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Air Law The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date: A) The medical assessment is issued B) The licence is issued or validated C) The licence is issued or renewed D) The licence is delivered to the pilot [(ID: 104) BGS ID: 100091]

B) The licence is issued or validated *The medical assessment is not linked to licence issue and is valid from the time it is issued.*

Air Law According to JAR-FCL, Medical certificates classes are: A) 1 and 2 B) 1, 2 and 3 C) 1,2,3 and 4 D) Class 1 only. [(ID: 106) BGS ID: 100093]

A) 1 and 2 *Under JAR-FCL there are two classes of medical: Class 1 and Class 2.*

Air Law According to EASA Part FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed an completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a EASA Member State at least: A) 150 hours of flight time B) 200 hours of flight time C) 150 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time D) 200 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time [(ID: 89) BGS ID: 100075]

A) 150 hours of flight time *The applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training. This may include a maximum of 10 hours in a synthetic flight trainer.*

Air Law The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than ...... hours shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot in command, the duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The state above hours are respectively : A) 200 hours and 100 hours B) 250 hours and 10 hours C) 150 hours and 75 hours D) 200 hours and 75 hours [(ID: 80) BGS ID: 100066]

A) 200 hours and 100 hours *The applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than 200 hours of cross country flight time, of which not less than 100 hours shall be as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of a pilot-in-command, the duties and functions of pilot-in-command, provided the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the Licensing Authority.*

Air Law An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than: A) 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training as a pilot of aeroplanes B) 200 hours of flight time and 80 hours as pilot in command C) 200 hours of flight time and 70 hours as pilot in command D) 150 hours of flight time and 100 hours as pilot in command [(ID: 76) BGS ID: 100062]

A) 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training as a pilot of aeroplanes *The applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training. This may include a maximum of 10 hours in a synthetic flight trainer.*

Air Law To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is: A) 21 and 59 years B) 16 and 60 years C) 17 and 59 years D) 18 and 60 years [(ID: 2) BGS ID: 100640]

A) 21 and 59 years *An applicant for an ATPL(A) shall be at least 21 years of age. A pilot may not act as Pilot in Command having reached their 60th birthday and may not be permitted to act as co-pilot by some Contracting States. Pilots above 65 years of age may not operate commercial transport flights.*

Air Law Minimum and maximum age for ATPL holders. According to ICAO Annex 1, the minimum / maximum age for the holder of an ATPL is: A) 21 and 59 years. B) 16 and 60 years. C) 17 and 59 years. D) 18 and 60 years. [(ID: 78) BGS ID: 100064]

A) 21 and 59 years. *An applicant for an ATPL(A) shall be at least 21 years of age. A pilot may not act as Pilot in Command having reached their 60th birthday and may not be permitted to act as co-pilot by some Contracting States. Pilots above 65 years of age may not operate commercial transport flights.*

Air Law For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ............................... if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night: A) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command B) 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command C) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings either as pilot in command or as co-pilot D) 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command [(ID: 56) BGS ID: 100041]

A) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command *Prior to initial issue of the CPL the applicant will have flown 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take-offs and 5 landings as Pilot in Command (PIC). Thereafter, to carry passengers at night the pilot must have flown as PIC, within the last 90 days, 3 take-offs and landings, of which one of each must have been at night. *

Air Law The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than: A) 50% of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence B) 100 hours of flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence C) 40% of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence D) 60% of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence [(ID: 57) BGS ID: 100042]

A) 50% of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence *According to ICAO Annex 1 the holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credited with not more than 50 per cent of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence. However, JAR-FCL1 allows 100 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence. *

Air Law If an international commercial air service is operated with a single pilot aircraft, what is the maximum age of the pilot ? A) 59 B) 69 C) 65 D) 60 [(ID: 69) BGS ID: 100054]

A) 59 *A pilot may not act as Pilot in Command having reached their 60th birthday.*

Air Law VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are : A) 8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds ; B) 8 km visibility, and clear of clouds ; C) 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds ; D) No minima, VFR flights are not permitted [(ID: 112) BGS ID: 100099]

A) 8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds ; *VFR requirements are: below 10,000ft: Visibility 5 km. Above 10,000ft: Visibility: 8 km, Distance from clouds: 1500 m horizontal, 1000 ft vertical.*

Air Law In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed: A) A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations. B) Two consecutive periods each of three months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations C) A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations. D) In the case of a private pilot, a single period of 12 months [(ID: 103) BGS ID: 100090]

A) A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations. *"Non commercial operations" means not carrying fare-paying passengers and this deferment may be used for pilots working in remote locations for long periods.*

Air Law If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that licence due to illness, the authority must be informed: A) After 21 days of consecutive "illness" B) As soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more than 21days C) After one calendar month of consecutive illness D) If still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate expires [(ID: 54) BGS ID: 100039]

A) After 21 days of consecutive "illness" *The Authority must be informed immediatelyabout serious injury or pregnancy but after 21 days for illness. *

Air Law The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be: A) At least 30 centimetres B) At least 40 centimetres C) At least 20 centimetres D) At least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres [(ID: 47) BGS ID: 100032]

A) At least 30 centimetres *The height of the registration marks shall be: On lighter-than-air aircraft: At least 50 cm On heavier-than-air aircraft: Wings: At least 50 cm Fuselage & vertical tail surfaces: At least 30 cm *

Air Law The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered: A) Binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference B) Advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states C) Binding for all member states D) Binding for all air line companies with international traffic [(ID: 16) BGS ID: 100001]

A) Binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference *An ICAO member state may opt out of Standards set by ICAO but is obliged to notify ICAO and publish details in their Aeronautical Information Publication. *

Air Law The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) was established by the international convention of: A) Chicago B) The Hague C) Warsaw D) Montreal [(ID: 22) BGS ID: 100007]

A) Chicago *ICAO was set up by the Chicago Convention 1944, just before the end of WWII. *

Air Law The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the: A) Chicago Convention 1944 B) Warsaw Convention 1929 C) Geneva Convention 1948 D) Geneva Convention 1936 [(ID: 20) BGS ID: 100005]

A) Chicago Convention 1944 *ICAO was set up by the Chicago Convention 1944, just before the end of WWII. *

