

osteoclast

Bones are constantly undergoing resorption for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process? A) osteoclast B) osteocyte C) osteoblast D) stem cell

osteoblasts and osteoclasts

Bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner (osteogenic) layer consists primarily of ________. A) cartilage and compact bone B) marrow and osteons C) osteoblasts and osteoclasts D) chondrocytes and osteocytes

a

Bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner (osteogenic) layer consists primarily of ________. A) osteogenic cells B) chondrocytes and osteocytes C) dense irregular connective tissue D) cartilage and compact bone

Appendicular Skeleton

Bones of the upper and lower limbs. Different girdles attach limbs to axial skeleton

Head

Bony expansion carried on a narrow neck

Arm

Branchial

A(n) ________ responds to the movement of a single hair. A) arrector pili muscle B) hair matrix C) hair papilla D) root hair plexus

D) root hair plexus

7) First-degree burn

H) burn in which only the epidermis becomes red and swollen

Lungs

Thoracic

Stomach

abdominopelvic

the stomach is to the spine

anterior

produces antibodies that neutralize foreign substances

immune

what is the serous membrane that covers the intestines called

visceral

choose the following statement that is not completely correct regarding serous membranes

visceral pericardium covers the surface of the heart and parietal pericardium lines the walls of the heart.

The vitamin produced by the skin is vitamin ________.

vitamin D

the single most abundant chemical substances of the body accounting for 60% to 80% of body weight is

water

what is the single most abundant chemical substance in the body

water

what does the principle of complementarity of structures and functions mean

what a structure can do depends on its specific form or structure determines function

can lungs carry out excretory functions

yes, carbon dioxide is a metabolic waste the lungs excrete

Hyaline Cartilage

-Provides support, flexibility and resilience. -Made up of collagen fibers -Articular, costal, respiratory, nasal cartilage

Elastic Cartilage

-Similar to hyaline but contain elastic fibers. -External ear and epiglottis

Flat Bones

-Thin, flat, slightly curved -sternum, scapulae, ribs, most skull bones

Short Bones

-cube-shaped bones (wrist and ankle) -sesamoid bones (within tendons) -vary in size and number

Types of growth of cartilage

1. Appositional Growth 2. Interstitial Growth 3. Calcification of Cartilage

What are the two classifications of bones? How many bones in skeleton?

1. Axial Skeleton 2. Appendicular Skeleton 206 bones in skeleton

What are the three levels of structure for Bones

1. Gross Anatomy 2. Microscopic 3. Chemical

Types of Skeletal Cartilage

1. Hyaline Cartilage 2. Elastic Cartilage 3. Fibrocartilage

What are the different bone shapes?

1. Long bones 2. Short Bones 3. Flat Bones 4. Irregular Bones

What are the five major cell types

1. Osteogenic Cells 2. Osteoblasts 3. Osteocytes 4. Bone lining cells 5. Osteoclasts

Functions of bones (7)

1. Support 2. Protection 3. Movement 4. Mineral and growth factor storage 5. Blood cell formation 6. Triglyceride (fat) storage 7. Hormone production SPMMBTH Acronym: Someone Please Move My Blood Transfusion Here

Average body temperature is

37 degrees centigrade

12) The sebaceous and sweat glands associated with the skin are classified as ________ glands because they release secretions to the skin's surface via ducts. A) exocrine B) endocrine C) serous D) mucous

A

13) A needle pierces through the epidermal layers of the forearm in the following order: 1. stratum basale 2. stratum corneum 3. stratum granulosum 4. stratum lucidum 5. stratum spinosum A) 2, 3, 5, 1, 4 B) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2 C) 2, 4, 3, 5, 1 D) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4 E) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5

A

15) The "tanning" effect (darkening of the skin) that occurs when a person is exposed to the sun is due to ________. A) melanin B) keratin C) oil D) Langerhans cells E) sweat

A

17) The white crescent area located over the nail matrix is called the ________. A) lunule B) cuticle C) matrix D) bed

A

18) A splinter penetrates to the deepest layer of the epidermis on your foot. This layer is the ________. A) stratum basale B) stratum corneum C) stratum granulosum D) stratum lucidum E) stratum spinosum

A

19) The Staphylococcus infection of the skin that causes pink, water-filled, raised lesions is known as ________. A) impetigo B) cold sores C) psoriasis D) contact dermatitis

A

26) The type of epithelial tissue found lining organs of the digestive system such as the small intestines is ________. A) simple columnar B) simple cuboidal C) pseudostratified columnar D) simple squamous

A

28) ________ tissue is commonly called fat. A) Adipose B) Bone C) Reticular D) Dense fibrous

A

29) ________ muscle tissue has no visible striations and has spindle-shaped cells. A) Smooth B) Cardiac C) Skeletal D) Dense regular

A

3) Synovial fluid reduces friction ________. A) in movable joints such as the knee B) between the visceral and parietal layers of serous membranes C) inside the lungs D) as the heart beats E) around the brain

A

30) A tissue constructed of a single layer of flattened cells is known as ________. A) simple squamous epithelium B) simple columnar epithelium C) simple cuboidal epithelium D) stratified squamous epithelium E) transitional epithelium

A

32) Sebum is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) body temperature regulation B) makes the skin oilier during adolescence C) kills bacteria on the skin's surface D) keeps the skin soft and moist E) prevents hair follicles from brittleness

A

33) A genetic switch turns on male pattern baldness in response to ________. A) age B) size C) weight D) male hormones E) female hormones

A

39) Which of these characteristics best describes cardiac muscle tissue? A) movement is involuntary and cells possess striations B) attached to the skeleton C) movement is voluntary and cells possess striations D) single nucleus and spindle-shaped cells E) multinucleate and long, cylindrical cells

A

4) Which of the following is a connective tissue membrane? A) synovial membrane B) cutaneous membrane C) mucous membrane D) serous membrane E) pleural membrane

A

8) The ________ membrane lines the fibrous capsule surrounding joints. A) synovial B) serous C) mucous D) cutaneous

A

8) Which of the following is a vital function of the skin? A) It converts modified epidermal cholesterol to vitamin D. B) It aids in the transport of materials throughout the body. C) The cells of the epidermis store glucose as glycogen for energy. D) It absorbs vitamin C so that the skin will not be subject to diseases. E) It aids in desiccation.

A

sesamoid

A bone embedded in a tendon is called a ________ bone.

nerve

A central (Haversian) canal may contain arteries, veins, capillaries, lymph vessels, and ________ fibers.

diaphysis

A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the ________. A) epiphysis B) metaphysis C) diaphysis D) articular cartilage

c

A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the ________. A) metaphysis B) articular cartilage C) diaphysis D) epiphysis

comminuted

A fracture in which a bone is broken into many pieces would be classified as a ________ fracture.

endochondral

A long bone forms by a process known as ________ ossification.

fissure

A narrow slitlike opening in bones is called a ________ .

foramen

A round or oval hole through a bone that contains blood vessels and/or nerves is called a ________.

13) Stratum corneum

A) Superficial layer of the epidermis made of 20-30 cell layers of dead, keratin-filled cells

1) Malignant melanoma

A) cancer of melanocytes

25) Type of tissue that consists of living cells surrounded by an extracellular matrix

A) connective tissue

30) Type of tissue that contains collagen, elastic, or reticular fibers

A) connective tissue

32) Type of tissue that supports, protects, and binds tissues together

A) connective tissue

33) Type of tissue that can be classified as loose or dense

A) connective tissue

21) Type of membrane that secretes fluids around organs

A) serous membrane

22) Type of membrane that contains a visceral and a parietal layer

A) serous membrane

25) Peritoneum, pericardium, and pleura are examples of this type of membrane

A) serous membrane

22) A chemical imbalance in the body can cause the heart to stop pumping blood, which in turn will cause other tissues and organs to cease functioning. This observation supports the view that A) all organisms are composed of cells. B) all levels of organization within an organism are interdependent. C) chemical molecules make up cells. D) blood has magical properties. E) congenital defects can be life-threatening.