Air Law Chicago Convention, "Cabotage" refers to: A) Domestic air services B) A national air carrier C) A flight above territorial waters D) Crop spraying [(ID: 28) BGS ID: 100013]

A) Domestic air services *Under international law an aircraft from one state cannot undertake domestic air services within another state and this is an offence known as "cabotage" . Ninth Freedom of The Air- the right or privilege of transporting cabotage traffic of the granting State on a service performed entirely within the territory of the granting State (also known as a Ninth Freedom Rightor " stand alone" cabotage). Source: Manual on the Regulation of International Air Transport (Doc 9626, Part 4) *

Air Law EASA FCL 1 - Instructor categories are: A) FI(A), TRI(A), CRI(A), IRI(A) ratings, SFI and MCCI authorisation authorisation B) FE(A), TRE(A) CRE(A), IRE(A) ratings and SFI authorisation. C) FI(A) and IRI(A) ratings D) FI(A), TRI(A), CRE(A), IRE(A) ratings and SFI authorisation [(ID: 91) BGS ID: 100077]

A) FI(A), TRI(A), CRI(A), IRI(A) ratings, SFI and MCCI authorisation authorisation *Instructor categories which are recognised. (a) Flight instructor rating aeroplane (FI(A)). (b) Type rating instructor rating aeroplane (TRI(A)). (c) Class rating instructor rating aeroplane (CRI(A)). (d) Instrument rating instructor rating - aeroplane (IRI(A)). (e) Synthetic flight instructor authorisation aeroplane (SFI(A)). (f) Multi-Crew Cooperation Instructor (MCCI)*

Air Law If a pilot is carrying out single pilot commercial passenger transport operations how does the validity of his class 1 medical change on his 40th birthday? A) From 12 months to 6 months B) From 12 months to 3 months C) From 24 months to 12 months D) From 36 months to 24 months [(ID: 68) BGS ID: 100053]

A) From 12 months to 6 months *A Class 1 medical is valid for 12 months from the date of issue except for single pilot air transport operations carrying passengers where pilots over 40 years old require a medical every 6 months and all commercial pilots aged over 60 require a medical every 6 months.*

Air Law Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addressed to: A) International Civil Aviation Organisation B) The other Contracting States C) United Nations D) To all States Members of United Nations [(ID: 24) BGS ID: 100009]

A) International Civil Aviation Organisation *Non-compliance with a convention must be notified to ICAO who will advise other member states of such non-compliance. ICAO must be notified within six months of the convention being ratified. Details are notified in the relevant state's AIP. *

Air Law According to EASA Part-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will be one year from the date: A) Of issue B) Of the skill test C) The application is received by the Authority. D) Of the last medical certificate [(ID: 98) BGS ID: 100084]

A) Of issue *Type and class ratings are valid from the date of issue.*

Air Law The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing structural integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning corrosion prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes: A) Over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass B) Over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass C) Up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass D) Up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass [(ID: 42) BGS ID: 100027]

A) Over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass *ICAO Annex 8 imposes this requirement on the State of Design. ICAO Annex 8 - Airworthiness of Aircraft "In the interest of safety, an aircraft must be designed, constructed and operated in compliance with the appropriate airworthiness requirements of the State of Registry of the aircraft. Consequently, the aircraft is issued with a Certificate of Airworthiness declaring that the aircraft is fit to fly."*

Air Law The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes: A) Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states. B) Aeronautical standards adopted by all states. C) Proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes. D) Standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention. [(ID: 21) BGS ID: 100006]

A) Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states. *ICAO expects contracting states to adopt 'Standards' and would like them to adopt 'Recommended Practices' but a state may opt out of any of them. *

Air Law When letters are used for registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example: A) TTT B) FFF C) RCC D) LLL [(ID: 51) BGS ID: 100036]

A) TTT *When letters are used for the registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be confused with: 1. Five letter combinations used in the International Code of Signals, Part II; or 2. Three letter combinations beginning with Q used in the Q Code; or 3. Distress signal SOS; or 4. Other urgent signals, for example XXX, PAN and TTT *

Air Law The following signal means that an aircraft wishes to give notice of difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance: A) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights. B) Switching on and off three times the landing lights. C) Switching on and off of the landing lights in a sequence consisting of the letter group SOS. D) Switching on and off three times the navigation lights. [(ID: 109) BGS ID: 100096]

A) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights. *The following signals, used either together or separately, mean that an aircraft wishes to give notice of difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance: The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights; or The repeated switching on and off of the navigation lights in such manner as to be distinct from flashing navigation lights. *

Air Law The first freedom of the air is: A) The right to overfly without landing. B) The right to land for a technical stop. C) The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states. D) The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to an other state. [(ID: 27) BGS ID: 100012]

A) The right to overfly without landing. *First Freedom of the Air - Overflight The right or privilege, in respect of scheduled international air services, granted by one State to another State or States to fly across its territory without landing (also known as a First Freedom Right). Second Freedom of the Air - Technical Stop The right or privilege, in respect of scheduled international air services, granted by one State to another State or States to land in its territory for non-traffic purposes (also known as a Second Freedom Right). Third Freedom of The Air - Carriage from A to B The right or privilege, in respect of scheduled international air services, granted by one State to another State to put down, in the territory of the first State, traffic coming from the home State of the carrier (also known as a Third Freedom Right). Fourth Freedom of The Air - Carriage from B to A The right or privilege, in respect of scheduled international air services, granted by one State to another State to take on, in the territory of the first State, traffic destined for the home State of the carrier (also known as a Fourth Freedom Right). Fifth Freedom of The Air - Aircraft from A carrying from B to C The right or privilege, in respect of scheduled international air services, granted by one State to another State to put down and to take on, in the territory of the first State, traffic coming from or destined to a third State (also known as a Fifth Freedom Right). ICAO characterizes all "freedoms" beyond the Fifth as "so-called" because only the first five "freedoms" have been officially recognized as such by international treaty. *

Air Law According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by: A) The state of registry or common mark registering authority B) The state of registry only C) The International Civil Aviation Organisation D) The International Telecommunication Union [(ID: 53) BGS ID: 100038]

A) The state of registry or common mark registering authority *Normally the aircraft's 'home' state is the state where it is registered but some small states cannot afford to establish and maintain an office for the registration of aircraft and may ask another state to do it for them as the 'common mark registering authority'. *

Air Law According to EASA Part FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for: A) Two years B) One year C) Two years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter. D) Five years after licence issue. [(ID: 99) BGS ID: 100085]

A) Two years *A single pilot single-engine class rating is valid for two years and a multi-engine class rating for one year from the date of issue or the date of expiry if revalidated within the validity period.*

Air Law An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less than ........ hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross country flight totalling not less than ........ km (-NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance referred are: A) 20 hours and 540 km (300 NM) B) 10 hours and 270 km (150 NM) C) 15 hours and 540 km (300 NM) D) 20 hours and 270 km (150 NM) [(ID: 74) BGS ID: 100060]

B) 10 hours and 270 km (150 NM) *For issue of a CPL(A) the applicant must have a minimum of 200 hours total flight time, 20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a flight of at least 300 NM which includes two full stop landings at different aerodromes.*

Air Law An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than: A) 20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM) B) 10 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM) C) 25 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM) D) 15 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM) [(ID: 75) BGS ID: 100061]

B) 10 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM) *For a CPL you must have 20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a flight of at least 300nm with two full stop landings at different aerodromes.*

Air Law An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating, shall have completed ..... hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively: A) 50 hours and 10 hours B) 40 hours and 10 hours C) 40 hours and 15 hours D) 50 hours and 15 hours [(ID: 94) BGS ID: 100080]

B) 40 hours and 10 hours *An applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL(A) including a night qualification or CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.*

Air Law JAR-FCL 1 - Minimum flight experience requirements for the IR. The applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A) including a night qualification or a CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours: A) 50 hours cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes. B) 50 hours instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes. C) 50 hours cross country flight time as pilot of aeroplanes of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes. D) 50 hours instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes. [(ID: 92) BGS ID: 100078]

B) 50 hours instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes. *An applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL(A) including a night qualification or CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours cross country flight time as pilot in command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.*

Air Law According to EASA-FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A) shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplane at least 1.500 hours of flight time, including: A) 500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with FAR 25 or FAR 23. B) 500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with FAR 25 or FAR 23, as pilot-in-command C) 500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with FAR 25 or FAR 23, of which up to 150 hours may be as flight engineer. D) 500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with FAR 25 or FAR 23, including 200 hours of night flight as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot. [(ID: 85) BGS ID: 100071]

B) 500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with FAR 25 or FAR 23, as pilot-in-command *An applicant for an ATPL(A) shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes at least 1,500 hours of flight time of which a maximum of 100 hours may have been completed in a flight simulator. ICAO say not more than 25 hours of this may be done in a flight procedure trainer or synthetic flight trainer, the EASA do not list this last requirement but do require 500 hours of flight time on multi-pilot transport operations.*

Air Law An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold: A) A current class I medical assessment B) A current class II medical assessment C) A current class III medical assessment D) A current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the licence [(ID: 102) BGS ID: 100089]

B) A current class II medical assessment *A Class 1 medical is required for professional licences. *

Air Law Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for a crew licence to have international validity? A) Annex 1 B) Annex 2 C) Annex 3 D) Annex 4 [(ID: 59) BGS ID: 100044]

B) Annex 2 *Annex 1 Personnel Licensing Annex 2 Rules of the Air Annex 3Meteorological Service for International Air Navigation Annex 4Aeronautical Charts Annex 5Units of Measurement to be Used in Air and Ground Operations Annex 6Operation of Aircraft Annex 7Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks Annex 8Airworthiness of Aircraft Annex 9 Facilitation Annex 10Aeronautical Telecommunications Annex 11 Air Traffic Services Annex 12 Search and Rescue Annex 13Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation Annex 14 Aerodromes Annex 15Aeronautical Information Services Annex 16Environmental Protection Annex 17Security: Safeguarding International Civil Aviation Against Acts of Unlawful Interference Annex 18The Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air *

Air Law One of the main objectives of ICAO is to: A) Develop principles and technique for international aviation B) Approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies C) Approve new international airlines with jet aircraft D) Approve new international airlines [(ID: 19) BGS ID: 100004]

B) Approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies *ICAO produces Standards and Recommended Practices and if all member states follow them the aviation industry would operate the same in all countries. *

Air Law According to EASA Part-FCL, a professional flight crew licence license issued by a non EASA State may be rendered valid for use on aircraft registered in a EASA Member State: A) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid B) At the discretion of the Authority of the Member State concerned for a period not exceeding the period validity of basic licence C) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year D) At the discretion of the Authority of the Member State concerned for a period not exceeding the period agreed [(ID: 71) BGS ID: 100056]

B) At the discretion of the Authority of the Member State concerned for a period not exceeding the period validity of basic licence *Under EASA rules a foreign licence may be validated for up to one year. NOTE: This question has been amended for our question bank and may not appear in this form in your examination; it may contain duplicated optional answers. If this is the case the question should be appealed and you are also advised to notify your Approved Training Organisation. *

Air Law According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A) including a night qualification or CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours: A) Cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes. B) Cross country flight time as pilot of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes. C) Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes. D) Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes. [(ID: 88) BGS ID: 100074]

B) Cross country flight time as pilot of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes. *An applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL(A) including a night qualification or CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours cross country flight time as pilot in command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.*

Air Law When letters are used for registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example: A) PAN B) DDD C) RCC D) LLL [(ID: 50) BGS ID: 100035]

B) DDD *When letters are used for the registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be confused with: 1. Five letter combinations used in the International Code of Signals, Part II; or 2. Three letter combinations beginning with Q used in the Q Code; or 3. Distress signal SOS; or 4. Other urgent signals, for example XXX, PAN and TTT *

Air Law According to EASA Part FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has: A) Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training B) Handling characteristics that require the use of more than one crew member C) A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state. D) A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer. [(ID: 62) BGS ID: 100047]

B) Handling characteristics that require the use of more than one crew member *The criteria for the establishment of type ratings for aeroplanes other than those covered by Class ratings are: (a) airworthiness type certificate (complexity of aircraft) (b) handling characteristics (especially if additional flying or simulator training is required) (c) certificated minimum flight crew compliment. *

Air Law Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO? A) ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention. B) ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections C) ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations D) ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses [(ID: 17) BGS ID: 100002]

B) ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections *ICAO publishes Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPS): all member states are expected to incorporate Standards into the aviation law and Recommended Practices are procedures which member states are recommended to adopt. If a member state chooses to to adopt a Standard or Recommended Practise they must tell ICAO and list details in their Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP). *

Air Law The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offence against penal law: A) May deliver such person to the competent authorities B) May request such person to disembark C) May require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person D) May not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members [(ID: 31) BGS ID: 100016]

B) May request such person to disembark *The aircraft commander is required to hand over the criminal to the security authorities. He may require the crew to assist and he may request passengers to assist.*

Air Law According to JAR-FCL, successful completion of multi-crew co-operation (MCC) training shall be required to: A) Obtain the first type rating on multi-pilot aeroplanes B) Obtain the first class rating on multi-engine aeroplanes C) Obtain a professional pilot licence D) Revalidate any rating or licence [(ID: 100) BGS ID: 100086]

B) Obtain the first class rating on multi-engine aeroplanes *According to JAR-FCL successful completion of multi-crew co-operation (MCC) training shall be required to obtain the first type rating on multi-pilot aeroplanes.*

Air Law In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, the appropriate ATS unit has to be informed: A) The TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flight plan. B) Of an emergency. C) It is a deviation from the track. D) The estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes. [(ID: 110) BGS ID: 100097]

B) Of an emergency. *Changes in speed of 5% of TAS or more or M0.01 or more must be advised. If the aircraft deviates from track it must regain track by the quickest means and changes of ETA of three minutes or more must be notified.*

Air Law When letters are used for the registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example: A) XXX B) RCC C) LLL D) DDD [(ID: 52) BGS ID: 100037]

B) RCC *When letters are used for the registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be confused with: 1. Five letter combinations used in the International Code of Signals, Part II; or 2. Three letter combinations beginning with Q used in the Q Code; or 3. Distress signal SOS; or 4. Other urgent signals, for example XXX, PAN and TTT *

Air Law The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with : A) Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface B) Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods C) Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface D) Offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft [(ID: 39) BGS ID: 100024]

B) Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods *The Convention on Damage Caused by Foreign Aircraft to Third Parties on the Surface, commonly called the Rome Convention, is an international treaty, concluded at Rome on October 7, 1952. It entered into force on December 4, 1958. The Rome Convention allows a person on the ground in state A who is injured by an aircraft from state B to recover compensation. *

Air Law The second freedom of the air is the: A) Right to land for a technical stop B) Right to overfly without landing C) Right to "cabotage" traffic, (trans-border traffic). D) Right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states. [(ID: 26) BGS ID: 100011]

B) Right to overfly without landing *First Freedom of the Air - Overflight The right or privilege, in respect of scheduled international air services, granted by one State to another State or States to fly across its territory without landing (also known as a First Freedom Right). Second Freedom of the Air - Technical Stop The right or privilege, in respect of scheduled international air services, granted by one State to another State or States to land in its territory for non-traffic purposes (also known as a Second Freedom Right). Third Freedom of The Air - Carriage from A to B The right or privilege, in respect of scheduled international air services, granted by one State to another State to put down, in the territory of the first State, traffic coming from the home State of the carrier (also known as a Third Freedom Right). Fourth Freedom of The Air - Carriage from B to A The right or privilege, in respect of scheduled international air services, granted by one State to another State to take on, in the territory of the first State, traffic destined for the home State of the carrier (also known as a Fourth Freedom Right). Fifth Freedom of The Air - Aircraft from A carrying from B to C The right or privilege, in respect of scheduled international air services, granted by one State to another State to put down and to take on, in the territory of the first State, traffic coming from or destined to a third State (also known as a Fifth Freedom Right). ICAO characterizes all "freedoms" beyond the Fifth as "so-called" because only the first five "freedoms" have been officially recognized as such by international treaty. *

Air Law When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the validity of the authorisation: A) Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence B) Shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the licence C) The Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend the date of the validity at its own discretion D) Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence other than for use in private flights [(ID: 72) BGS ID: 100057]

B) Shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the licence *ICAO rules permit a licence to be validated for the life of the licence. JAA/EASA rules permit validation for only one year.*

Air Law Which body of ICAO finalises the Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption? A) The Air Navigation Commission B) The Assembly C) The Council D) The Regional Air Navigation meeting [(ID: 18) BGS ID: 100003]

B) The Assembly *The Assembly meets every three years to appoint the Council and direct them on their next three years work. The Council tasks the Air Navigation Commission with drafting Standards and Recommended Practices. *

Air Law The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to ensure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is: A) The Rome Convention B) The Warsaw Convention C) The Paris Convention D) The Tokyo Convention [(ID: 36) BGS ID: 100021]

B) The Warsaw Convention *The Convention on Damage Caused by Foreign Aircraft to Third Parties on the Surface, commonly called the Rome Convention, is an international treaty, concluded at Rome on October 7, 1952. It entered into force on December 4, 1958. The Rome Convention allows a person on the ground in state A who is injured by an aircraft from state B to recover compensation. *

Air Law The first freedom of the air is: A) The right to overfly without landing. B) The right to land for a technical stop. C) The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states. D) The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to another state. [(ID: 25) BGS ID: 100010]

B) The right to land for a technical stop. *First Freedom of the Air - Overflight The right or privilege, in respect of scheduled international air services, granted by one State to another State or States to fly across its territory without landing (also known as a First Freedom Right). Second Freedom of the Air - Technical Stop The right or privilege, in respect of scheduled international air services, granted by one State to another State or States to land in its territory for non-traffic purposes (also known as a Second Freedom Right). Third Freedom of The Air - Carriage from A to B The right or privilege, in respect of scheduled international air services, granted by one State to another State to put down, in the territory of the first State, traffic coming from the home State of the carrier (also known as a Third Freedom Right). Fourth Freedom of The Air - Carriage from B to A The right or privilege, in respect of scheduled international air services, granted by one State to another State to take on, in the territory of the first State, traffic destined for the home State of the carrier (also known as a Fourth Freedom Right). Fifth Freedom of The Air - Aircraft from A carrying from B to C The right or privilege, in respect of scheduled international air services, granted by one State to another State to put down and to take on, in the territory of the first State, traffic coming from or destined to a third State (also known as a Fifth Freedom Right). ICAO characterizes all "freedoms" beyond the Fifth as "so-called" because only the first five "freedoms" have been officially recognized as such by international treaty. *