Answer: B

Paget's Disease

Abnormal bone formation and reabsorption

Greenstick

An incomplete fracture or cracking of the bone without actual separation of the parts. Common in children

1) ________ is considered the oldest medical science. A) Anatomy B) Biology C) Physiology D) Cytology E) Embryology

Answer: A

12) Organ physiology is to ________ as gross anatomy is to ________. A) cell physiology; microscopic anatomy B) macroscopic anatomy; unbalance C) equilibrium; macroscopic anatomy D) balance; equilibrium E) imbalance; microscopic anatomy

Answer: A

15) Which organ system transports nutrients, metabolic wastes, gases, and defense cells? A) cardiovascular B) digestive C) muscular D) respiratory E) urinary

Answer: A

18) The pituitary gland and thyroid gland are organs of the ________ system. A) endocrine B) cardiovascular C) respiratory D) lymphatic E) digestive

Answer: A

27) When body temperature rises, a center in the brain initiates physiological changes to decrease the body temperature. This is an example of A) negative feedback. B) positive feedback. C) nonhomeostatic regulation. D) diagnostic regulation. E) fever.

Answer: A

32) An example of a receptor in a negative feedback loop controlling body temperature would be A) temperature sensors on the skin that detect a stimulus. B) sweat glands that increase secretion. C) regulatory centers that send commands to an effector. D) effectors that cause blood vessels to dilate. E) sweat glands that act like effectors.

Answer: A

33) The integrating center for the negative feedback loop that regulates body temperature is the A) hypothalamus. B) skin. C) temperature sensor. D) positive feedback center. E) thermostat.

Answer: A

4) The analysis of the internal structure of individual cells is called A) cytology. B) histology. C) embryology. D) physiology. E) anatomy.

Answer: A

47) Terms of anatomical direction are used to describe A) one body part in relation to another. B) surgical procedures. C) a supine position. D) the nervous system. E) living matter.

Answer: A

50) The liver is primarily located in the ________ quadrant. A) right upper B) left upper C) right lower D) left lower E) hepatic

Answer: A

59) Visceral pericardium is located A) on the heart itself. B) lining the pleural cavity. C) lining the pericardial cavity. D) on the lung itself. E) lining the peritoneal cavity.

Answer: A

61) Identify a structure located within the mediastinum. A) pericardial cavity B) small intestine C) lung D) spleen E) stomach

Answer: A

9) The study of the function of specific organ systems is called A) systemic physiology. B) organ physiology. C) cell physiology. D) pathological physiology. E) histology.

Answer: A

24) Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the endocrine system? A) releases chemical messengers called hormones B) produces a more rapid response than the nervous system C) produces effects that last for days or longer D) produces an effect that involves several organs or tissues at the same time E) important homeostatic system

Answer: B

26) The maintenance of a relatively constant internal environment in an organism is termed A) positive feedback. B) homeostasis. C) negative feedback. D) effector control. E) integration.

Answer: B

29) This type of feedback exaggerates the effects of variations from normal. A) negative B) positive C) neutral D) depressing E) All of the answers are correct.

Answer: B

30) If a response decreases a disturbance, the control system is classified as a ________ feedback system. A) deficit B) negative C) neutral D) polarized E) positive

Answer: B

38) The heart is ________ to the lungs. A) lateral B) medial C) posterior D) proximal E) distal

Answer: B

39) The wrist is ________ to the elbow. A) proximal B) distal C) lateral D) medial E) horizontal

Answer: B

45) A person lying on the bed and gazing at the ceiling is in the ________ position. A) prone B) supine C) anatomical D) dorsal E) caudal

Answer: B

48) While standing erect, the direction of caudal is A) toward the head. B) toward the heel. C) lateral to the trunk. D) medial to the sides. E) posterior to the head.

Answer: B

5) The study of the general form and superficial markings of an organism is called ________ anatomy. A) gross B) surface C) systemic D) regional E) surgical

Answer: B

55) The serous membrane covering the stomach and most of the intestines is called the A) pericardium. B) peritoneum. C) pleura. D) mediastinum. E) abdomen.

Answer: B

56) Which of the following organs is located between the peritoneum and the body wall? A) stomach B) kidney C) urinary bladder D) large intestine E) spleen

Answer: B

6) The study of the superficial and internal features in a specific area of the body is called ________ anatomy. A) surface B) regional C) surgical D) pathological E) radiographic

Answer: B

8) The study of the first two months of development is termed A) histology. B) embryology. C) cytology. D) pathology. E) organology.

Answer: B

10) Cardiovascular function is an example of A) histophysiology. B) organ physiology. C) systemic physiology. D) pathological physiology. E) physiological chemistry.

Answer: C

11) The study of the liver is to gross anatomy as the study of a liver cell is to A) physiology. B) regional anatomy. C) cytology. D) systemic anatomy. E) radiographic anatomy.

Answer: C

14) Which organ system provides support, protection of soft tissue, mineral storage, and blood formation? A) integumentary B) muscular C) skeletal D) nervous E) endocrine

Answer: C

19) Which organ system removes carbon dioxide from the bloodstream? A) cardiovascular B) lymphatic C) respiratory D) digestive E) endocrine

Answer: C

20) Lungs are to the respiratory system as the liver is to the ________ system. A) lymphatic B) urinary C) digestive D) cardiovascular E) nervous

Answer: C

21) Skin, hair, and nails are associated with the ________ system. A) skeletal B) muscular C) integumentary D) endocrine E) immune

Answer: C

23) In general, the nervous system does each of the following, except A) help to maintain homeostasis. B) respond rapidly to change. C) direct long-term responses to change. D) direct very specific responses. E) interpret sensory information.

Answer: C

25) The central principle of physiology is A) nutrition. B) reflexes. C) homeostasis. D) stimulation. E) temperature regulation.

Answer: C

3) Anatomy is to ________ as physiology is to ________. A) function; form B) form; structure C) structure; function D) structure; form

Answer: C

36) A person who is standing facing forward with hands at the sides and palms facing forward is in the A) supine position. B) prone position. C) anatomical position. D) frontal position. E) sagittal position.

Answer: C

41) Which of the following regions corresponds to the buttocks? A) pelvic B) cephalic C) gluteal D) lumbar E) thoracic

Answer: C

44) A midsagittal section of the body would pass through the A) kidney. B) lung. C) heart. D) spleen. E) leg.

Answer: C

46) The plane that separates the abdominal and the pelvic cavities is A) the mediastinum. B) sagittal on the brachium. C) transverse at the hips. D) midsagittal on the trunk. E) superior to the thorax.

Answer: C

58) Which of the following organs is not contained within the abdominal cavity? A) stomach B) small intestine C) ovary D) spleen E) pancreas

Answer: C

17) The kidneys and ureters are organs of the ________ system. A) endocrine B) digestive C) respiratory D) urinary E) lymphatic

Answer: D

28) A cell or an organ that responds to commands of the control center in negative feedback is termed a(n) A) receptor. B) thermoregulator. C) hypothalamus. D) effector. E) stimulus.

Answer: D

37) An anatomical term that means the same as ventral: A) posterior B) inferior C) abdominal D) anterior E) superior

Answer: D

40) The chin is ________ to the nose. A) anterior B) superior C) posterior D) inferior E) medial

Answer: D

53) The two major divisions of the ventral body cavity are the A) pelvic and thoracic. B) cranial and sacral. C) lateral and medial. D) thoracic and abdominopelvic. E) dorsal and ventral.

Answer: D

13) Which of the following is arranged in correct order from the most complex to the simplest? A) cellular, tissue, molecular, system, organ, organism B) molecular, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism C) tissue, cellular, molecular, organ, system, organism D) organ, organism, molecular, cellular, tissue, system E) organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, molecular

Answer: E

16) Which organ system includes the spleen and the tonsils? A) digestive B) endocrine C) nervous D) cardiovascular E) lymphatic

Answer: E

2) Which of the following study methods are useful for anatomy and physiology courses? A) Read the lecture sections before class. B) Devote a block of time for study. C) Do not procrastinate. D) Develop memorization skills. E) All of the answers are correct.