Air Law The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be: A) To act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation B) To act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in commercial air transportation C) To act as pilot in command in any aeroplane certificate for single pilot operation other than in commercial air transportation D) None of the answers are correct [(ID: 73) BGS ID: 100059]

B) To act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in commercial air transportation *Privileges, Subject to any other conditions specified in JARs, the privileges of the holder of a CPL(A) are to: (1) exercise all the privileges of the holder of a PPL(A); (2) act as pilot-in-command or co-pilot of any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation; (3) act as pilot-in-command in commercial air transportation of any single-pilot aeroplane; (4) act as co-pilot in commercial air transportation. *

Air Law The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the: A) Warsaw Convention. B) Tokyo Convention. C) Hague Convention. D) Montreal Convention. [(ID: 35) BGS ID: 100020]

B) Tokyo Convention. *The Warsaw Conventionis an international convention which regulates liability for international carriage of persons, luggage or goods performed by aircraft for reward. *

Air Law According to EASA Part-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for: A) One year B) Two years C) The period of validity of the licence. D) Indefinitely [(ID: 96) BGS ID: 100082]

B) Two years *Under EASA rules the instrument rating is valid for one year.*

Air Law You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL: A) With a valid licence plus flight instructor rating B) With a PPL plus CPL theory C) With a PPL plus flight instructor rating D) With a CPL [(ID: 60) BGS ID: 100045]

B) With a PPL plus CPL theory *In order to instruct to PPL level the instructor must have passed the written examinations for CPL and hold a Flight Instructor rating. The 'valid licence' could be PPL or CPL or ATPL.*

Air Law In accordance with JAR-FCL1 the credit for MPA co-pilot time is: A) 100% of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence. B) 50% of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence. C) 100 hours of the flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence. D) 75% of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence. [(ID: 87) BGS ID: 100073]

C) 100 hours of the flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence. *According to ICAO Annex 1 the holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credited with not more than 50 per cent of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence. However, JAR-FCL1 allows 100 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.*

Air Law An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than: A) 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time B) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time. C) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 10 hours may be instrument ground time D) 15 hours of instrument time of which not more than 5 hours as pilot in command [(ID: 77) BGS ID: 100063]

C) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 10 hours may be instrument ground time *The applicant for a CPL shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than: (a) 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training. This may include a maximum of 10 hours in a synthetic flight trainer. (b) the above is to include: (i) 100 hours as pilot in command (70 hours in the case of an approved course. (ii) 20 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot in command including a flight of not less than 300 nm with two full stop landings at different aerodromes. (iii) 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be ground time. (iv) if the licence is to be used at night; 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take-offs and 5 landings as pilot in command.*

Air Law When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences aeroplane and helicopter have passed their 40th birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from: A) 12 months to 6 months B) 12 months to 3 months C) 24 months to 12 months D) None of the answers are correct [(ID: 105) BGS ID: 100092]

C) 24 months to 12 months *It is believed that the current answer to this question is "12 months to 6 months", however, this is now incorrect as medical certification requirements have changed. Be aware of this question and advise your training provider if it appears in an examination.*

Air Law The holder of a pilot's licence shall inform the Authority of any illness, which they are suffering, which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the license relates throughout a period of a certain number of days or more. The number of days is: A) 21 B) 30 C) 60 D) 90 [(ID: 101) BGS ID: 100087]

C) 60 *Every holder of a medical certificate issued in accordance with EASA Part-MED who is aware of: (a) any significant personal injury involving incapacity to function as a member of flight crew; or (b) any illness involving incapacity to function as a member of a flight crew throughout a period of 21 days or more; or (c) being pregnant Shall inform the Authority in writing of such injury or pregnancy and as soon as the period of 21 days has elapsed in the case of illness.*

Air Law As part of the total flight time requirement of 1 500 hours, the applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed not less than 200 hours of cross-country flight time on aeroplanes. How much of this shall be pilot-in command time or co-pilot time under the supervision of the pilot in command, performing the duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority? A) 100 hours B) 50 hours C) 75 hours D) 10 hours [(ID: 67) BGS ID: 100052]

C) 75 hours *The applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than 200 hours of cross country flight time, of which not less than 100 hours shall be as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of a pilot-in-command, the duties and functions of pilot-in-command, provided the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the Licensing Authority.*

Air Law According to EASA Part FCL, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for: A) A minimum crew of two pilots under IFR B) The carriage of passengers at night. C) A minimum crew of two pilots plus a flight engineer. D) Operations by pilots under training. [(ID: 86) BGS ID: 100072]

C) A minimum crew of two pilots plus a flight engineer. *ICAO say not more than 25 hours of this may be done in a flight procedure trainer or synthetic flight trainer, the EASA do not list this last requirement but do require 500 hours of flight time on multi-pilot transport operations.*

Air Law The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrumental Flight Rating in_____ aeroplanes shall prove, according to Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her capability to pilot such aircraft only by instrumental rules and an engine _________. A) Multi-engine / inoperative or simulated inoperative. B) Land/inactive. C) Amphibious/inactive or simulated inactive. D) Single-engine/inactive. [(ID: 55) BGS ID: 100040]

C) Amphibious/inactive or simulated inactive. *To exercise the privileges of a Multi-Engine Piston (MEP) aircraft under Instrument Flight Rules, the Pilot in Command shall hold a Multi-Engine Piston (MEP) Class Rating and an Instrument Rating(IR). The Skills Test for the issue of a MEP IR shall include a section which tests the candidates abilities to operate the aircraft under asymmetric flight conditions with one engine operative or simulated inoperative. Both Land and Amphibious aircraft may be single engine or multi-engine and there is no requirement to operate the aircraft under IFR with the engine inoperative. *

Air Law Contracting States have the obligation to inform ICAO about: A) Differences or non-compliance with standards in any of the Annexes to the convention. B) The pricing policy and agreements for passenger tickets and freight in international air transport. C) New licenses and ratings for flight crew and ground personnel and any suspended validity of such licenses. D) Changes in the national regulations. [(ID: 29) BGS ID: 100014]

C) New licenses and ratings for flight crew and ground personnel and any suspended validity of such licenses. *If a Contracting State does not comply with an ICAO Standard or Recommended Procedure they must notify ICAO and publish details of their non-compliance in their Aeronautical Information Publication. *

Air Law The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is: A) Annex 1 B) Annex 2 C) Annex 11 D) Annex 12 [(ID: 58) BGS ID: 100043]

C) Annex 11 *Annex 1 Personnel Licensing Annex 2 Rules of the Air Annex 3Meteorological Service for International Air Navigation Annex 4Aeronautical Charts Annex 5Units of Measurement to be Used in Air and Ground Operations Annex 6Operation of Aircraft Annex 7Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks Annex 8Airworthiness of Aircraft Annex 9 Facilitation Annex 10Aeronautical Telecommunications Annex 11 Air Traffic Services Annex 12 Search and Rescue Annex 13Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation Annex 14 Aerodromes Annex 15Aeronautical Information Services Annex 16Environmental Protection Annex 17Security: Safeguarding International Civil Aviation Against Acts of Unlawful Interference Annex 18The Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air *

Air Law Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight : A) At least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position B) At least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position C) At least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position D) At least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position [(ID: 113) BGS ID: 100100]

C) At least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position *Except when necessary for take-off or landing, or except when specifically authorized by the appropriate authority, an IFR flight shall be flown at a level which is not below the minimum flight altitude established by the State whose territory is overflown, or, where no such minimum flight altitude has been established: (a) over high terrain or in mountainous areas, at a level which is at least 600 m (2 000 ft) above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft; (b) elsewhere than as specified in (a), at a level which is at least 300 m (1 000 ft) above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft.*

Air Law The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be: A) At least 50 centimetres B) At least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetres C) At least 60 centimetres D) At least 75 centimetres [(ID: 46) BGS ID: 100031]

C) At least 60 centimetres *On heavier than air aircraft registration markings should be at least 50cm under the wings and at least 30cm on the fuselage. *

Air Law The Convention of Rome 1933/1952 for the Unification of certain Rules Relating to Damage caused by Aircraft was established in order to define the liability in case of damage: A) To third parties on the surface. B) To other aircraft in case of a midair collision. C) Caused by Dangerous Goods that have been carried by an aircraft. D) To other aircraft while operating on ground. [(ID: 38) BGS ID: 100023]

C) Caused by Dangerous Goods that have been carried by an aircraft. *The Convention on Damage Caused by Foreign Aircraft to Third Parties on the Surface, commonly called the Rome Convention, is an international treaty, concluded at Rome on October 7, 1952. It entered into force on December 4, 1958. The Rome Convention allows a person on the ground in state A who is injured by an aircraft from state B to recover compensation. *

Air Law The Convention of Tokyo applies to damage: A) Caused in the territory of a contracting state or in a ship or aircraft registered there in, by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contracting state B) The above convention does not deal with this item C) Caused in the territory of a contrating state by any aircraft regardless the registration D) Only caused in the territory of a contracting state by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contracting state [(ID: 30) BGS ID: 100015]

C) Caused in the territory of a contrating state by any aircraft regardless the registration *The Tokyo Convention deals with 'hi-jacking'; i.e. offences committed on board the aircraft. The Tokyo Convention was held in 1963 and gave jurisdiction to the State of registration of an aircraft in the event of offences and criminal acts committed on board. It also empowered contracting states to take action in the event of a hijack.*

Air Law According to JAR-FCL, the aeroplane instructor categories recognised are: A) FI(A)/TRI(A)/CRI(A)/IRI(A) and SFI authorisation B) FE(A)/TRE(A)/CRE(A)/IRE(A) and SFI authorisation. C) FI(A)/TRI(A)CRE(A)/IRE(A) and SFI authorisation D) FI(A) and IRI(A). [(ID: 64) BGS ID: 100049]

C) FI(A)/TRI(A)CRE(A)/IRE(A) and SFI authorisation *Five instructor categories are recognised. (a) Flight instructor rating aeroplane (FI(A)). (b) Type rating instructor rating aeroplane (TRI(A)). (c) Class rating instructor rating aeroplane (CRI(A)). (d) Instrument rating instructor rating - aeroplane (IRI(A)). (e) Synthetic flight instructor authorisation aeroplane (SFI(A)).*

Air Law According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid subject to the: A) Laws of the State of registry B) Laws of the State in which is operated C) Laws of the State of registry and operation D) Requirements laid down by ICAO [(ID: 45) BGS ID: 100030]

C) Laws of the State of registry and operation *Annex 8 requires the publication for each aircraft limiting ranges of mass, mass distribution, floor loadings and centre of gravity positions. ICAO Annex 8 - Airworthiness of Aircraft "In the interest of safety, an aircraft must be designed, constructed and operated in compliance with the appropriate airworthiness requirements of the State of Registry of the aircraft. Consequently, the aircraft is issued with a Certificate of Airworthiness declaring that the aircraft is fit to fly." *

Air Law In JAR-FCL1, the Single Engine Piston (A) Class rating is established for Single Pilot Single Engine Aeroplanes not requiring a Type rating. It includes: A) Touring Motor Glider / TMG. B) All types of single-pilot, single-engine aeroplanes fitted with a turbojet engine. C) Microlights having fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic control surfaces acting in all three dimensions. D) Any other type of aeroplane if considered necessary. [(ID: 97) BGS ID: 100083]

C) Microlights having fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic control surfaces acting in all three dimensions. *Class ratings shall be established for single-pilot aeroplanes not requiring a type rating as follows: (1) all single-engine piston aeroplanes (land); (2) all single-engine piston aeroplanes (sea); (3) all touring motor gliders; (4) each manufacturer of single engine turbo-prop aeroplanes (land); (5) each manufacturer of single engine turbo-prop aeroplanes (sea); (6) all multi-engine piston aeroplanes (land); and (7) all multi-engine piston aeroplanes (sea).*

Air Law Some letter combinations shall not be used in registration marks. Which of the following combinations might be confused with an urgent or distress signal? A) XXX B) DDD C) RCC D) I I I [(ID: 41) BGS ID: 100026]

C) RCC *When letters are used for the registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be confused with five letter combinations used in the International Code of Signals, Part II, three letter combinations beginning with Q used in the Q Code, and with the distress signal SOS, or other urgent signals, for example XXX, PAN and TTT. *

Air Law In accordance with ICAO Annex 1, when a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the validity of the authorisation: A) Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence. B) Depends on the regulations of the contracting sate which renders valid the licence. C) Shall not extend beyond one year for ATPL and CPL. D) Is only considered for PPL. [(ID: 70) BGS ID: 100055]