Answer: E

31) If a response increases a disturbance, the control system is classified as a ________ feedback system. A) deficit B) negative C) neutral D) polarized E) positive

Answer: E

34) The quadrants of the abdominopelvic region include all of the following except: A) right upper quadrant (RUQ) B) right lower quadrant (RLQ) C) left upper quadrant (LUQ) D) left lower quadrant (LLQ) E) pelvic quadrant

Answer: E

35) Which of the following is not considered an abdominopelvic region? A) right hypochondriac B) right inguinal region C) left lumbar D) left hypochondriac E) upper

Answer: E

42) Which of the following terms refers to the foot? A) cervical B) brachial C) antebrachial D) femoral E) pedal

Answer: E

43) Which plane divides the body into right and left parts? A) proximal B) frontal C) orthogonal D) transverse E) sagittal

Answer: E

49) While standing in the anatomical position, A) front refers to anterior. B) front refers to ventral. C) back refers to posterior. D) back refers to dorsal. E) All of the answers are correct.

Answer: E

51) The urinary bladder is found in the ________ quadrant and the ________ quadrant. A) right upper; right lower B) left upper; left lower C) right upper; right lower D) left upper; right upper E) right lower; left lower

Answer: E

54) The thoracic cavity contains the A) coelom. B) pericardial cavity. C) pelvic cavity. D) pleural cavities. E) pericardial and pleural cavities.

Answer: E

60) The mediastinum A) contains the pleural cavities. B) separates the pleural cavities. C) contains the pericardial cavity. D) contains the pleural cavities and pericardial cavity. E) separates the pleural cavities and includes the pericardial cavity.

Answer: E

List the layers of the epidermis found in thick skin from the deepest layer to the most superficial layer, and provide a few descriptive terms that characterize each layer.

Answer: Stratum basale: single layer of cells, rapid mitosis. Stratum spinosum: keratinocytes have spiny extensions seen in prepared slides. Stratum granulosum: cells have keratohyalin and lamellated granules. Stratum lucidum: cells are thin, dead keratinocytes. Stratum corneum: outer layer of dead, thin cells filled with keratin, surrounded by lipids.

Bones

Are organs that contain different types of tissue. 1. Osseous Tissue 2. Nervous Tissue 3. Fibrous Connective Tissue 4. Muscle and Epithelial cells in its blood vessels

Epiphyseal plate

Area where bone longitudal growth takes place

Describe the effects of postpubescent aging on sebaceous glands, melanocytes, and the structure of the dermis

As an individual ages, sebaceous glands decrease their activity. The resulting decline in sebum causes itchy, dry skin. Exposure to UV light causes accumulations of melanin to produce freckles and liver spots. It may also cause various forms of skin cancer. These damaging rays also alter collagen and elastin fibers, causing the skin to become wrinkled, loose, and inelastic.

a

At an archeological site you discover a bone that is cylindrical in shape, about one inch long and a quarter of an inch wide. Choose the correct classification. A) long B) irregular C) sesamoid D) short

at epiphyseal plates

At the end of secondary ossification, hyaline cartilage can be found:

a

At what age do bones reach their peak density? A) early adulthood B) at birth C) early childhood D) late adulthood

10) The epidermis is composed of ________. A) simple columnar epithelium B) stratified squamous epithelium C) adipose tissue D) areolar tissue E) dense fibrous connective tissue

B

14) The type of burn that involves injury to the epidermis and the upper region of the dermis and is red, blistered, and painful is termed as a ________-degree burn. A) first B) second C) third D) fourth

B

14) Which of the following homeostatic imbalances is caused by a herpes simplex infection? A) athlete's foot B) cold sores C) impetigo D) contact dermatitis E) cyanosis

B

15) The white, cheesy-looking substance that is produced by the sebaceous glands and protects a baby's skin while it is floating in its water-filled sac inside the mother is called ________. A) lanugo B) vernix caseosa C) milia D) vellus

B

17) People who produce a lot of melanin have a skin tone that is ________. A) green B) brown C) blue D) pink E) orange

B

25) The secretions of the eccrine glands are ________. A) primarily uric acid B) mostly water, sodium chloride, and trace amounts of wastes, lactic acid, and vitamin C C) fatty substances, proteins, antibodies, and trace amounts of minerals and vitamins D) solely metabolic wastes E) basic

B

27) Hairs are found associated with the ________. A) palms of the hands B) axillary region C) lips D) nipples E) soles of the feet

B

29) What skin disorder is recognized using the ABCD rule? A) squamous cell carcinoma B) melanoma C) psoriasis D) basal cell carcinoma E) impetigo

B

30) Many layers of flattened cells should be termed ________ epithelial tissue. A) stratified columnar B) stratified squamous C) pseudostratified columnar D) simple squamous

B

34) The tissue that is usually well vascularized and has an extensive extracellular matrix is called ________. A) epithelial tissue B) connective tissue C) nervous tissue D) muscle tissue E) brain tissue

B

38) Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than through ducts are classified as ________. A) exocrine B) endocrine C) sebaceous D) ceruminous E) sudoriferous

B

41) The presence of chondrocytes indicates that a tissue is ________. A) adipose B) cartilage C) bone D) blood E) areolar

B

42) Damaged tissues that are repaired by the same kind of cells experience a replacement process known as ________. A) inflammation B) regeneration C) fibrosis D) scarring E) clotting

B

46) Which of the following tissues is constructed of many collagen fibers? A) blood B) scar tissue C) transitional epithelium D) pseudostratified columnar epithelium E) simple cuboidal epithelium

B

5) The only dry membrane is the ________. A) synovial membrane B) cutaneous membrane C) mucous membrane D) serous membrane E) basement membrane

B

7) The pleura and pericardium are examples of ________ membranes that cover organs in a body cavity closed to the exterior. A) mucous B) serous C) cutaneous D) synovial

B

7) The skin and its derivatives (nails, glands, and hairs) form the ________. A) skeletal system B) integumentary system C) endocrine system D) immune system E) lymphatic system

B

15) Keratinocyte

B) Cell commonly found in the epidermis that produces keratin

In the ABCD rule for recognizing melanoma, the letter D stands for A) depth. B) diameter. C) dark. D) density.

B) Diameter

Any condition involving absence or loss of hair is called A) psoriasis. B) alopecia. C) impetigo. D) vitiligo.

B) alopecia.

6) Squamous cell carcinoma

B) cancer of stratum spinosum cells

Lamellated granules A) burst from sebaceous glands, releasing oils onto the skin. B) contain glycolipids that are secreted from cells in the stratum granulosum. C) help form keratin in fingernails. D) smooth the cuticle of a hair shaft to prevent split ends.

B) contain glycolipids that are secreted from cells in the stratum granulosum.

If you were to have liposuction, you would have tissue removed from which layer? A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis

B) hypodermis

Which layer of the integument is found deep to the dermis? A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis

B) hypodermis

Holocrine secretion A) differentiates the products of ceruminous and mammary glands from other sweat glands. B) involves the bursting of the glandular epithelial cell. C) produces a lipid-rich product that can be metabolized by bacteria. D) results from the exocytosis of protein-rich vesicles.

B) involves the bursting of the glandular epithelial cell.

28) Type of tissue that is found in the brain and spinal cord

B) nervous tissue

34) Type of tissue whose two functional characteristics are irritability and conductivity

B) nervous tissue

Which of the following is not a current hypothesis proposed for the evolution of skin color? A) preventing damage to DNA B) preventing damage to elastin C) protecting the level of folic acid D) protecting the level of vitamin D

B) preventing damage to elastin

Since apocrine glands are almost inactive until puberty, they may function primarily in A) cooling the body. B) sexual signalling, under the influence of androgens. C) keeping hair from falling out. D) strengthening melanin in the skin.

B) sexual signalling, under the influence of androgens.

23) Type of membrane that lines the fibrous capsules surrounding joints

B) synovial membrane

A partial-thickness burn involves A) the epidermis. B) the epidermis and papillary layer of the dermis. C) the epidermis and the entire dermis. D) the epidermis, dermis, and any portion of the hypodermis.

B) the epidermis and papillary layer of the dermis.

Which tissue layer deep to the integument acts as a shock and thermal insulator? A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis

B. hypodermis

hematopoiesis

Blood cell formation is called ________.