C) Shall not extend beyond one year for ATPL and CPL. *ICAO rules permit a licence to be validated for the life of the licence. EASA rules permit validation for only one year.*

Air Law Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? A) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights B) Switching on and off four times the landing lights C) Switching on and off three times the landing lights D) Switching on and off four times the navigation lights [(ID: 114) BGS ID: 100101]

C) Switching on and off three times the landing lights *14. Constant switching on and off of landing and/or navigation lights should be a clue that something is not right and the aircraft needs to get on to the ground as soon as possible - but no other assistance is required at this stage.*

Air Law Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by: A) The Rome Convention B) The Chicago Convention C) The Warsaw Convention D) The Montreal Convention [(ID: 37) BGS ID: 100022]

C) The Warsaw Convention *The Convention on Damage Caused by Foreign Aircraft to Third Parties on the Surface, commonly called the Rome Convention, is an international treaty, concluded at Rome on October 7, 1952. It entered into force on December 4, 1958. The Rome Convention allows a person on the ground in state A who is injured by an aircraft from state B to recover compensation. *

Air Law The convention which deals with offences against penal law, is: A) The convention of Tokyo B) The convention of Warsaw C) The convention of Rome D) The convention of Madrid [(ID: 33) BGS ID: 100018]

C) The convention of Rome *Most of the conventions deal with civil law surrounding contracts between airlines and consigners or passengers but the Convention of Tokyodeals with criminal (penal) law including hijacking and hostage taking. *

Air Law When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if: A) The state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy B) The state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the aircraft is still airworthy C) The state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy D) The state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the aircraft is still airworthy [(ID: 43) BGS ID: 100028]

C) The state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy *The State where the aircraft is registered is responsible for its airworthiness standards. ICAO Annex 8 - Airworthiness of Aircraft "In the interest of safety, an aircraft must be designed, constructed and operated in compliance with the appropriate airworthiness requirements of the State of Registry of the aircraft. Consequently, the aircraft is issued with a Certificate of Airworthiness declaring that the aircraft is fit to fly."*

Air Law When letters are used for the registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the: A) Five letter combinations used in the international code of signals B) Four letter combinations beginning with Q C) Three letters combinations used in the international code of signals D) Letters used for ICAO identification documents [(ID: 40) BGS ID: 100025]

C) Three letters combinations used in the international code of signals *When letters are used for the registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be confused with five letter combinations used in the International Code of Signals , Part II, three letter combinations beginning with Q used in the Q Code, and with the distress signal SOS, or other urgent signals, for example XXX, PAN and TTT. *

Air Law According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of the holder of an unrestricted FI(A) rating are to conduct flight instruction for the issue of a CPL(A): A) Provided that the FI(A) has completed at least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot of aeroplanes including at least 200 hours of flight instruction B) Provided that the FI(A) has completed not less than 15 hours on the relevant type in the preceeding 12 months C) Without restriction D) Provided that the FI(A) has completed 200 hours of flight instruction [(ID: 66) BGS ID: 100051]

C) Without restriction *The privileges of the holder of an unrestricted FI(A) rating are to conduct flight instruction for the issue of a CPL(A), provided that the FI(A) has completed at least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot of aeroplanes including at least 200 hours of flight instruction.*

Air Law An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up by not less than ...... hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of a pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours are respectively : A) 250 hours and 100 hours B) 200 hours and 75 hours C) 200 hours and 100 hours D) 150 hours and 75 hours [(ID: 79) BGS ID: 100065]

D) 150 hours and 75 hours *Just numbers to remember: 250 hours, either as pilot in command or made up by not less than 100 hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of a pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. *

Air Law The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is: A) 1 year B) 6 months C) 5 years D) 2 years [(ID: 93) BGS ID: 100079]

D) 2 years *Under JAA (and EASA) rules the instrument rating is valid for one year.*

Air Law Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to the depositary governments. The denunciation shall take effect : A) 6 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments B) 4 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments C) 2 months following the date ICAO is informed D) 3 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments [(ID: 23) BGS ID: 100008]

D) 3 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments *Deviations from SARPs must be notified to ICAO who publish the deviation in a supplement to the relevant annex. Such deviations must be notified to ICAO within six months of ICAO publishing the SARP. Deviations are often notified in the form of an AIP. *

Air Law The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit: A) In full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence B) In full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence C) The flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence in accordance with the requirements of the licensing authority D) 50% of his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence [(ID: 84) BGS ID: 100070]

D) 50% of his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence *The applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than 250 hour, either as pilot-in-command, or made up by not less than 100 hours as pilot-in-command and the necessary flight time as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of a pilot-in-command, the duties and functions of pilot-in-command, provided the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the Licensing Authority.*

Air Law An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than: A) 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time. B) 100 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours of instrument ground time C) 150 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 75 hours of instrument ground time. D) 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 hours of instrument ground time. [(ID: 81) BGS ID: 100067]

D) 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 hours of instrument ground time. * The applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time.*

Air Law An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than: A) 100 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot B) 100 hours of night flight only as pilot in command C) 75 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot D) 75 hours of night time only as pilot in command [(ID: 82) BGS ID: 100068]

D) 75 hours of night time only as pilot in command *The applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than 100 hours of night flight as either pilot-in-command or as co-pilot.*

Air Law The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a synthetic flight trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of the total flight time of 1 500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to a maximum of : A) 100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer B) 100 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a basic instrument flight trainer C) 100 hours of which not more than 15 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer D) 75 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer [(ID: 83) BGS ID: 100069]

D) 75 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer *An applicant for an ATPL(A) shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes at least 1,500 hours of flight time of which a maximum of 100 hours may have been completed in a flight simulator. ICAO say not more than 25 hours of this may be done in a flight procedure trainer or synthetic flight trainer, the JAA do not list this last requirement but do require 500 hours of flight time on multi-pilot transport operations.*

Air Law The loading limitations shall include: A) All limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loading B) All limiting mass and centres of gravity C) All limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity D) All limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loading [(ID: 44) BGS ID: 100029]