11) Jan got her microscope slides mixed up in lab as they were unlabeled. The slide with abundant adipose tissue should be labeled as the ________. A) epidermis B) papillary layer of the dermis C) subcutaneous tissue D) reticular layer of the dermis E) stratum corneum

C

12) The two main layers of skin are ________. A) papillary layer and reticular layer B) stratum basale and dermis C) epidermis and dermis D) stratum corneum and dermis E) epidermis and hypodermis

C

13) "Goosebumps" are caused by contractions of the ________. A) eccrine glands B) synovial membranes C) arrector pili muscles D) apocrine glands

C

22) Groups of cells that are similar in both structure and function are known as ________. A) organs B) organ systems C) tissues D) atoms

C

23) Which vitamin is synthesized by the skin? A) vitamin A B) vitamin C C) vitamin D D) vitamin E E) vitamin K

C

24) Nails are composed of ________. A) melanin B) hemoglobin C) keratin D) sebum E) carotene

C

27) The cell type found in nervous tissue is the ________. A) fibroblast B) osteocyte C) neuron D) chondrocyte

C

31) Which type of tissue conducts electrochemical impulses? A) epithelial tissue B) muscle tissue C) nervous tissue D) connective tissue E) dense tissue

C

40) The type of muscle found in the walls of hollow organs, such as the stomach, and in the walls of blood vessels is ________. A) cardiac muscle B) skeletal muscle C) smooth muscle D) both smooth muscle and skeletal muscle E) both cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle

C

47) Which type of connective tissue is avascular? A) adipose B) bone C) cartilage D) areolar E) reticular

C

49) Neurons and neuroglia are components of ________. A) epithelial tissue B) connective tissue C) nervous tissue D) muscle tissue E) granulation tissue

C

6) Where are mucous membranes found? A) lining joint cavities B) covering the heart C) lining the inside of the stomach D) covering the brain E) lining the abdominal cavity wall

C

In the ABCD rule of skin cancer, the letter B stands for A) big. B) blisters. C) border. D) baked skin.

C) Border

18) Stratum basale

C) Deepest layer of the epidermis that is situated closest to the dermis

The type of skin cancer that arises from keratinocytes of the stratum spinosum is A) basal cell carcinoma. B) malignant melanoma. C) squamous cell carcinoma. D) psoriasis.

C) Squamous cell carcinoma

Which layer of the epidermis contains keratohyalin granules and lamellated granules? A) stratum basale B) stratum corneum C) stratum granulosum D) stratum spinosum

C) Stratum granulosum

Excessive exposure to ultraviolet radiation (UVR) can lead to skin cancer, but minimal UVR exposure can lead to A) porphyria. B) vitiligo. C) vitamin D deficiency. D) ulcerative colitis.

C) Vitamin D deficiency

24) Type of membrane that lines open body cavities

C) mucous membrane

26) Type of tissue that is specialized to contract and produce movement

C) muscle tissue

29) Type of tissue that can be described as voluntary or involuntary

C) muscle tissue

The lunule, which represents the thickest part of the nail matrix is found at the A) body of the nail. B) eponychium. C) proximal part of the nail bed. D) dermis around the nail.

C) proximal part of the nail bed.

9) Impetigo

C) staphylococcus bacterial infection causing water-filled lesions, commonly around the mouth and nose

Tattoos are permanent because A) Langerhans cells do not recognize the pigments as foreign. B) the melanocytes are altered to produce different colors. C) the pigments are injected in the dermis. D) the pigments are injected in the stratum basale, which continuously replaces the superficial layers that are sloughed off.

C) the pigments are injected in the dermis.

Lanugo hair is replaced in a fetus by A) nominal hair. B) no hair. C) vellus hair. D) dermal hair.

C) vellus hair.

c

Cranial bones develop ________. A) from a tendon B) within osseous membranes C) within fibrous membranes D) from cartilage models

Is the human integumentary system best adapted for hot or cold climates? A) cold, because we have many skin features that keep us from overheating B) cold, because we have a thick hypodermis C) warm, because sweating cools us in hot climates but we would die in cold climates without clothing D) warm, because sebaceous glands aid us in hot climates but evaporative cooling would kill us in cold climates

C) warm, because sweating cools us in hot climates but we would die in cold climates without clothing

the secretion of new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage

Cartilage grows in two ways, appositional and interstitial. Appositional growth is ________. A) growth at the epiphyseal plate B) the secretion of new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage C) along the edges only D) the lengthening of hyaline cartilage

a

Cartilage grows in two ways, appositional and interstitial. What is appositional growth? A) the secretion of new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage B) the lengthening of hyaline cartilage C) along the edges only of existing osteons, making each osteon larger D) growth at the epiphyseal plate

high water content

Cartilage is found in strategic places in the human skeleton. What is responsible for the resilience of cartilage? A) high water content B) hydroxyapatite deposits C) calcium influx D) phosphate ions

Appositional Growth

Cells secrete matrix against external face of existing cartilage

Osteoblasts

Cells that can build bony matrix

Osteoclasts

Cells that can dissolve the bony matrix

Head

Cephalic

Interstitial Growth

Chondrocytes divide and secrete new matrix, expanding the cartilage from within.

a

Choose the best location for obtaining a red bone marrow sample from a patient. A) hip bone B) medullary cavity of femur C) head of humerus D) frontal bone

c

Choose the structures that most directly provide nutrients and remove wastes from osteocytes in compact bone. A) nutrient foramens B) perforating (Volkmann's) canals C) canaliculi D) central canals

c

Choose which bone marking type would likely increase in size when a weight lifter repeatedly exercises muscles that attach to it. A) meatus B) fossa C) trochanter D) foramen

Spiral

Common sports fracture resulting from a twisting force

The organic matrix contributes to the bone structure and its tensile strength, while the inorganic matrix contributes to hardness and resistance to compression.

Compare the function of the organic materials in the bone matrix with the function of the inorganic materials in the matrix.

Irregular Bones

Complicated shapes, vertebrae, coxal bones

Osteoporosis

Condition where bones are porous and thin but bone composition is normal

Brain

Cranial

within fibrous membranes

Cranial bones develop ________. A) from cartilage models B) within fibrous membranes C) from a tendon D) within osseous membranes

1) Which membrane is constructed of a visceral and parietal layer? A) synovial B) cutaneous C) mucous D) serous E) peritoneum

D

11) The three pigments that contribute to skin color are ________, ________, and ________. A) collagen; elastic; keratin B) melanin; jaundice; erythema C) sebum; sweat; urea D) melanin; carotene; hemoglobin

D

16) Hair color is due to a pigment known as ________. A) hemoglobin B) carotene C) keratin D) melanin

D

19) Which of the following kills bacteria and prevents bacterial invasions of the skin? A) sweat B) hemoglobin C) keratin D) sebum E) melanin

D

2) The deepest layer of the serous membrane covering the outer surface of the heart is the ________. A) parietal pericardium B) visceral pleura C) synovial layer D) visceral pericardium E) peritoneum

D

20) Nutrients reach the surface of the skin (epidermis) through the process of ________. A) absorption B) evaporation C) filtration D) diffusion E) osmosis

D

21) Which of the following letters in the ABCD rule for recognizing melanomas is incorrect? A) A stands for asymmetry B) B stands for border irregularity C) C stands for color D) D stands for diagnosis

D

22) In order to warm the body up when cold ________. A) vitamin D is synthesized B) sudoriferous glands release sweat C) sebaceous glands release oil D) the arrector pili muscles contract to stand hairs upright E) melanin is produced

D

25) ________ glands possess ducts that transport secretions onto epithelial surfaces. A) Endocrine B) Adrenal C) Thyroid D) Exocrine

D

28) Which of the following abnormal skin colors results from liver disorders? A) cyanosis B) pallor C) erythema D) jaundice E) bruising

D

30) A physician estimates the volume of fluid lost in a severely burned patient by ________. A) measuring urinary output and fluid intake B) observing the tissues that are usually moist C) blood analysis D) using the "rule of nines" E) performing enzyme studies

D

32) Which of the following is NOT classified as a connective tissue? A) bone B) cartilage C) blood D) skeletal muscle E) adipose

D

44) Jacinda tore her Achilles (calcaneal) tendon during a recent track meet. She has injured ________. A) muscle tissue B) loose connective tissue C) epithelial tissue D) dense connective tissue E) nervous tissue

D

9) The part of a hair that projects from the surface of the scalp or skin is called the ________. A) follicle B) root C) cuticle D) shaft

D

14) Papillary layer of dermis

D) Upper layer of the dermis that forms dermal papillae

The integumentary organs that are derived from mesoderm and function in thermoregulation are A) nails. B) hair. C) sebaceous glands. D) arrector pili muscles.

D) arrector pili muscles.

19) Type of membrane that forms the skin

D) cutaneous membrane

24) Type of tissue that has an apical surface and a basement membrane

D) epithelial tissue

27) Type of tissue that can be simple or stratified

D) epithelial tissue

31) Type of tissue that is common in glands and their ducts

D) epithelial tissue

The proximal nail fold is also called the nail's A) matrix. B) bed. C) lunule. D) eponychium.

D) eponychium.

11) Acne

D) infection of the sebaceous gland and the formation of pimples

Which of the following is a sensory receptor? A) keratinocyte B) melanocyte C) dendritic cell D) Pacinian corpuscle

D) pacinian corpuscle

what is the specific name for the hip region

coxal

Cleavage lines A) are scars resulting from overstretching of the dermis. B) attach the dermis to underlying bone and muscle. C) form the pattern of epidermal ridges known as fingerprints. D) run parallel to the orientation of collage bundles in the reticular layer.

D) run parallel to the orientation of collage bundles in the reticular layer.

Pimples begin A) as localized infections in the hypodermis. B) as tiny cuts and nicks in the skin. C) when bacteria enter sweat pores. D) when sebaceous glands become blocked by sebum.

D) when sebaceous glands become blocked by sebum.

Perichondrium

Dense connective tissue. Contains blood vessels for nutrients and resists outward expansion.

Compact Bone

Dense outer later; smooth and solid

Blood vessels enter through the periosteum into a perforating canal. The vessel may follow along the axis of the bone through a central canal. Osteocytes have long, almost dendritic-like extensions or arms that reach out through tiny holes called canaliculi. The canaliculi connect one cell to another and to the central canal. Oxygen would leave the blood vessel in the central canal and travel through the canaliculi from cell to cell until it reaches the cell in question.

Describe how oxygen is carried from outside a bone to an individual osteocyte.

Esophagus, large intestine, rectum

Digestive

Osteomalacia

Disease where bone formed is poorly mineralized and soft. Deforms on weight-bearing

16) The layer of the epidermis in which cells die because of their inability to get nutrients and oxygen is the clear layer called ________. A) stratum spinosum B) stratum granulosum C) stratum basale D) stratum corneum E) stratum lucidum

E

21) Fingerprints and footprints in the epidermis are created by dermal papillae present in the ________. A) reticular layer of the dermis B) subcutaneous tissue C) stratum lucidum D) hypodermis E) papillary layer of the dermis

E

26) The secretion of sweat is stimulated ________. A) by high temperatures B) when the air temperature drops C) by hormones, especially male sex hormones D) as a protective coating when one is swimming E) both by high temperatures and by hormones, especially male hormones

E

31) Which of the following is an indication of melanoma? A) a symmetrical mole B) a pigmented spot that has smooth borders C) a spot on the skin that is smaller than the size of a pencil eraser D) a pigmented spot that is black E) a pigmented spot that contains areas of different colors

E

33) Which type of tissue is situated in the lining of the urinary bladder and urethra where stretching occurs? A) simple cuboidal epithelium B) stratified squamous epithelium C) simple squamous epithelium D) pseudostratified columnar epithelium E) transitional epithelium

E

35) Which of the following epithelial tissues is composed of many layers of cells? A) pseudostratified columnar epithelium B) simple squamous epithelium C) simple columnar epithelium D) simple cuboidal epithelium E) stratified squamous epithelium

E

36) Bone is best described as ________. A) dense connective tissue B) epithelial tissue C) adipose tissue D) areolar tissue E) osseous tissue

E

37) Identify the type of connective tissue that is found in lymph nodes, the spleen, and bone marrow. A) adipose tissue B) dense connective tissue C) areolar tissue D) reticular connective tissue E) osseous tissue

E

50) Which tissue performs peristalsis to move substances, such as food, through the hollow organs of the body? A) skeletal muscle tissue B) transitional epithelium C) cardiac muscle tissue D) nervous tissue E) smooth muscle tissue

E

9) Although you get wet while swimming, a tough protein within the skin prevents it from soaking up moisture like a sponge. This substance is ________. A) serous fluid B) melanin C) mucus D) carotene E) keratin

E

17) Melanocyte

E) Cell that produces a pigment known as melanin

52) The diaphragm muscle separates the ________ from the ________. A) pleural cavity; mediastinum B) thoracic cavity; abdominopelvic cavity C) pericardial cavity; pleural cavity D) abdominal cavity; pelvic cavity E) pericardial sac; pericardial cavity

E) pericardial sac; pericardial cavity Answer: B

2) Dermatitis

E) skin inflammation

Osteogenic layer

Inner layer of the Periosteum. Contains primitive stem cells and osteogenic cells

Adrenal glands, pancreas, pituitary

Endocrine

16) Subcutaneous tissue

F) Hypodermis

8) Boils and carbuncles

F) inflammation of hair follicles and sebaceous glands

10) Sebaceous glands release sweat to help control body temperature.

FALSE

11) Sebaceous glands may be classified as eccrine or apocrine depending on their locations.

FALSE

12) Stratified epithelium consists of one layer of epithelial cells.

FALSE

13) Epithelial tissues are often well vascularized and contain an extracellular matrix.

FALSE

14) The reason that the nail bed appears pink is the presence of a large number of melanocytes in the underlying dermis.

FALSE

15) Joe just burned his hand on a hot pot. A blister forms and the burn is painful; Joe's burn would best be described as a third-degree, or full-thickness, burn.

FALSE

15) Muscle tissue is located in the brain, spinal cord, and nerves.

FALSE

18) The ABCD rule is used for classifying burns.

FALSE

19) Milia is most common during old age when secretions accumulate in the sebaceous glands.

FALSE

2) Serous membranes line and lubricate joint cavities such as the knee.

FALSE

drinking fluoridated water

Factors in preventing (or delaying) osteoporosis include ________. A) drinking fluoridated water B) decreasing weight-bearing exercise C) increasing dietary vitamin C D) decreasing exposure to the sun

An ossification center forms in the fibrous connective tissue

For intramembranous ossification to take place, which of the following is necessary? A) A bone collar forms around the cartilage model. B) An ossification center forms in the fibrous connective tissue. C) The cartilage matrix begins to deteriorate. D) A medullary cavity forms.

12) Epidermal dendritic cell

G) Cell responsible for alerting and activating an immune response to a bacterial or viral invasion

5) Basal cell carcinoma

G) malignancy of the lowest epidermal layer

growth horomones

Growth of bones is controlled by a symphony of hormones. Which hormone is important for bone growth during infancy and childhood? A) thyroid hormone B) somatomedins C) growth hormone D) prolactin

b

Growth of bones is controlled by a symphony of hormones. Which hormone is of greatest importance for bone growth during infancy and childhood? A) parathyroid hormone B) growth hormone C) calcitonin D) thyroid hormones

Spongy (Cancellous or trabecular)

Honeycomb of flat pieces of bone deep to compact called trabeculae

Intramembraneous ossification starts in connective tissue from mesenchymal cells that become osteoblasts. These osteoblasts cluster together into an ossification center. Endochondral ossification starts with a hyaline cartilage "template." Mesenchymal cells become osteoblasts and begin forming bone around the cartilage.

How is the beginning of intramembraneous ossification different from endochondral ossification?

Directly causes mechanical motion

Muscular

Responds to environmental changes by transmitting electrical impulses

Nervous

Skeletal Cartilage

No vessels or nerves, and water lends resiliency. The perichondrium surrounds

3) Dandruff

I) dry, dead flakes of stratum corneum

The parathyroid gland normally responds to low calcium ion levels in the blood and releases PTH which mobilizes osteoclasts to step up bone destruction, releasing more calcium into the bloodstream. If the parathyroid is not functioning properly it may release too much PTH or not respond at all, which seems to be the case here.