D) All limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loading *Annex 8 requires the publication for each aircraft limiting ranges of mass, mass distribution, floor loadings and centre of gravity positions. ICAO Annex 8 - Airworthiness of Aircraft "In the interest of safety, an aircraft must be designed, constructed and operated in compliance with the appropriate airworthiness requirements of the State of Registry of the aircraft. Consequently, the aircraft is issued with a Certificate of Airworthiness declaring that the aircraft is fit to fly." *

Air Law Type ratings shall be established: A) For any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority B) Only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots C) Only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots and each type of helicopter D) All the answers are correct [(ID: 95) BGS ID: 100081]

D) All the answers are correct *Type Ratings shall be established for: (a) each type of aircraft certified for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots; (b) each type of helicopter certificated for single pilot operation except where a class rating has been issued; and (c) any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the Licensing Authority*

Air Law According to EASA Part-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating, including: A) All self.-sustaining gliders. B) All types of single-pilot, single-engine aeroplanes fitted with a turbojet engine. C) Microlights having fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic control surfaces acting in all three dimensions. D) Any other type of aeroplane if considered necessary. [(ID: 61) BGS ID: 100046]

D) Any other type of aeroplane if considered necessary. *Class ratings shall be established for single-pilot aeroplanes not requiring a type rating as follows: (1) all single-engine piston aeroplanes (land); (2) all single-engine piston aeroplanes (sea); (3) all touring motor gliders; (4) each manufacturer of single engine turbo-prop aeroplanes (land); (5) each manufacturer of single engine turbo-prop aeroplanes (sea); (6) all multi-engine piston aeroplanes (land); and (7) all multi-engine piston aeroplanes (sea). *

Air Law According to JAR-FCL, licence holders do not exercise the privileges of their licences, related ratings or authorisations at any time when they are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which might render them unable to safely exercise those privileges. They shall without undue delay seek the advice of the authority or AME when becoming aware of hospital or clinic admissions for: A) More than 12 hours B) More than 12 days C) More than one week D) Any period [(ID: 63) BGS ID: 100048]

D) Any period *If admitted to a hospital or clinic for any period exceeding 12 hours, the advice of the regulatory authority or an Aviation Medical Examiner shall be sought before the privileges of the licence are exercised. *

Air Law In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its track given in the current flight plan, action should be taken in order to: A) Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable. B) Climb or descent by 500 ft, inform the appropriate ATS unit. C) Maintain VMC, wait for instructions from the appropriate ATS unit. D) Notify the appropriate ATS unit immediately notifying the new track and to comply with instructions from ATS. [(ID: 108) BGS ID: 100095]

D) Notify the appropriate ATS unit immediately notifying the new track and to comply with instructions from ATS. *In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan track action shall be taken forthwith to adjust the heading of the aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable. *

Air Law According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of a newly qualified Flight Instructor are restricted to carrying out instruction under the supervision of a FI(A), approved for this purpose. The restrictions may be removed from the rating: A) On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A) rating has completed at least 100 hours flight instruction and , in addition, has supervised at least 25 student solo flights. B) On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A) rating has supervised at least 100 solo flights. C) On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A) rating has completed a competency test. D) On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A) rating has supervised at least 100 solo flights and completed a competency test. [(ID: 65) BGS ID: 100050]

D) On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A) rating has supervised at least 100 solo flights and completed a competency test. *Until the holder of a FI(A) rating has completed at least 100 hours flight instruction and, in addition, has supervised at least 25 student solo flights, the privileges of the rating are restricted. The restrictions will be removed from the rating when the above requirements have been met and on the recommendation of the supervising FI(A).*

Air Law Who is charged with the safe conduct of a flight? A) The pilot-in-command. B) The ATC controller whenever the aircraft is flying in controlled airspace. C) The aircraft owner. D) The airline operator. [(ID: 107) BGS ID: 100094]

D) The airline operator. *The aircraft commander is ultimately responsible for the safety of his aircraft.*

Air Law The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is: A) The convention of Tokyo B) The convention of Paris C) The convention of Rome D) The convention of Chicago [(ID: 32) BGS ID: 100017]

D) The convention of Chicago *The Convention on Offences and Certain Other Acts Committed On Board Aircraft, commonly called the Tokyo Convention, is an international treaty, concluded at Tokyo on 14 September 1963. It became effective on 04 December 1969, and has been widely ratified internationally. The Tokyo Convention deals with 'hi-jacking'; i.e. offences committed on board the aircraft. *

Air Law According to EASA Part FCL, an examiner's authorisation is valid for : A) Not more than three years B) Not more than two years C) The period of validity of the class/type rating. D) The period of validity of the medical certificate. [(ID: 90) BGS ID: 100076]

D) The period of validity of the medical certificate. *All instructor and examiner ratings are valid for a period of three years.*

Air Law The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with: A) Limitation of the operator's liability for damage caused to passengers and goods transported B) The regulation of transportation of dangerous goods C) Operator's licence for international scheduled aviation D) The security system at airports [(ID: 34) BGS ID: 100019]

D) The security system at airports *The Warsaw convention limited the liability of the carrier except in cases of gross negligence. *

Air Law The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by : A) The International Civil Aviation Organisation B) The state of registry and accepted by the International Telecommunication Union C) The International Telecommunication Union D) The state of registry [(ID: 48) BGS ID: 100033]

D) The state of registry *The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio call signs allocated to the International Civil Aviation Organization by the International Telecommunications Union. Note: Assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by the International Civil Aviation Organization. *

Air Law The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that: A) Taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ; B) Glider flying is performed outside the landing area; C) Landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only; D) This aerodrome is using parallel runways [(ID: 111) BGS ID: 100098]

D) This aerodrome is using parallel runways *A horizontal white dumb-bell when displayed in a signal area indicates that aircraft are required to land, take off and taxi on runways and taxiways only. The same horizontal white dumb-bell but with a black bar placed perpendicular to the shaft across each circular portion of the dumb-bell when displayed in a signal area indicates that aircraft are required to land and take off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need not be confined to runways and taxiways.*

Air Law The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio call signs allocated : A) To the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the International Telecommunication Union B) To state of the operator C) To the state of registry by the International Civil Aviation Organisation D) To the State of registry by the International Telecommunication Union [(ID: 49) BGS ID: 100034]

D) To the State of registry by the International Telecommunication Union *The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio call signs allocated to the International Civil Aviation Organization by the International Telecommunications Union. Note: Assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by the International Civil Aviation Organization *