If your doctor notices a marked decrease in calcium ion levels in your blood, what gland might he suspect is not functioning properly and why?

decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage

In bone formation, a deficiency of growth hormone will cause ________. A) inadequate calcification of bone B) decreased osteoclast activity C) decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage D) increased osteoclast activity

c

In humans, the effect of the hormone calcitonin is to ________. A) increase blood calcium levels by inhibiting osteoblasts B) increase blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclasts C) temporarily decrease blood calcium levels when administered in large doses D) decrease mitosis of chondrocytes at the epiphyseal plate

elevated levels of sex hormones

In some cases the epiphyseal plate of the long bones of children closes too early. What might be the cause? A) overproduction of thyroid hormone B) elevated levels of sex hormones C) too much vitamin D in the diet D) osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast activity

a

In some cases the epiphyseal plate of the long bones of children closes too early. What might be the cause? A) elevated levels of sex hormones B) too much vitamin D in the diet C) overproduction of thyroid hormone D) osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast activity

by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis

In the epiphyseal plate, cartilage grows ________. A) by pulling the diaphysis toward the epiphysis B) by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis C) from the edges inward D) in a circular fashion

osteitis

Inflamation of bony tissue is called ________.

which of the following organs or structures would be found in the left iliac region?

Intestines

Electrical signals direct the remodeling process.

It is thought that remodeling or bone growth is in response to the forces placed on it. Which of the following hypotheses may explain how mechanical forces communicate with cells responsible for bone remodeling? A) Increase in the synthesis of growth hormone directs the remodeling process. B) Vitamin D enhances the remodeling process. C) Bone deposition by osteoclasts is responsible for remodeling. D) Electrical signals direct the remodeling process.

4) Herpes simplex

J) virus that produces cold sores

10) Third-degree, or full-thickness, burn

K) full thickness burn of the skin in which the skin becomes blackened or blanched (gray-white)

Name the location and function of these cells: keratinocytes, tactile epithelial cells, melanocytes, and dendritic cells.

Keratinocytes are found in all layers of the epidermis; they accumulate keratin and produce antimicrobial compounds and enzymes that protect the epidermis. Tactile epithelial cells are found in the stratum basale; they serve as touch receptors. Melanocytes are found in the stratum basale; they produce the pigment melanin, which protects the skin from UV radiation of the sun. Dendritic cells are found in the stratum spinosum; they function in immunity via receptor-mediated endocytosis.

calcium, phosphate, and vitamin D

Normal bone formation and growth are dependent on the adequate intake of ________. A) calcium, phosphate, and vitamin D B) potassium, phosphate, and vitamin D C) sodium, calcium, and vitamin E D) vitamin D, phosphate, and chloride

Trochanter

Large, blunt, irregularly shaped process

Lamellae

Layers of bone matrix

interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plates

Lengthwise, long bone growth during infancy and youth is exclusively through ________. A) interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plates B) the secretion of bone matrix into the medullary cavity C) differentiation of osteoclasts D) calcification of the matrix

b

Lengthwise, long bone growth during infancy and youth is exclusively through ________. A) calcification of the matrix of the zone underlying articular cartilage B) interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plates C) differentiation of osteoclasts into osteocytes D) the secretion of bone matrix into the medullary cavity

Hematoma formation, fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bony callus formation, and remodeling.

List the steps in the repair process of a simple fracture.

Long Bones

Longer than they are wide, limb, wrist, and ankle bones

removes and filters excess fluid from tissues

Lymphatic

which of the following imaging devices would best localize a tumor in a persons brain?

MRI

Gross Anatomy

Made up of bone textures compact and spongy bone

b

Ossification (Osteogenesis) is the process of ________. A) making collagen fibers for calcified cartilage B) bone formation C) bone destruction to liberate calcium D) making a cartilage model of the fetal bone

is produced by secondary ossification centers

Ossification of the ends of long bones ________. A) is a characteristic of intramembranous bone formation B) involves medullary cavity formation C) is produced by secondary ossification centers D) takes twice as long as diaphysis

d

Ossification of the ends of long bones ________. A) is a characteristic of intramembranous bone formation B) involves medullary cavity formation C) takes twice as long as diaphysis ossification D) is produced by secondary ossification center

pain in a bone

Ostealgia is ________________. A) a defect called clubfoot B) a disease of the bone C) pain in a bone D) fractured bone

How do Canaliculi form?

Osteoblasts secreting bone matrix maintain contact with each other and osteocytes via cell projections with gap junctions. When the matrix hardens and cells are trapped the canaliculi form.

bone formation

Osteogenesis is the process of ________. A) making a cartilage model of the fetal bone B) bone destruction to liberate calcium C) bone formation D) making collagen fibers for calcified cartilage

due to pus-forming bacteria

Osteomyelitis is ________. A) partially due to insufficient dietary calcium B) literally known as "soft bones" C) due to pus-forming bacteria D) caused by altered vitamin D metabolism

Knee ( anterior aspect)

Patellar

d

Prevention of osteoporosis includes adequate intake of ________. A) potassium and vitamin D B) vitamin D and chloride C) calcium, and vitamin E D) calcium and vitamin D

Blood cell formation (functions of bones)

creates blood cells in bone marrow

Trachea, bronchi, alveoli

Respiratory

a deficiency of vitamin D

Rickets can be caused by:

Condyle

Rounded articular projection

d

Select the bone disorder in which bone resorption outpaces bone deposit, leaving the person with thin and often very fragile bones? A) osteomalacia B) rickets C) Paget's disease D) osteoporosis

The sternum (breastbone) is a good source of blood-forming tissue.

Select the correct statement concerning the location of blood-forming tissue. A) There is blood-forming marrow in the diaphysis of most long bones of an adult. B) The sternum (breastbone) is a good source of blood-forming tissue. C) There is blood-forming marrow in most short bones of an adult. D) Blood-forming tissue is found in the skull and pelvic bones only.

To keep bones in proper dimensions, PTH and calcitonin are the major determinants of whether and when remodeling will occur in response to changing blood calcium.

Several hormones control the remodeling of bones. Which two respond to changing blood calcium levels?

Fossa

Shallow, basin like depression in a bone, often serving as an articular surface.

Spine

Sharp, slender, often pointed projection

Provides support and levers for muscles to work on

Skeletal

a

Skeletal remains are discovered at an archeological site. X-rays of the femur show evidence of a thin epiphyseal plate. This bone likely belonged to which of the following? A) 18 year old male B) 25 year old female C) 8 year old female D) 60 year old male

Canaliculi

Small channels that radiate through the matrix of bone

Facet

Smooth, nearly flat articular surface

trabeculae

Spongy bones are made up of a framework called ________. A) osteons B) lamellar bone C) trabeculae D) osseous lamellae

False; flat bones

T or F: All bones formed by intramembranous ossification are irregular bones.

True

T or F: An osteon contains osteocytes, lamellae, and a central canal, and is found in compact bone only.

False; childhood to adolescence

T or F: Bone tissue in the skeleton of a human fetus is completely formed at six months' gestation.

False

T or F: Bones are classified by whether they are weight-bearing or protective in function.

True

T or F: Cartilage has a flexible matrix which can accomodate mitosis of chrondrocytes.

False

T or F: Compact bone is replaced more often than spongy bone.

True

T or F: Each consecutive bone lamella has collagen fibers that wrap in alternating directions.

True

T or F: Hematopoiesis refers to the formation of blood cells within the red marrow cavities of certain bones

False

T or F: In newborn infants, the medullary cavity and all areas of spongy bone contain yellow bone marrow.

False

T or F: Short, irregular, and flat bones have large marrow cavities in order to keep the weight of the bones light.

True

T or F: Sixty-five percent of the mass of bone is a compound called hydroxyapatite.

False

T or F: The periosteum is a tissue that serves only to protect the bone because it is not supplied with nerves or blood vessels.

True

T or F: The structural unit of compact bone (osteon) resembles the growth rings of a tree trunk.

Describe the location, characteristics, and function of the hypodermis.

The hypodermis, or superficial fascia, is just deep to the dermal layer of the skin. It is composed primarily of adipose tissue, covered by a more superficial areolar connective tissue. Its functions include thermal and shock insulation, nutrient storage, and anchors the skin to underlying tissues.

hyaline

The most abundant skeletal cartilage type is ________. A) hyaline B) elastic C) fibrocartilage D) epiphyseal

a

The periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by ________. A) perforating (Sharpey's) fibers B) Volkmann's canals C) a bony matrix with hyaline cartilage D) the struts of bone known as spicules

Perforating (Sharpey's) fibers

The periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by dense connective tissue called ________. A) Volkmann's canals B) a bony matrix with hyaline cartilage C) Perforating (Sharpey's ) fibers D) the struts of bone known as spicules

b

The process of bones increasing in thickness is known as ________. A) closing of the epiphyseal plate B) appositional growth C) epiphyseal plate closure D) concentric growth

appositional growth

The process of bones increasing in width is known as ________. A) closing of the epiphyseal plate B) long bones reaching adult length and width C) appositional growth D) concentric growth

b

The pubic symphysis connects the two hip bones anteriorly and provides a little movement during childbirth. Choose the most appropriate tissue for this structure that is subjected to both pressure and stretch. A) elastic cartilage B) fibrocartilage C) hyaline cartilage D) bone

d

The resilience of bone is thought to come from which of the following? A) presence of osteoblasts in the bone B) amount of mineral salt and protein in the bone C) amount of mineral salts in the bone D) sacrificial bonds in or between collagen molecules

lacunae

The small spaces in bone tissue that are holes in which osteocytes live are called ________. A) lacunae B) Volkmann's canals C) Haversian canals D) trabeculae

the osteon

The structural unit of compact bone is ________. A) osseous matrix B) spongy bone C) lamellar bone D) the osteon

compact bone

The structure of bone tissue suits the function. Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to support weight and withstand tension stress? A) spongy bone B) irregular bone C) compact bone D) trabecular bone

d

The structure of bone tissue suits the function. Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to support weight and withstand torsion stresses? A) spongy bone B) irregular bone C) trabecular bone D) compact bone

the internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones

The term diploë refers to ________. A) the double-layered nature of the connective tissue covering the bone B) the fact that most bones are formed of two types of bone tissue C) the internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones D) the two types of marrow found within most bones

a

The term diploë refers to the ________. A) internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones B) fact that most bones are formed of two types of bone tissue C) two types of marrow found within most bones D) double-layered nature of the connective tissue covering the bone

reflects incomplete osteon formation and mineralization

The universal loss of mass seen in the skeleton, which begins about the age of 40 ________. A) is slower in females than in males B) is absolutely uniform throughout the skeleton C) reflects incomplete osteon formation and mineralization D) is greater in African Americans than in Northern Europeans

False

True/False Short, irregular, and flat bones have medullary cavities in order to keep the weight of the bones light.

heart

Thoracic

Histology would be best defined as a study of

Tissues

a tissue consists of groups of similar cells that have a common function

True

it is important for any organism to maintain its boundaries so that its internal environmental remains distinct from the external environment surrounding it

True

False

True/False All bones stop growing by the end of adolescence

False

True/False Bones are classified by whether they are weight bearing or protective in function.

True

True/False Cartilage has a flexible matrix that can accommodate mitosis of chondrocytes.

False

True/False Closure of the epiphyseal plate stops all bone growth

False

True/False Compact bone is replaced more often than spongy bone

True

True/False Each consecutive bone lamella has collagen fibers that wrap in alternating directions

True

True/False Hematopoiesis refers to the formation of blood cells within the red marrow cavities of certain bones

False

True/False In newborn infants, the medullary cavity and all areas of spongy bone contain yellow bone marrow

the term that describes the heel region is

calcaneal

the thickness and shape of a bone being dependent on stresses placed upon it

Wolff's law is concerned with ________. A) vertical growth of bones being dependent on age B) the thickness and shape of a bone being dependent on stresses placed upon it C) the function of bone being dependent on shape D) the diameter of the bone being dependent on the ratio of osteoblasts to osteoclasts

a

Wolff's law is concerned with ________. A) the thickness and shape of a bone being dependent on stresses placed upon it B) vertical growth of bones being dependent on age C) the function of bone being dependent on shape D) the diameter of the bone being dependent on the ratio of osteoblasts to osteoclasts

Fat

Yellow bone marrow contains a large percentage of ________. A) fat B) blood-forming cells C) elastic tissue D) Sharpey's fibers

c

Yellow bone marrow contains a large percentage of ________. A) Sharpey's fibers B) elastic tissue C) fat D) blood-forming cell

Osteoclasts

________ are multinucleated cells that destroy bone.

Appositional

________ growth is growth in the diameter of long bones.

Osteoporosis

________ is a disease of the bone in which bone reabsorption outpaces bone deposit, leaving the person with thin and often very fragile bones.

Mesenchymal cells

_____________ are not one of the four cell types that populate bone tissue in adults. A) Osteoblasts B) Mesenchymal cells C) Osteocytes D) Osteoprogenitor cells

homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains

a relatively stable internal environment within limits.

Based on the rule of nines, approximately what percent of the total body surface covers the anterior and posterior torso? A) 37% B) 50% C) 58% D) 66%

a) 37%

Which statement is not part of the explanation for male pattern baldness? A) Cells of the hair matrix cease mitosis. B) Hair growth cycles shorten. C) Hair shafts may not reach the surface. D) Terminal hairs are replaced by vellus hairs.

a) Cells of the hair matrix cease mitosis.

When doctors make incisions on the body based on the lines of cleavage of the skin, these cleavage lines are based on the arrangement of collagen fibers in which layer of the skin? A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis

a) dermis

Which primary layer of the skin provides a pink undertone to Caucasian skin? A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis

a) dermis

Which is the most abundant and widespread type of sweat gland? A) eccrine B) apocrine C) holocrine D) endocrine

a) eccrine

Soft keratin is present in the A) epidermis. B) hair cuticles. C) dermis. D) body of the nails.

a) epidermis

The only cell type found superficial to the stratum spinosum in the epidermis is the A) keratinocyte. B) melanocyte. C) dendritic cell. D) tactile epithelial cell.

a) keratinocyte

The subpapillary plexus A) nourishes the dermal papillae and epidermis. B) nourishes the hypodermis and reticular layer of the dermis. C) provides the sensation of fine touch. D) provides the sensation of deep pressure

a) nourishes the dermal papillae and epidermis.

The black part of a blackhead is A) oxidized sebum. B) dirt. C) a growing hair stub. D) excreted carbon.

a) oxidized sebum

Since both hair and skin contain keratin, the hair shaft is most comparable to what part of the epidermis? A) stratum corneum B) melanocytes C) basal lamina D) stratum basale

a) stratum corneum

Uterus

abdominopelvic

what is the pathway between the receptor and the control center in the reflex pathway called

afferent pathway

why is anatomical terminology necessary

anatomical terms are precise words that have limited usage which prevents confusion when describing the location of body parts

Keratinocytes produce keratin, as well as various enzymes and ________.

antimicrobial compounds

Process

any bony prominence

which of the following describes a parasagittal plane

any parasagittal plane except for the median

Deodorants mask the odor produced by the bacteria that live off the secretions of ________ glands.

apocrine

Ramus

armlike bar of bone

the anatomical position is used

as a standard reference point for directional terms regardless of the actual position of the body

The most external layer of a hair shaft is the A) medulla. B) cuticle. C) cortex. D) epidermal root sheath.

b) Cuticle

the type of burn in which the epidermis and part of the dermis are damaged is ________ degree. A) first B) second C) third D) fourth

b) second

The epidermis is a keratinized ________ epithelium. A) compound columnar B) stratified squamous C) simple squamous D) simple areolar

b) stratified squamous

Mitosis primarily occurs in a layer of the epidermis, the stratum ________.

basale

the dorsal body cavity is the site of which of the following

brain

Following their production in red bone marrow, dendritic cells circulate to what primary layer of the skin? A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis

c) epidermis

Light-skinned people have less melanin in the superficial layers of their epidermis because A) they are exposed to less UV radiation. B) they have fewer melanocytes. C) keratinocytes in their deeper layers rapidly digest melanin. D) their melanocytes produce a pinkish colour melanin instead of brown.

c) keratinocytes in their deeper

A sebaceous gland is classified as a ________ gland. A) compound tubular B) simple tubular C) simple alveolar D) compound alveolar Answer: C

c) simple alveolar

The coarse hairs in the skin of the perineum and axillary regions are all ________ hairs. A) pubic B) apocrine C) terminal D) vellus

c) terminal

Which layer of the integument are toenails and fingernails derived from? A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis

c. epidermis

Which layer of the integument contains the stratum basale? A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis

c. epidermis

Which layer of the skin invaginates downward to form sebum-producing glands? A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis

c. epidermis

Which primary layer of the skin contains lamellated granules that aid in waterproofing? A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis

c. epidermis

Which primary layer of the skin contains melanocytes? A) dermis B) hypodermis C) epidermis

c. epidermis

Mineral and growth factor storage (functions of bones)

calcium and phosphorus, and growth factors reservoir

Meatus

canal-like passageway

Arteries, veins, heart

cardiovascular

delivers oxygen and nutrients to the tissues

cardiovascular

which of the following describes the operation of the heart and blood vessels

cardiovascular anatomy

Sinus

cavity within a bone, filled with air and lined with mucous membrane

Perforating (Volkmann's) Canals

connect blood vessels and nerves of periosteum

if you consider your home air conditioner in terms of homeostasis, the that wall thermostat would be the

control center

which of the following would not be a functional characteristic of life

decay

an oblique cut is one that is cut

diagonally between the vertical and horizontal

The fingers are to the wrist

distal

which body cavity protects the nervous system

dorsal

which term means toward or at the back of the body, behind?

dorsal

Controls the body with chemical molecules called hormones

endocrine

a good example of positive feedback mechanism would be

enhancement of labor contractions

an increased rate of breathing as a result of an increased building of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream would be best described as an example of

excretion of metabolic waste

The epidermal stem cells that give rise to hair matrix cells are located in a bulge in the ________, near the insertion of the arrector pili muscle.

external root sheath

By the time keratinocytes reach the stratum corneum, they are dead and filled with collagen.

false

Ceruminous glands of the ear canal are modified sebaceous glands.

false

Chemotherapy causes hair loss because these drugs specifically target rapidly dividing cells in the hypodermis.

false

Protection (functions of bones)

for brain, spinal cord, and vital organs

Support (functions of bones)

for soft body and soft organs

Red Marrow

found within the trabecular cavities of spongy bone and diploe of flat bones. -most active

what is the vertical section through the body dividing it into anterior and posterior regions called

frontal

Groove

furrow

The study of the heart may incorporate many aspects of anatomy but as a whole you would say it is ?

gross anatomy

subdivisions of anatomy include which of the following

gross, regional, systematic and surface

Canaliculi

hairlike canales that connect lacunae to each other and central canal

Lamellae

hollow tubes of bone matrix. They withstand great tensile strength

what is dynamic equilibrium of your internal environment termed

homeostasis

what can happen when the usual negative feedback mechanism are overwhelmed and destructive positive feedback mechanism take over

homeostasis imbalances increase our risk for illness and produce the changes we associate with aging

why must a body temperature be maintained in order for chemical reaction to be continued at life-sustaining rates?

if body temperature is too low chemical reactions slow and eventually stop. If body temperature is too high chemical reaction speed up and body proteins lose their normal shape, resulting in loss of function

Found in the stratum spinosum, dendritic cells are cells of the ________ system.

immune

where is red marrow most active?

in diploe and some irregular bones

Interstitial lamellae

incomplete lamellae not part of complete osteon

notch

indentation at the edge of a structure

Protects underlying organs from mechanical damage and synthesizes vitamin D

integumentary

which of the following statements is the most correct regarding homeostasis imbalance

it is considered the cause of most diseases

Tuberosity

large rounded projection; may be roughened

what does gross anatomy study

larger structures if the body that can be seen with the naked eye

The bridge of the nose is to the left of the eye

medial

what broad term covers all chemical reactions that occur within the body cells?

metabolism

the cavity contains tiny bones that transmit sound vibrations to the organs of the hearing in the inner ear

middle ear

Hydroxyapatites

mineral salts, 65% of bone by mass, Mainly calcium phosphate crystals, Responsible for hardness and resistance to compression

Osteogenic cells (osteoprogenitor cells)

mitotically active in periosteum and endosteum, when stimulated they differentiate into osteoblasts or bone lining cells

Projections (Bone Markings)

most indicate stresses created by muscle pull or joint modifications

Line

narrow ridge of bone; less prominent than a crest

Crest

narrow ridge of bone; usually prominent

Fissure

narrow, slitlike opening

what type of homeostasis feedback reflex is the withdrawal reflex

negative

Blood glucose levels

negative feedback

blood pressure

negative feedback

which of the following is true concerning feedback mechanism

negative feedback mechanism work to prevent sudden severe changes within the body

which one of the following systems responds to environmental stimuli

nervous

which of the following are survival needs of the body

nutrients, water, atmospheric pressure and oxygen

Calcification of cartilage

occurs during normal bone growth during youth and old age. The bones harden, but the calcified cartilage is not bone.

the term that describes the back of the elbow is

olecranal

the five cavities of the head are cranial, oral, nasal, middle ear, and ?

orbital

the cavities housing the eye are called

orbital cavity

a structure that is composed of two or more tissues would be an

organ

the anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except

palms turned posteriorly

which cavity contains the bladder some reproductive organs and the rectum

pelvic cavity

the heart lies in the cavity

pericardial

The process that causes premature damage to skin with prolonged exposure to ultraviolet radiation is called ________.

photoaging

? is explained by chemical and physical principles and is concerned with the function of specific organs or organic systems

physiology

Trabeculae

plate arrangement of spongy bone

in which cavities are the lungs located

pleural, ventral and thoracic

what is the posterior side of the patella called

popliteal

Delivering a baby

positive feedback

blood clotting

positive feedback

which feedback mechanism causes the variable to deviate further and further from its original value or range

positive feedback

Hormone Production (functions of bones)

produces osteocalcin, which regulates bone formation and protects against obesity, glucose intolerance, and diabetes mellitus

The upper arm is to the forearm

proximal

the elbow is to the wrist

proximal

Epicondyle

raised area on or above a condyle

? physiology concerns urine production and kidney function

renal

which body system would be most affected by a lower than normal atmospheric pressure

respiratory system

what is the vertical section through the body, dividing it into left and right called

sagittal

Most ________ glands open into hair follicles

sebaceous

Sharpey's Fibers

secure to bone matrix

one of the functional characteristics of life is irritability, this refers to

sensing changes in the environment and then reacting or responding to them

Bone Markings

sites of muscle, ligament, and tendon attachment on external surfaces

Lacunae

small cavities that contain osteocytes

Tubercule

small rounded projection or process

Triglyceride (fat) storage (functions of bones)

stores in bone cavities and serves as an energy source

This stratum of the epidermis contains the greatest number of cellular layers in both thick and thin skin.

stratum corneum

This layer is found only in thick skin, and appears as thin translucent band when viewed with a light microscope is the ________.

stratum lucidum

The dendritic cells reside in the ________.

stratum spinosum

Osteon

structural unit of compact bone, elogated cylinder parallel to long axis of bone.

Circumferential lamellae

superficial to endosteum and extends around entire surface of diaphysis.

The heart is to the stomach

superior

In the skin, the rich capillary beds and the ________ glands aid in thermoregulation

sweat or sudoriferous

? cavities are spaces within joints

synovial

what is the goal of all of the negative feedback mechanism of the body

the goal is to prevent sudden severe changes within the body

why are the abdominopelvic cavity organs the most vulnerable in an automobile accident

the walls of the abdominopelvic cavity are formed only by trunk muscles and are not reinforced by bone. the pelvic organs receive a somewhat greater degree of protection from the bony pelvis

what is the function of the serous membranes

they act to reduce friction and allow the organs to slide across cavity walls

Fibrocartilage

thick collagen fibers, has great tensile strength.

the higher we go up the mountains the greater the atmospheric pressure which causes a loss of oxygen. comment on this statement

this statement is backwards, the higher we go the less atmospheric pressure therefore less oxygen

chest

thoracic

which of the following is not part of the dorsal cavity

thoracic cavity

the term pollex refers to the

thumb

similar cells that have a common function are called

tissues

what is the main general focus of negative feedback

to maintain homeostasis

As a person balds, terminal hair is replaced by vellus.

true

Nutrients enter a hair follicle through the dermal papilla.

true

Sebaceous glands secrete oil onto the surface of the epidermis via the hair follicle

true

Skin cancers are the most common types of cancer in the United States, and the most important risk factor is overexposure to ultraviolet radiation.

true

Skin consists of two distinct tissue layers: the epidermis and dermis.

true

Depressions and openings (Bone Markings)

usually allow nerves and blood vessels to pass

Endosteum

vascular membrane that lines the inner surface of long bones. Covers spongy bone, lines canals that pass through compact bone


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